Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 41 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Increased serum iron and reduced iron-binding capacity are features of: A. Thalassemia major B. Sideroblastic anemia C. Hookworm infestation D. Alcoholic liver disease 2 / 50 2. Sezary syndrome is: A. Arsenical hyperkeratosis B. T-cell lymphoma C. A variety of alopecia mucinosa D. B-cell lymphoma 3 / 50 3. Macrocytic-hypochromic anemia is found in: A. Pernicious anemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Thalassemia D. Pregnancy 4 / 50 4. All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except: A. Thalassemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Lead poisoning D. Sideroblastic anemia 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is contraindicated in polycythaemia vera? A. Chlorambucil B. Interferon-a C. Low-dose aspirin D. Hydroxyurea 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not true regarding features of hyperviscosity syndrome? A. Central cyanosis B. Fluctuating consciousness C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Thrombotic episodes 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not associated with hypersplenism? A. Splenomegaly B. Hypocellular bone marrow C. Reversibility by splenectomy D. Pancytopenia 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is false regarding Philadelphia chromosome? A. Philadelphia -ve cases have a bad prognosis B. Diagnostic of CML C. Found in lymphocytes D. Shortening of the long arm of chromosome G22 9 / 50 9. Features of sickle cell anaemia do not include: A. Priapism B. Leg ulcers C. Hypersplenism D. Nocturia 10 / 50 10. In chronic granulomatous disease, which is false? A. Diagnosed by amount of nitroblue tetrazolium reduction B. Prone to infection by staphylococci C. Difficulty in phagocytosis D. Neutrophil count is normal 11 / 50 11. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is commonly seen in association with: A. Ataxia telangiectasia B. Froehlich's syndrome C. Hurler syndrome D. Down's syndrome 12 / 50 12. Which isolated coagulation factor deficiency causes thrombosis? A. Factor V B. Factor XI C. Factor VII D. Factor XII 13 / 50 13. vW antigen level is increased in: A. Pregnancy B. von Willebrand disease C. Lymphoma D. Multiple myeloma 14 / 50 14. Alopecia mucinosa may be seen in: A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Mycosis fungoides D. Amyloidosis 15 / 50 15. Auer rods are found in: A. Blast crisis of CLL B. Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) C. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) D. Blast crisis of CML 16 / 50 16. The most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia is: A. Percentage of transferrin saturation B. Serum ferritin level C. Serum iron level D. Serum transferrin receptor population 17 / 50 17. Coombs positive haemolytic anaemia is a feature of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) C. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) 18 / 50 18. Gum bleeding is characteristic of all except: A. Scurvy B. Hemophilia C. Aplastic anaemia D. Chronic phenytoin therapy 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not seen in hemolytic-uraemic syndrome? A. Hypofibrinogenaemia B. High creatinine level C. Thrombocytopenia D. Positive Coombs test 20 / 50 20. Schumm test is done to detect? A. Methaemalbumin B. Haptoglobin C. Haemopexin D. Citrulline 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not seen in sickle cell anaemia? A. Corkscrew vessel in bulbar conjunctiva B. Leg ulcers C. Leucopenia D. Isosthenuria 22 / 50 22. The presence of anemia, jaundice and splenomegaly with increased mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is seen in: A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) C. Thalassemia major D. Cirrhosis of liver 23 / 50 23. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is classified under the name: A. Rye B. Dorothy Reed C. Ann Arbor D. Rappaport 24 / 50 24. Vitamin C is used in low dose (3 mg/kg) in thalassaemia major as in high dose, it produces: A. Neurotoxicity B. Cardiotoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Hepatotoxicity 25 / 50 25. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome does not feature: A. Eczema B. Repeated infections C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hemolytic anemia 26 / 50 26. Pseudolymphoma may be produced by all except: A. Primidone B. Lithium C. Cyclosporine D. Phenytoin 27 / 50 27. Which of the following factors is unstable in stored blood? A. V B. X C. VII D. II 28 / 50 28. Bence-Jones proteins are derived from which type of globulin? A. Beta B. Alpha C. Gamma D. Delta 29 / 50 29. Lifespan of platelets is: A. 5-7 days B. 9-11 days C. 13-15 days D. 2-4 days 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not found in eosinophilic granuloma? A. Osteolytic lesions in bone B. Affects young adults C. Absence of systemic manifestations D. Eosinophilia 31 / 50 31. Myelophthisic anemia is characterised by all except: A. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture B. Basophilic stippling C. Caused by disseminated malignancy D. Neutropenia 32 / 50 32. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is not associated with: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Intussusception C. Palpable purpura D. Acute diffuse glomerulonephritis 33 / 50 33. Which is a bad prognostic sign of Hodgkin’s disease? A. Reed-Sternberg cells in marrow B. Thrombocytopenia C. Lymphocytopenia D. Eosinophilia 34 / 50 34. Busulfan therapy may lead to all except: A. Optic neuritis B. Bone marrow suppression C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Hyperpigmentation 35 / 50 35. All of the following are seen in intravascular haemolysis except: A. High urinary urobilinogen B. High urinary haemosiderin C. High plasma haemopexin D. Reticulocytosis 36 / 50 36. The half-life of a platelet is: A. 1-2 days B. 3-4 days C. 10-12 days D. 5-6 days 37 / 50 37. The best prognostic indicator in multiple myeloma is: A. Bence Jones protein in urine B. Serum calcium level in marrow C. Serum Beta-2 microglobulins D. Number of plasma cells 38 / 50 38. Thrombasthenia may be seen in all of the following except: A. Paraproteinemia B. Myeloproliferative disorders C. Uremia D. Diabetes mellitus 39 / 50 39. Multiple myeloma does not feature: A. High Uric acid B. Hyperglobulinemia C. High Phosphate D. High Calcium 40 / 50 40. Hemolytic-uraemic syndrome (HUS) is not characterised by: A. Hematuria B. Uremia C. Segmented RBCs in peripheral smear D. Thrombocytosis 41 / 50 41. The commonest cause of jaundice in thalassaemia is: A. Viral hepatitis C B. Viral hepatitis B C. Iron deposition in liver D. Hemolysis 42 / 50 42. Reed-Sternberg cell is found in all except: A. Breast carcinoma B. Hodgkin's disease C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Infectious mononucleosis 43 / 50 43. The best treatment modality in chronic myeloid leukaemia is: A. Allogenic bone marrow transplantation B. Hydroxyurea C. Interferon-alpha D. Radiotherapy 44 / 50 44. Palpable purpura is seen in: A. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia B. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Quinine therapy 45 / 50 45. alpha-interferon is not beneficial in: A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. Chronic myeloid leukaemia D. Hairy cell leukemia 46 / 50 46. Histiocytosis-X disease does not include: A. Letterer-Siwe disease B. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Unifocal eosinophilic granuloma 47 / 50 47. Basophilia is classically found in: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Melanoma D. Hodgkin's disease C. 48 / 50 48. Red cell osmotic fragility is increased in: A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Thalassemia major C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hb C disease 49 / 50 49. All of the following may cause pain abdomen in thalassaemia major except: A. Dragging pain due to huge splenomegaly B. Splenic infarction C. Pigment stone-induced biliary colic D. Vasculitis 50 / 50 50. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is high in all except: A. After steroid administration B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Polycythaemia vera D. Myelosclerosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology