Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. All are features of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia except: A. Response to albendazole therapy B. Eosinophilia >3000/mm^3 C. Miliary mottling in chest X-ray D. High IgE level 2 / 50 2. Para-hemophilia is a deficiency of factor: A. von Willebrand's B. V C. IX D. XI 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not found in eosinophilic granuloma? A. Eosinophilia B. Osteolytic lesions in bone C. Absence of systemic manifestations D. Affects young adults 4 / 50 4. Commonest pathogen involved in sickle cell anemia-induced osteomyelitis is: A. Nocardia B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Salmonella 5 / 50 5. The best prognostic indicator in multiple myeloma is: A. Serum Beta-2 microglobulins B. Serum calcium level in marrow C. Number of plasma cells D. Bence Jones protein in urine 6 / 50 6. Post-splenectomy peripheral blood picture does not contain: A. Howell-Jolly bodies B. Dohle bodies C. Target cells D. Heinz bodies 7 / 50 7. Which is not a vitamin K-dependent factor: A. Factor X B. Factor VII C. Factor VIII D. Factor II 8 / 50 8. alpha-interferon is not beneficial in: A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. Hairy cell leukemia C. Chronic granulomatous disease D. Chronic myeloid leukaemia 9 / 50 9. Features of sickle cell anaemia do not include: A. Hypersplenism B. Nocturia C. Priapism D. Leg ulcers 10 / 50 10. Giant lysosomal granules in granulocytes associated with albinism is known as: A. Chediak-Higashi syndrome B. Schultz syndrome C. May-Hegglin anomaly D. Niemann-Pick disease 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is associated with prolonged bleeding time? A. Hemophilia B. Antiphospholipid syndrome C. von Willebrand's disease D. Polycythaemia vera 12 / 50 12. Thymoma may be associated with all of the following except: A. Hypergammaglobulinaemia B. Myasthenia gravis C. Cushing's syndrome D. Pure red cell aplasia 13 / 50 13. Migratory thrombophlebitis is commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Hypernephroma C. Carcinoma of the pancreas D. Hepatocellular carcinoma 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is contraindicated in polycythaemia vera? A. Interferon-a B. Chlorambucil C. Low-dose aspirin D. Hydroxyurea 15 / 50 15. Which is not an example of microangiopathic haemolytic anemia? A. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome B. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation 16 / 50 16. Multiple myeloma does not feature: A. High Uric acid B. Hyperglobulinemia C. High Phosphate D. High Calcium 17 / 50 17. The largest organ system’ in the human body is: A. GI tract B. Blood C. Endothelium D. Skin 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not true in thrombasthenia? A. Normal platelet count B. Platelet aggregation defect C. Prolonged bleeding time D. Prolonged clotting time 19 / 50 19. G6PD may reflect a ‘false normal’ report in: A. Shortly after haemolysis B. Hairy cell leukemia C. Hypoplastic anemia D. Iron deficiency anemia 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not seen in hemolytic-uraemic syndrome? A. Hypofibrinogenaemia B. High creatinine level C. Positive Coombs test D. Thrombocytopenia 21 / 50 21. Cooley’s anemia is: A. Thalassemia major B. Sickle cell anemia C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Aplastic anemia 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is false in polycythaemia vera? A. High erythropoietin level B. Hyperviscosity C. Splenomegaly D. Normal arterial oxygen saturation 23 / 50 23. Spur cell anaemia is seen in: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Lymphoma C. Uremia D. Myxoedema 24 / 50 24. Circulating anticoagulants are found in: A. SLE B. Dermatomyositis C. Hairy cell leukemia D. Multiple myeloma 25 / 50 25. Which is not true in relation to multiple myeloma? A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Response to Melphalan C. Moderate splenomegaly D. Renal failure 26 / 50 26. Patients on aspirin will have: A. Prolonged bleeding time B. Prolonged APTT C. Prolonged PT D. Prolonged clotting time 27 / 50 27. Thrombocytopenia is absent in: A. Myelosclerosis B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome 28 / 50 28. Packed red cells are constructed by: A. Filtration B. Sedimentation C. Precipitation D. Centrifugation 29 / 50 29. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is classified under the name: A. Ann Arbor B. Dorothy Reed C. Rye D. Rappaport 30 / 50 30. Coombs positive haemolytic anaemia is a feature of: A. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) D. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) 31 / 50 31. The most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia is: A. Serum ferritin level B. Percentage of transferrin saturation C. Serum transferrin receptor population D. Serum iron level 32 / 50 32. vW antigen level is increased in: A. von Willebrand disease B. Multiple myeloma C. Pregnancy D. Lymphoma 33 / 50 33. ‘Cast iron spleen’ is classically found in: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) B. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome C. Myelofibrosis D. Thalassemia major 34 / 50 34. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia commonly has all the features except: A. Anemia B. Lymphadenopathy C. Hyper viscosity syndrome D. Renal failure 35 / 50 35. Agranulocytosis may be seen in treatment with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Clozapine C. Risperidone D. Clonidine 36 / 50 36. Macrocytic-hypochromic anemia is found in: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Pregnancy C. Pernicious anemia D. Thalassemia 37 / 50 37. All are true regarding midline granuloma except: A. Pathological hallmark is non-caseating granuloma B. The treatment of choice is radiotherapy C. More common in men D. Produces perforation of nasal septum 38 / 50 38. Platelet transfusion is not indicated in: A. Uremia with bleeding B. Immunogenic thrombocytopenia C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Aplastic anemia 39 / 50 39. Vitamin C is used in low dose (3 mg/kg) in thalassaemia major as in high dose, it produces: A. Cardiotoxicity B. Nephrotoxicity C. Neurotoxicity D. Hepatotoxicity 40 / 50 40. Chloroma is found in: A. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) C. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) 41 / 50 41. Megakaryocytosis in bone marrow is seen in all except: A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura B. Myeloid metaplasia C. Polycythemia vera D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 42 / 50 42. Raised Fe and normal TIBC are found in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Hemosiderosis C. Disseminated malignancy D. Thalassaemia major 43 / 50 43. Splenectomy is contraindicated in: A. Marrow failure B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura C. Pyruvate kinase deficiency D. Agnogenic myeloid metaplasia 44 / 50 44. All of the following may cause pain abdomen in thalassaemia major except: A. Splenic infarction B. Vasculitis C. Pigment stone-induced biliary colic D. Dragging pain due to huge splenomegaly 45 / 50 45. Which of the following factors is unstable in stored blood? A. V B. X C. VII D. II 46 / 50 46. Alopecia mucinosa may be seen in: A. Mycosis fungoides B. Amyloidosis C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Pancreatic carcinoma 47 / 50 47. The half-life of a platelet is: A. 10-12 days B. 1-2 days C. 5-6 days D. 3-4 days 48 / 50 48. Serum alkaline phosphatase level in multiple myeloma is usually? A. High B. Normal C. Low D. Fluctuates 49 / 50 49. Conditions resistant to malaria are all except: A. Duffy -ve blood group B. Thalassemia major C. Sickle cell disease D. Hb C disease 50 / 50 50. Which of the following does not have target cells in peripheral blood? A. Cholestatic jaundice B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Thalassaemia D. 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