Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Cortex 2 / 266 2. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Old age C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Application of pilocarpine drops 3 / 266 3. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Absent superficial reflex C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Weakness and spasticity 4 / 266 4. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Poliomyelitis 5 / 266 5. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Dantrolene C. Halothane D. Methoxyflurane 6 / 266 6. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 7 / 266 7. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1 8 / 266 8. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Paraesthesia 9 / 266 9. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Tone and power C. Nutrition of muscles D. Involuntary movements 10 / 266 10. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyponatremia 11 / 266 11. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral thrombosis 12 / 266 12. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Alcohol C. Myxoedema D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 13 / 266 13. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Lovastatin C. Febuxostat D. Zidovudine 14 / 266 14. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Tuberculosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 15 / 266 15. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Malignant hypertension C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 16 / 266 16. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 17 / 266 17. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Phenytoin C. Sumatriptan D. Atenolol 18 / 266 18. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cerebral palsy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 19 / 266 19. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Parietal C. Frontal D. Temporal 20 / 266 20. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe 21 / 266 21. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myasthenia gravis 22 / 266 22. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 23 / 266 23. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Loss of recent memory C. Presence of nystagmus D. Confabulation 24 / 266 24. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Alcohol withdrawal 25 / 266 25. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Platybasia C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 26 / 266 26. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Looking to the roof C. Looking in front D. Reading a book 27 / 266 27. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Nitrofurantoin D. Methotrexate 28 / 266 28. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 29 / 266 29. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Weber-Christian disease 30 / 266 30. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 31 / 266 31. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Infraspinatus C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 32 / 266 32. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Cervical rib D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 33 / 266 33. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Deep reflexes are depressed 34 / 266 34. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Steroid myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 35 / 266 35. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Digitalis toxicity 36 / 266 36. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Venous sinus thrombosis 37 / 266 37. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Tonic seizures 38 / 266 38. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypermetria D. Hypertonia 39 / 266 39. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Apraxia 40 / 266 40. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Athetosis C. Chorea D. Tetany 41 / 266 41. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Ropinirole 42 / 266 42. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Coma 43 / 266 43. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 44 / 266 44. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Spastic tongue D. Nasal regurgitation 45 / 266 45. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 46 / 266 46. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cervical spondylosis C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Duchenne myopathy 47 / 266 47. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 48 / 266 48. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Duodenal stenosis 49 / 266 49. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Putamen D. Caudate nucleus 50 / 266 50. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 51 / 266 51. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Dysarthria C. Aphasia D. Monotonous speech 52 / 266 52. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Bulbar palsy C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 53 / 266 53. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle biopsy C. Electromyography D. Muscle enzyme study 54 / 266 54. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Embolic C. Inflammatory D. Demyelinating 55 / 266 55. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 56 / 266 56. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Hyperpyrexia 57 / 266 57. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Coprolalia C. Multiple tics D. Relief by haloperidol 58 / 266 58. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 59 / 266 59. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 60 / 266 60. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Diazepam C. Ethosuximide D. Topiramate 61 / 266 61. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 62 / 266 62. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV mannitol C. IV quinine D. 5% dextrose 63 / 266 63. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Felbamate C. Vigabatrin D. Lubeluzole 64 / 266 64. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 65 / 266 65. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Livedo reticularis C. Fatty liver D. Seizures 66 / 266 66. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Hypothyroidism 67 / 266 67. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Syphilis 68 / 266 68. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 69 / 266 69. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Hyperkinesia C. Rigidity D. Tremor 70 / 266 70. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Amblyopia C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Cerebellar disorder 71 / 266 71. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Ankle clonus C. Glossitis D. Anemia 72 / 266 72. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Arrhythmia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tight aortic stenosis 73 / 266 73. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Increased tone 74 / 266 74. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Confabulation C. Loss of immediate recall D. Retrograde amnesia 75 / 266 75. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Cerebral diplegia 76 / 266 76. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Ependymoma C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 77 / 266 77. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 78 / 266 78. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Eye opening C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 79 / 266 79. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 80 / 266 80. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Mental retardation C. Limb shortening D. Anencephaly 81 / 266 81. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Midbrain lesion 82 / 266 82. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 83 / 266 83. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 84 / 266 84. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 85 / 266 85. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-18 D. Turner's syndrome 86 / 266 86. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Sudden onset C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Small, spastic tongue 87 / 266 87. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Deep coma C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 88 / 266 88. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 89 / 266 89. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Loss of accommodation 90 / 266 90. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia D. Cervical spondylosis 91 / 266 91. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 92 / 266 92. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents rebleeding D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 93 / 266 93. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Ptosis C. Brachycephaly D. Frontal baldness 94 / 266 94. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Alcohol C. Lead D. Vincristine 95 / 266 95. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Deafness D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 96 / 266 96. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Tay-Sachs disease 97 / 266 97. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 98 / 266 98. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Myositis C. Polyneuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 99 / 266 99. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Dermatomyositis 100 / 266 100. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Enteric fever C. Cerebral malaria D. Weil's disease 101 / 266 101. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. SIADH C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Convulsions 102 / 266 102. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 103 / 266 103. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Mental retardation D. Retinitis pigmentosa 104 / 266 104. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 105 / 266 105. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 106 / 266 106. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 107 / 266 107. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Thiocyanates D. Aflatoxin 108 / 266 108. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 109 / 266 109. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 110 / 266 110. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Cataract C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multiple sclerosis 111 / 266 111. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Ethambutol C. Amiodarone D. Chloroquine 112 / 266 112. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Hysteria C. Lax abdominal wall D. Obesity 113 / 266 113. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Diabetic amyotrophy 114 / 266 114. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Cervical spine 115 / 266 115. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 116 / 266 116. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 117 / 266 117. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell's palsy C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Syringobulbia 118 / 266 118. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Pyramidal signs 119 / 266 119. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Midbrain 120 / 266 120. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 121 / 266 121. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 122 / 266 122. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Malignant exophthalmos 123 / 266 123. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Froin's loculation syndrome 124 / 266 124. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Epilepsy C. Cataplexy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 125 / 266 125. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Retention of urine C. Hypertonia D. Absent deep reflexes 126 / 266 126. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 127 / 266 127. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetes mellitus 128 / 266 128. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Kuru D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 129 / 266 129. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Sylvian fissure C. Olfactory groove D. Cerebello-pontine angle 130 / 266 130. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Immunoglobulin 131 / 266 131. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Selegiline C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 132 / 266 132. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pseudolymphoma D. Pendular nystagmus 133 / 266 133. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Poliomyelitis D. Neurofibromatosis 134 / 266 134. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Polymyositis D. Myopathy 135 / 266 135. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 136 / 266 136. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Midbrain 137 / 266 137. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 138 / 266 138. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Tuberous sclerosis 139 / 266 139. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Quinsy 140 / 266 140. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Myotonic dystrophy 141 / 266 141. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 142 / 266 142. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Hemiballismus C. Chorea D. Dystonia 143 / 266 143. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Tabes dorsalis 144 / 266 144. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Acute renal failure D. Wallenberg's syndrome 145 / 266 145. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. Dexamethasone 146 / 266 146. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Lathyrism C. Botulinus poisoning D. Elapidae group snake bite 147 / 266 147. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypervitaminosis D 148 / 266 148. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 149 / 266 149. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Cerebellar functions C. Sensory functions D. EMG 150 / 266 150. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 151 / 266 151. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral haemorrhage 152 / 266 152. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Leprosy C. Raynaud's disease D. Tabes dorsalis 153 / 266 153. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor spasm D. Flexor plantar response 154 / 266 154. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myelopathy C. Myopathy D. Neuropathy 155 / 266 155. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. Vth D. IIIrd 156 / 266 156. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Lower pons C. Upper pons D. Medulla 157 / 266 157. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Aphasia C. Papilloedema D. Nystagmus 158 / 266 158. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Hydrosis + miosis 159 / 266 159. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Lacunar infarction 160 / 266 160. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Pseudoclonus C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Exaggerated deep reflex 161 / 266 161. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 162 / 266 162. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hysteria C. Duchenne myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 163 / 266 163. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Vagus nerve 164 / 266 164. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Dementia C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 165 / 266 165. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 166 / 266 166. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. MRI scan D. CT scan 167 / 266 167. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 168 / 266 168. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Viral meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 169 / 266 169. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Increased CSF pressure 170 / 266 170. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral infarction C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 171 / 266 171. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Osteomalacia D. Hyperglycaemia 172 / 266 172. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Bacteria 173 / 266 173. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Subacute combined degeneration 174 / 266 174. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Cocaine C. Flumazenil D. Amphetamines 175 / 266 175. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 176 / 266 176. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T1 C. T4 D. C8 177 / 266 177. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trochlear nerve 178 / 266 178. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Viral or post-vaccinal 179 / 266 179. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Acromegaly C. Infertility D. Parkinsonism 180 / 266 180. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Agnosia D. Apraxia 181 / 266 181. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 182 / 266 182. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. Has a good prognosis in children C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 183 / 266 183. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Vibration sensation C. Two-point localisation D. Perceptual rivalry 184 / 266 184. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Shagreen patch C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Pompholyx 185 / 266 185. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 186 / 266 186. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hyponatremia 187 / 266 187. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Sertraline C. Fluvoxamine D. Paroxetine 188 / 266 188. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Benzodiazepine C. Haloperidol D. Chlorpromazine 189 / 266 189. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 190 / 266 190. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Ocular myopathy C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Multiple sclerosis 191 / 266 191. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Extensor plantar response D. Masked facies 192 / 266 192. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 193 / 266 193. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 194 / 266 194. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Hepatic precoma 195 / 266 195. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Systemic hypertension C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. Emotional excitement 196 / 266 196. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Ataxia C. Hiccups D. Pyramidal lesion 197 / 266 197. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkalemia 198 / 266 198. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Lithium C. Clomipramine D. Carbamazepine 199 / 266 199. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 200 / 266 200. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Clopidogrel C. Ticlopidine D. Pentoxifylline 201 / 266 201. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Rabies 202 / 266 202. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Mania C. Phobia D. Depression 203 / 266 203. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Dementia in AIDS C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 204 / 266 204. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Thalamus 205 / 266 205. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 24 hours C. 3 weeks D. 2 weeks 206 / 266 206. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Epilepsy C. Febrile D. Trauma 207 / 266 207. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Meningism 208 / 266 208. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 209 / 266 209. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Fasciculations C. Babinski's sign D. Spasticity 210 / 266 210. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Perspiration C. Tremor D. Visual hallucinations 211 / 266 211. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 212 / 266 212. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Wasting of muscles C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Proximal muscle weakness 213 / 266 213. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 214 / 266 214. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Headache C. Convulsions D. Non-projectile vomiting 215 / 266 215. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Brain tumour 216 / 266 216. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Lewy bodies 217 / 266 217. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 218 / 266 218. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Snout reflex D. Grasp reflex 219 / 266 219. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 220 / 266 220. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Optic glioma C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 221 / 266 221. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Hemicranial headache 222 / 266 222. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Seizures C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 223 / 266 223. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 224 / 266 224. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Gynaecomastia 225 / 266 225. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 226 / 266 226. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Parkinsonism 227 / 266 227. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's chorea 228 / 266 228. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Cerebellar infarction C. Multiple sclerosis D. Epilepsy 229 / 266 229. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Temporal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Frontal lobe 230 / 266 230. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Oculomotor palsy C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 231 / 266 231. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 232 / 266 232. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 233 / 266 233. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Babinski's sign C. Gonda sign D. Chaddock's sign 234 / 266 234. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 235 / 266 235. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Tunnel vision C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Bitemporal hemianopi 236 / 266 236. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Immune disorder D. Metabolic disorder 237 / 266 237. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 238 / 266 238. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 239 / 266 239. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. SIADH C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 240 / 266 240. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Aortic incompetence 241 / 266 241. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Diplopia C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 242 / 266 242. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Enophthalmos C. Complete ptosis D. Constricted pupil 243 / 266 243. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sarcoidosis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 244 / 266 244. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 245 / 266 245. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 246 / 266 246. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Reserpine C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 247 / 266 247. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Polycystic kidney 248 / 266 248. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 249 / 266 249. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Papilledema 250 / 266 250. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Increased deep reflexes 251 / 266 251. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 252 / 266 252. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Oculomotor nerve D. Ciliary ganglion 253 / 266 253. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Blindness D. Convulsions 254 / 266 254. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 255 / 266 255. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Complex partial C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Petit mal 256 / 266 256. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Argyll Robertson pupil 257 / 266 257. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Hyponatraemia D. Thyrotoxicosis 258 / 266 258. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 259 / 266 259. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 260 / 266 260. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Peripheral neuropathy 261 / 266 261. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. High places C. Strangers D. Pain 262 / 266 262. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 263 / 266 263. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Meningioma 264 / 266 264. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Depression D. Passivity feelings 265 / 266 265. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Apraxia C. Areflexia D. Ataxia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology