Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 41 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except: A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Lead poisoning D. Thalassemia 2 / 50 2. Hand-Schwier-Christian disease does not have: A. Hepatosplenomegaly B. Hypercholesterolemia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Exophthalmos 3 / 50 3. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is classified under the name: A. Rye B. Rappaport C. Ann Arbor D. Dorothy Reed 4 / 50 4. The largest organ system’ in the human body is: A. GI tract B. Skin C. Blood D. Endothelium 5 / 50 5. Which of the following does not produce iron overload in the body? A. Alcoholic liver disease B. Pernicious anaemia C. Chronic hemodialysis D. Sideroblastic anaemia 6 / 50 6. Chloroma is found in: A. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) C. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) 7 / 50 7. Patients on aspirin will have: A. Prolonged PT B. Prolonged APTT C. Prolonged clotting time D. Prolonged bleeding time 8 / 50 8. All of the following are true in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) except: A. Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase B. Elevated LDH C. Elevated red cell acetylcholinesterase D. Positive acidified serum lysis (HAM) test 9 / 50 9. Basophilic stippling is classically seen in: A. Myelosclerosis B. Chronic myeloid leukemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Chronic lead poisoning 10 / 50 10. Coagulation factor deficient in stored blood is: A. VII B. II C. V D. IX 11 / 50 11. Macrocytosis of RBC is characteristic of all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Anemia of myxoedema C. Methotrexate-induced D. Chronic alcoholism-induced liver disease 12 / 50 12. Red cell osmotic fragility is increased in: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. Thalassemia major D. Hb C disease 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not true in paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria? A. IgG antibody-mediated B. Precipitated by exposure to cold C. Associated with mycoplasma infection D. Not a cold agglutinin disease 14 / 50 14. Decreased iron and decreased iron-binding capacity are seen in: A. Intestinal resection B. Chronic infections C. Menorrhagia D. Recurrent GI tract hemorrhage 15 / 50 15. Hemolytic-uraemic syndrome (HUS) is not characterised by: A. Hematuria B. Segmented RBCs in peripheral smear C. Uremia D. Thrombocytosis 16 / 50 16. All the following drugs produce methemoglobinaemia except: A. Hydralazine B. Phenacetin C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Amyl nitrite 17 / 50 17. Which is not an example of microangiopathic haemolytic anemia? A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura 18 / 50 18. Haemolytic anaemia is not produced by: A. Penicillin B. Lithium C. Quinidine D. Methyldopa 19 / 50 19. Which of the following may develop in sites other than bone marrow? A. Monocyte B. Neutrophil C. Lymphocyte D. Megakaryocyte 20 / 50 20. Platelet transfusion is not indicated in: A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation B. Immunogenic thrombocytopenia C. Aplastic anemia D. Uremia with bleeding 21 / 50 21. Hepatosplenomegaly with lymphadenopathy is found in all except: A. Acute lymphatic leukemia B. Lymphoma C. Disseminated tuberculosis D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 22 / 50 22. Virchow’s node receives lymphatics from all except: A. Testes B. Prostate C. Breast (left) D. Stomach 23 / 50 23. The prominent feature of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is: A. Presence of sternal tenderness B. Moderate splenomegaly C. Fever D. Gum bleeding 24 / 50 24. Gum bleeding is characteristic of all except: A. Chronic phenytoin therapy B. Scurvy C. Hemophilia D. Aplastic anaemia 25 / 50 25. alpha-interferon is not beneficial in: A. Hairy cell leukemia B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Chronic granulomatous disease 26 / 50 26. Sickle cell anaemia is not complicated by: A. Papillary necrosis B. Pancreatitis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Osteomyelitis 27 / 50 27. Which of the following factors is unstable in stored blood? A. X B. V C. VII D. II 28 / 50 28. The most effective treatment of polycythaemia vera is: A. Fresh frozen plasma B. Splenectomy C. Phlebotomy D. Exchange transfusion 29 / 50 29. Myelophthisic anemia is characterised by all except: A. Basophilic stippling B. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture C. Caused by disseminated malignancy D. Neutropenia 30 / 50 30. All of the following may produce agranulocytosis except: A. Methimazole B. Methyldopa C. Gold salts D. Chloramphenicol 31 / 50 31. Raised Fe and normal TIBC are found in: A. Disseminated malignancy B. Hemosiderosis C. Thalassaemia major D. Rheumatoid arthritis 32 / 50 32. Eosinophilia is a feature of: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Hemophilia D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 33 / 50 33. Splenectomy is contraindicated in: A. Pyruvate kinase deficiency B. Marrow failure C. Agnogenic myeloid metaplasia D. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura 34 / 50 34. ‘Suggilations’ are haemorrhagic spots in the size of: A. > 10 mm in diameter B. 1-2 mm in diameter C. > 20 mm in diameter D. 2-5 mm in diameter 35 / 50 35. Which is not a vitamin K-dependent factor: A. Factor II B. Factor VII C. Factor VIII D. Factor X 36 / 50 36. Megakaryocytosis in bone marrow is seen in all except: A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura B. Myeloid metaplasia C. Polycythemia vera D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 37 / 50 37. In polycythaemia vera, which is not true? A. Increased LAP score B. High ESR C. High serum vitamin B12 level D. Low level of erythropoietin 38 / 50 38. The most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia is: A. Serum ferritin level B. Serum iron level C. Serum transferrin receptor population D. Percentage of transferrin saturation 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is false in polycythaemia vera? A. Splenomegaly B. Hyperviscosity C. Normal arterial oxygen saturation D. High erythropoietin level 40 / 50 40. An incorrect statement in pernicious anaemia is: A. Gastric polyp may develop B. Hyperchlorhydria C. Premature greying of hair D. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody in 60% patients 41 / 50 41. Sezary syndrome is: A. T-cell lymphoma B. B-cell lymphoma C. A variety of alopecia mucinosa D. Arsenical hyperkeratosis 42 / 50 42. Which of the following anaemias is associated with splenomegaly? A. Sickle cell anemia B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. Chronic renal failure D. Aplastic anemia 43 / 50 43. HAM test (acid serum test), now an obsolete test, was used to diagnose: A. G6PD deficiency B. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria C. Myelodysplastic syndrome D. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome 44 / 50 44. Peripheral blood picture is the most useful diagnostic aid in: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Myelodysplastic syndrome 45 / 50 45. Iron transport protein is: A. Transcobalamin II B. Haptoglobin C. Transferrin D. Ferritin 46 / 50 46. Vitamin C is used in low dose (3 mg/kg) in thalassaemia major as in high dose, it produces: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Hepatotoxicity C. Cardiotoxicity D. Neurotoxicity 47 / 50 47. Packed red cells are constructed by: A. Centrifugation B. Sedimentation C. Precipitation D. Filtration 48 / 50 48. Thymoma may be associated with all of the following except: A. Hypergammaglobulinaemia B. Pure red cell aplasia C. Myasthenia gravis D. Cushing's syndrome 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not seen in hemolytic-uraemic syndrome? A. High creatinine level B. Thrombocytopenia C. Positive Coombs test D. Hypofibrinogenaemia 50 / 50 50. Reed-Sternberg cell is found in all except: A. Breast carcinoma B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Hodgkin's disease D. 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