Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not true in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? A. Fluctuating consciousness B. Coombs -ve hemolysis C. Fragmented platelets D. Early development of acute renal failure 2 / 50 2. Coagulation factor deficient in stored blood is: A. V B. II C. VII D. IX 3 / 50 3. Malignancy of which lineage is associated with autoimmune haemolytic anemia? A. Pre-B cell B. T cell C. Pre-T cell D. B cell 4 / 50 4. Punctate basophilia is seen in all except: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Thalassemia D. Lead poisoning 5 / 50 5. Which isolated coagulation factor deficiency causes thrombosis? A. Factor XI B. Factor VII C. Factor V D. Factor XII 6 / 50 6. Commonest pathogen involved in sickle cell anemia-induced osteomyelitis is: A. Streptococcus B. Salmonella C. Staphylococcus D. Nocardia 7 / 50 7. G6PD may reflect a ‘false normal’ report in: A. Shortly after haemolysis B. Hairy cell leukemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hypoplastic anemia 8 / 50 8. The presence of anemia, jaundice and splenomegaly with increased mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is seen in: A. Thalassemia major B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) 9 / 50 9. Red cell osmotic fragility is increased in: A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Hb C disease C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Thalassemia major 10 / 50 10. Agranulocytosis may be seen in treatment with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Clozapine C. Risperidone D. Clonidine 11 / 50 11. Acanthosis nigricans may be associated with all except: A. Carcinoma of the stomach B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome C. Ulcerative colitis D. Diabetes mellitus 12 / 50 12. Hand-Schwier-Christian disease does not have: A. Hepatosplenomegaly B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypercholesterolemia D. Exophthalmos 13 / 50 13. Sickle cell anaemia is not complicated by: A. Pancreatitis B. Osteomyelitis C. Papillary necrosis D. Congestive cardiac failure 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not seen in sickle cell anaemia? A. Leucopenia B. Leg ulcers C. Corkscrew vessel in bulbar conjunctiva D. Isosthenuria 15 / 50 15. Coombs positive haemolytic anaemia is a feature of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) C. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) 16 / 50 16. Patients on aspirin will have: A. Prolonged bleeding time B. Prolonged PT C. Prolonged clotting time D. Prolonged APTT 17 / 50 17. Eosinophilia is a feature of: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Sickle cell anemia C. Hodgkin's disease D. Hemophilia 18 / 50 18. All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except: A. Pernicious anemia B. Thalassemia C. Lead poisoning D. Sideroblastic anemia 19 / 50 19. Splenectomy is contraindicated in: A. Marrow failure B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura C. Agnogenic myeloid metaplasia D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)? A. Refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts B. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia C. Refractory anemia D. Refractory anemia with excess blasts 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not seen in hemolytic-uraemic syndrome? A. Hypofibrinogenaemia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Positive Coombs test D. High creatinine level 22 / 50 22. The half-life of a platelet is: A. 3-4 days B. 10-12 days C. 5-6 days D. 1-2 days 23 / 50 23. Which test detects haemolytic anemia? A. Benedict's test B. Occult blood test in stool C. Coombs' test D. Schilling test 24 / 50 24. Platelet transfusion is not indicated in: A. Uremia with bleeding B. Immunogenic thrombocytopenia C. Aplastic anemia D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation 25 / 50 25. Sezary syndrome is: A. Arsenical hyperkeratosis B. B-cell lymphoma C. A variety of alopecia mucinosa D. T-cell lymphoma 26 / 50 26. Low-dose arsenic trioxide has recently been used in relapsed patients of: A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia B. Aplastic anemia C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia D. Hairy cell leukemia 27 / 50 27. Busulfan therapy may lead to all except: A. Optic neuritis B. Bone marrow suppression C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Hyperpigmentation 28 / 50 28. All of the following are seen in intravascular haemolysis except: A. Reticulocytosis B. High urinary haemosiderin C. High urinary urobilinogen D. High plasma haemopexin 29 / 50 29. Alopecia mucinosa may be seen in: A. Mycosis fungoides B. Amyloidosis C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Pancreatic carcinoma 30 / 50 30. vW antigen level is increased in: A. Pregnancy B. Multiple myeloma C. von Willebrand disease D. Lymphoma 31 / 50 31. Iron transport protein is: A. Transferrin B. Haptoglobin C. Ferritin D. Transcobalamin II 32 / 50 32. Total serum LDH is not raised in: A. Hemolysis B. Crush injury C. AMI D. Stroke 33 / 50 33. Palpable purpura is seen in: A. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis B. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Quinine therapy 34 / 50 34. Microcytic hypochromic anaemia is characteristic of: A. Patterson-Kelly syndrome B. Persons who are true vegetarians C. Munchausen's syndrome D. Pseudohypoparathyroidism 35 / 50 35. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is commonly seen in association with: A. Hurler syndrome B. Froehlich's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Ataxia telangiectasia 36 / 50 36. The most effective treatment of polycythaemia vera is: A. Splenectomy B. Exchange transfusion C. Fresh frozen plasma D. Phlebotomy 37 / 50 37. Pelger-Huet anomaly is: A. Hereditary hyposegmentation of neutrophils B. Hereditary hypersegmentation of neutrophils C. Faulty maturation of platelets D. Presence of Dohle bodies in neutrophils 38 / 50 38. Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease (IPSID) is a variety of: A. Adenocarcinoma B. GI complication of AIDS C. Carcinoid tumors D. Intestinal lymphoma 39 / 50 39. Which is not an example of microangiopathic haemolytic anemia? A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome D. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria 40 / 50 40. Raised Fe and normal TIBC are found in: A. Thalassaemia major B. Disseminated malignancy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Hemosiderosis 41 / 50 41. Para-hemophilia is a deficiency of factor: A. IX B. XI C. von Willebrand's D. V 42 / 50 42. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is high in all except: A. After steroid administration B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Myelosclerosis D. Polycythaemia vera 43 / 50 43. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is diminished in: A. Thalassemia major B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) C. Lymphoma D. Sickle cell anemia 44 / 50 44. Pseudolymphoma may be produced by all except: A. Lithium B. Primidone C. Cyclosporine D. Phenytoin 45 / 50 45. All of the following may cause pain abdomen in thalassaemia major except: A. Dragging pain due to huge splenomegaly B. Pigment stone-induced biliary colic C. Vasculitis D. Splenic infarction 46 / 50 46. Increased serum iron and reduced iron-binding capacity are features of: A. Alcoholic liver disease B. Hookworm infestation C. Sideroblastic anemia D. Thalassemia major 47 / 50 47. All are true regarding midline granuloma except: A. Pathological hallmark is non-caseating granuloma B. More common in men C. The treatment of choice is radiotherapy D. Produces perforation of nasal septum 48 / 50 48. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome does not feature: A. Eczema B. Repeated infections C. Hemolytic anemia D. Thrombocytopenia 49 / 50 49. alpha-interferon is not beneficial in: A. Chronic myeloid leukaemia B. Hairy cell leukemia C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Chronic granulomatous disease 50 / 50 50. Schumm test is done to detect? A. Haemopexin B. Citrulline C. Methaemalbumin D. Haptoglobin LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology