Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Thalassemia major may be associated with all except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Cardiac tamponade D. Cardiac arrhythmia 2 / 50 2. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is diminished in: A. Lymphoma B. Thalassemia major C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) D. Sickle cell anemia 3 / 50 3. Thrombocytopenia is absent in: A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Myelosclerosis 4 / 50 4. Which is not a vitamin K-dependent factor: A. Factor X B. Factor VIII C. Factor VII D. Factor II 5 / 50 5. Serum alkaline phosphatase level in multiple myeloma is usually? A. Fluctuates B. Low C. High D. Normal 6 / 50 6. Eosinophilia is a feature of: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Sickle cell anemia C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Hemophilia 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is contraindicated in polycythaemia vera? A. Hydroxyurea B. Low-dose aspirin C. Interferon-a D. Chlorambucil 8 / 50 8. Red cell osmotic fragility is increased in: A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Thalassemia major D. Hb C disease 9 / 50 9. Total serum LDH is not raised in: A. Stroke B. Crush injury C. Hemolysis D. AMI 10 / 50 10. Commonest pathogen involved in sickle cell anemia-induced osteomyelitis is: A. Streptococcus B. Staphylococcus C. Nocardia D. Salmonella 11 / 50 11. Plasmapheresis may be done in all except: A. Cryoglobulinemia B. Myasthenia gravis C. Hypoplastic anemia D. Goodpasture's disease 12 / 50 12. Decreased iron and decreased iron-binding capacity are seen in: A. Menorrhagia B. Chronic infections C. Recurrent GI tract hemorrhage D. Intestinal resection 13 / 50 13. Agranulocytosis may be seen in treatment with: A. Clozapine B. Clonidine C. Chlorpromazine D. Risperidone 14 / 50 14. Thrombasthenia may be seen in all of the following except: A. Myeloproliferative disorders B. Paraproteinemia C. Uremia D. Diabetes mellitus 15 / 50 15. Microcytic hypochromic anaemia is characteristic of: A. Patterson-Kelly syndrome B. Munchausen's syndrome C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism D. Persons who are true vegetarians 16 / 50 16. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is commonly seen in association with: A. Down's syndrome B. Hurler syndrome C. Froehlich's syndrome D. Ataxia telangiectasia 17 / 50 17. Which of the following does not produce iron overload in the body? A. Sideroblastic anaemia B. Alcoholic liver disease C. Chronic hemodialysis D. Pernicious anaemia 18 / 50 18. Hemolytic-uraemic syndrome (HUS) is not characterised by: A. Thrombocytosis B. Uremia C. Segmented RBCs in peripheral smear D. Hematuria 19 / 50 19. Which is not an example of microangiopathic haemolytic anemia? A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria B. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not true in thrombasthenia? A. Normal platelet count B. Prolonged bleeding time C. Platelet aggregation defect D. Prolonged clotting time 21 / 50 21. alpha-interferon is not beneficial in: A. Chronic granulomatous disease B. Hairy cell leukemia C. Chronic myeloid leukaemia D. Kaposi's sarcoma 22 / 50 22. Chloroma is found in: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) C. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) D. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) 23 / 50 23. Circulating anticoagulants are found in: A. SLE B. Multiple myeloma C. Dermatomyositis D. Hairy cell leukemia 24 / 50 24. The half-life of a platelet is: A. 10-12 days B. 1-2 days C. 5-6 days D. 3-4 days 25 / 50 25. Packed red cells are constructed by: A. Filtration B. Centrifugation C. Precipitation D. Sedimentation 26 / 50 26. Intravascular half-life of factor-VIII is: A. 4-5 days B. 1-3 days C. 5 hours D. 12 hours 27 / 50 27. G6PD may reflect a ‘false normal’ report in: A. Hairy cell leukemia B. Shortly after haemolysis C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hypoplastic anemia 28 / 50 28. Para-hemophilia is a deficiency of factor: A. XI B. von Willebrand's C. V D. IX 29 / 50 29. Bone marrow examination is essential in: A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia B. Thalassemia C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Hairy cell leukaemia 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)? A. Refractory anemia B. Refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia D. Refractory anemia with excess blasts 31 / 50 31. Cooley’s anemia is: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Sickle cell anemia C. Thalassemia major D. Aplastic anemia 32 / 50 32. Which test detects haemolytic anemia? A. Benedict's test B. Occult blood test in stool C. Coombs' test D. Schilling test 33 / 50 33. The best prognostic indicator in multiple myeloma is: A. Serum calcium level in marrow B. Serum Beta-2 microglobulins C. Bence Jones protein in urine D. Number of plasma cells 34 / 50 34. Sezary syndrome is: A. Arsenical hyperkeratosis B. A variety of alopecia mucinosa C. T-cell lymphoma D. B-cell lymphoma 35 / 50 35. ‘Cast iron spleen’ is classically found in: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) B. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome C. Myelofibrosis D. Thalassemia major 36 / 50 36. Basophilia is classically found in: A. Melanoma B. Hodgkin's disease C. C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Chronic myeloid leukaemia 37 / 50 37. The presence of anemia, jaundice and splenomegaly with increased mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is seen in: A. Thalassemia major B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) 38 / 50 38. An incorrect statement in pernicious anaemia is: A. Hyperchlorhydria B. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody in 60% patients C. Gastric polyp may develop D. Premature greying of hair 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not seen in hemolytic-uraemic syndrome? A. Hypofibrinogenaemia B. High creatinine level C. Thrombocytopenia D. Positive Coombs test 40 / 50 40. Raised Fe and normal TIBC are found in: A. Thalassaemia major B. Hemosiderosis C. Disseminated malignancy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 41 / 50 41. Peripheral blood picture is the most useful diagnostic aid in: A. Multiple myeloma B. Myelodysplastic syndrome C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 42 / 50 42. Alopecia mucinosa may be seen in: A. Amyloidosis B. Mycosis fungoides C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Pancreatic carcinoma 43 / 50 43. ‘Suggilations’ are haemorrhagic spots in the size of: A. > 10 mm in diameter B. 1-2 mm in diameter C. 2-5 mm in diameter D. > 20 mm in diameter 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is not true in polycythaemia vera? A. Markedly hypercellular marrow B. Increased RBC mass C. Thrombocytopenia D. Basophilia 45 / 50 45. Carcinoembryonic antigen is the tumour marker of: A. Ovarian carcinoma B. Hepatocellular carcinoma C. Colorectal carcinoma D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 46 / 50 46. Giant lysosomal granules in granulocytes associated with albinism is known as: A. Chediak-Higashi syndrome B. Schultz syndrome C. Niemann-Pick disease D. May-Hegglin anomaly 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is false regarding Philadelphia chromosome? A. Found in lymphocytes B. Philadelphia -ve cases have a bad prognosis C. Shortening of the long arm of chromosome G22 D. Diagnostic of CML 48 / 50 48. Haemolytic anaemia is not produced by: A. Lithium B. Quinidine C. Methyldopa D. Penicillin 49 / 50 49. Epitrochlear adenopathy may be produced by all except: A. Secondary syphilis B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Tularemia 50 / 50 50. Virchow’s node receives lymphatics from all except: A. Testes B. Stomach C. Breast (left) D. 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