Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Thrombasthenia may be seen in all of the following except: A. Uremia B. Myeloproliferative disorders C. Diabetes mellitus D. Paraproteinemia 2 / 50 2. Which of the following may develop in sites other than bone marrow? A. Lymphocyte B. Neutrophil C. Monocyte D. Megakaryocyte 3 / 50 3. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be seen in all except: A. Giant hemangioma B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever C. Diabetes mellitus D. Amniotic fluid embolism 4 / 50 4. Erythropoietin is secreted from all of the following tumours except: A. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma B. Renal cell carcinoma C. Oat cell carcinoma of lung D. Pheochromocytoma 5 / 50 5. Vitamin C is used in low dose (3 mg/kg) in thalassaemia major as in high dose, it produces: A. Hepatotoxicity B. Nephrotoxicity C. Neurotoxicity D. Cardiotoxicity 6 / 50 6. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is high in all except: A. Chronic myeloid leukaemia B. After steroid administration C. Myelosclerosis D. Polycythaemia vera 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not seen in sickle cell anaemia? A. Isosthenuria B. Leucopenia C. Corkscrew vessel in bulbar conjunctiva D. Leg ulcers 8 / 50 8. Tumour lysis syndrome produces all except: A. Hyperphosphatemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperuricemia 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is false in haemophilia? A. von Willebrand antigens level is grossly diminished B. Increased partial thromboplastin time C. Normal prothrombin time D. Absent factor VIII coagulant activity 10 / 50 10. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome does not feature: A. Eczema B. Thrombocytopenia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Repeated infections 11 / 50 11. Hand-Schwier-Christian disease does not have: A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Hepatosplenomegaly C. Diabetes mellitus D. Exophthalmos 12 / 50 12. Pancytopenia may develop from all except: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Hemosiderosis D. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) 13 / 50 13. Low-dose arsenic trioxide has recently been used in relapsed patients of: A. Hairy cell leukemia B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia D. Aplastic anemia 14 / 50 14. Sideroblastic anemia may be treated by all except: A. Hydroxyurea B. Pyridoxine C. Desferrioxamine D. Androgens 15 / 50 15. Total serum LDH is not raised in: A. Hemolysis B. AMI C. Stroke D. Crush injury 16 / 50 16. Thymoma may be associated with all of the following except: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hypergammaglobulinaemia D. Pure red cell aplasia 17 / 50 17. Basophilic stippling is classically seen in: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Myelosclerosis D. Chronic lead poisoning 18 / 50 18. All are features of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia except: A. Response to albendazole therapy B. Miliary mottling in chest X-ray C. High IgE level D. Eosinophilia >3000/mm^3 19 / 50 19. Serum alkaline phosphatase level in multiple myeloma is usually? A. Low B. Normal C. Fluctuates D. High 20 / 50 20. The half-life of albumin is: A. 20-22 days B. 10-14 days C. 16-20 days D. 1-2 days 21 / 50 21. Agranulocytosis may be seen in treatment with: A. Risperidone B. Chlorpromazine C. Clonidine D. Clozapine 22 / 50 22. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is not associated with: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Acute diffuse glomerulonephritis C. Intussusception D. Palpable purpura 23 / 50 23. Auer rods are found in: A. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) B. Blast crisis of CML C. Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) D. Blast crisis of CLL 24 / 50 24. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture may be seen in all except: A. Gaucher's disease B. Myelophthisic anemia C. Myelofibrosis D. Sickle cell anemia 25 / 50 25. Sezary syndrome is: A. B-cell lymphoma B. T-cell lymphoma C. Arsenical hyperkeratosis D. A variety of alopecia mucinosa 26 / 50 26. Malignancy of which lineage is associated with autoimmune haemolytic anemia? A. B cell B. T cell C. Pre-T cell D. Pre-B cell 27 / 50 27. Conditions resistant to malaria are all except: A. Thalassemia major B. Sickle cell disease C. Duffy -ve blood group D. Hb C disease 28 / 50 28. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia commonly has all the features except: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Renal failure C. Hyper viscosity syndrome D. Anemia 29 / 50 29. Warm-antibody mediated haemolysis is not found in: A. SLE B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia 30 / 50 30. Eosinophilia is a feature of: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Hodgkin's disease C. Sickle cell anemia D. Hemophilia 31 / 50 31. Raised Fe and normal TIBC are found in: A. Hemosiderosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thalassaemia major D. Disseminated malignancy 32 / 50 32. Which test detects haemolytic anemia? A. Occult blood test in stool B. Coombs' test C. Benedict's test D. Schilling test 33 / 50 33. Myelophthisic anemia is characterised by all except: A. Basophilic stippling B. Neutropenia C. Caused by disseminated malignancy D. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture 34 / 50 34. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is not associated with: A. Angular stomatitis B. Splenomegaly C. Post-cricoid web D. Clubbing 35 / 50 35. Features of sickle cell anaemia do not include: A. Nocturia B. Leg ulcers C. Priapism D. Hypersplenism 36 / 50 36. Spur cell anaemia is seen in: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Uremia C. Lymphoma D. Myxoedema 37 / 50 37. All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except: A. Lead poisoning B. Thalassemia C. Sideroblastic anemia D. Pernicious anemia 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a myeloproliferative disorder? A. Essential thrombocytopenia B. Chronic myeloid leukemia C. Myeloid metaplasia D. Polycythemia vera 39 / 50 39. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is diminished in: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) B. Lymphoma C. Sickle cell anemia D. Thalassemia major 40 / 50 40. The most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia is: A. Serum ferritin level B. Serum transferrin receptor population C. Serum iron level D. Percentage of transferrin saturation 41 / 50 41. Virchow’s node receives lymphatics from all except: A. Breast (left) B. Testes C. Prostate D. Stomach 42 / 50 42. Decreased iron and decreased iron-binding capacity are seen in: A. Intestinal resection B. Recurrent GI tract hemorrhage C. Chronic infections D. Menorrhagia 43 / 50 43. The commonest cause of jaundice in thalassaemia is: A. Viral hepatitis B B. Viral hepatitis C C. Hemolysis D. Iron deposition in liver 44 / 50 44. Splenectomy is virtually curative in: A. G6PD deficiency B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) C. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Thalassemia 45 / 50 45. Gaisbock’s syndrome is associated with: A. Stress erythrocytosis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not true in polycythaemia vera? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Basophilia C. Increased RBC mass D. Markedly hypercellular marrow 47 / 50 47. Peripheral blood picture is the most useful diagnostic aid in: A. Chronic myeloid leukemia B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Myelodysplastic syndrome D. Multiple myeloma 48 / 50 48. Thalassemia major may be associated with all except: A. Cardiac arrhythmia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Cardiomegaly D. Congestive cardiac failure 49 / 50 49. The most effective treatment of polycythaemia vera is: A. Splenectomy B. Phlebotomy C. Fresh frozen plasma D. Exchange transfusion 50 / 50 50. Multiple myeloma does not feature: A. High Phosphate B. High Calcium C. High Uric acid D. 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