Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Waxy casts are: A. Specific for acute glomerulonephritis B. Virtually not found in normal urine C. Frequently seen in UTI D. Usually not found in nephritic syndrome 2 / 50 2. Fanconi syndrome may arise from all except: A. Wilson's disease B. Cystinosis C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosemia 3 / 50 3. Renal tubular acidosis may be due to: A. Streptozotocin B. Captopril C. Probenecid D. Methoxyflurane 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not a guanidino compound? A. Creatinine B. Carnitine C. Creatine D. Guanidino-succinic acid 5 / 50 5. Renal vein thrombosis in adults is seen in: A. Amyloidosis B. Horseshoe kidney C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Interstitial nephritis 6 / 50 6. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Chronic nephritis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome 7 / 50 7. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. Na+ B. K+ C. Uric acid D. Creatinine 8 / 50 8. Renal tubular acidosis is not seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sickle cell disease C. Medullary sponge kidney D. Galactosemia 9 / 50 9. Anti-tubule basement membrane antibodies may be found in treatment with: A. Methicillin B. Streptomycin C. Spironolactone D. Metoprolol 10 / 50 10. In a severely uraemic patient, which of the following would indicate chronic renal failure? A. Uremic neuropathy B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypertension 11 / 50 11. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Medullary sponge kidney B. Alport's syndrome C. Fabry's disease D. Nail-patella syndrome 12 / 50 12. Nephrotic syndrome may be associated with hypertension in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. SLE 13 / 50 13. Cure of chronic prostatitis is done by: A. Total prostatectomy B. 3rd generation cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Quinolones 14 / 50 14. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Weil's disease B. Cisplatin-induced C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Abruptio placentae 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not added to urine by tubular secretion? A. H+ B. K+ C. Urea D. Creatinine 16 / 50 16. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Hyperammonaemia B. Band keratopathy C. Lenticonus D. Thrombocytosis 17 / 50 17. Alport’s syndrome is associated with all except: A. Interstitial foam cells B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. Sensorineural deafness D. Recurrent haematuria 18 / 50 18. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hematuria B. Hypertension C. Absence of oedema D. Response to corticosteroid 19 / 50 19. ‘Complete’ anuria is found in: A. Acute renal failure B. Chronic Kidney disease C. Diffuse cortical necrosis D. Acute gastroenteritis 20 / 50 20. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. Accumulation of tryptophan B. Corneal dystrophy C. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase D. Premature coronary artery disease 21 / 50 21. Complications of AGN include all except: A. Hypertensive encephalopathy B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Acute renal failure D. Respiratory tract infections 22 / 50 22. Balanoposthitis is not associated with: A. Trichomoniasis B. Phimosis C. Peyronie's disease D. Diabetes mellitus 23 / 50 23. The commonest cause of renal vein thrombosis in a child is: A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome B. Dehydration C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Acute glomerulonephritis 24 / 50 24. All of the following produce enuresis except: A. Type I diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Spina bifida D. Bladder neck contracture 25 / 50 25. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Ochronosis C. Chronic renal failure D. Sickle cell anemia 26 / 50 26. AGN is not characterised by: A. Macroscopic haematuria B. Massive proteinuria C. Oliguria D. Systemic hypertension 27 / 50 27. Hyperuricaemia is not a feature of: A. Lactic acidosis B. Active psoriasis C. Fanconi's syndrome D. Nicotinic acid therapy 28 / 50 28. The commonest presentation of renal cell carcinoma is: A. Haematuria B. Flank pain C. Distant metastasis D. Palpable abdominal mass 29 / 50 29. For a definitive diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux, the investigation of choice is: A. IVP B. Micturating cystourethrography C. Ultrasonography D. Radionuclide studies 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is false regarding Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein? A. Glycoprotein in nature B. Does not arise from plasma C. An abnormal urinary protein D. Secreted by renal tubules 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a cause of ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Papillary necrosis C. Renal tuberculosis D. Cystitis 32 / 50 32. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. Radiocontrast media B. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus C. Administration of mannitol D. High protein feeding 33 / 50 33. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl B. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia C. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly D. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well 34 / 50 34. Isosthenuria is found in: A. Nephrolithiasis B. Nail-patella syndrome C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Chronic renal failure 35 / 50 35. Which is not true in orthostatic proteinuria? A. Seen in tall persons B. Maybe related to increased lumbar lordosis C. Indicates a serious underlying disease D. Primarily occurs in upright posture 36 / 50 36. Haemoptysis associated with renal failure is found in all except: A. Goodpasture's disease B. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Henoch Schonlein purpura 37 / 50 37. Each kidney contains approximately: A. Hundred thousand nephrons B. 10 thousand nephrons C. 10 million nephrons D. 1 million nephrons 38 / 50 38. Bartter syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Loop Diuretics B. Acetazolamide C. Thiazide Diuretics D. Potassium sparing diuretics 39 / 50 39. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Sickle cell nephropathy B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Renal tuberculosis D. Papillary necrosis 40 / 50 40. All of the following may give rise to Fanconi’s syndrome except: A. Cystinosis B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Haemochromatosis 41 / 50 41. Struvite stone is usually a result of urinary infection by: A. Klebsiella B. Staphylococcus C. Pseudomonas D. Proteus 42 / 50 42. All are true in bladder carcinoma except: A. Cigarette smoking is a predisposing factor B. Schistosoma haematobium produces transitional cell carcinoma C. Predominantly affects males D. Haematuria is the commonest presentation 43 / 50 43. All of the following drugs may produce nephrotic syndrome except: A. Troxidone B. Colchicine C. alpha-interferon D. Penicillamine 44 / 50 44. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Acute pancreatitis C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Congestive cardiac failure 45 / 50 45. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Proteinuria B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypertension D. Anasarca 46 / 50 46. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Atelectasis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Peritonitis D. Hypoproteinaemia 47 / 50 47. After how many years of onset of type 1 or 2 diabetes, microalbuminuria appears? A. 5-10 years B. 1-5 years C. 15-20 years D. 10-15 years 48 / 50 48. Which is false regarding Berger’s disease? A. Reduced Complement level B. Recurrent haematuria C. Raised Serum IgA D. It may represent a form of Henoch-Schonlein purpura 49 / 50 49. Which of the renal stones is radiolucent? A. Triple phosphate B. Uric acid C. Cystine stone D. Calcium oxalate 50 / 50 50. All are recognised causes of chronic renal failure (CRF) except: A. Snakebite B. Hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. 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