Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 4 votes, 0 avg 30 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Depression C. Paranoia D. Phobia 2 / 266 2. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Oculomotor palsy 3 / 266 3. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Pramipexole C. Rasagiline D. Tiagabine 4 / 266 4. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Wilson’s disease C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Galactosaemia 5 / 266 5. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hypocapnia 6 / 266 6. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Tonic seizures 7 / 266 7. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Digitalis toxicity C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Cerebellar infarction 8 / 266 8. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 9 / 266 9. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 10 / 266 10. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson’s disease C. Alcoholism D. Cerebellar disorder 11 / 266 11. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Early Alzheimer’s disease D. Duodenal stenosis 12 / 266 12. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 13 / 266 13. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Papilledema D. Infarction of occipital lobe 14 / 266 14. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Convulsions C. SIADH D. Optic neuritis 15 / 266 15. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 16 / 266 16. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Myotonic pupil 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Apraxia C. Ataxia D. Areflexia 18 / 266 18. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Diazepam D. Topiramate 19 / 266 19. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Pompholyx C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Shagreen patch 20 / 266 20. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Ataxia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 21 / 266 21. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 22 / 266 22. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Scoliosis 23 / 266 23. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Putamen 24 / 266 24. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Pneumococcus C. E. coli D. Meningococcous 25 / 266 25. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. May be associated with malignancy D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron’s sign 26 / 266 26. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Aortic incompetence 27 / 266 27. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Polyneuropathy C. Loss of accommodation D. Abducens palsy 28 / 266 28. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Infantile spasm 29 / 266 29. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Lead 30 / 266 30. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral thrombosis 31 / 266 31. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Epilepsy D. Transient ischemic attack 32 / 266 32. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Wernicke’s encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 33 / 266 33. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Tunnel vision C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Central scotoma 34 / 266 34. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Coma D. Hemiparesis 35 / 266 35. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Dementia C. Coprolalia D. Relief by haloperidol 36 / 266 36. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Viral meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 37 / 266 37. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Lathyrism D. Periodic paralysis 38 / 266 38. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Strangers C. Pain D. High places 39 / 266 39. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically ‘neurofibrillary tangles’ are found B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Biochemically cortical’ choline acetyltransferase is increased 40 / 266 40. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 41 / 266 41. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. IV mannitol C. IV frusemide D. Oral glycerol 42 / 266 42. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Lithium 43 / 266 43. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Hypoxia D. Malignant hypertension 44 / 266 44. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 45 / 266 45. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 46 / 266 46. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Takayasu’s disease D. Coarctation of aorta 47 / 266 47. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Pentoxifylline C. Ticlopidine D. Clopidogrel 48 / 266 48. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 49 / 266 49. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 50 / 266 50. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hyponatremia 51 / 266 51. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Temporal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Frontal lobe 52 / 266 52. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin’s loculation syndrome C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 53 / 266 53. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Ataxia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Hypothyroidism 54 / 266 54. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Two-point localisation C. Graphesthesia D. Perceptual rivalry 55 / 266 55. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 56 / 266 56. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Kuru C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 57 / 266 57. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Early onset 58 / 266 58. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington’s disease B. Alzheimer’s disease C. ‘Normal-pressure’ hydrocephalus D. Head trauma in professional boxers 59 / 266 59. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell’s palsy C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Syringobulbia 60 / 266 60. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hemicranial headache C. Common in women D. Hereditary predisposition 61 / 266 61. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 62 / 266 62. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg’s syndrome B. Oesophagitis C. Acute renal failure D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 63 / 266 63. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Nerve conduction study 64 / 266 64. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Sertraline C. Fluvoxamine D. Fluoxetine 65 / 266 65. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Unequal pupil 66 / 266 66. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Internal capsule 67 / 266 67. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Pituitary tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Posterior fossa tumors 68 / 266 68. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 69 / 266 69. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 70 / 266 70. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 71 / 266 71. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral diplegia D. Motor neuron disease 72 / 266 72. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum’s disease B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 73 / 266 73. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Tetanus D. Quinsy 74 / 266 74. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Has a good prognosis in children D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 75 / 266 75. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Gynaecomastia C. Galactorrhoea D. Parkinsonism 76 / 266 76. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C4, 5 77 / 266 77. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Neurofibroma D. Spinal epidural abscess 78 / 266 78. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Cataract 79 / 266 79. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 80 / 266 80. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Sudden onset C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Babinski’s sign 81 / 266 81. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down’s syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Turner’s syndrome D. Noonan’s syndrome 82 / 266 82. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myelopathy D. Myopathy 83 / 266 83. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cervical spondylosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia 84 / 266 84. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Ataxia 85 / 266 85. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Paraesthesia C. Seizures D. Dysphasia 86 / 266 86. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 87 / 266 87. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Ptosis C. Testicular atrophy D. Frontal baldness 88 / 266 88. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Confabulation 89 / 266 89. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 90 / 266 90. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Olfactory groove C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Over visual cortex 91 / 266 91. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Carotid artery occlusion 92 / 266 92. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 93 / 266 93. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Diarrhoea C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 94 / 266 94. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal 95 / 266 95. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Limb shortening 96 / 266 96. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Leukodystrophy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 97 / 266 97. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Organophosphorus poisoning 98 / 266 98. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Presence of nystagmus 99 / 266 99. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 100 / 266 100. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Dura matter 101 / 266 101. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Extensor plantar response D. Masked facies 102 / 266 102. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. McArdle’s disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Steroid myopathy 103 / 266 103. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock’s sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski’s sign D. Rossolimo’s sign 104 / 266 104. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 105 / 266 105. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 106 / 266 106. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Positive Queckenstedt’s test C. Increased CSF pressure D. High protein content 107 / 266 107. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Petit mal epilepsy 108 / 266 108. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Alzheimer’s disease 109 / 266 109. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Dolichocephaly D. Platybasia 110 / 266 110. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Autoimmunity C. Bacteria D. Toxin 111 / 266 111. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Diminished auditory acuity 112 / 266 112. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Hypoglycaemic coma 113 / 266 113. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysphagia 114 / 266 114. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Weber-Christian disease C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Tuberous sclerosis 115 / 266 115. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 116 / 266 116. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Sleep paralysis C. Cataplexy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 117 / 266 117. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 118 / 266 118. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 119 / 266 119. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Equivocal plantar response 120 / 266 120. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Oculomotor palsy C. Hutchinson’s pupil D. Horner’s syndrome 121 / 266 121. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner’s syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 122 / 266 122. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure sensory stroke D. Pure motor hemiparesis 123 / 266 123. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Occipital lobe 124 / 266 124. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Polymyositis 125 / 266 125. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 126 / 266 126. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 127 / 266 127. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Ciliary ganglion C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Oculomotor nerve 128 / 266 128. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Brainstem 129 / 266 129. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vth C. Xth D. Vllth 130 / 266 130. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumor 131 / 266 131. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 132 / 266 132. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Epilepsy C. Encephalitis D. Febrile 133 / 266 133. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison’s disease B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Hypervitaminosis D 134 / 266 134. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Sensory functions C. Cerebellar functions D. Proprioception 135 / 266 135. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Pseudoclonus C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 136 / 266 136. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Tremor C. Hyperkinesia D. Normal reflexes 137 / 266 137. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Amphetamines C. Cocaine D. Flumazenil 138 / 266 138. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Fasciculations C. Clonus D. Babinski’s sign 139 / 266 139. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Myopathy 140 / 266 140. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myositis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 141 / 266 141. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones D. Cephalosporins 142 / 266 142. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia 143 / 266 143. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Mass reflex C. Flexor plantar response D. Increased tone in flexor groups 144 / 266 144. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Cyclophosphamide D. Interferon 145 / 266 145. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Perspiration C. Confabulation D. Visual hallucinations 146 / 266 146. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 147 / 266 147. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 148 / 266 148. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Athletes C. Manual labourers D. Myotonia 149 / 266 149. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 150 / 266 150. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich’s ataxia C. Poliomyelitis D. Neurofibromatosis 151 / 266 151. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Dantrolene C. Methoxyflurane D. Halothane 152 / 266 152. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-13 D. Trisomy-21 153 / 266 153. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Aphasia D. Agraphia 154 / 266 154. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Red nucleus C. Substantia nigra D. Putamen 155 / 266 155. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Looking to the roof C. Looking in front D. Reading a book 156 / 266 156. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T2 C. T1 D. T4 157 / 266 157. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Gaucher’s disease 158 / 266 158. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Weil’s disease D. Atypical pneumonia 159 / 266 159. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Huntington’s chorea D. Shy-Drager syndrome 160 / 266 160. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Convulsions D. Headache 161 / 266 161. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Snakebite C. Poliomyelitis D. Myasthenia gravis 162 / 266 162. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cervical spine D. Cortex 163 / 266 163. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 164 / 266 164. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Tabes dorsalis 165 / 266 165. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Absent tendon reflexes 166 / 266 166. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Retention of urine C. Absent deep reflexes D. Hypertonia 167 / 266 167. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Livedo reticularis C. Ankle oedema D. Seizures 168 / 266 168. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Chorea 169 / 266 169. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 170 / 266 170. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Mania 171 / 266 171. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Obesity 172 / 266 172. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud’s disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic neuropathy 173 / 266 173. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Arrhythmia D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 174 / 266 174. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 175 / 266 175. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Amiodarone C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 176 / 266 176. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Ventral pons C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 177 / 266 177. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Paralysis 178 / 266 178. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 179 / 266 179. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. Autonomic response 180 / 266 180. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 181 / 266 181. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 182 / 266 182. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Meningioma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 183 / 266 183. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents vasospasm 184 / 266 184. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trigeminal nerve D. Trochlear nerve 185 / 266 185. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 186 / 266 186. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Mental retardation 187 / 266 187. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Periorbital pain C. Male dominance D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 188 / 266 188. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Absence of root pain D. Viral or post-vaccinal 189 / 266 189. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. MRI scan D. PET scan 190 / 266 190. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Pick’s disease 191 / 266 191. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Embolic C. Hemorrhagic D. Inflammatory 192 / 266 192. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Monotonous speech C. Dysarthria D. Aphasia 193 / 266 193. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Sensory ataxia 194 / 266 194. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Noonan’s syndrome C. Down’s syndrome D. Klinefelter’s syndrome 195 / 266 195. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Hypermetria C. Titubation D. Dysrhythmokinesis 196 / 266 196. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 197 / 266 197. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. IV mannitol 198 / 266 198. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 199 / 266 199. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Hemiballismus C. Myoclonus D. Dystonia 200 / 266 200. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Drop attacks C. Diplopia D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 201 / 266 201. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Medulla C. Upper pons D. Lower pons 202 / 266 202. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Meningism 203 / 266 203. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen’s disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 204 / 266 204. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 205 / 266 205. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington’s chorea 206 / 266 206. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 207 / 266 207. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. INH C. Vincristine D. Methotrexate 208 / 266 208. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Reserpine C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 209 / 266 209. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Stereognosis 210 / 266 210. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 211 / 266 211. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Malignant exophthalmos D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 212 / 266 212. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 213 / 266 213. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5 D. L5,S1 214 / 266 214. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 215 / 266 215. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo’s syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumour D. Raised intracranial pressure 216 / 266 216. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Poliomyelitis 217 / 266 217. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright’s disease 218 / 266 218. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral infarction 219 / 266 219. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing’s syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 220 / 266 220. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 221 / 266 221. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Emetine C. Lovastatin D. Febuxostat 222 / 266 222. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 223 / 266 223. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing’s syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism 224 / 266 224. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Lacunar infarction C. Cerebral atrophy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 225 / 266 225. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Cervical rib C. Myopathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 226 / 266 226. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Friedreich’ s ataxia D. Taboparesis 227 / 266 227. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 228 / 266 228. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 229 / 266 229. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myopathy 230 / 266 230. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Papilloedema D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 231 / 266 231. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Felbamate C. Lubeluzole D. Vigabatrin 232 / 266 232. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Trypanosomiasis C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Encephalitis lethargica 233 / 266 233. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Ocular myopathy C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Multiple sclerosis 234 / 266 234. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Constricted pupil C. Complete ptosis D. Enophthalmos 235 / 266 235. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Sensory dysfunction 236 / 266 236. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 237 / 266 237. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Wilson’s disease 238 / 266 238. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Amantadine D. Selegiline 239 / 266 239. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 240 / 266 240. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin’s loculation syndrome D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 241 / 266 241. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski’s sign B. Glossitis C. Ankle clonus D. Anemia 242 / 266 242. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Asteroid bodies 243 / 266 243. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 244 / 266 244. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Infraspinatus C. Pectoralis major D. Calf muscles 245 / 266 245. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Pontine glioma 246 / 266 246. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Flexor plantar response C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 247 / 266 247. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 248 / 266 248. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 249 / 266 249. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Cerebral embolism D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 250 / 266 250. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Leucodystrophy C. Cerebral palsy D. Alzheimer’s disease 251 / 266 251. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Diplopia 252 / 266 252. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Blindness C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Convulsions 253 / 266 253. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Friedreich’s ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Syringomyelia 254 / 266 254. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Mikulicz’s syndrome 255 / 266 255. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Giant cell arteritis C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Trigeminal neuralgia 256 / 266 256. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 257 / 266 257. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Psychosis C. Myodonus D. Migraine 258 / 266 258. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 259 / 266 259. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 260 / 266 260. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Poliomyelitis C. Restlessness D. Transverse myelitis 261 / 266 261. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 262 / 266 262. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Horner’s syndrome C. Pyramidal lesion D. Hiccups 263 / 266 263. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Aphasia 264 / 266 264. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie’s syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa’s syndrome 265 / 266 265. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 266 / 266 266. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Facial nerve palsy D. Pyramidal signs LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Dr Abu-Ahmed Dr Abu Ahmed, an Internist & Graphic Designer, has brought this website to help Medical Students in the subject of Internal Medicine. Articles: 25 Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology
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