Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 41 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Serum alkaline phosphatase level in multiple myeloma is usually? A. Fluctuates B. Low C. Normal D. High 2 / 50 2. Gaisbock’s syndrome is associated with: A. Stress erythrocytosis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia 3 / 50 3. Chloroma is found in: A. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) B. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) C. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) 4 / 50 4. ‘Cast iron spleen’ is classically found in: A. Myelofibrosis B. Thalassemia major C. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not true in thrombasthenia? A. Prolonged clotting time B. Normal platelet count C. Platelet aggregation defect D. Prolonged bleeding time 6 / 50 6. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is not associated with: A. Splenomegaly B. Angular stomatitis C. Post-cricoid web D. Clubbing 7 / 50 7. Hemolytic-uraemic syndrome (HUS) is not characterised by: A. Segmented RBCs in peripheral smear B. Uremia C. Thrombocytosis D. Hematuria 8 / 50 8. The commonest cause of jaundice in thalassaemia is: A. Viral hepatitis C B. Hemolysis C. Viral hepatitis B D. Iron deposition in liver 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is not true in paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria? A. IgG antibody-mediated B. Precipitated by exposure to cold C. Not a cold agglutinin disease D. Associated with mycoplasma infection 10 / 50 10. Punctate basophilia is seen in all except: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Thalassemia C. Lead poisoning D. Megaloblastic anemia 11 / 50 11. vW antigen level is increased in: A. Lymphoma B. von Willebrand disease C. Pregnancy D. Multiple myeloma 12 / 50 12. Raised Fe and normal TIBC are found in: A. Hemosiderosis B. Disseminated malignancy C. Thalassaemia major D. Rheumatoid arthritis 13 / 50 13. The most effective treatment of polycythaemia vera is: A. Exchange transfusion B. Fresh frozen plasma C. Phlebotomy D. Splenectomy 14 / 50 14. Giant lysosomal granules in granulocytes associated with albinism is known as: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. May-Hegglin anomaly C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome D. Schultz syndrome 15 / 50 15. Splenectomy is virtually curative in: A. G6PD deficiency B. Thalassemia C. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) 16 / 50 16. Reed-Sternberg cell is found in all except: A. Breast carcinoma B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Hodgkin's disease 17 / 50 17. Which is not a vitamin K-dependent factor: A. Factor II B. Factor VII C. Factor X D. Factor VIII 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is false regarding Philadelphia chromosome? A. Philadelphia -ve cases have a bad prognosis B. Found in lymphocytes C. Diagnostic of CML D. Shortening of the long arm of chromosome G22 19 / 50 19. Pseudolymphoma may be produced by all except: A. Lithium B. Primidone C. Phenytoin D. Cyclosporine 20 / 50 20. Busulfan therapy may lead to all except: A. Bone marrow suppression B. Pulmonary fibrosis C. Optic neuritis D. Hyperpigmentation 21 / 50 21. Sezary syndrome is: A. Arsenical hyperkeratosis B. A variety of alopecia mucinosa C. T-cell lymphoma D. B-cell lymphoma 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not a myeloproliferative disorder? A. Myeloid metaplasia B. Polycythemia vera C. Essential thrombocytopenia D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 23 / 50 23. Red cell osmotic fragility is increased in: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Hb C disease C. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Thalassemia major 24 / 50 24. Spur cell anaemia is seen in: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Lymphoma C. Uremia D. Myxoedema 25 / 50 25. The presence of anemia, jaundice and splenomegaly with increased mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is seen in: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Thalassemia major 26 / 50 26. Warm-antibody mediated haemolysis is not found in: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia D. SLE 27 / 50 27. Waldeyer’s ring does not include: A. Adenoids B. Faucal tonsils C. Lingual tonsils D. Submandibular glands 28 / 50 28. Haemolytic anaemia is not produced by: A. Lithium B. Methyldopa C. Quinidine D. Penicillin 29 / 50 29. Sickle cell anaemia is not complicated by: A. Osteomyelitis B. Pancreatitis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Papillary necrosis 30 / 50 30. Gum bleeding is characteristic of all except: A. Chronic phenytoin therapy B. Aplastic anaemia C. Hemophilia D. Scurvy 31 / 50 31. The largest organ system’ in the human body is: A. GI tract B. Skin C. Endothelium D. Blood 32 / 50 32. Which of the following does not have target cells in peripheral blood? A. Lymphoma B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Thalassaemia D. Cholestatic jaundice 33 / 50 33. Low-dose arsenic trioxide has recently been used in relapsed patients of: A. Hairy cell leukemia B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia D. Aplastic anemia 34 / 50 34. Peripheral blood picture is the most useful diagnostic aid in: A. Multiple myeloma B. Chronic myeloid leukemia C. Myelodysplastic syndrome D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 35 / 50 35. An incorrect statement in pernicious anaemia is: A. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody in 60% patients B. Gastric polyp may develop C. Hyperchlorhydria D. Premature greying of hair 36 / 50 36. The half-life of albumin is: A. 10-14 days B. 20-22 days C. 16-20 days D. 1-2 days 37 / 50 37. Hepatosplenomegaly with lymphadenopathy is found in all except: A. Disseminated tuberculosis B. Chronic myeloid leukemia C. Acute lymphatic leukemia D. Lymphoma 38 / 50 38. Pancytopenia may develop from all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) D. Hemosiderosis 39 / 50 39. Which of the following anaemias is associated with splenomegaly? A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Chronic renal failure C. Aplastic anemia D. Sickle cell anemia 40 / 50 40. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is associated with: A. CML B. ALL C. CLL D. AML 41 / 50 41. Multiple myeloma does not feature: A. High Calcium B. High Uric acid C. Hyperglobulinemia D. High Phosphate 42 / 50 42. The prominent feature of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is: A. Gum bleeding B. Presence of sternal tenderness C. Fever D. Moderate splenomegaly 43 / 50 43. All of the following may complicate bone marrow transplantation except: A. Leukoencephalopathy B. Cataract formation C. Cardiomyopathy D. Emphysema 44 / 50 44. All of the following may cause pain abdomen in thalassaemia major except: A. Vasculitis B. Dragging pain due to huge splenomegaly C. Splenic infarction D. Pigment stone-induced biliary colic 45 / 50 45. Non-thrombocytopenic purpura is seen in all except: A. Uremia B. Vasculitis C. SLE D. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasis 46 / 50 46. alpha-interferon is not beneficial in: A. Hairy cell leukemia B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. Chronic myeloid leukaemia D. Kaposi's sarcoma 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is false in haemophilia? A. Absent factor VIII coagulant activity B. von Willebrand antigens level is grossly diminished C. Normal prothrombin time D. Increased partial thromboplastin time 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not seen in sickle cell anaemia? A. Isosthenuria B. Leucopenia C. Leg ulcers D. Corkscrew vessel in bulbar conjunctiva 49 / 50 49. Erythropoietin is secreted from all of the following tumours except: A. Oat cell carcinoma of lung B. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma C. Renal cell carcinoma D. Pheochromocytoma 50 / 50 50. Sickle cell anaemia is associated with: A. High ESR B. Cerebral embolism C. Diastolic murmur over precordium D. Fish-mouth vertebrae LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology