Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 36 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. In microalbuminuria, the range of albuminuria is: A. 40-400 mg/ day B. 20-200 mg/day C. 10-100 mg/day D. 30-300 mg/ day 2 / 50 2. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. Radiocontrast media B. High protein feeding C. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus D. Administration of mannitol 3 / 50 3. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Systemic hypertension C. Acute pancreatitis D. Hepatorenal syndrome 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is false in nephritic-nephrotic syndrome? A. Moderate haematuria and moderate proteinuria are common B. SLE is a common aetiology C. Systemic hypertension is rare D. Majority of patients terminate into end-stage renal disease 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not a neuromuscular complication of uraemia? A. Myopathy B. Encephalopathy C. Neuropathy D. Myelopathy 6 / 50 6. All of the following are complications of chronic pyelonephritis except: A. Hypertension B. Chronic renal failure C. Renal calculi D. Septicaemia 7 / 50 7. Each kidney contains approximately: A. 10 million nephrons B. 1 million nephrons C. Hundred thousand nephrons D. 10 thousand nephrons 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is usually unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy? A. Membranous nephropathy B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Membranoproliferative nephropathy D. Focal glomerulosclerosis 9 / 50 9. A child with rickets, nephrocalcinosis, hyperchloraemic acidosis and alkaline urine is suffering from: A. Distal renal tubular acidosis B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Proximal renal tubular acidosis D. Vitamin D sensitive rickets 10 / 50 10. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Diabetes insipidus D. Hypercalcaemia 11 / 50 11. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Weil's disease B. Cisplatin-induced C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Abruptio placentae 12 / 50 12. Bilaterally palpable kidneys are found in alt except: A. Wilms' tumor B. Polycystic kidney C. Acromegaly D. Amyloidosis 13 / 50 13. In a severely uraemic patient, which of the following would indicate chronic renal failure? A. Hypertension B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Uremic neuropathy 14 / 50 14. All of the following drugs may produce nephrotic syndrome except: A. Colchicine B. Troxidone C. alpha-interferon D. Penicillamine 15 / 50 15. All of the following produce enuresis except: A. Type I diabetes mellitus B. Spina bifida C. Multiple sclerosis D. Bladder neck contracture 16 / 50 16. Complications of AGN include all except: A. Acute renal failure B. Hypertensive encephalopathy C. Respiratory tract infections D. Congestive cardiac failure 17 / 50 17. Diabetes mellitus complicated by nephrotic syndrome has all the following features except: A. Retinopathy B. Increased palsma renin activity C. Hypertension D. Initially GFR may be increased 18 / 50 18. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Renal transplant rejection B. Cyclophosphamide administration C. Pregnancy D. UTI by Proteus 19 / 50 19. Haemoptysis associated with renal failure is found in all except: A. Goodpasture's disease B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Henoch Schonlein purpura 20 / 50 20. The commonest presentation of renal cell carcinoma is: A. Palpable abdominal mass B. Distant metastasis C. Flank pain D. Haematuria 21 / 50 21. Normal urinary osmolality in mOsm/kg of water is approximately: A. 150-200 B. 400-700 C. 200-350 D. 200-350 22 / 50 22. Which is false regarding the adult polycystic disease of kidney? A. 75% have hypertension B. 30% have hepatic cysts C. Autosomal recessive inheritance D. 10% die from subarachnoid haemorrhage 23 / 50 23. Subendothelial dense deposits are found by electron microscopy in: A. Membranous glomerulopathy B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. Fabry's disease D. SLE 24 / 50 24. Serum add phosphatase level is increased in all except: A. Prostatic carcinoma B. Amyloidosis C. Hairy cell leukaemia D. Gaucher's disease 25 / 50 25. Green urine is seen in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Pseudomonas infection C. Black water fever D. Oxalate poisoning 26 / 50 26. Renal tubular acidosis may be due to: A. Captopril B. Methoxyflurane C. Streptozotocin D. Probenecid 27 / 50 27. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Lenticonus B. Thrombocytosis C. Hyperammonaemia D. Band keratopathy 28 / 50 28. In pregnancy-induced hypertension, which of the following suggests pre-eclampsia? A. Creatinine > 1.6 mg/ dl B. Uric acid >5.5 mg/ dl C. Urea >45 mg/ dl D. Diastolic BP >95 mm Hg 29 / 50 29. All of the following may be complicated by papillary necrosis except: A. Leprosy B. Macroglobulinaemia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Sickle cell anemia 30 / 50 30. Urinary clearance of IgG compared with transferrin is found to be <10 in: A. Focal glomerulosclerosis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Mesangial proliferative nephropathy D. Membranous nephropathy 31 / 50 31. Heavy proteinuria associated with haematuria is suggestive of: A. Papillary necrosis B. Renal vein thrombosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Renal artery thrombosis 32 / 50 32. Recurrent haematuria is not classically seen in: A. Berger's disease B. Sickle cell disease C. Diabetes mellitus D. Haemophilia 33 / 50 33. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Anasarca B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypertension D. Proteinuria 34 / 50 34. Nephrotic syndrome may be associated with hypertension in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) B. SLE C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 35 / 50 35. For a definitive diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux, the investigation of choice is: A. IVP B. Micturating cystourethrography C. Radionuclide studies D. Ultrasonography 36 / 50 36. Oliguria is: A. < 200 ml urine/24 h B. < 100 ml urine/24 h C. < 50 ml urine/24 h D. < 400 mL urine/24 h 37 / 50 37. In IgA nephropathy, IgA is deposited in: A. Renal papilla B. Glomerular mesangium C. Glomerular basement membrane D. Glomerular capillaries 38 / 50 38. AGN is not characterised by: A. Massive proteinuria B. Macroscopic haematuria C. Oliguria D. Systemic hypertension 39 / 50 39. Microscopic haematuria is characteristic of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Focal glomerulasclerosis C. Membranous nephropathy D. Thin basement membrane disease of kidney 40 / 50 40. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hematuria B. Absence of oedema C. Hypertension D. Response to corticosteroid 41 / 50 41. Balanoposthitis is not associated with: A. Trichomoniasis B. Peyronie's disease C. Phimosis D. Diabetes mellitus 42 / 50 42. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) B. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) C. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a guanidino compound? A. Creatinine B. Guanidino-succinic acid C. Carnitine D. Creatine 44 / 50 44. Positive Rothera’s test in urine is found in all except: A. Tyrosinosis B. Ketone bodies in urine C. Treatment with captopril D. Homocystinuria 45 / 50 45. Alport’s syndrome is associated with all except: A. Recurrent haematuria B. Interstitial foam cells C. Autosomal recessive inheritance D. Sensorineural deafness 46 / 50 46. Metastatic calcification is seen in all of the following organs except: A. Myocardium B. Brain C. Medium-sized blood vessels D. Cornea 47 / 50 47. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Massive proteinuria B. Diabetes mellitus C. Psychogenic polydipsia D. Severe dehydration 48 / 50 48. Which of the renal stones is radiolucent? A. Calcium oxalate B. Uric acid C. Triple phosphate D. Cystine stone 49 / 50 49. Struvite stone is usually a result of urinary infection by: A. Klebsiella B. Proteus C. Pseudomonas D. Staphylococcus 50 / 50 50. Which of the following does not produce red urine? A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Microscopic haematuria C. Haemoglobinuria D. Myoglobinuria LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology