Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Tumour lysis syndrome produces all except: A. Hyperphosphatemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperuricemia 2 / 50 2. Serum vitamin B12 level is increased in: A. Hereditary orotic aciduria B. di Guglielmo's disease C. Chronic myeloid leukemia D. Pernicious anemia 3 / 50 3. All of the following are true in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) except: A. Elevated LDH B. Elevated red cell acetylcholinesterase C. Positive acidified serum lysis (HAM) test D. Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase 4 / 50 4. Which of the following does not produce iron overload in the body? A. Sideroblastic anaemia B. Pernicious anaemia C. Alcoholic liver disease D. Chronic hemodialysis 5 / 50 5. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome does not feature: A. Hemolytic anemia B. Repeated infections C. Thrombocytopenia D. Eczema 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is false about methaemoglobinaemia? A. Hereditary variety is due to deficiency of methemoglobin reductase B. If exceeds >0.5 g/ dl, produces cyanotic hue C. Oral or I.V. methylene blue is treatment of choice D. Normal red cells contain <1 % methemoglobin 7 / 50 7. G6PD may reflect a ‘false normal’ report in: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Hairy cell leukemia C. Shortly after haemolysis D. Hypoplastic anemia 8 / 50 8. Cooley’s anemia is: A. Aplastic anemia B. Thalassemia major C. Sickle cell anemia D. Megaloblastic anemia 9 / 50 9. Which test detects haemolytic anemia? A. Schilling test B. Coombs' test C. Occult blood test in stool D. Benedict's test 10 / 50 10. Gum bleeding is characteristic of all except: A. Scurvy B. Chronic phenytoin therapy C. Aplastic anaemia D. Hemophilia 11 / 50 11. An incorrect statement in pernicious anaemia is: A. Gastric polyp may develop B. Hyperchlorhydria C. Premature greying of hair D. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody in 60% patients 12 / 50 12. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is diminished in: A. Lymphoma B. Sickle cell anemia C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) D. Thalassemia major 13 / 50 13. All are features of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia except: A. Response to albendazole therapy B. Eosinophilia >3000/mm^3 C. High IgE level D. Miliary mottling in chest X-ray 14 / 50 14. Myelophthisic anemia is characterised by all except: A. Caused by disseminated malignancy B. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture C. Neutropenia D. Basophilic stippling 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not true in polycythaemia vera? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Basophilia C. Markedly hypercellular marrow D. Increased RBC mass 16 / 50 16. Palpable purpura is seen in: A. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia B. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Quinine therapy 17 / 50 17. vW antigen level is increased in: A. Lymphoma B. von Willebrand disease C. Pregnancy D. Multiple myeloma 18 / 50 18. Iron transport protein is: A. Ferritin B. Transferrin C. Haptoglobin D. Transcobalamin II 19 / 50 19. Eosinophilia is a feature of: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Hemophilia C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Sickle cell anemia 20 / 50 20. Which is not an example of microangiopathic haemolytic anemia? A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome 21 / 50 21. Spur cell anaemia is seen in: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Myxoedema C. Uremia D. Lymphoma 22 / 50 22. Which of the following may develop in sites other than bone marrow? A. Lymphocyte B. Megakaryocyte C. Neutrophil D. Monocyte 23 / 50 23. Haemolytic anaemia is not produced by: A. Quinidine B. Methyldopa C. Lithium D. Penicillin 24 / 50 24. Which is a bad prognostic sign of Hodgkin’s disease? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Lymphocytopenia C. Reed-Sternberg cells in marrow D. Eosinophilia 25 / 50 25. Plasmapheresis may be done in all except: A. Hypoplastic anemia B. Goodpasture's disease C. Cryoglobulinemia D. Myasthenia gravis 26 / 50 26. Features of sickle cell anaemia do not include: A. Hypersplenism B. Leg ulcers C. Nocturia D. Priapism 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not associated with hypersplenism? A. Splenomegaly B. Pancytopenia C. Hypocellular bone marrow D. Reversibility by splenectomy 28 / 50 28. Virchow’s node receives lymphatics from all except: A. Breast (left) B. Stomach C. Prostate D. Testes 29 / 50 29. Serum alkaline phosphatase level in multiple myeloma is usually? A. Fluctuates B. High C. Low D. Normal 30 / 50 30. Decreased iron and decreased iron-binding capacity are seen in: A. Menorrhagia B. Chronic infections C. Intestinal resection D. Recurrent GI tract hemorrhage 31 / 50 31. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is classified under the name: A. Rappaport B. Ann Arbor C. Rye D. Dorothy Reed 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not true regarding features of hyperviscosity syndrome? A. Central cyanosis B. Fluctuating consciousness C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Thrombotic episodes 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not seen in hemolytic-uraemic syndrome? A. High creatinine level B. Thrombocytopenia C. Positive Coombs test D. Hypofibrinogenaemia 34 / 50 34. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be seen in all except: A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever B. Diabetes mellitus C. Amniotic fluid embolism D. Giant hemangioma 35 / 50 35. Coombs positive haemolytic anaemia is a feature of: A. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) B. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) 36 / 50 36. Auer rods are found in: A. Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) B. Blast crisis of CLL C. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) D. Blast crisis of CML 37 / 50 37. Lifespan of platelets is: A. 2-4 days B. 5-7 days C. 9-11 days D. 13-15 days 38 / 50 38. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia commonly has all the features except: A. Anemia B. Renal failure C. Lymphadenopathy D. Hyper viscosity syndrome 39 / 50 39. Sideroblastic anemia may be treated by all except: A. Androgens B. Hydroxyurea C. Desferrioxamine D. Pyridoxine 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)? A. Refractory anemia with excess blasts B. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia C. Refractory anemia D. Refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts 41 / 50 41. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is not associated with: A. Clubbing B. Angular stomatitis C. Post-cricoid web D. Splenomegaly 42 / 50 42. Macrocytosis of RBC is characteristic of all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Anemia of myxoedema C. Chronic alcoholism-induced liver disease D. Methotrexate-induced 43 / 50 43. The prominent feature of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is: A. Gum bleeding B. Presence of sternal tenderness C. Moderate splenomegaly D. Fever 44 / 50 44. Conditions resistant to malaria are all except: A. Sickle cell disease B. Hb C disease C. Thalassemia major D. Duffy -ve blood group 45 / 50 45. ‘Cast iron spleen’ is classically found in: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) B. Thalassemia major C. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome D. Myelofibrosis 46 / 50 46. Burr cells in the blood are seen in: A. Uremia B. Myxoedema C. Hemolytic anemia D. Cirrhosis of liver 47 / 50 47. The largest organ system’ in the human body is: A. Blood B. Skin C. Endothelium D. GI tract 48 / 50 48. Which is not a vitamin K-dependent factor: A. Factor II B. Factor VII C. Factor VIII D. Factor X 49 / 50 49. In polycythaemia vera, which is not true? A. Increased LAP score B. High serum vitamin B12 level C. High ESR D. Low level of erythropoietin 50 / 50 50. Which isolated coagulation factor deficiency causes thrombosis? A. Factor XI B. Factor VII C. Factor XII D. 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