Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Motor response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 2 / 266 2. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Organophosphorus poisoning 3 / 266 3. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Tabes dorsalis 4 / 266 4. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 5 / 266 5. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 6 / 266 6. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 7 / 266 7. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Botulism 8 / 266 8. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 9 / 266 9. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Pseudoclonus 10 / 266 10. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 11 / 266 11. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Corpus striatum C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 12 / 266 12. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 13 / 266 13. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 14 / 266 14. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 15 / 266 15. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Coprolalia C. Dementia D. Multiple tics 16 / 266 16. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Rasagiline C. Ropinirole D. Pramipexole 17 / 266 17. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 18 / 266 18. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypocapnia C. Hypoxia D. Hyponatremia 19 / 266 19. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 20 / 266 20. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Complete ptosis C. Enophthalmos D. Constricted pupil 21 / 266 21. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 22 / 266 22. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Chaddock's sign 23 / 266 23. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Alzheimer's disease C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 24 / 266 24. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 25 / 266 25. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Midbrain lesion 26 / 266 26. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 27 / 266 27. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Trauma C. Encephalitis D. Epilepsy 28 / 266 28. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 29 / 266 29. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Tremor C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 30 / 266 30. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Acute renal failure C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 31 / 266 31. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cerebral cortex 32 / 266 32. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Duchenne myopathy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 33 / 266 33. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Aura phase of migraine C. Digitalis toxicity D. Cerebellar infarction 34 / 266 34. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 35 / 266 35. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Frontal 36 / 266 36. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Pineal body C. Basal ganglia D. Dura matter 37 / 266 37. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Patent ductus arteriosus 38 / 266 38. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 39 / 266 39. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 40 / 266 40. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 41 / 266 41. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 42 / 266 42. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Epilepsy D. Cerebellar infarction 43 / 266 43. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 44 / 266 44. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 45 / 266 45. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 46 / 266 46. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 47 / 266 47. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Infantile spasm 48 / 266 48. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Astrocytoma D. Metastatic 49 / 266 49. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Masked facies C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Emotional incontinence 50 / 266 50. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Advanced pregnancy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Huge ascites 51 / 266 51. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. CT scan D. PET scan 52 / 266 52. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Osteomalacia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Hyperglycaemia 53 / 266 53. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Myotonic pupil C. Old age D. Organophosphorus poisoning 54 / 266 54. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 55 / 266 55. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe 56 / 266 56. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Dolichocephaly C. Platybasia D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 57 / 266 57. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 58 / 266 58. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Brain tumor C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 59 / 266 59. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Sensory ataxia C. Increased tone D. Intact proprioception 60 / 266 60. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Normokalaemia 61 / 266 61. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Spastic tongue D. Dysphagia 62 / 266 62. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Galactosaemia D. Haemochromatosis 63 / 266 63. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Aortic incompetence C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Parkinsonism 64 / 266 64. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. May be associated with malignancy D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 65 / 266 65. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 66 / 266 66. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 67 / 266 67. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Passivity feelings C. Depression D. Early onset 68 / 266 68. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 69 / 266 69. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 70 / 266 70. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Papilloedema C. Nystagmus D. Aphasia 71 / 266 71. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Tetanus D. Quinsy 72 / 266 72. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Polymyositis C. Myopathy D. Motor neuron disease 73 / 266 73. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Neurofibroma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Spinal epidural abscess 74 / 266 74. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. T4 D. C8 75 / 266 75. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 3 weeks C. 96 hours D. 2 weeks 76 / 266 76. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Calcification within a lesion C. Pituitary tumors D. Posterior fossa tumors 77 / 266 77. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Dystonia C. Hemiballismus D. Myoclonus 78 / 266 78. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Pain C. High places D. Strangers 79 / 266 79. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 80 / 266 80. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Two-point localisation C. Graphesthesia D. Perceptual rivalry 81 / 266 81. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor spasm D. Flexor plantar response 82 / 266 82. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Testicular atrophy C. Brachycephaly D. Frontal baldness 83 / 266 83. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Refsum's disease C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 84 / 266 84. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Cord compression 85 / 266 85. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased deep reflexes C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 86 / 266 86. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 87 / 266 87. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Small, spastic tongue C. Sudden onset D. Brisk jaw jerk 88 / 266 88. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 89 / 266 89. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Convulsions C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Focal neuro deficit 90 / 266 90. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Midbrain 91 / 266 91. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 92 / 266 92. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 93 / 266 93. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. IV mannitol C. 5% dextrose D. Glucocorticoids 94 / 266 94. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Aphasia C. Apraxia D. Acalculia 95 / 266 95. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syphilis 96 / 266 96. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C5, 6 C. C4, 5 D. C3, 4 97 / 266 97. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. AV malformations D. Systemic hypertension 98 / 266 98. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 99 / 266 99. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Thalamus C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 100 / 266 100. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 101 / 266 101. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 102 / 266 102. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Amantadine C. Selegiline D. Levodopa 103 / 266 103. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Proximal muscle weakness 104 / 266 104. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 105 / 266 105. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Scoliosis C. Optic glioma D. Acoustic neuroma 106 / 266 106. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Fasciculations D. Spasticity 107 / 266 107. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell's palsy C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Syringobulbia 108 / 266 108. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Absent deep reflexes C. Hypertonia D. Retention of urine 109 / 266 109. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Electroconvulsive therapy 110 / 266 110. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 111 / 266 111. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 112 / 266 112. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Macrolides C. Quinolones D. Aminoglycosides 113 / 266 113. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Cerebellar disorder D. Amblyopia 114 / 266 114. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Mania C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Schizophrenia 115 / 266 115. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Viral meningitis 116 / 266 116. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Facial nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 117 / 266 117. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Non-projectile vomiting 118 / 266 118. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Steroid myopathy 119 / 266 119. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents rebleeding D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 120 / 266 120. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 121 / 266 121. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Unequal pupil 122 / 266 122. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Thiocyanates C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 123 / 266 123. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Immune disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Metabolic disorder 124 / 266 124. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Pindolol D. Reserpine 125 / 266 125. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 126 / 266 126. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 127 / 266 127. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Weakness and spasticity D. Absent superficial reflex 128 / 266 128. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 129 / 266 129. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Monotonous speech C. Dysarthria D. Aphasia 130 / 266 130. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Has a good prognosis in children C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 131 / 266 131. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Metoclopramide-induced 132 / 266 132. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Kuru 133 / 266 133. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 134 / 266 134. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Venous thrombosis 135 / 266 135. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Valproate C. Diazepam D. Ethosuximide 136 / 266 136. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Sturge-Weber disease C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 137 / 266 137. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 138 / 266 138. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 139 / 266 139. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 140 / 266 140. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Valproic acid C. Alcohol D. Myxoedema 141 / 266 141. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Immunoglobulin 142 / 266 142. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Lathyrism C. Botulinus poisoning D. Elapidae group snake bite 143 / 266 143. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 144 / 266 144. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 145 / 266 145. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Stereognosis C. Involuntary movements D. Nutrition of muscles 146 / 266 146. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Chorea C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 147 / 266 147. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 148 / 266 148. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Vigabatrin C. Lubeluzole D. Felbamate 149 / 266 149. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 150 / 266 150. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Sturge-Weber disease 151 / 266 151. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Galactorrhoea C. Gynaecomastia D. Parkinsonism 152 / 266 152. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Diabetes mellitus 153 / 266 153. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Myositis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Tabes dorsalis 154 / 266 154. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Tay-Sachs disease 155 / 266 155. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Titubation D. Hypertonia 156 / 266 156. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Autoimmunity D. Toxin 157 / 266 157. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myelopathy C. Myopathy D. Encephalitis 158 / 266 158. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Clomipramine C. Carbamazepine D. Lithium 159 / 266 159. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 160 / 266 160. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Areflexia C. Ataxia D. Apraxia 161 / 266 161. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Vincristine D. Alcohol 162 / 266 162. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluoxetine C. Paroxetine D. Fluvoxamine 163 / 266 163. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Confabulation C. Loss of immediate recall D. Defect in learning 164 / 266 164. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Hyperkinesia C. Tremor D. Normal reflexes 166 / 266 166. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 167 / 266 167. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Over visual cortex C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Sylvian fissure 168 / 266 168. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Fourth ventricle 169 / 266 169. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Clopidogrel D. Pentoxifylline 170 / 266 170. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Severe heart failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 171 / 266 171. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 172 / 266 172. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Manual labourers D. Athletes 173 / 266 173. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Abducens palsy 174 / 266 174. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Hutchinson's pupil 175 / 266 175. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 176 / 266 176. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Hypothyroidism D. Thrombocytopenia 177 / 266 177. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Gross pedal oedema 178 / 266 178. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 179 / 266 179. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 180 / 266 180. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hypokalemia D. Deep coma 181 / 266 181. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Optic nerve D. Trochlear nerve 182 / 266 182. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 183 / 266 183. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Ataxia C. Hiccups D. Horner's syndrome 184 / 266 184. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Dementia C. Ataxia D. Urinary incontinence 185 / 266 185. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 186 / 266 186. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Pseudoparkinsonism 187 / 266 187. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. INH 188 / 266 188. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Aphasia C. Facial weakness D. Coma 189 / 266 189. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Calf muscles C. Deltoid D. Infraspinatus 190 / 266 190. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Paraesthesia 191 / 266 191. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 192 / 266 192. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Mental retardation C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Retinitis pigmentosa 193 / 266 193. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 194 / 266 194. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich's ataxia 195 / 266 195. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Myasthenia Gravis 196 / 266 196. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Facial nerve D. Vagus nerve 197 / 266 197. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Dementia in AIDS 198 / 266 198. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Carbamazepine D. Flumazenil 199 / 266 199. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Apraxia 200 / 266 200. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 201 / 266 201. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Malignant hypertension D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 202 / 266 202. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Mania C. Phobia D. Depression 203 / 266 203. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 204 / 266 204. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 205 / 266 205. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 206 / 266 206. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. White spots over trunk and limbs 207 / 266 207. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Mania C. Cluster headache D. SIADH 208 / 266 208. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 209 / 266 209. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pendular nystagmus C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pseudolymphoma 210 / 266 210. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 211 / 266 211. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 212 / 266 212. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Inflammatory C. Hemorrhagic D. Embolic 213 / 266 213. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Brain tumour D. Diabetes mellitus 214 / 266 214. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Diplopia 215 / 266 215. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Sarcoidosis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 216 / 266 216. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Reading a book C. Looking to the roof D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 217 / 266 217. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Central scotoma D. Bitemporal hemianopi 218 / 266 218. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 219 / 266 219. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diarrhoea C. Ataxia D. Onycholysis 220 / 266 220. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Confabulation C. Presence of nystagmus D. Loss of recent memory 221 / 266 221. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Ciliary ganglion D. Sympathetic nervous system 222 / 266 222. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 223 / 266 223. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Froin's loculation syndrome 224 / 266 224. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 225 / 266 225. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 226 / 266 226. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Upper pons C. Medulla D. Midbrain 227 / 266 227. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Chloroquine C. Probenecid D. Amiodarone 228 / 266 228. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Verapamil C. Sumatriptan D. Atenolol 229 / 266 229. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 230 / 266 230. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 231 / 266 231. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Zidovudine C. Emetine D. Febuxostat 232 / 266 232. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 233 / 266 233. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 234 / 266 234. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Caudate nucleus C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 235 / 266 235. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5,S1 C. S1 D. L5 236 / 266 236. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Enteric fever D. Weil's disease 237 / 266 237. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Polycystic kidney D. Takayasu's disease 238 / 266 238. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Optic neuritis C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. SIADH 239 / 266 239. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Amyloidosis 240 / 266 240. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Cataract C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multiple sclerosis 241 / 266 241. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Motor neuron disease 242 / 266 242. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 243 / 266 243. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Hypothermia C. Paralysis D. Pin-point pupil 244 / 266 244. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Subdural hematoma C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Trypanosomiasis 245 / 266 245. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Myodonus C. Chorea D. Psychosis 246 / 266 246. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Fatty liver C. Ankle oedema D. Livedo reticularis 247 / 266 247. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Negri bodies D. Asteroid bodies 248 / 266 248. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 249 / 266 249. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Tetanus C. Meningism D. Hysteria 250 / 266 250. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Common migraine has aura D. Hereditary predisposition 251 / 266 251. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cervical spine C. Brainstem D. Cortex 252 / 266 252. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Epilepsy 253 / 266 253. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Pyramidal signs C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Facial nerve palsy 254 / 266 254. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Increased CSF pressure C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. Xanthochromia 255 / 266 255. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Radial nerve palsy D. Poliomyelitis 256 / 266 256. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Pons 257 / 266 257. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 258 / 266 258. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 259 / 266 259. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Diminished auditory acuity 260 / 266 260. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cerebral palsy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 261 / 266 261. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 262 / 266 262. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypercalcemia 263 / 266 263. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Muscle enzyme study C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle biopsy 264 / 266 264. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Cardiac tamponade C. Arrhythmia D. Tight aortic stenosis 265 / 266 265. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Waddling gait C. Sensory dysfunction D. Argyll Robertson pupil 266 / 266 266. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Myopathy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology