Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Which is not an example of microangiopathic haemolytic anemia? A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria B. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura 2 / 50 2. Red cell osmotic fragility is increased in: A. Hb C disease B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Thalassemia major 3 / 50 3. Increased serum iron and reduced iron-binding capacity are features of: A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Alcoholic liver disease C. Hookworm infestation D. Thalassemia major 4 / 50 4. Giant lysosomal granules in granulocytes associated with albinism is known as: A. Chediak-Higashi syndrome B. May-Hegglin anomaly C. Schultz syndrome D. Niemann-Pick disease 5 / 50 5. Which of the following factors is unstable in stored blood? A. V B. VII C. X D. II 6 / 50 6. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is commonly seen in association with: A. Down's syndrome B. Froehlich's syndrome C. Ataxia telangiectasia D. Hurler syndrome 7 / 50 7. Post-splenectomy peripheral blood picture does not contain: A. Target cells B. Dohle bodies C. Heinz bodies D. Howell-Jolly bodies 8 / 50 8. Vitamin C is used in low dose (3 mg/kg) in thalassaemia major as in high dose, it produces: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Neurotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Cardiotoxicity 9 / 50 9. Multiple myeloma does not feature: A. High Calcium B. Hyperglobulinemia C. High Uric acid D. High Phosphate 10 / 50 10. Low-dose arsenic trioxide has recently been used in relapsed patients of: A. Aplastic anemia B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia C. Hairy cell leukemia D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 11 / 50 11. Chloroma is found in: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) C. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) D. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) 12 / 50 12. Palpable purpura is seen in: A. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia B. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Quinine therapy 13 / 50 13. Which isolated coagulation factor deficiency causes thrombosis? A. Factor V B. Factor VII C. Factor XII D. Factor XI 14 / 50 14. Which is not a vitamin K-dependent factor: A. Factor VII B. Factor X C. Factor VIII D. Factor II 15 / 50 15. Peripheral blood picture is the most useful diagnostic aid in: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Myelodysplastic syndrome C. Multiple myeloma D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 16 / 50 16. Iron transport protein is: A. Transcobalamin II B. Haptoglobin C. Transferrin D. Ferritin 17 / 50 17. Serum vitamin B12 level is increased in: A. di Guglielmo's disease B. Pernicious anemia C. Hereditary orotic aciduria D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 18 / 50 18. Conditions resistant to malaria are all except: A. Hb C disease B. Thalassemia major C. Duffy -ve blood group D. Sickle cell disease 19 / 50 19. Patients on aspirin will have: A. Prolonged clotting time B. Prolonged PT C. Prolonged APTT D. Prolonged bleeding time 20 / 50 20. Basophilia is classically found in: A. Hodgkin's disease C. B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Melanoma D. Chronic myeloid leukaemia 21 / 50 21. Alopecia mucinosa may be seen in: A. Amyloidosis B. Mycosis fungoides C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Pancreatic carcinoma 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)? A. Refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts B. Refractory anemia C. Refractory anemia with excess blasts D. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia 23 / 50 23. Megakaryocytosis in bone marrow is seen in all except: A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura B. Chronic myeloid leukemia C. Polycythemia vera D. Myeloid metaplasia 24 / 50 24. Agranulocytosis may be seen in treatment with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Clozapine C. Clonidine D. Risperidone 25 / 50 25. Pancytopenia may develop from all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Hemosiderosis C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) D. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) 26 / 50 26. All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except: A. Thalassemia B. Sideroblastic anemia C. Lead poisoning D. Pernicious anemia 27 / 50 27. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture may be seen in all except: A. Myelophthisic anemia B. Sickle cell anemia C. Myelofibrosis D. Gaucher's disease 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is associated with prolonged bleeding time? A. Hemophilia B. von Willebrand's disease C. Polycythaemia vera D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 29 / 50 29. Plasmapheresis may be done in all except: A. Hypoplastic anemia B. Cryoglobulinemia C. Goodpasture's disease D. Myasthenia gravis 30 / 50 30. Schumm test is done to detect? A. Methaemalbumin B. Haptoglobin C. Citrulline D. Haemopexin 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not seen in hemolytic-uraemic syndrome? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hypofibrinogenaemia C. Positive Coombs test D. High creatinine level 32 / 50 32. Gaisbock’s syndrome is associated with: A. Stress erythrocytosis B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 33 / 50 33. The prominent feature of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is: A. Presence of sternal tenderness B. Gum bleeding C. Fever D. Moderate splenomegaly 34 / 50 34. Para-hemophilia is a deficiency of factor: A. V B. IX C. XI D. von Willebrand's 35 / 50 35. Total serum LDH is not raised in: A. Stroke B. Hemolysis C. AMI D. Crush injury 36 / 50 36. Bence-Jones proteins are derived from which type of globulin? A. Gamma B. Delta C. Beta D. Alpha 37 / 50 37. Bone marrow examination is essential in: A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia B. Hairy cell leukaemia C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Thalassemia 38 / 50 38. Busulfan therapy may lead to all except: A. Hyperpigmentation B. Bone marrow suppression C. Optic neuritis D. Pulmonary fibrosis 39 / 50 39. Thalassemia major may be associated with all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Cardiomegaly 40 / 50 40. Macrocytosis of RBC is characteristic of all except: A. Methotrexate-induced B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Anemia of myxoedema D. Chronic alcoholism-induced liver disease 41 / 50 41. Sideroblastic anemia may be treated by all except: A. Androgens B. Hydroxyurea C. Desferrioxamine D. Pyridoxine 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is false in polycythaemia vera? A. Normal arterial oxygen saturation B. High erythropoietin level C. Splenomegaly D. Hyperviscosity 43 / 50 43. All are examples of hypoplastic anaemia except: A. Hepatitis B-induced B. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 44 / 50 44. Haemolytic anaemia is not produced by: A. Methyldopa B. Penicillin C. Lithium D. Quinidine 45 / 50 45. Malignancy of which lineage is associated with autoimmune haemolytic anemia? A. Pre-T cell B. T cell C. B cell D. Pre-B cell 46 / 50 46. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome does not feature: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Repeated infections C. Eczema D. Hemolytic anemia 47 / 50 47. The most effective treatment of polycythaemia vera is: A. Fresh frozen plasma B. Phlebotomy C. Splenectomy D. Exchange transfusion 48 / 50 48. The commonest cause of jaundice in thalassaemia is: A. Iron deposition in liver B. Viral hepatitis C C. Hemolysis D. Viral hepatitis B 49 / 50 49. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be seen in all except: A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever B. Amniotic fluid embolism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Giant hemangioma 50 / 50 50. All the following drugs produce methemoglobinaemia except: A. Sodium nitroprusside B. Amyl nitrite C. Hydralazine D. Phenacetin LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology