Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 26 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pituitary tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Posterior fossa tumors 2 / 266 2. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Strangers C. Animals D. High places 3 / 266 3. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. CT scan 4 / 266 4. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Leucodystrophy 5 / 266 5. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 6 / 266 6. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked dominant 7 / 266 7. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Inflammatory D. Embolic 8 / 266 8. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Syphilis 9 / 266 9. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Ocular myopathy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 10 / 266 10. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 11 / 266 11. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically ‘neurofibrillary tangles’ are found B. Biochemically cortical’ choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 12 / 266 12. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Involuntary movements C. Tone and power D. Stereognosis 13 / 266 13. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Paroxetine C. Sertraline D. Fluvoxamine 14 / 266 14. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Flexor plantar response 15 / 266 15. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 16 / 266 16. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Optic neuritis D. SIADH 17 / 266 17. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Albright’s disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 18 / 266 18. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Positive Queckenstedt’s test C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 19 / 266 19. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 20 / 266 20. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Cord compression 21 / 266 21. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Felbamate C. Vigabatrin D. Lamotrigine 22 / 266 22. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 23 / 266 23. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Sudden onset D. Babinski’s sign 24 / 266 24. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. Shagreen patch C. Adenoma sebaceum D. White spots over trunk and limbs 25 / 266 25. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 26 / 266 26. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Sensory functions D. Proprioception 27 / 266 27. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Lax abdominal wall D. Multiparous woman 28 / 266 28. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Petit mal C. Infantile spasm D. Generalized tonic clonic 29 / 266 29. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 30 / 266 30. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Old age C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Myotonic pupil 31 / 266 31. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Peripheral neuropathy 32 / 266 32. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Cerebellar infarction D. Digitalis toxicity 33 / 266 33. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 34 / 266 34. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 35 / 266 35. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 36 / 266 36. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. T2 C. C8 D. T1 37 / 266 37. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Wasting of muscles C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 38 / 266 38. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Viral meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 39 / 266 39. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Da Costa’s syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Gillespie’s syndrome 40 / 266 40. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypotension 41 / 266 41. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 42 / 266 42. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 43 / 266 43. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Gross pedal oedema D. Myxoedema 44 / 266 44. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 45 / 266 45. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Deep coma C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 46 / 266 46. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Cataract 47 / 266 47. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Radial nerve palsy 48 / 266 48. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Apraxia D. Areflexia 49 / 266 49. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Electromyography C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle enzyme study 50 / 266 50. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Occipital 51 / 266 51. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Rabies C. Poliomyelitis D. Myasthenia gravis 52 / 266 52. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Alcohol C. Vincristine D. Lead 53 / 266 53. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Myopathy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 54 / 266 54. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 55 / 266 55. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Anal reflex D. Snout reflex 56 / 266 56. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Thiocyanates C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 57 / 266 57. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 58 / 266 58. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 59 / 266 59. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Gradenigo’s syndrome C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 60 / 266 60. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Limb shortening 61 / 266 61. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Extensor plantar response C. Masked facies D. Flaccid dysarthria 62 / 266 62. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington’s chorea B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 63 / 266 63. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Infraspinatus C. Deltoid D. Pectoralis major 64 / 266 64. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Pons 65 / 266 65. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Urinary incontinence D. Dementia 66 / 266 66. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Lathyrism 67 / 266 67. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson’s pupil B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Horner’s syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 68 / 266 68. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Transient ischemic attack 69 / 266 69. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Neurofibroma D. Patchy arachnoiditis 70 / 266 70. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV mannitol C. Glucocorticoids D. IV quinine 71 / 266 71. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Wernicke’s encephalopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral haemorrhage 72 / 266 72. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 73 / 266 73. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 74 / 266 74. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 75 / 266 75. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-13 D. Turner’s syndrome 76 / 266 76. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Lower pons C. Upper pons D. Midbrain 77 / 266 77. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Mamillary bodies D. Frontal lobe 78 / 266 78. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo’s sign C. Babinski’s sign D. Chaddock’s sign 79 / 266 79. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 80 / 266 80. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Mania D. Cluster headache 81 / 266 81. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 82 / 266 82. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Disconjugate gaze C. Hypothermia D. Pin-point pupil 83 / 266 83. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Scoliosis C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 84 / 266 84. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Absence of root pain 85 / 266 85. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Reading a book D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 86 / 266 86. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe 87 / 266 87. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 88 / 266 88. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 89 / 266 89. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 90 / 266 90. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Meningococcous C. Pneumococcus D. H. influenzae 91 / 266 91. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing’s syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hyperthyroidism 92 / 266 92. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Leprosy C. Mikulicz’s syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 93 / 266 93. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle’s disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Steroid myopathy 94 / 266 94. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Sarcoidosis 95 / 266 95. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia 96 / 266 96. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Passivity feelings C. Early onset D. Depression 97 / 266 97. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Nystagmus 98 / 266 98. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Niemann-Pick disease 99 / 266 99. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Ropinirole C. Pramipexole D. Tiagabine 100 / 266 100. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 101 / 266 101. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Gaucher’s disease D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 102 / 266 102. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron’s sign B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. May be associated with malignancy 103 / 266 103. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Amantadine C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Selegiline 104 / 266 104. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson’s disease D. Myotonic dystrophy 105 / 266 105. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Acute myocardial infarction 106 / 266 106. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Facial weakness C. Aphasia D. Hemiparesis 107 / 266 107. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 108 / 266 108. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Psychosis C. Migraine D. Myodonus 109 / 266 109. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Ataxia D. Hyperglycaemia 110 / 266 110. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Thoracic inlet syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 111 / 266 111. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 112 / 266 112. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Myxoedema C. Alcohol D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 113 / 266 113. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 114 / 266 114. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Livedo reticularis 115 / 266 115. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Zidovudine 116 / 266 116. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysarthria C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 117 / 266 117. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 118 / 266 118. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Astrocytoma 119 / 266 119. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Polymyositis 120 / 266 120. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. von Recklinghausen’s disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 121 / 266 121. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Amyloidosis D. Acute intermittent porphyria 122 / 266 122. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Advanced pregnancy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 123 / 266 123. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 124 / 266 124. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Facial nerve palsy D. Cerebellar signs 125 / 266 125. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 126 / 266 126. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Over visual cortex C. Sylvian fissure D. Cerebello-pontine angle 127 / 266 127. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Myositis D. Polyneuropathy 128 / 266 128. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Manual labourers C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Myotonia 129 / 266 129. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Bacteria C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 130 / 266 130. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 131 / 266 131. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Valproate C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam 132 / 266 132. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diarrhoea C. Ataxia D. Onycholysis 133 / 266 133. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Phakomatosis D. Mental retardation 134 / 266 134. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 135 / 266 135. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Leprosy C. Raynaud’s disease D. Tabes dorsalis 136 / 266 136. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Subdural hematoma C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Trypanosomiasis 137 / 266 137. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Myotonia C. Chorea D. Athetosis 138 / 266 138. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Parkinsonism C. Motor neuron disease D. Cerebral diplegia 139 / 266 139. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Negri bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Schaumann bodies 140 / 266 140. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Leukodystrophy 141 / 266 141. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Hyperkinesia C. Normal reflexes D. Tremor 142 / 266 142. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Ventral pons C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 143 / 266 143. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Dysphasia C. Paraesthesia D. Diplopia 144 / 266 144. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Trauma C. Encephalitis D. Febrile 145 / 266 145. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Mania C. Phobia D. Paranoia 146 / 266 146. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Tetanus C. Quinsy D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 147 / 266 147. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Thrombocytopenia 148 / 266 148. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 149 / 266 149. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 150 / 266 150. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 151 / 266 151. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pendular nystagmus 152 / 266 152. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 153 / 266 153. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Multiple sclerosis 154 / 266 154. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner’s syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 155 / 266 155. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cervical spine D. Cortex 156 / 266 156. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Weakness and spasticity C. Equivocal plantar response D. Absent superficial reflex 157 / 266 157. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 158 / 266 158. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Polycystic kidney D. Takayasu’s disease 159 / 266 159. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 160 / 266 160. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Acute renal failure C. Wallenberg’s syndrome D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 161 / 266 161. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 162 / 266 162. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Aminoglycosides C. Cephalosporins D. Macrolides 163 / 266 163. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Amblyopia D. Cerebellar disorder 164 / 266 164. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 165 / 266 165. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Seen in tall, thin people C. May occur spontaneously D. Quite often remits spontaneously 166 / 266 166. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Ticlopidine 167 / 266 167. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington’s chorea 168 / 266 168. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trigeminal nerve 169 / 266 169. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 170 / 266 170. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 171 / 266 171. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Aortic incompetence 172 / 266 172. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Motor neuron disease D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 173 / 266 173. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Pyramidal lesion C. Horner’s syndrome D. Hiccups 174 / 266 174. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Drop attacks 175 / 266 175. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Multiple tics C. Dementia D. Relief by haloperidol 176 / 266 176. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C5, 6 C. C3, 4 D. C6, 7 177 / 266 177. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Botulism D. Periodic paralysis 178 / 266 178. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypercalcemia 179 / 266 179. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Diabetes mellitus 180 / 266 180. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer’s disease C. ‘Normal-pressure’ hydrocephalus D. Huntington’s disease 181 / 266 181. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Lithium C. Clomipramine D. Carbamazepine 182 / 266 182. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Vagus nerve 183 / 266 183. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Carbamazepine C. Flumazenil D. Amphetamines 184 / 266 184. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Brachycephaly C. Ptosis D. Frontal baldness 185 / 266 185. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Blindness D. Convulsions 186 / 266 186. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Hysteria C. Meningism D. Tetanus 187 / 266 187. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Clonus C. Spasticity D. Babinski’s sign 188 / 266 188. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral thrombosis 189 / 266 189. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Galactorrhoea C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 190 / 266 190. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 191 / 266 191. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Tabes dorsalis 192 / 266 192. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Tonic seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Absence seizures 193 / 266 193. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Verbal response C. Motor response D. Eye opening 194 / 266 194. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Hemiballismus C. Dystonia D. Chorea 195 / 266 195. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Weber-Christian disease 196 / 266 196. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 197 / 266 197. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Hepatic precoma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich’ s ataxia 198 / 266 198. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 3 weeks C. 24 hours D. 2 weeks 199 / 266 199. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Autonomic dysfunction 200 / 266 200. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Mental retardation D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 201 / 266 201. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin’s loculation syndrome B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 202 / 266 202. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Wilson’s disease 203 / 266 203. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Lathyrism C. Botulinus poisoning D. Elapidae group snake bite 204 / 266 204. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Hypermetria C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Titubation 205 / 266 205. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 206 / 266 206. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Benzodiazepine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 207 / 266 207. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 208 / 266 208. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Meningioma 209 / 266 209. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Pick’s disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Alzheimer’s disease 210 / 266 210. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Acromegaly 211 / 266 211. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Succinylcholine C. Dantrolene D. Halothane 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison’s disease B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 213 / 266 213. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Severe heart failure 214 / 266 214. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Wilson’s disease 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Spastic tongue D. Nasal regurgitation 216 / 266 216. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 217 / 266 217. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 218 / 266 218. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1,S2 219 / 266 219. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Weil’s disease D. Enteric fever 220 / 266 220. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Hysteria D. Peripheral neuropathy 221 / 266 221. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum’s disease B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 222 / 266 222. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Altered consciousness D. Headache 223 / 266 223. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Coma C. Retention of urine D. Hypertonia 224 / 266 224. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Abducens palsy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 225 / 266 225. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Noonan’s syndrome C. Down’s syndrome D. Klinefelter’s syndrome 226 / 266 226. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Cyclophosphamide C. Corticosteroid D. Interferon 227 / 266 227. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 228 / 266 228. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich’s ataxia D. Syringomyelia 229 / 266 229. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Transverse myelitis D. Restlessness 230 / 266 230. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Pseudoclonus C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Distal muscle weakness 231 / 266 231. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Viral meningitis 232 / 266 232. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Myasthenia gravis D. Oculomotor palsy 233 / 266 233. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Deafness D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 234 / 266 234. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 236 / 266 236. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 237 / 266 237. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Systemic hypertension C. Emotional excitement D. Berry aneurysm rupture 238 / 266 238. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 239 / 266 239. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Friedreich’s ataxia 240 / 266 240. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Meningism D. Froin’s loculation syndrome 241 / 266 241. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 242 / 266 242. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 243 / 266 243. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Tunnel vision C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Central scotoma 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Male dominance D. Periorbital pain 245 / 266 245. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 246 / 266 246. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cluster headache C. Bell’s palsy D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 247 / 266 247. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Thalamus C. Cerebellum D. Putamen 248 / 266 248. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Babinski’s sign D. Glossitis 249 / 266 249. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Mass reflex C. Flexor plantar response D. Flexor spasm 250 / 266 250. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Nitrofurantoin 251 / 266 251. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Lacunar infarction 252 / 266 252. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 253 / 266 253. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents vasospasm 254 / 266 254. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Sensory ataxia C. Intact proprioception D. Increased tone 255 / 266 255. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Down’s syndrome D. Noonan’s syndrome 256 / 266 256. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Pindolol D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 257 / 266 257. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing’s syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 258 / 266 258. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Ependymoma C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral lymphoma 259 / 266 259. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Duodenal stenosis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer’s disease 260 / 266 260. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 261 / 266 261. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Complete ptosis D. Enophthalmos 262 / 266 262. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cervical spondylosis D. Motor neuron disease 263 / 266 263. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Malignant hypertension 264 / 266 264. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 265 / 266 265. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Epilepsy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 266 / 266 266. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Diminished auditory acuity D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Dr Abu-Ahmed Dr Abu Ahmed, an Internist & Graphic Designer, has brought this website to help Medical Students in the subject of Internal Medicine. Articles: 25 Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology
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