Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 36 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. All are true regarding renal ischaemia except: A. Most marked in proximal tubules B. Patchy necrosis on biopsy C. Vasculitis is an etiology D. Disruption of tubular basement membrane 2 / 50 2. Commonest histological variety of nephrotic syndrome in adult is: A. Mesangial proliferative B. Membranous nephropathy C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Minimal change lesion 3 / 50 3. Complement C3 is characteristically low in all except: A. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. SLE 4 / 50 4. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal dominant 5 / 50 5. Diabetes mellitus complicated by nephrotic syndrome has all the following features except: A. Increased palsma renin activity B. Retinopathy C. Initially GFR may be increased D. Hypertension 6 / 50 6. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is not produced as a result of: A. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Dexamethasone 7 / 50 7. In microalbuminuria, the range of albuminuria is: A. 40-400 mg/ day B. 30-300 mg/ day C. 20-200 mg/day D. 10-100 mg/day 8 / 50 8. Haemoptysis associated with renal failure is found in all except: A. Goodpasture's disease B. Henoch Schonlein purpura C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula 9 / 50 9. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Lenticonus B. Hyperammonaemia C. Thrombocytosis D. Band keratopathy 10 / 50 10. All are true in bladder carcinoma except: A. Cigarette smoking is a predisposing factor B. Schistosoma haematobium produces transitional cell carcinoma C. Haematuria is the commonest presentation D. Predominantly affects males 11 / 50 11. Subendothelial dense deposits are found by electron microscopy in: A. SLE B. Membranous glomerulopathy C. Fabry's disease D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 12 / 50 12. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Diabetes insipidus D. Hypercalcaemia 13 / 50 13. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Hydrochlorthiazide B. Spironolactone C. Bumetanide D. Ethacrynic acid 14 / 50 14. Which of the following metal is not responsible for the development of nephrotic syndrome? A. Gold B. Mercury C. Iron D. Lead 15 / 50 15. Fatty cast is often diagnostic of: A. End-stage renal disease B. Papillary necrosis C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome 16 / 50 16. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Gouty nephropathy B. Papillary necrosis C. Hypercalcemic nephropathy D. Medullary cystic kidney 17 / 50 17. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Systemic hypertension C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Hepatorenal syndrome 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is usually unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy? A. Focal glomerulosclerosis B. Membranoproliferative nephropathy C. Membranous nephropathy D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 19 / 50 19. Acidic urine is produced in: A. Chronic renal failure B. High vegetarian diet C. Renal tubular acidosis D. UTI by Proteus 20 / 50 20. Cure of chronic prostatitis is done by: A. Quinolones B. Total prostatectomy C. Macrolides D. 3rd generation cephalosporins 21 / 50 21. Waxy casts are: A. Frequently seen in UTI B. Specific for acute glomerulonephritis C. Virtually not found in normal urine D. Usually not found in nephritic syndrome 22 / 50 22. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Acute renal failure B. Hydronephrosis C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome 23 / 50 23. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. Uric acid B. Na+ C. K+ D. Creatinine 24 / 50 24. Normal urinary osmolality in mOsm/kg of water is approximately: A. 200-350 B. 150-200 C. 400-700 D. 200-350 25 / 50 25. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Chronic nephritis C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome 26 / 50 26. All of the following may be complicated by papillary necrosis except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Macroglobulinaemia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 27 / 50 27. All of the following may develop nephrolithiasis except: A. Intestinal hyperoxaluria B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Proximal renal tubular acidosis D. Primary hyperparathyroidism 28 / 50 28. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Atelectasis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Hypoproteinaemia D. Peritonitis 29 / 50 29. Alport’s syndrome is associated with all except: A. Interstitial foam cells B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. Recurrent haematuria D. Sensorineural deafness 30 / 50 30. Green urine is seen in: A. Pseudomonas infection B. Alkaptonuria C. Oxalate poisoning D. Black water fever 31 / 50 31. All are true in urethral syndrome except: A. Antibiotics are always indicated B. No bacteria are cultured from urine C. Predominantly affects females D. Post-coital urethral congestion may be an etiology 32 / 50 32. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Mild fever B. Pyaemia C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) 33 / 50 33. Radiolucent nephrolithiasis is found in stones composed of: A. Cystine B. Uric acid C. Calcium oxalate D. Magnesium ammonium phosphate 34 / 50 34. IgA nephropathy commonly presents with: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Hematuria C. Systemic hypertension D. Acute renal failure 35 / 50 35. All are true in ‘dialysis dementia’ except: A. Related to aluminium toxicity B. Seizures C. Myoclonus D. Raised intracranial tension 36 / 50 36. In a patient with diabetes mellitus having hypertension, serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dl and a plasma potassium of 5.8 mEq/L are best treated with which antihypertensive agent? A. ACE inhibitor B. Furosemide C. Amiloride D. Angiotensin II receptor blocker 37 / 50 37. Renal vein thrombosis in adults is seen in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Amyloidosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Horseshoe kidney 38 / 50 38. Bartter syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Loop Diuretics B. Thiazide Diuretics C. Acetazolamide D. Potassium sparing diuretics 39 / 50 39. Gitelman syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Thiazide diuretics B. Potassium sparing diuretics C. Loop Diuretics D. Acetazolamide 40 / 50 40. The most important diagnostic point in favour of CRF by USG is: A. Diminished ultrasonic density of cortex B. Renal pelvis full of urine C. Loss of corticomedullary differentiation D. Increase in size of kidney 41 / 50 41. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Ochronosis C. Chronic renal failure D. Sickle cell anemia 42 / 50 42. A child with rickets, nephrocalcinosis, hyperchloraemic acidosis and alkaline urine is suffering from: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Proximal renal tubular acidosis C. Vitamin D sensitive rickets D. Distal renal tubular acidosis 43 / 50 43. Nocturia is not found in: A. Vesicoureteral reflux B. Salt-losing nephropathy C. Prostatism D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) 44 / 50 44. Oliguria is: A. < 400 mL urine/24 h B. < 200 ml urine/24 h C. < 50 ml urine/24 h D. < 100 ml urine/24 h 45 / 50 45. Chronic interstitial nephritis may lead to all of the following except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypertension C. Acidosis D. Small kidneys 46 / 50 46. Which of the following can decrease the antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors? A. Furosemide B. NSAIDs C. Digoxin D. Thiazides 47 / 50 47. The commonest cause of renal vein thrombosis in a child is: A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Dehydration 48 / 50 48. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Ureterocolic anastomosis B. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage C. Fulminant hepatocellular failure D. Heart failure 49 / 50 49. ‘Fruity odour’ in urine is found in: A. Urinary tract infection (UTI) B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Alkaptonuria D. Chyluria 50 / 50 50. Bosentan is recognised as a: A. Serotonin uptake inhibitor B. Calcium sensitiser C. Endothelin antagonist D. TNF-antagonist LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology