Hematology Home Hematology 0% 2 votes, 0 avg 24 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. All of the following are true in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) except: A. Elevated red cell acetylcholinesterase B. Positive acidified serum lysis (HAM) test C. Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase D. Elevated LDH 2 / 50 2. ‘Suggilations’ are haemorrhagic spots in the size of: A. > 20 mm in diameter B. 2-5 mm in diameter C. > 10 mm in diameter D. 1-2 mm in diameter 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not seen in sickle cell anaemia? A. Leucopenia B. Leg ulcers C. Isosthenuria D. Corkscrew vessel in bulbar conjunctiva 4 / 50 4. Eosinophilia is a feature of: A. Hodgkin’s disease B. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma C. Sickle cell anemia D. Hemophilia 5 / 50 5. Intravascular half-life of factor-VIII is: A. 5 hours B. 4-5 days C. 1-3 days D. 12 hours 6 / 50 6. ‘Cast iron spleen’ is classically found in: A. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome B. Myelofibrosis C. Thalassemia major D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not true regarding features of hyperviscosity syndrome? A. Raynaud’s phenomenon B. Thrombotic episodes C. Central cyanosis D. Fluctuating consciousness 8 / 50 8. Sickle cell anaemia is associated with: A. Fish-mouth vertebrae B. High ESR C. Diastolic murmur over precordium D. Cerebral embolism 9 / 50 9. Burr cells in the blood are seen in: A. Uremia B. Myxoedema C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Hemolytic anemia 10 / 50 10. Conditions resistant to malaria are all except: A. Hb C disease B. Thalassemia major C. Sickle cell disease D. Duffy -ve blood group 11 / 50 11. Palpable purpura is seen in: A. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia B. Quinine therapy C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis 12 / 50 12. Which of the following does not have target cells in peripheral blood? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Thalassaemia C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Lymphoma 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is associated with prolonged bleeding time? A. Polycythaemia vera B. Hemophilia C. von Willebrand’s disease D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 14 / 50 14. Schumm test is done to detect? A. Haemopexin B. Citrulline C. Haptoglobin D. Methaemalbumin 15 / 50 15. HAM test (acid serum test), now an obsolete test, was used to diagnose: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria B. G6PD deficiency C. Myelodysplastic syndrome D. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome 16 / 50 16. Which isolated coagulation factor deficiency causes thrombosis? A. Factor XII B. Factor V C. Factor VII D. Factor XI 17 / 50 17. The half-life of a platelet is: A. 5-6 days B. 1-2 days C. 3-4 days D. 10-12 days 18 / 50 18. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is not associated with: A. Intussusception B. Palpable purpura C. Acute diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Thrombocytopenia 19 / 50 19. Patients on aspirin will have: A. Prolonged APTT B. Prolonged bleeding time C. Prolonged PT D. Prolonged clotting time 20 / 50 20. Migratory thrombophlebitis is commonly due to: A. Carcinoma of the pancreas B. Hypernephroma C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Hepatocellular carcinoma 21 / 50 21. Megakaryocytosis in bone marrow is seen in all except: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia B. Myeloid metaplasia C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Polycythemia vera 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is contraindicated in polycythaemia vera? A. Hydroxyurea B. Chlorambucil C. Interferon-a D. Low-dose aspirin 23 / 50 23. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is high in all except: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Myelosclerosis D. After steroid administration 24 / 50 24. Peripheral blood picture is the most useful diagnostic aid in: A. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma B. Myelodysplastic syndrome C. Chronic myeloid leukemia D. Multiple myeloma 25 / 50 25. Serum alkaline phosphatase level in multiple myeloma is usually? A. High B. Normal C. Low D. Fluctuates 26 / 50 26. Bence-Jones proteins are derived from which type of globulin? A. Gamma B. Alpha C. Delta D. Beta 27 / 50 27. Malignancy of which lineage is associated with autoimmune haemolytic anemia? A. B cell B. T cell C. Pre-T cell D. Pre-B cell 28 / 50 28. Increased serum iron and reduced iron-binding capacity are features of: A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Thalassemia major C. Hookworm infestation D. Alcoholic liver disease 29 / 50 29. Commonest pathogen involved in sickle cell anemia-induced osteomyelitis is: A. Nocardia B. Staphylococcus C. Salmonella D. Streptococcus 30 / 50 30. Agranulocytosis may be seen in treatment with: A. Clonidine B. Risperidone C. Chlorpromazine D. Clozapine 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)? A. Refractory anemia B. Refractory anemia with excess blasts C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia D. Refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts 32 / 50 32. Gum bleeding is characteristic of all except: A. Scurvy B. Chronic phenytoin therapy C. Aplastic anaemia D. Hemophilia 33 / 50 33. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is commonly seen in association with: A. Ataxia telangiectasia B. Down’s syndrome C. Hurler syndrome D. Froehlich’s syndrome 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not found in eosinophilic granuloma? A. Affects young adults B. Eosinophilia C. Absence of systemic manifestations D. Osteolytic lesions in bone 35 / 50 35. Reed-Sternberg cell is found in all except: A. Kaposi’s sarcoma B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Breast carcinoma D. Hodgkin’s disease 36 / 50 36. Thalassemia major may be associated with all except: A. Cardiac arrhythmia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Cardiomegaly D. Cardiac tamponade 37 / 50 37. The best treatment modality in chronic myeloid leukaemia is: A. Radiotherapy B. Allogenic bone marrow transplantation C. Interferon-alpha D. Hydroxyurea 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not true in thrombasthenia? A. Prolonged bleeding time B. Normal platelet count C. Platelet aggregation defect D. Prolonged clotting time 39 / 50 39. Pseudolymphoma may be produced by all except: A. Lithium B. Phenytoin C. Primidone D. Cyclosporine 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is false in polycythaemia vera? A. High erythropoietin level B. Normal arterial oxygen saturation C. Splenomegaly D. Hyperviscosity 41 / 50 41. Gaisbock’s syndrome is associated with: A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Stress erythrocytosis D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 42 / 50 42. Which of the following factors is unstable in stored blood? A. VII B. X C. V D. II 43 / 50 43. All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except: A. Lead poisoning B. Sideroblastic anemia C. Pernicious anemia D. Thalassemia 44 / 50 44. All of the following may produce agranulocytosis except: A. Methyldopa B. Chloramphenicol C. Methimazole D. Gold salts 45 / 50 45. Which of the following may develop in sites other than bone marrow? A. Monocyte B. Neutrophil C. Lymphocyte D. Megakaryocyte 46 / 50 46. Busulfan therapy may lead to all except: A. Optic neuritis B. Bone marrow suppression C. Hyperpigmentation D. Pulmonary fibrosis 47 / 50 47. Plasmapheresis may be done in all except: A. Hypoplastic anemia B. Myasthenia gravis C. Goodpasture’s disease D. Cryoglobulinemia 48 / 50 48. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is diminished in: A. Lymphoma B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) C. Thalassemia major D. Sickle cell anemia 49 / 50 49. Hand-Schwier-Christian disease does not have: A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Hepatosplenomegaly C. Diabetes mellitus D. Exophthalmos 50 / 50 50. Sickle cell anaemia is not complicated by: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Pancreatitis C. Osteomyelitis D. Papillary necrosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Dr Abu-Ahmed Dr Abu Ahmed, an Internist & Graphic Designer, has brought this website to help Medical Students in the subject of Internal Medicine. Articles: 25 Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology
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