Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Thrombasthenia may be seen in all of the following except: A. Uremia B. Myeloproliferative disorders C. Diabetes mellitus D. Paraproteinemia 2 / 50 2. Thalassemia major may be associated with all except: A. Cardiac arrhythmia B. Cardiomegaly C. Cardiac tamponade D. Congestive cardiac failure 3 / 50 3. The commonest cause of jaundice in thalassaemia is: A. Viral hepatitis C B. Viral hepatitis B C. Hemolysis D. Iron deposition in liver 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not true regarding features of hyperviscosity syndrome? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Central cyanosis C. Fluctuating consciousness D. Thrombotic episodes 5 / 50 5. vW antigen level is increased in: A. Lymphoma B. Multiple myeloma C. Pregnancy D. von Willebrand disease 6 / 50 6. Chloroma is found in: A. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) B. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) C. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) 7 / 50 7. Punctate basophilia is seen in all except: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Lead poisoning C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Thalassemia 8 / 50 8. Which of the following factors is unstable in stored blood? A. V B. X C. VII D. II 9 / 50 9. Erythropoietin is increased in all except: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Renal cell carcinoma C. Hepatocellular carcinoma D. Pancreatic carcinoma 10 / 50 10. Epitrochlear adenopathy may be produced by all except: A. Secondary syphilis B. Leprosy C. Tularemia D. Sarcoidosis 11 / 50 11. In chronic granulomatous disease, which is false? A. Diagnosed by amount of nitroblue tetrazolium reduction B. Neutrophil count is normal C. Prone to infection by staphylococci D. Difficulty in phagocytosis 12 / 50 12. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be seen in all except: A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever B. Diabetes mellitus C. Giant hemangioma D. Amniotic fluid embolism 13 / 50 13. Which is not an example of microangiopathic haemolytic anemia? A. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation 14 / 50 14. Waldeyer’s ring does not include: A. Faucal tonsils B. Lingual tonsils C. Submandibular glands D. Adenoids 15 / 50 15. Pancytopenia may develop from all except: A. Hemosiderosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) 16 / 50 16. Gaisbock’s syndrome is associated with: A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Stress erythrocytosis D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is false in polycythaemia vera? A. High erythropoietin level B. Hyperviscosity C. Splenomegaly D. Normal arterial oxygen saturation 18 / 50 18. Myelophthisic anemia is characterised by all except: A. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture B. Basophilic stippling C. Neutropenia D. Caused by disseminated malignancy 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is false about methaemoglobinaemia? A. If exceeds >0.5 g/ dl, produces cyanotic hue B. Hereditary variety is due to deficiency of methemoglobin reductase C. Normal red cells contain <1 % methemoglobin D. Oral or I.V. methylene blue is treatment of choice 20 / 50 20. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is not associated with: A. Splenomegaly B. Clubbing C. Post-cricoid web D. Angular stomatitis 21 / 50 21. Microcytic hypochromic anaemia is characteristic of: A. Patterson-Kelly syndrome B. Persons who are true vegetarians C. Munchausen's syndrome D. Pseudohypoparathyroidism 22 / 50 22. All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except: A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Lead poisoning C. Thalassemia D. Pernicious anemia 23 / 50 23. Para-hemophilia is a deficiency of factor: A. XI B. von Willebrand's C. IX D. V 24 / 50 24. Features of sickle cell anaemia do not include: A. Leg ulcers B. Nocturia C. Priapism D. Hypersplenism 25 / 50 25. All are features of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia except: A. High IgE level B. Eosinophilia >3000/mm^3 C. Response to albendazole therapy D. Miliary mottling in chest X-ray 26 / 50 26. Carcinoembryonic antigen is the tumour marker of: A. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Ovarian carcinoma C. Colorectal carcinoma D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not seen in sickle cell anaemia? A. Isosthenuria B. Leucopenia C. Leg ulcers D. Corkscrew vessel in bulbar conjunctiva 28 / 50 28. HAM test (acid serum test), now an obsolete test, was used to diagnose: A. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome B. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria C. Myelodysplastic syndrome D. G6PD deficiency 29 / 50 29. The most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia is: A. Serum iron level B. Serum ferritin level C. Serum transferrin receptor population D. Percentage of transferrin saturation 30 / 50 30. The best treatment modality in chronic myeloid leukaemia is: A. Hydroxyurea B. Radiotherapy C. Allogenic bone marrow transplantation D. Interferon-alpha 31 / 50 31. All are examples of hypoplastic anaemia except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Hepatitis B-induced C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria D. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria 32 / 50 32. All the following drugs produce methemoglobinaemia except: A. Phenacetin B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Hydralazine D. Amyl nitrite 33 / 50 33. Sickle cell anaemia is not complicated by: A. Osteomyelitis B. Papillary necrosis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Pancreatitis 34 / 50 34. Histiocytosis-X disease does not include: A. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease B. Unifocal eosinophilic granuloma C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Letterer-Siwe disease 35 / 50 35. alpha-interferon is not beneficial in: A. Hairy cell leukemia B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Chronic granulomatous disease 36 / 50 36. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia commonly has all the features except: A. Anemia B. Hyper viscosity syndrome C. Renal failure D. Lymphadenopathy 37 / 50 37. Non-thrombocytopenic purpura is seen in all except: A. Uremia B. Vasculitis C. SLE D. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasis 38 / 50 38. Erythropoietin is secreted from all of the following tumours except: A. Pheochromocytoma B. Oat cell carcinoma of lung C. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma D. Renal cell carcinoma 39 / 50 39. Gum bleeding is characteristic of all except: A. Hemophilia B. Scurvy C. Aplastic anaemia D. Chronic phenytoin therapy 40 / 50 40. Hepatosplenomegaly with lymphadenopathy is found in all except: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia B. Disseminated tuberculosis C. Lymphoma D. Acute lymphatic leukemia 41 / 50 41. Sideroblastic anemia may be treated by all except: A. Androgens B. Hydroxyurea C. Pyridoxine D. Desferrioxamine 42 / 50 42. The largest organ system’ in the human body is: A. Blood B. Endothelium C. Skin D. GI tract 43 / 50 43. Which isolated coagulation factor deficiency causes thrombosis? A. Factor VII B. Factor V C. Factor XII D. Factor XI 44 / 50 44. Which of the following does not produce iron overload in the body? A. Pernicious anaemia B. Alcoholic liver disease C. Chronic hemodialysis D. Sideroblastic anaemia 45 / 50 45. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is associated with: A. AML B. CLL C. CML D. ALL 46 / 50 46. Virchow’s node receives lymphatics from all except: A. Testes B. Prostate C. Stomach D. Breast (left) 47 / 50 47. The half-life of a platelet is: A. 1-2 days B. 3-4 days C. 10-12 days D. 5-6 days 48 / 50 48. Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease (IPSID) is a variety of: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. GI complication of AIDS C. Carcinoid tumors D. Adenocarcinoma 49 / 50 49. Decreased iron and decreased iron-binding capacity are seen in: A. Menorrhagia B. Intestinal resection C. Recurrent GI tract hemorrhage D. Chronic infections 50 / 50 50. Agranulocytosis may be seen in treatment with: A. Risperidone B. Chlorpromazine C. Clozapine D. Clonidine LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology