Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. The prominent feature of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is: A. Fever B. Gum bleeding C. Presence of sternal tenderness D. Moderate splenomegaly 2 / 50 2. Spur cell anaemia is seen in: A. Lymphoma B. Uremia C. Myxoedema D. Cirrhosis of liver 3 / 50 3. Myelophthisic anemia is characterised by all except: A. Leucoerythroblastic blood picture B. Caused by disseminated malignancy C. Neutropenia D. Basophilic stippling 4 / 50 4. All of the following produce microcytic anaemia except: A. Lead poisoning B. Sideroblastic anemia C. Thalassemia D. Pernicious anemia 5 / 50 5. Thrombocytopenia is absent in: A. Myelosclerosis B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura 6 / 50 6. Among the following, the treatment of choice in hairy cell leukaemia is: A. Hydroxyurea B. Splenectomy C. Deoxycoformycin D. Corticosteroid 7 / 50 7. Erythropoietin is increased in all except: A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Renal cell carcinoma D. Hepatocellular carcinoma 8 / 50 8. Coombs positive haemolytic anaemia is a feature of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) C. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) D. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) 9 / 50 9. HAM test (acid serum test), now an obsolete test, was used to diagnose: A. Myelodysplastic syndrome B. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome C. G6PD deficiency D. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria 10 / 50 10. Which isolated coagulation factor deficiency causes thrombosis? A. Factor VII B. Factor XI C. Factor V D. Factor XII 11 / 50 11. All of the following may produce agranulocytosis except: A. Chloramphenicol B. Methimazole C. Methyldopa D. Gold salts 12 / 50 12. Conditions resistant to malaria are all except: A. Duffy -ve blood group B. Thalassemia major C. Sickle cell disease D. Hb C disease 13 / 50 13. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is not associated with: A. Angular stomatitis B. Clubbing C. Post-cricoid web D. Splenomegaly 14 / 50 14. The largest organ system’ in the human body is: A. Skin B. Blood C. GI tract D. Endothelium 15 / 50 15. Megakaryocytosis in bone marrow is seen in all except: A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura B. Chronic myeloid leukemia C. Myeloid metaplasia D. Polycythemia vera 16 / 50 16. Waldeyer’s ring does not include: A. Submandibular glands B. Lingual tonsils C. Faucal tonsils D. Adenoids 17 / 50 17. Post-splenectomy peripheral blood picture does not contain: A. Dohle bodies B. Heinz bodies C. Howell-Jolly bodies D. Target cells 18 / 50 18. Multiple myeloma does not feature: A. High Uric acid B. Hyperglobulinemia C. High Phosphate D. High Calcium 19 / 50 19. Lifespan of platelets is: A. 2-4 days B. 13-15 days C. 9-11 days D. 5-7 days 20 / 50 20. Splenectomy is virtually curative in: A. Thalassemia B. G6PD deficiency C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) D. Hereditary spherocytosis 21 / 50 21. vW antigen level is increased in: A. Pregnancy B. Multiple myeloma C. Lymphoma D. von Willebrand disease 22 / 50 22. Thymoma may be associated with all of the following except: A. Pure red cell aplasia B. Hypergammaglobulinaemia C. Cushing's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 23 / 50 23. Histiocytosis-X disease does not include: A. Letterer-Siwe disease B. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Unifocal eosinophilic granuloma 24 / 50 24. Epitrochlear adenopathy may be produced by all except: A. Secondary syphilis B. Sarcoidosis C. Tularemia D. Leprosy 25 / 50 25. Circulating anticoagulants are found in: A. SLE B. Dermatomyositis C. Multiple myeloma D. Hairy cell leukemia 26 / 50 26. All are examples of hypoplastic anaemia except: A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria C. Hepatitis B-induced D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 27 / 50 27. Which of the following anaemias is associated with splenomegaly? A. Sickle cell anemia B. Aplastic anemia C. Chronic renal failure D. Hereditary spherocytosis 28 / 50 28. Iron transport protein is: A. Transferrin B. Transcobalamin II C. Haptoglobin D. Ferritin 29 / 50 29. The best treatment modality in chronic myeloid leukaemia is: A. Interferon-alpha B. Radiotherapy C. Hydroxyurea D. Allogenic bone marrow transplantation 30 / 50 30. Busulfan therapy may lead to all except: A. Optic neuritis B. Hyperpigmentation C. Bone marrow suppression D. Pulmonary fibrosis 31 / 50 31. The most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia is: A. Serum transferrin receptor population B. Serum ferritin level C. Percentage of transferrin saturation D. Serum iron level 32 / 50 32. Pseudolymphoma may be produced by all except: A. Cyclosporine B. Phenytoin C. Primidone D. Lithium 33 / 50 33. Eosinophilia is caused by all except: A. Oxyphenbutazone B. Sulphonamides C. Iodides D. Nitrofurantoin 34 / 50 34. All are features of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia except: A. Response to albendazole therapy B. High IgE level C. Miliary mottling in chest X-ray D. Eosinophilia >3000/mm^3 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a myeloproliferative disorder? A. Chronic myeloid leukemia B. Essential thrombocytopenia C. Polycythemia vera D. Myeloid metaplasia 36 / 50 36. Plasmapheresis may be done in all except: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Hypoplastic anemia C. Goodpasture's disease D. Cryoglobulinemia 37 / 50 37. Erythropoietin is secreted from all of the following tumours except: A. Pheochromocytoma B. Renal cell carcinoma C. Oat cell carcinoma of lung D. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma 38 / 50 38. Bone marrow examination is essential in: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Thalassemia C. Hairy cell leukaemia D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 39 / 50 39. Non-thrombocytopenic purpura is seen in all except: A. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasis B. Uremia C. Vasculitis D. SLE 40 / 50 40. Features of sickle cell anaemia do not include: A. Nocturia B. Priapism C. Hypersplenism D. Leg ulcers 41 / 50 41. Which test detects haemolytic anemia? A. Coombs' test B. Occult blood test in stool C. Benedict's test D. Schilling test 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not true in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? A. Fragmented platelets B. Coombs -ve hemolysis C. Early development of acute renal failure D. Fluctuating consciousness 43 / 50 43. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is classified under the name: A. Ann Arbor B. Dorothy Reed C. Rye D. Rappaport 44 / 50 44. All the following drugs produce methemoglobinaemia except: A. Sodium nitroprusside B. Amyl nitrite C. Phenacetin D. Hydralazine 45 / 50 45. Thrombasthenia may be seen in all of the following except: A. Paraproteinemia B. Myeloproliferative disorders C. Uremia D. Diabetes mellitus 46 / 50 46. Sickle cell anaemia is not complicated by: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Osteomyelitis C. Pancreatitis D. Papillary necrosis 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not true in polycythaemia vera? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Basophilia C. Markedly hypercellular marrow D. Increased RBC mass 48 / 50 48. Coagulation factor deficient in stored blood is: A. V B. II C. VII D. IX 49 / 50 49. Malignancy of which lineage is associated with autoimmune haemolytic anemia? A. T cell B. B cell C. Pre-T cell D. Pre-B cell 50 / 50 50. An incorrect statement in pernicious anaemia is: A. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody in 60% patients B. Premature greying of hair C. Hyperchlorhydria D. Gastric polyp may develop LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology