Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 2 / 266 2. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 3 / 266 3. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 4 / 266 4. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Osteomalacia D. Ataxia 5 / 266 5. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 6 / 266 6. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 7 / 266 7. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Rubella panencephalitis 8 / 266 8. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 9 / 266 9. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 10 / 266 10. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Lower pons C. Medulla D. Midbrain 11 / 266 11. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Dementia in AIDS 12 / 266 12. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 13 / 266 13. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Absence of root pain 14 / 266 14. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Ptosis C. Frontal baldness D. Brachycephaly 15 / 266 15. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Midbrain 16 / 266 16. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Polymyositis D. Duodenal stenosis 17 / 266 17. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Myositis 18 / 266 18. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Reading a book 19 / 266 19. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 20 / 266 20. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Astrocytoma D. Meningioma 21 / 266 21. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 22 / 266 22. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Waddling gait C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Argyll Robertson pupil 23 / 266 23. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 24 / 266 24. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Infantile spasm C. Complex partial D. Petit mal 25 / 266 25. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vth C. IIIrd D. Vllth 26 / 266 26. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 27 / 266 27. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Deafness D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 28 / 266 28. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Spastic tongue D. Dysphagia 29 / 266 29. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Cerebral embolism D. Venous sinus thrombosis 30 / 266 30. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Trypanosomiasis D. Encephalitis lethargica 31 / 266 31. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Coma C. Retention of urine D. Absent deep reflexes 32 / 266 32. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Vigabatrin C. Lubeluzole D. Lamotrigine 33 / 266 33. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 34 / 266 34. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 35 / 266 35. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Pindolol D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 36 / 266 36. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Chorea 37 / 266 37. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 38 / 266 38. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Hyperpyrexia 39 / 266 39. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Probenecid C. Amiodarone D. Chloroquine 40 / 266 40. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 3 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 24 hours 41 / 266 41. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Venous thrombosis 42 / 266 42. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Pseudoclonus C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Exaggerated deep reflex 43 / 266 43. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. E. coli C. Meningococcous D. H. influenzae 44 / 266 44. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 45 / 266 45. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Anhidrosis C. Constricted pupil D. Complete ptosis 46 / 266 46. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 47 / 266 47. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Myopathy 48 / 266 48. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Phobia 49 / 266 49. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Tunnel vision D. Homonymous hemianopia 50 / 266 50. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 51 / 266 51. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Sudden onset D. Babinski's sign 52 / 266 52. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 53 / 266 53. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Parietal 54 / 266 54. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Botulism D. Periodic paralysis 55 / 266 55. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Aortic incompetence 56 / 266 56. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Equivocal plantar response C. Absent superficial reflex D. Brisk deep reflexes 57 / 266 57. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 58 / 266 58. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 59 / 266 59. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 60 / 266 60. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 61 / 266 61. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Peripheral neuropathy 62 / 266 62. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 63 / 266 63. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Epilepsy 64 / 266 64. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Babinski's sign 65 / 266 65. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 66 / 266 66. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Diplopia D. Drop attacks 67 / 266 67. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Ethosuximide 68 / 266 68. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 69 / 266 69. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Mass reflex D. Flexor plantar response 70 / 266 70. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 71 / 266 71. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Convulsions D. Blindness 72 / 266 72. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Mental retardation C. Seizures D. Phakomatosis 73 / 266 73. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 74 / 266 74. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Hepatic precoma C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 75 / 266 75. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Syringomyelia 76 / 266 76. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Apraxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 77 / 266 77. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Meningioma 78 / 266 78. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 79 / 266 79. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Papilledema C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 80 / 266 80. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Pons 81 / 266 81. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Brain tumour C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 82 / 266 82. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Athletes C. Manual labourers D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 83 / 266 83. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Pontine glioma D. Phenytoin toxicity 84 / 266 84. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Nerve conduction study C. Electromyography D. Muscle enzyme study 85 / 266 85. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Apraxia C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 86 / 266 86. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Galactorrhoea C. Acromegaly D. Parkinsonism 87 / 266 87. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. MRI scan D. CT scan 88 / 266 88. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 89 / 266 89. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 90 / 266 90. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Facial nerve D. Vagus nerve 91 / 266 91. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Selegiline D. Trihexyphenidyl 92 / 266 92. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Gross pedal oedema 93 / 266 93. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Alcohol D. Myxoedema 94 / 266 94. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 95 / 266 95. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Hypoxia D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 96 / 266 96. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 97 / 266 97. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 98 / 266 98. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 99 / 266 99. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. INH 100 / 266 100. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 101 / 266 101. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Sensory functions C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 102 / 266 102. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Acute renal failure C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Oesophagitis 103 / 266 103. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Dolichocephaly C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 104 / 266 104. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Autonomic response C. Motor response D. Verbal response 105 / 266 105. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral hemorrhage 106 / 266 106. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 107 / 266 107. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Macrolides C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 108 / 266 108. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Alzheimer's disease 109 / 266 109. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Pituitary tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Posterior fossa tumors 110 / 266 110. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Trimipramine C. Chlorpromazine D. Benzodiazepine 111 / 266 111. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Myopathy 112 / 266 112. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Tetanus C. Quinsy D. Diphtheria 113 / 266 113. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 114 / 266 114. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 115 / 266 115. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C3, 4 C. C4, 5 D. C6, 7 116 / 266 116. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hypothyroidism C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Ataxia 117 / 266 117. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumor D. Multiple sclerosis 118 / 266 118. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Takayasu's disease 119 / 266 119. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Periorbital pain D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 120 / 266 120. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright's disease C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 121 / 266 121. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 122 / 266 122. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Weber-Christian disease 123 / 266 123. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Deep coma D. Hyperpyrexia 124 / 266 124. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Confabulation C. Tremor D. Perspiration 125 / 266 125. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Cerebral palsy D. Alzheimer's disease 126 / 266 126. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Rasagiline 127 / 266 127. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Visual hallucinations C. Passivity feelings D. Early onset 128 / 266 128. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Nystagmus C. Aphasia D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 129 / 266 129. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Gaucher's disease 130 / 266 130. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 131 / 266 131. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. TOCP poisoning D. Amyloidosis 132 / 266 132. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. IV frusemide D. Oral glycerol 133 / 266 133. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Seizures 134 / 266 134. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Apraxia 135 / 266 135. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 136 / 266 136. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Meningism 137 / 266 137. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Seizures C. Paraesthesia D. Diplopia 138 / 266 138. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Horner's syndrome C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 139 / 266 139. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 140 / 266 140. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Poliomyelitis C. Rabies D. Myasthenia gravis 141 / 266 141. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 142 / 266 142. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5 C. L5,S1 D. S1 143 / 266 143. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Inflammatory D. Hemorrhagic 144 / 266 144. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Corticosteroid C. Cyclophosphamide D. Immunoglobulin 145 / 266 145. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 146 / 266 146. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hypocapnia 147 / 266 147. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Duchenne myopathy 148 / 266 148. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Multiple sclerosis 149 / 266 149. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Cerebral cortex 150 / 266 150. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Carbamazepine C. Haloperidol D. Clomipramine 151 / 266 151. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Phenytoin C. Atenolol D. Verapamil 152 / 266 152. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Horner's syndrome C. Hiccups D. Ataxia 153 / 266 153. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. May be associated with malignancy 154 / 266 154. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Immune disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 155 / 266 155. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Dantrolene C. Methoxyflurane D. Halothane 156 / 266 156. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Huge ascites C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 157 / 266 157. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 158 / 266 158. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Toxin 159 / 266 159. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Hysteria 160 / 266 160. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Retrograde amnesia C. Confabulation D. Defect in learning 161 / 266 161. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Dystonia C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 162 / 266 162. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Presence of nystagmus C. Confabulation D. Loss of recent memory 163 / 266 163. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 164 / 266 164. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 165 / 266 165. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 166 / 266 166. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Vestibular lesion 167 / 266 167. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Onycholysis D. Diarrhoea 168 / 266 168. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Hydrosis + miosis 169 / 266 169. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 170 / 266 170. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Cluster headache C. SIADH D. Polycythaemia vera 171 / 266 171. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Fluoxetine 172 / 266 172. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 173 / 266 173. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 174 / 266 174. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral diplegia D. Parkinsonism 175 / 266 175. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Pompholyx C. Adenoma sebaceum D. White spots over trunk and limbs 176 / 266 176. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Restlessness D. Transverse myelitis 177 / 266 177. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Xanthochromia D. Increased CSF pressure 178 / 266 178. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Unequal pupil 179 / 266 179. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Normal reflexes C. Rigidity D. Hyperkinesia 180 / 266 180. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Motor neuron disease 181 / 266 181. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left atrial myxoma C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 182 / 266 182. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Severe heart failure 183 / 266 183. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysphonia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysarthria 184 / 266 184. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 185 / 266 185. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Arrhythmia D. Cardiac tamponade 186 / 266 186. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Cervical spine D. Brainstem 187 / 266 187. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 188 / 266 188. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Ataxia D. Urinary incontinence 189 / 266 189. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 190 / 266 190. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis major D. Calf muscles 191 / 266 191. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Organophosphorus poisoning 192 / 266 192. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Cerebellar infarction C. Digitalis toxicity D. Aura phase of migraine 193 / 266 193. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 194 / 266 194. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Ependymoma D. Glioma 195 / 266 195. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington's chorea 196 / 266 196. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe 197 / 266 197. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 198 / 266 198. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Optic nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 199 / 266 199. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Coprolalia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Multiple tics 200 / 266 200. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia D. Cervical spondylosis 201 / 266 201. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pendular nystagmus C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pseudolymphoma 202 / 266 202. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 203 / 266 203. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 204 / 266 204. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Over visual cortex C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Sylvian fissure 205 / 266 205. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 206 / 266 206. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 207 / 266 207. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Bell's palsy C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 208 / 266 208. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Coma 209 / 266 209. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 210 / 266 210. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 211 / 266 211. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Babinski's sign 213 / 266 213. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Myasthenia Gravis 214 / 266 214. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Syphilis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ethambutol 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Perceptual rivalry C. Vibration sensation D. Two-point localisation 216 / 266 216. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 217 / 266 217. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Huntington's chorea D. Punch-drunk syndrome 218 / 266 218. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basal ganglia infarction 219 / 266 219. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 220 / 266 220. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Chronic motor neuron disease 221 / 266 221. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 222 / 266 222. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Convulsions D. SIADH 223 / 266 223. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hereditary predisposition C. Common in women D. Hemicranial headache 224 / 266 224. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 225 / 266 225. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebellar infarction C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Epilepsy 226 / 266 226. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic neuropathy 227 / 266 227. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Snout reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Sucking reflex 228 / 266 228. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Hyponatraemia C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Wilson's disease 229 / 266 229. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 230 / 266 230. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Lead D. Arsenic 231 / 266 231. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sarcoidosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Infectious mononucleosis 232 / 266 232. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Lax abdominal wall C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 233 / 266 233. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Thiocyanates 234 / 266 234. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 235 / 266 235. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Negri bodies 236 / 266 236. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypermetria C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 237 / 266 237. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 238 / 266 238. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Mamillary bodies D. Temporal lobe 239 / 266 239. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 240 / 266 240. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 241 / 266 241. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Animals C. Strangers D. Pain 242 / 266 242. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Glossitis D. Anemia 243 / 266 243. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Pineal body C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 244 / 266 244. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 245 / 266 245. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Stereognosis C. Nutrition of muscles D. Involuntary movements 246 / 266 246. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Psychosis C. Migraine D. Myodonus 247 / 266 247. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Cocaine C. Carbamazepine D. Amphetamines 248 / 266 248. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Altered consciousness D. Non-projectile vomiting 249 / 266 249. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Superior sagittal sinus 250 / 266 250. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 251 / 266 251. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents rebleeding 252 / 266 252. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Head injury D. Transient ischemic attack 253 / 266 253. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 254 / 266 254. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 255 / 266 255. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Aspirin C. Pentoxifylline D. Clopidogrel 256 / 266 256. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Polyneuropathy D. Abducens palsy 257 / 266 257. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cataract 258 / 266 258. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Sleep paralysis 259 / 266 259. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Neurofibroma 260 / 266 260. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Lovastatin D. Febuxostat 261 / 266 261. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Addison's disease 262 / 266 262. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 263 / 266 263. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Ciliary ganglion C. Oculomotor nerve D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 264 / 266 264. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. After epileptic seizure C. Hysteria D. Tetanus 265 / 266 265. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Lathyrism 266 / 266 266. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Hysteria C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral haemorrhage LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology