Hematology Home Hematology 0% 13 votes, 0 avg 40 Hematology Welcome to Hematology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Hematology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 50 1. Waldeyer’s ring does not include: A. Faucal tonsils B. Submandibular glands C. Lingual tonsils D. Adenoids 2 / 50 2. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is not associated with: A. Intussusception B. Palpable purpura C. Thrombocytopenia D. Acute diffuse glomerulonephritis 3 / 50 3. Multiple myeloma does not feature: A. High Uric acid B. Hyperglobulinemia C. High Calcium D. High Phosphate 4 / 50 4. In chronic granulomatous disease, which is false? A. Neutrophil count is normal B. Difficulty in phagocytosis C. Diagnosed by amount of nitroblue tetrazolium reduction D. Prone to infection by staphylococci 5 / 50 5. The half-life of a platelet is: A. 3-4 days B. 10-12 days C. 5-6 days D. 1-2 days 6 / 50 6. Basophilic stippling is classically seen in: A. Chronic lead poisoning B. Myelosclerosis C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Chronic myeloid leukemia 7 / 50 7. Macrocytic-hypochromic anemia is found in: A. Pregnancy B. Thalassemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Pernicious anemia 8 / 50 8. Splenectomy is virtually curative in: A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Thalassemia C. G6PD deficiency D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) 9 / 50 9. Reed-Sternberg cell is found in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Kaposi's sarcoma C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Breast carcinoma 10 / 50 10. Among the following, the treatment of choice in hairy cell leukaemia is: A. Splenectomy B. Corticosteroid C. Deoxycoformycin D. Hydroxyurea 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not true in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? A. Coombs -ve hemolysis B. Fluctuating consciousness C. Fragmented platelets D. Early development of acute renal failure 12 / 50 12. The commonest cause of jaundice in thalassaemia is: A. Hemolysis B. Viral hepatitis B C. Iron deposition in liver D. Viral hepatitis C 13 / 50 13. All of the following may complicate bone marrow transplantation except: A. Emphysema B. Cardiomyopathy C. Cataract formation D. Leukoencephalopathy 14 / 50 14. Serum alkaline phosphatase level in multiple myeloma is usually? A. Low B. Fluctuates C. Normal D. High 15 / 50 15. Coagulation factor deficient in stored blood is: A. V B. VII C. II D. IX 16 / 50 16. All are true regarding midline granuloma except: A. Pathological hallmark is non-caseating granuloma B. The treatment of choice is radiotherapy C. More common in men D. Produces perforation of nasal septum 17 / 50 17. Total serum LDH is not raised in: A. Stroke B. Hemolysis C. Crush injury D. AMI 18 / 50 18. Which is not true in relation to multiple myeloma? A. Moderate splenomegaly B. Hyperviscosity syndrome C. Response to Melphalan D. Renal failure 19 / 50 19. Which test detects haemolytic anemia? A. Occult blood test in stool B. Benedict's test C. Coombs' test D. Schilling test 20 / 50 20. Para-hemophilia is a deficiency of factor: A. XI B. V C. von Willebrand's D. IX 21 / 50 21. Conditions resistant to malaria are all except: A. Sickle cell disease B. Duffy -ve blood group C. Hb C disease D. Thalassemia major 22 / 50 22. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome does not feature: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Repeated infections C. Hemolytic anemia D. Eczema 23 / 50 23. The best prognostic indicator in multiple myeloma is: A. Number of plasma cells B. Serum calcium level in marrow C. Serum Beta-2 microglobulins D. Bence Jones protein in urine 24 / 50 24. Patients on aspirin will have: A. Prolonged clotting time B. Prolonged APTT C. Prolonged PT D. Prolonged bleeding time 25 / 50 25. Auer rods are found in: A. Blast crisis of CML B. Acute lymphatic leukemia (ALL) C. Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) D. Blast crisis of CLL 26 / 50 26. ‘Cast iron spleen’ is classically found in: A. Thalassemia major B. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome C. Myelofibrosis D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) 27 / 50 27. Erythropoietin is increased in all except: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Renal cell carcinoma C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Hepatocellular carcinoma 28 / 50 28. All are examples of hypoplastic anaemia except: A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria D. Hepatitis B-induced 29 / 50 29. Alopecia mucinosa may be seen in: A. Amyloidosis B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Mycosis fungoides D. Carcinoid syndrome 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not found in eosinophilic granuloma? A. Affects young adults B. Absence of systemic manifestations C. Eosinophilia D. Osteolytic lesions in bone 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)? A. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia B. Refractory anemia with excess blasts C. Refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts D. Refractory anemia 32 / 50 32. G6PD may reflect a ‘false normal’ report in: A. Shortly after haemolysis B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Hypoplastic anemia D. Hairy cell leukemia 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is false in hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasis? A. Telangiectasia in skin and mucous membrane B. Telangiectasia does not blanch on pressure C. Positive familial pattern D. May have hematemesis 34 / 50 34. Eosinophilia is caused by all except: A. Sulphonamides B. Nitrofurantoin C. Oxyphenbutazone D. Iodides 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is false in polycythaemia vera? A. Splenomegaly B. High erythropoietin level C. Normal arterial oxygen saturation D. Hyperviscosity 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is not seen in sickle cell anaemia? A. Corkscrew vessel in bulbar conjunctiva B. Leg ulcers C. Isosthenuria D. Leucopenia 37 / 50 37. Agranulocytosis may be seen in treatment with: A. Risperidone B. Clonidine C. Chlorpromazine D. Clozapine 38 / 50 38. The largest organ system’ in the human body is: A. GI tract B. Endothelium C. Skin D. Blood 39 / 50 39. All of the following are true in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) except: A. Elevated LDH B. Elevated red cell acetylcholinesterase C. Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase D. Positive acidified serum lysis (HAM) test 40 / 50 40. Pancytopenia may develop from all except: A. Hemosiderosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) D. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) 41 / 50 41. An incorrect statement in pernicious anaemia is: A. Hyperchlorhydria B. Gastric polyp may develop C. Premature greying of hair D. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody in 60% patients 42 / 50 42. Which of the following factors is unstable in stored blood? A. X B. V C. VII D. II 43 / 50 43. Gum bleeding is characteristic of all except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Chronic phenytoin therapy C. Scurvy D. Hemophilia 44 / 50 44. Gaisbock’s syndrome is associated with: A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Stress erythrocytosis D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 45 / 50 45. Spur cell anaemia is seen in: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Lymphoma C. Myxoedema D. Uremia 46 / 50 46. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is not associated with: A. Clubbing B. Post-cricoid web C. Splenomegaly D. Angular stomatitis 47 / 50 47. Sickle cell anaemia is not complicated by: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Osteomyelitis C. Pancreatitis D. Papillary necrosis 48 / 50 48. In polycythaemia vera, which is not true? A. Increased LAP score B. High serum vitamin B12 level C. Low level of erythropoietin D. High ESR 49 / 50 49. Features of sickle cell anaemia do not include: A. Priapism B. Nocturia C. Leg ulcers D. Hypersplenism 50 / 50 50. Raised Fe and normal TIBC are found in: A. Thalassaemia major B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Disseminated malignancy D. Hemosiderosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Pulmonology Next Post Neurology