Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Eosinophilia is caused by all except: A. Oxyphenbutazone B. Sulphonamides C. Nitrofurantoin D. Iodides 2 / 50 2. Which of the following may develop in sites other than bone marrow? A. Neutrophil B. Megakaryocyte C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte 3 / 50 3. All of the following are true in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) except: A. Elevated LDH B. Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase C. Positive acidified serum lysis (HAM) test D. Elevated red cell acetylcholinesterase 4 / 50 4. Hand-Schwier-Christian disease does not have: A. Hepatosplenomegaly B. Diabetes mellitus C. Exophthalmos D. Hypercholesterolemia 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not seen in sickle cell anaemia? A. Isosthenuria B. Leg ulcers C. Corkscrew vessel in bulbar conjunctiva D. Leucopenia 6 / 50 6. Pelger-Huet anomaly is: A. Presence of Dohle bodies in neutrophils B. Hereditary hypersegmentation of neutrophils C. Faulty maturation of platelets D. Hereditary hyposegmentation of neutrophils 7 / 50 7. Bence-Jones proteins are derived from which type of globulin? A. Beta B. Delta C. Alpha D. Gamma 8 / 50 8. Peripheral blood picture is the most useful diagnostic aid in: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia B. Myelodysplastic syndrome C. Multiple myeloma D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 9 / 50 9. Myelophthisic anemia is characterised by all except: A. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture B. Basophilic stippling C. Caused by disseminated malignancy D. Neutropenia 10 / 50 10. The half-life of a platelet is: A. 3-4 days B. 10-12 days C. 5-6 days D. 1-2 days 11 / 50 11. Hepatosplenomegaly with lymphadenopathy is found in all except: A. Lymphoma B. Disseminated tuberculosis C. Acute lymphatic leukemia D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 12 / 50 12. Packed red cells are constructed by: A. Precipitation B. Centrifugation C. Sedimentation D. Filtration 13 / 50 13. Iron transport protein is: A. Transcobalamin II B. Transferrin C. Haptoglobin D. Ferritin 14 / 50 14. Sideroblastic anemia may be treated by all except: A. Hydroxyurea B. Androgens C. Pyridoxine D. Desferrioxamine 15 / 50 15. The best prognostic indicator in multiple myeloma is: A. Number of plasma cells B. Bence Jones protein in urine C. Serum Beta-2 microglobulins D. Serum calcium level in marrow 16 / 50 16. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is associated with: A. CLL B. AML C. ALL D. CML 17 / 50 17. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is not associated with: A. Intussusception B. Palpable purpura C. Thrombocytopenia D. Acute diffuse glomerulonephritis 18 / 50 18. Among the following, the treatment of choice in hairy cell leukaemia is: A. Deoxycoformycin B. Corticosteroid C. Hydroxyurea D. Splenectomy 19 / 50 19. Increased serum iron and reduced iron-binding capacity are features of: A. Thalassemia major B. Sideroblastic anemia C. Alcoholic liver disease D. Hookworm infestation 20 / 50 20. All are examples of hypoplastic anaemia except: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Hepatitis B-induced D. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria 21 / 50 21. An incorrect statement in pernicious anaemia is: A. Hyperchlorhydria B. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody in 60% patients C. Premature greying of hair D. Gastric polyp may develop 22 / 50 22. Busulfan therapy may lead to all except: A. Optic neuritis B. Hyperpigmentation C. Bone marrow suppression D. Pulmonary fibrosis 23 / 50 23. Which of the following anaemias is associated with splenomegaly? A. Aplastic anemia B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. Sickle cell anemia D. Chronic renal failure 24 / 50 24. Giant lysosomal granules in granulocytes associated with albinism is known as: A. May-Hegglin anomaly B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome C. Schultz syndrome D. Niemann-Pick disease 25 / 50 25. Gaisbock’s syndrome is associated with: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia D. Stress erythrocytosis 26 / 50 26. Intravascular half-life of factor-VIII is: A. 4-5 days B. 1-3 days C. 5 hours D. 12 hours 27 / 50 27. ‘Cast iron spleen’ is classically found in: A. Myelofibrosis B. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) C. Thalassemia major D. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome 28 / 50 28. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome does not feature: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Eczema C. Hemolytic anemia D. Repeated infections 29 / 50 29. Virchow’s node receives lymphatics from all except: A. Breast (left) B. Testes C. Stomach D. Prostate 30 / 50 30. Macrocytosis of RBC is characteristic of all except: A. Methotrexate-induced B. Chronic alcoholism-induced liver disease C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Anemia of myxoedema 31 / 50 31. Decreased iron and decreased iron-binding capacity are seen in: A. Menorrhagia B. Recurrent GI tract hemorrhage C. Intestinal resection D. Chronic infections 32 / 50 32. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is commonly seen in association with: A. Ataxia telangiectasia B. Hurler syndrome C. Froehlich's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 33 / 50 33. Sezary syndrome is: A. B-cell lymphoma B. A variety of alopecia mucinosa C. Arsenical hyperkeratosis D. T-cell lymphoma 34 / 50 34. Eosinophilia is a feature of: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Hemophilia 35 / 50 35. Red cell osmotic fragility is increased in: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. Hb C disease D. Thalassemia major 36 / 50 36. Basophilic stippling is classically seen in: A. Chronic lead poisoning B. Myelosclerosis C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 37 / 50 37. Coombs positive haemolytic anaemia is a feature of: A. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) 38 / 50 38. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is diminished in: A. Lymphoma B. Thalassemia major C. Sickle cell anemia D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not true in polycythaemia vera? A. Increased RBC mass B. Thrombocytopenia C. Markedly hypercellular marrow D. Basophilia 40 / 50 40. Multiple myeloma does not feature: A. High Phosphate B. High Calcium C. High Uric acid D. Hyperglobulinemia 41 / 50 41. Auer rods are found in: A. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) B. Blast crisis of CLL C. Blast crisis of CML D. Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not seen in hemolytic-uraemic syndrome? A. High creatinine level B. Positive Coombs test C. Hypofibrinogenaemia D. Thrombocytopenia 43 / 50 43. In polycythaemia vera, which is not true? A. High ESR B. Increased LAP score C. Low level of erythropoietin D. High serum vitamin B12 level 44 / 50 44. vW antigen level is increased in: A. Multiple myeloma B. Lymphoma C. Pregnancy D. von Willebrand disease 45 / 50 45. All are features of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia except: A. Eosinophilia >3000/mm^3 B. High IgE level C. Response to albendazole therapy D. Miliary mottling in chest X-ray 46 / 50 46. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be seen in all except: A. Amniotic fluid embolism B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever C. Giant hemangioma D. Diabetes mellitus 47 / 50 47. Burr cells in the blood are seen in: A. Uremia B. Myxoedema C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Hemolytic anemia 48 / 50 48. Acanthosis nigricans may be associated with all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome C. Ulcerative colitis D. Carcinoma of the stomach 49 / 50 49. Malignancy of which lineage is associated with autoimmune haemolytic anemia? A. B cell B. Pre-T cell C. T cell D. Pre-B cell 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not true in thrombasthenia? A. Prolonged clotting time B. Normal platelet count C. Prolonged bleeding time D. Platelet aggregation defect LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology