Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is false in polycythaemia vera? A. High erythropoietin level B. Hyperviscosity C. Normal arterial oxygen saturation D. Splenomegaly 2 / 50 2. The half-life of a platelet is: A. 3-4 days B. 1-2 days C. 10-12 days D. 5-6 days 3 / 50 3. Epitrochlear adenopathy may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Secondary syphilis C. Sarcoidosis D. Tularemia 4 / 50 4. All the following drugs produce methemoglobinaemia except: A. Phenacetin B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Hydralazine D. Amyl nitrite 5 / 50 5. Total serum LDH is not raised in: A. Crush injury B. Stroke C. AMI D. Hemolysis 6 / 50 6. Malignancy of which lineage is associated with autoimmune haemolytic anemia? A. T cell B. Pre-B cell C. B cell D. Pre-T cell 7 / 50 7. Which of the following does not have target cells in peripheral blood? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Lymphoma C. Thalassaemia D. Cholestatic jaundice 8 / 50 8. The best treatment modality in chronic myeloid leukaemia is: A. Radiotherapy B. Interferon-alpha C. Hydroxyurea D. Allogenic bone marrow transplantation 9 / 50 9. The commonest cause of jaundice in thalassaemia is: A. Iron deposition in liver B. Viral hepatitis C C. Viral hepatitis B D. Hemolysis 10 / 50 10. ‘Cast iron spleen’ is classically found in: A. Thalassemia major B. Myelofibrosis C. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) 11 / 50 11. Which isolated coagulation factor deficiency causes thrombosis? A. Factor VII B. Factor V C. Factor XII D. Factor XI 12 / 50 12. All of the following are true in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) except: A. Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase B. Positive acidified serum lysis (HAM) test C. Elevated red cell acetylcholinesterase D. Elevated LDH 13 / 50 13. Spur cell anaemia is seen in: A. Uremia B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Myxoedema D. Lymphoma 14 / 50 14. Sickle cell anaemia is associated with: A. Diastolic murmur over precordium B. Cerebral embolism C. Fish-mouth vertebrae D. High ESR 15 / 50 15. Splenectomy is virtually curative in: A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Thalassemia C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) D. G6PD deficiency 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is false regarding Philadelphia chromosome? A. Philadelphia -ve cases have a bad prognosis B. Diagnostic of CML C. Found in lymphocytes D. Shortening of the long arm of chromosome G22 17 / 50 17. Hemolytic-uraemic syndrome (HUS) is not characterised by: A. Segmented RBCs in peripheral smear B. Uremia C. Thrombocytosis D. Hematuria 18 / 50 18. Which test detects haemolytic anemia? A. Schilling test B. Benedict's test C. Occult blood test in stool D. Coombs' test 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not seen in hemolytic-uraemic syndrome? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Positive Coombs test C. High creatinine level D. Hypofibrinogenaemia 20 / 50 20. Waldeyer’s ring does not include: A. Submandibular glands B. Faucal tonsils C. Lingual tonsils D. Adenoids 21 / 50 21. Cooley’s anemia is: A. Thalassemia major B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Aplastic anemia D. Sickle cell anemia 22 / 50 22. HAM test (acid serum test), now an obsolete test, was used to diagnose: A. G6PD deficiency B. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome C. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria D. Myelodysplastic syndrome 23 / 50 23. In chronic granulomatous disease, which is false? A. Prone to infection by staphylococci B. Difficulty in phagocytosis C. Neutrophil count is normal D. Diagnosed by amount of nitroblue tetrazolium reduction 24 / 50 24. Iron transport protein is: A. Haptoglobin B. Transcobalamin II C. Ferritin D. Transferrin 25 / 50 25. The half-life of albumin is: A. 16-20 days B. 20-22 days C. 1-2 days D. 10-14 days 26 / 50 26. Virchow’s node receives lymphatics from all except: A. Testes B. Prostate C. Stomach D. Breast (left) 27 / 50 27. Warm-antibody mediated haemolysis is not found in: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. SLE D. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia 28 / 50 28. Erythropoietin is increased in all except: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Hepatocellular carcinoma D. Renal cell carcinoma 29 / 50 29. Gaisbock’s syndrome is associated with: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Stress erythrocytosis 30 / 50 30. Erythropoietin is secreted from all of the following tumours except: A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Pheochromocytoma C. Oat cell carcinoma of lung D. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma 31 / 50 31. Pseudolymphoma may be produced by all except: A. Cyclosporine B. Primidone C. Phenytoin D. Lithium 32 / 50 32. All of the following are seen in intravascular haemolysis except: A. High urinary haemosiderin B. High plasma haemopexin C. High urinary urobilinogen D. Reticulocytosis 33 / 50 33. Eosinophilia is caused by all except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Iodides C. Oxyphenbutazone D. Sulphonamides 34 / 50 34. Myelophthisic anemia is characterised by all except: A. Neutropenia B. Basophilic stippling C. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture D. Caused by disseminated malignancy 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a myeloproliferative disorder? A. Polycythemia vera B. Essential thrombocytopenia C. Chronic myeloid leukemia D. Myeloid metaplasia 36 / 50 36. Which of the following anaemias is associated with splenomegaly? A. Aplastic anemia B. Chronic renal failure C. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Sickle cell anemia 37 / 50 37. alpha-interferon is not beneficial in: A. Chronic myeloid leukaemia B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. Hairy cell leukemia D. Kaposi's sarcoma 38 / 50 38. Auer rods are found in: A. Blast crisis of CML B. Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) C. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) D. Blast crisis of CLL 39 / 50 39. Thrombocytopenia is absent in: A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome B. Myelosclerosis C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation 40 / 50 40. Reed-Sternberg cell is found in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Breast carcinoma 41 / 50 41. Commonest pathogen involved in sickle cell anemia-induced osteomyelitis is: A. Nocardia B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Salmonella 42 / 50 42. Bone marrow examination is essential in: A. Thalassemia B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia C. Hairy cell leukaemia D. Megaloblastic anemia 43 / 50 43. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia commonly has all the features except: A. Hyper viscosity syndrome B. Lymphadenopathy C. Renal failure D. Anemia 44 / 50 44. Microcytic hypochromic anaemia is characteristic of: A. Munchausen's syndrome B. Patterson-Kelly syndrome C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism D. Persons who are true vegetarians 45 / 50 45. The presence of anemia, jaundice and splenomegaly with increased mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is seen in: A. Thalassemia major B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Hereditary spherocytosis 46 / 50 46. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be seen in all except: A. Amniotic fluid embolism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Giant hemangioma D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not associated with hypersplenism? A. Pancytopenia B. Hypocellular bone marrow C. Reversibility by splenectomy D. Splenomegaly 48 / 50 48. The most effective treatment of polycythaemia vera is: A. Fresh frozen plasma B. Phlebotomy C. Splenectomy D. Exchange transfusion 49 / 50 49. All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except: A. Thalassemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Lead poisoning D. Sideroblastic anemia 50 / 50 50. Thymoma may be associated with all of the following except: A. Hypergammaglobulinaemia B. Cushing's syndrome C. Pure red cell aplasia D. Myasthenia gravis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology