Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Confabulation C. Retrograde amnesia D. Loss of immediate recall 2 / 266 2. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Alzheimer's disease C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 3 / 266 3. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 4 / 266 4. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Digitalis toxicity 5 / 266 5. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 6 / 266 6. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 7 / 266 7. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 8 / 266 8. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. CT scan D. PET scan 9 / 266 9. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 10 / 266 10. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Diarrhoea C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 11 / 266 11. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 12 / 266 12. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Amblyopia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Phenytoin toxicity 13 / 266 13. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 14 / 266 14. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Aphasia C. Dysarthria D. Monotonous speech 15 / 266 15. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Tonic seizures D. Absence seizures 16 / 266 16. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Donazepril is used in treatment 17 / 266 17. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Rheumatic fever 18 / 266 18. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Heart valve abnormalities 19 / 266 19. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell's palsy C. Syringobulbia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 20 / 266 20. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Perspiration C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 21 / 266 21. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Alcoholism 22 / 266 22. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Ataxia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 23 / 266 23. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Multiple sclerosis D. Epilepsy 24 / 266 24. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 25 / 266 25. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Paraesthesia C. Seizures D. Dysphasia 26 / 266 26. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 27 / 266 27. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 28 / 266 28. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 29 / 266 29. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure motor hemiparesis 30 / 266 30. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Pindolol C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Reserpine 31 / 266 31. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Encephalitis C. Neuropathy D. Myopathy 32 / 266 32. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Deafness D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 33 / 266 33. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 34 / 266 34. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 35 / 266 35. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. Glucocorticoids C. IV mannitol D. 5% dextrose 36 / 266 36. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 37 / 266 37. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Abducens palsy 38 / 266 38. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Intact proprioception C. Increased tone D. Sensory ataxia 39 / 266 39. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Huntington's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Alzheimer's disease 40 / 266 40. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Cataplexy 41 / 266 41. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Corpus striatum C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 42 / 266 42. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Tetanus C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Quinsy 43 / 266 43. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 44 / 266 44. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypertonia D. Hypermetria 45 / 266 45. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Polymyositis 46 / 266 46. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 47 / 266 47. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Pinealomas C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 48 / 266 48. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 49 / 266 49. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Pick's disease 50 / 266 50. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 51 / 266 51. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Periorbital pain C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 52 / 266 52. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Poliomyelitis 53 / 266 53. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 54 / 266 54. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Facial nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Optic nerv 55 / 266 55. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Altered consciousness C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Headache 56 / 266 56. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Motor neuron disease 57 / 266 57. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 58 / 266 58. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Clonus C. Fasciculations D. Babinski's sign 59 / 266 59. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 60 / 266 60. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Emotional incontinence C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Extensor plantar response 61 / 266 61. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypervitaminosis D 62 / 266 62. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Ataxia C. Areflexia D. Apraxia 63 / 266 63. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Retinal hemorrhage 64 / 266 64. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Motor response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 65 / 266 65. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe 66 / 266 66. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Trauma C. Febrile D. Epilepsy 67 / 266 67. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal dominant 68 / 266 68. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1,S2 C. S1 D. L5 69 / 266 69. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 70 / 266 70. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Tunnel vision C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Central scotoma 71 / 266 71. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Schizophrenia D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 72 / 266 72. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Head injury 73 / 266 73. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 74 / 266 74. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 75 / 266 75. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Dystonia D. Hemiballismus 76 / 266 76. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cervical spine C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 77 / 266 77. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Thiocyanates D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 78 / 266 78. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 79 / 266 79. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Increased CSF pressure D. High protein content 80 / 266 80. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Cerebral palsy 81 / 266 81. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 82 / 266 82. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 83 / 266 83. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism 84 / 266 84. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Marathon runner 85 / 266 85. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 86 / 266 86. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Ocular myopathy C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 87 / 266 87. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Poliomyelitis D. Transverse myelitis 88 / 266 88. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Flexor plantar response C. Mass reflex D. Increased tone in flexor groups 89 / 266 89. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Anhidrosis C. Constricted pupil D. Enophthalmos 90 / 266 90. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Pinealomas D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 91 / 266 91. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 92 / 266 92. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 93 / 266 93. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 94 / 266 94. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 95 / 266 95. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 96 / 266 96. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Oesophagitis D. Acute renal failure 97 / 266 97. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 98 / 266 98. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 99 / 266 99. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Ataxia C. Dementia D. Normal intellectual activity 100 / 266 100. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Gynaecomastia C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 101 / 266 101. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Patchy arachnoiditis 102 / 266 102. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 103 / 266 103. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Loss of recent memory D. Presence of nystagmus 104 / 266 104. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 105 / 266 105. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 106 / 266 106. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Leukodystrophy 107 / 266 107. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Parkinsonism 108 / 266 108. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Myotonic dystrophy 109 / 266 109. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Hysteria D. Peripheral neuropathy 110 / 266 110. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Hepatic precoma C. Taboparesis D. Friedreich' s ataxia 111 / 266 111. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Refsum's disease C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 112 / 266 112. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 113 / 266 113. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 114 / 266 114. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Clopidogrel D. Pentoxifylline 115 / 266 115. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 116 / 266 116. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Petit mal epilepsy 117 / 266 117. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 118 / 266 118. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Raised intracranial pressure 119 / 266 119. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypotension C. Hypocapnia D. Hyponatremia 120 / 266 120. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Benzodiazepine C. Chlorpromazine D. Trimipramine 121 / 266 121. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 122 / 266 122. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 123 / 266 123. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Seen in tall, thin people C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. May occur spontaneously 124 / 266 124. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Ependymoma C. Meningioma D. Phaeochromocytoma 125 / 266 125. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T4 C. T2 D. C8 126 / 266 126. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Diplopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 127 / 266 127. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Apraxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 128 / 266 128. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Hyperpyrexia C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Pseudoparkinsonism 129 / 266 129. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Paralysis C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 130 / 266 130. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Tuberous sclerosis 131 / 266 131. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Testicular atrophy 132 / 266 132. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Syringomyelia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Friedreich's ataxia 133 / 266 133. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common migraine has aura C. Common in women D. Hereditary predisposition 134 / 266 134. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Infraspinatus C. Calf muscles D. Deltoid 135 / 266 135. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Sturge-Weber disease 136 / 266 136. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 137 / 266 137. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syphilis 138 / 266 138. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Obesity C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 139 / 266 139. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 140 / 266 140. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Aminoglycosides C. Macrolides D. Cephalosporins 141 / 266 141. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 142 / 266 142. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Deep Jaundice C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Froin's loculation syndrome 143 / 266 143. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Chorea C. Myotonia D. Athetosis 144 / 266 144. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Pompholyx 145 / 266 145. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Athletes D. Manual labourers 146 / 266 146. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Arrhythmia 147 / 266 147. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Post-encephalitic D. Alzheimer's disease 148 / 266 148. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 149 / 266 149. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 150 / 266 150. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 151 / 266 151. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 152 / 266 152. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Convulsions D. SIADH 153 / 266 153. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 154 / 266 154. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Pyramidal signs C. Cerebellar signs D. Facial nerve palsy 155 / 266 155. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Selegiline C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Amantadine 156 / 266 156. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Horner's syndrome D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 157 / 266 157. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 158 / 266 158. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 159 / 266 159. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 160 / 266 160. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 161 / 266 161. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluvoxamine C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 162 / 266 162. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 163 / 266 163. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 164 / 266 164. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 165 / 266 165. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 166 / 266 166. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. INH 167 / 266 167. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebral diplegia 168 / 266 168. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. E. coli C. H. influenzae D. Meningococcous 169 / 266 169. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Coprolalia C. Dementia D. Multiple tics 170 / 266 170. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 171 / 266 171. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Polymyositis D. Motor neuron disease 172 / 266 172. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Psychosis C. Chorea D. Myodonus 173 / 266 173. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. IV frusemide C. IV mannitol D. Oral glycerol 174 / 266 174. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Cerebellum 175 / 266 175. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Ventral pons C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 176 / 266 176. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Polycystic kidney 177 / 266 177. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Mania C. Phobia D. Paranoia 178 / 266 178. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Trypanosomiasis C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Subdural hematoma 179 / 266 179. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Haloperidol 180 / 266 180. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Emetine 181 / 266 181. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Cortex 182 / 266 182. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 183 / 266 183. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Huge ascites C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 184 / 266 184. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 185 / 266 185. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Cord compression D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 186 / 266 186. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 187 / 266 187. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 188 / 266 188. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Distal muscle weakness C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Exaggerated deep reflex 189 / 266 189. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Nasal regurgitation D. Spastic tongue 190 / 266 190. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 191 / 266 191. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Inflammatory C. Embolic D. Hemorrhagic 192 / 266 192. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 193 / 266 193. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Blindness C. Focal neuro deficit D. Radioculomyelopathy 194 / 266 194. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 195 / 266 195. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Parietal 196 / 266 196. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 197 / 266 197. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Papilloedema C. Aphasia D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 198 / 266 198. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lamotrigine C. Felbamate D. Lubeluzole 199 / 266 199. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Medulla C. Lower pons D. Upper pons 200 / 266 200. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Stereognosis C. Involuntary movements D. Nutrition of muscles 201 / 266 201. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Diazepam 202 / 266 202. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C6, 7 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 203 / 266 203. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 204 / 266 204. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Midbrain lesion 205 / 266 205. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Leprosy C. Raynaud's disease D. Diabetic neuropathy 206 / 266 206. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. Hysteria C. Meningism D. After epileptic seizure 207 / 266 207. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Absent superficial reflex 208 / 266 208. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Livedo reticularis C. Ankle oedema D. Seizures 209 / 266 209. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-21 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-18 210 / 266 210. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Carbamazepine C. Flumazenil D. Amphetamines 211 / 266 211. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Babinski's sign C. Small, spastic tongue D. Brisk jaw jerk 212 / 266 212. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Interferon 213 / 266 213. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Retention of urine C. Hypertonia D. Coma 214 / 266 214. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Parkinsonism C. Aortic incompetence D. Cerebellar disorder 215 / 266 215. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Olfactory groove D. Over visual cortex 216 / 266 216. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Argyll Robertson pupil 217 / 266 217. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 218 / 266 218. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 219 / 266 219. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle biopsy C. Electromyography D. Muscle enzyme study 220 / 266 220. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 221 / 266 221. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Atenolol 222 / 266 222. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 223 / 266 223. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Sarcoidosis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 224 / 266 224. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Normal reflexes 225 / 266 225. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 226 / 266 226. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Coma C. Aphasia D. Facial weakness 227 / 266 227. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Complex partial C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Petit mal 228 / 266 228. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Lead C. Vincristine D. Arsenic 229 / 266 229. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 230 / 266 230. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Duodenal stenosis 231 / 266 231. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pendular nystagmus C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pseudolymphoma 232 / 266 232. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Toxin 233 / 266 233. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Two-point localisation D. Graphesthesia 234 / 266 234. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Lathyrism 235 / 266 235. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 236 / 266 236. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 237 / 266 237. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 2 weeks C. 96 hours D. 3 weeks 238 / 266 238. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 239 / 266 239. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 240 / 266 240. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Chaddock's sign 241 / 266 241. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hyperkaliemia 242 / 266 242. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Rabies C. Snakebite D. Poliomyelitis 243 / 266 243. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Acute myocardial infarction 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Agraphia C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 245 / 266 245. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 246 / 266 246. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Reading a book C. Looking to the roof D. Looking in front 247 / 266 247. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 248 / 266 248. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Leprosy C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 249 / 266 249. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Ocular myopathy 250 / 266 250. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 251 / 266 251. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Ocular muscles 252 / 266 252. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. High places C. Animals D. Pain 253 / 266 253. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 254 / 266 254. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Rasagiline C. Pramipexole D. Ropinirole 255 / 266 255. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Negri bodies 256 / 266 256. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Cerebral cortex C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 257 / 266 257. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Amyloidosis C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pyridoxine deficiency 258 / 266 258. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Alcohol C. Myxoedema D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 259 / 266 259. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hyperkalemia 260 / 266 260. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Oculomotor palsy 261 / 266 261. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Myositis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Subacute combined degeneration 262 / 266 262. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkalemia 263 / 266 263. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 264 / 266 264. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 265 / 266 265. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Hypoxia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Babinski's sign C. Anemia D. Ankle clonus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology