Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 26 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Ataxia C. Areflexia D. Apraxia 2 / 266 2. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 3 / 266 3. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 4 / 266 4. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Nasal regurgitation D. Spastic tongue 5 / 266 5. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Xth C. IIIrd D. Vllth 6 / 266 6. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Caudate nucleus C. Substantia nigra D. Putamen 7 / 266 7. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C5, 6 C. C3, 4 D. C4, 5 8 / 266 8. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. EMG D. Cerebellar functions 9 / 266 9. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Aphasia C. Apraxia D. Acalculia 10 / 266 10. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 11 / 266 11. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher’s disease B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 12 / 266 12. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 13 / 266 13. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 14 / 266 14. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Babinski’s sign C. Spasticity D. Clonus 15 / 266 15. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 16 / 266 16. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 17 / 266 17. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Malignant hypertension C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 18 / 266 18. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Muscle biopsy C. Electromyography D. Nerve conduction study 19 / 266 19. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich’s ataxia D. Poliomyelitis 20 / 266 20. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 21 / 266 21. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 22 / 266 22. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Choroid plexus C. Dura matter D. Pineal body 23 / 266 23. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral infarction 24 / 266 24. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 25 / 266 25. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Rabies D. Snakebite 26 / 266 26. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 27 / 266 27. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Loss of immediate recall C. Retrograde amnesia D. Defect in learning 28 / 266 28. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan’s syndrome B. Turner’s syndrome C. Klinefelter’s syndrome D. Down’s syndrome 29 / 266 29. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Huntington’s chorea D. Shy-Drager syndrome 30 / 266 30. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Cord compression 31 / 266 31. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 32 / 266 32. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Scoliosis D. Meningioma 33 / 266 33. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Addison’s disease 34 / 266 34. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 35 / 266 35. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Clopidogrel D. Pentoxifylline 36 / 266 36. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson’s disease B. Alcoholism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 37 / 266 37. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 38 / 266 38. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski’s sign B. Chaddock’s sign C. Rossolimo’s sign D. Gonda sign 39 / 266 39. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Ataxia 40 / 266 40. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Neurofibroma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Patchy arachnoiditis 41 / 266 41. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Mental retardation 42 / 266 42. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pinealomas C. Wernicke’s encephalopathy D. Cerebral haemorrhage 43 / 266 43. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 44 / 266 44. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 45 / 266 45. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically ‘neurofibrillary tangles’ are found B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Biochemically cortical’ choline acetyltransferase is increased 46 / 266 46. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Horner’s syndrome C. Hiccups D. Ataxia 47 / 266 47. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Hyperpyrexia 48 / 266 48. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Advanced pregnancy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 49 / 266 49. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 50 / 266 50. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Astrocytoma 51 / 266 51. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Ropinirole C. Rasagiline D. Pramipexole 52 / 266 52. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1 53 / 266 53. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypocapnia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypotension 54 / 266 54. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Aortic incompetence C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 55 / 266 55. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Autoimmunity C. Bacteria D. Toxin 56 / 266 56. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Cerebral embolism D. Venous sinus thrombosis 57 / 266 57. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Atenolol C. Sumatriptan D. Verapamil 58 / 266 58. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Monotonous speech C. Dysarthria D. Aphasia 59 / 266 59. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Leukodystrophy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 60 / 266 60. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common migraine has aura C. Common in women D. Hemicranial headache 61 / 266 61. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Rheumatic fever C. Wilson’s disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 62 / 266 62. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Bladder involvement is very late 63 / 266 63. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. SIADH C. Optic neuritis D. Pseudobulbar palsy 64 / 266 64. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Systemic hypertension D. Emotional excitement 65 / 266 65. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Periodic paralysis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 66 / 266 66. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Megaloblastic anemia 67 / 266 67. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Presence of nystagmus C. Confabulation D. Loss of recent memory 68 / 266 68. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Pinealomas 69 / 266 69. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 70 / 266 70. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 71 / 266 71. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Onycholysis 72 / 266 72. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Lax abdominal wall C. Obesity D. Hysteria 73 / 266 73. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Multiple tics D. Dementia 74 / 266 74. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Benzodiazepine C. Trimipramine D. Chlorpromazine 75 / 266 75. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Drop attacks 76 / 266 76. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Galactorrhoea 77 / 266 77. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. MRI scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. CT scan 78 / 266 78. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright’s disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 79 / 266 79. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Mania 80 / 266 80. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Intact proprioception D. Sensory ataxia 81 / 266 81. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. C8 C. T2 D. T4 82 / 266 82. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 83 / 266 83. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 84 / 266 84. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Chronic motor neuron disease 85 / 266 85. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Wasting of muscles C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Proximal muscle weakness 86 / 266 86. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Manual labourers C. Myotonia D. Athletes 87 / 266 87. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Coarctation of aorta C. Takayasu’s disease D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 88 / 266 88. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Hypothermia 89 / 266 89. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Epilepsy C. Febrile D. Trauma 90 / 266 90. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 91 / 266 91. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Immune disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 92 / 266 92. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Frontal 93 / 266 93. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Mental retardation D. Anencephaly 94 / 266 94. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 95 / 266 95. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. IV mannitol C. 5% dextrose D. Glucocorticoids 96 / 266 96. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 3 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 24 hours 97 / 266 97. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Elapidae snake bite D. Myasthenia gravis 98 / 266 98. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 99 / 266 99. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Lathyrism 100 / 266 100. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 101 / 266 101. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Froin’s loculation syndrome C. Meningism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 102 / 266 102. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Inferior sagittal sinus 103 / 266 103. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington’s chorea B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Post-encephalitic 104 / 266 104. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 105 / 266 105. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Syphilis 106 / 266 106. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson’s disease D. Haemochromatosis 107 / 266 107. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 108 / 266 108. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hyperkalemia 109 / 266 109. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Hemorrhagic C. Demyelinating D. Inflammatory 110 / 266 110. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Anemia C. Babinski’s sign D. Ankle clonus 111 / 266 111. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Nystagmus D. Papilloedema 112 / 266 112. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Hypertonia C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Titubation 113 / 266 113. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Haloperidol 114 / 266 114. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Sensory dysfunction D. Argyll Robertson pupil 115 / 266 115. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Early Alzheimer’s disease 116 / 266 116. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down’s syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Noonan’s syndrome D. Turner’s syndrome 117 / 266 117. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Arrhythmia D. Tight aortic stenosis 118 / 266 118. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia D. Multiple sclerosis 119 / 266 119. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 120 / 266 120. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Diminished auditory acuity D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 121 / 266 121. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Horner’s syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 122 / 266 122. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Cerebellar disorder C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 123 / 266 123. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle’s disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Steroid myopathy 124 / 266 124. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Trypanosomiasis 125 / 266 125. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa’s syndrome B. Gillespie’s syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 126 / 266 126. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Gross pedal oedema D. Myxoedema 127 / 266 127. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Tone and power C. Involuntary movements D. Stereognosis 128 / 266 128. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Babinski’s sign D. Sudden onset 129 / 266 129. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Thrombocytopenia 130 / 266 130. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Vibration sensation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Two-point localisation 131 / 266 131. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 132 / 266 132. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Constricted pupil C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 133 / 266 133. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Bell’s palsy D. Syringobulbia 134 / 266 134. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 135 / 266 135. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Hysteria D. Peripheral neuropathy 136 / 266 136. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 137 / 266 137. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. Pneumococcus C. E. coli D. H. influenzae 138 / 266 138. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 139 / 266 139. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trigeminal nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Facial nerve 140 / 266 140. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 141 / 266 141. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Acromegaly 142 / 266 142. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 143 / 266 143. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. After epileptic seizure C. Meningism D. Tetanus 144 / 266 144. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Cyclophosphamide D. Interferon 145 / 266 145. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick’s disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 146 / 266 146. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. May be associated with malignancy C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron’s sign 147 / 266 147. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Lacunar infarction 148 / 266 148. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Brachycephaly D. Ptosis 149 / 266 149. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Epilepsy C. Cataplexy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 150 / 266 150. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Diplopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 151 / 266 151. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Succinylcholine 152 / 266 152. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Mikulicz’s syndrome D. Leprosy 153 / 266 153. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 154 / 266 154. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Internal capsule 155 / 266 155. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Apraxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 156 / 266 156. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Meningioma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Acoustic neuroma 157 / 266 157. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo’s syndrome B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumour 158 / 266 158. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 159 / 266 159. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Ethambutol D. Chloroquine 160 / 266 160. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 161 / 266 161. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Depression C. Early onset D. Passivity feelings 162 / 266 162. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Digitalis toxicity C. Cerebellar infarction D. Aura phase of migraine 163 / 266 163. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Carotid artery occlusion 164 / 266 164. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Putamen 165 / 266 165. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Vincristine 166 / 266 166. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe 167 / 266 167. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 168 / 266 168. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 169 / 266 169. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 170 / 266 170. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Kuru D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 171 / 266 171. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Pectoralis major C. Deltoid D. Calf muscles 172 / 266 172. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer’s disease 173 / 266 173. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Valproic acid C. Alcohol D. Myxoedema 174 / 266 174. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Medulla C. Upper pons D. Lower pons 175 / 266 175. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Migraine C. Myodonus D. Chorea 176 / 266 176. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Mass reflex C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 177 / 266 177. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Myotonic pupil 178 / 266 178. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Over visual cortex C. Olfactory groove D. Cerebello-pontine angle 179 / 266 179. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 180 / 266 180. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Aflatoxin C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 181 / 266 181. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 182 / 266 182. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ocular myopathy 183 / 266 183. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents rebleeding 184 / 266 184. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 185 / 266 185. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 186 / 266 186. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 187 / 266 187. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 188 / 266 188. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Oculomotor nerve C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 189 / 266 189. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson’s pupil B. Horner’s syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 190 / 266 190. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-21 C. Turner’s syndrome D. Trisomy-13 191 / 266 191. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Corpus striatum 192 / 266 192. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Livedo reticularis C. Ankle oedema D. Fatty liver 193 / 266 193. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Viral meningitis 194 / 266 194. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Oesophagitis C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Wallenberg’s syndrome 195 / 266 195. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Loss of accommodation 196 / 266 196. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich’ s ataxia 197 / 266 197. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Leucodystrophy C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Cerebral palsy 198 / 266 198. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Amphetamines C. Cocaine D. Carbamazepine 199 / 266 199. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Calcification within a lesion 200 / 266 200. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Negri bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Lewy bodies 201 / 266 201. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Papilledema D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 202 / 266 202. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypercalcemia 203 / 266 203. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Blindness C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Focal neuro deficit 204 / 266 204. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Motor neuron disease 205 / 266 205. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Equivocal plantar response C. Weakness and spasticity D. Absent superficial reflex 206 / 266 206. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Brain tumor C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 207 / 266 207. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Tabes dorsalis 208 / 266 208. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Chorea D. Myoclonus 209 / 266 209. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 210 / 266 210. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 211 / 266 211. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 212 / 266 212. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Emetine C. Febuxostat D. Zidovudine 213 / 266 213. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Infantile spasm C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 214 / 266 214. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Hypertonia C. Retention of urine D. Absent deep reflexes 216 / 266 216. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. High places C. Pain D. Strangers 217 / 266 217. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Sarcoidosis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 218 / 266 218. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Vincristine C. INH D. Methotrexate 219 / 266 219. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen’s disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 220 / 266 220. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure sensory stroke 221 / 266 221. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 222 / 266 222. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. May occur spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. Quite often remits spontaneously 223 / 266 223. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Periorbital pain D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 224 / 266 224. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Urinary incontinence C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 225 / 266 225. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Mania C. Paranoia D. Depression 226 / 266 226. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Macrolides C. Quinolones D. Aminoglycosides 227 / 266 227. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Coma C. Aphasia D. Hemiparesis 228 / 266 228. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Raynaud’s disease D. Leprosy