Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Viral meningitis 2 / 266 2. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 3 / 266 3. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Putamen C. Cerebellum D. Midbrain 4 / 266 4. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Focal neuro deficit D. Blindness 5 / 266 5. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Central retinal artery occlusion 6 / 266 6. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Malignant hypertension C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Hypoxia 7 / 266 7. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Hyperthyroidism 8 / 266 8. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Hysteria C. Tetanus D. After epileptic seizure 9 / 266 9. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Benzodiazepine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 10 / 266 10. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Motor response D. Autonomic response 11 / 266 11. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Rasagiline D. Ropinirole 12 / 266 12. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 13 / 266 13. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Sylvian fissure D. Olfactory groove 14 / 266 14. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Amphetamines C. Cocaine D. Flumazenil 15 / 266 15. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 16 / 266 16. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 17 / 266 17. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 18 / 266 18. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Methoxyflurane C. Halothane D. Succinylcholine 19 / 266 19. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic neuropathy 20 / 266 20. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Neurofibroma 21 / 266 21. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypertonia D. Titubation 22 / 266 22. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Epilepsy 23 / 266 23. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Waddling gait C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Sensory dysfunction 24 / 266 24. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. SIADH D. Optic neuritis 25 / 266 25. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. Glucocorticoids 26 / 266 26. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Myotonic pupil C. Old age D. Organophosphorus poisoning 27 / 266 27. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 28 / 266 28. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulinus poisoning D. Lathyrism 29 / 266 29. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. EMG D. Cerebellar functions 30 / 266 30. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common in women 31 / 266 31. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pseudolymphoma 32 / 266 32. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 33 / 266 33. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Normal reflexes C. Rigidity D. Tremor 34 / 266 34. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Quinolones D. Cephalosporins 35 / 266 35. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Ocular myopathy 36 / 266 36. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 37 / 266 37. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Apraxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Areflexia 38 / 266 38. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Vagus nerve 39 / 266 39. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 40 / 266 40. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Alcoholism C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 41 / 266 41. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Neurofibromatosis 42 / 266 42. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Ependymoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 43 / 266 43. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pinealomas 44 / 266 44. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 45 / 266 45. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 46 / 266 46. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 47 / 266 47. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Mental retardation C. Limb shortening D. Heart valve abnormalities 48 / 266 48. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Depression C. Paranoia D. Mania 49 / 266 49. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 50 / 266 50. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 51 / 266 51. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 52 / 266 52. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Nitrofurantoin C. Vincristine D. INH 53 / 266 53. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Neurosyphilis C. Lacunar infarction D. Chronic motor neuron disease 54 / 266 54. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Red nucleus D. Caudate nucleus 55 / 266 55. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Visual hallucinations 56 / 266 56. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumour D. Gradenigo's syndrome 57 / 266 57. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe 58 / 266 58. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Trigeminal neuralgia 59 / 266 59. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Gross pedal oedema 60 / 266 60. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 61 / 266 61. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Reserpine C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Pindolol 62 / 266 62. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 63 / 266 63. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Deep reflexes are depressed 64 / 266 64. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Agnosia 65 / 266 65. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Dementia in AIDS 66 / 266 66. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. von Recklinghausen's disease 67 / 266 67. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 68 / 266 68. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Papilledema C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Infarction of occipital lobe 69 / 266 69. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 70 / 266 70. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Sensory ataxia C. Intact proprioception D. Brisk deep reflexes 71 / 266 71. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. TOCP poisoning C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pyridoxine deficiency 72 / 266 72. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 73 / 266 73. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 74 / 266 74. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Retention of urine C. Coma D. Hypertonia 75 / 266 75. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Aortic incompetence D. Parkinsonism 76 / 266 76. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Virus C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 77 / 266 77. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 78 / 266 78. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 79 / 266 79. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Febrile C. Trauma D. Epilepsy 80 / 266 80. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Involuntary movements C. Stereognosis D. Nutrition of muscles 81 / 266 81. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 82 / 266 82. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Graphesthesia C. Two-point localisation D. Vibration sensation 83 / 266 83. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Duodenal stenosis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Polymyositis 84 / 266 84. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypotension C. Hyponatremia D. Hypoxia 85 / 266 85. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 86 / 266 86. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Immune disorder 87 / 266 87. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. MRI scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. PET scan 88 / 266 88. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5 C. S1 D. L5,S1 89 / 266 89. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vllth C. Vth D. Xth 90 / 266 90. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 91 / 266 91. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypothyroidism 92 / 266 92. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 93 / 266 93. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cervical spondylosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia 94 / 266 94. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cluster headache C. Bell's palsy D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 95 / 266 95. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 96 / 266 96. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Acromegaly D. Parkinsonism 97 / 266 97. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Pick's disease 98 / 266 98. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 99 / 266 99. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 100 / 266 100. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Infraspinatus C. Calf muscles D. Deltoid 101 / 266 101. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Weber-Christian disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 102 / 266 102. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Onycholysis C. Ataxia D. Diarrhoea 103 / 266 103. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Petit mal 104 / 266 104. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Osteomalacia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 105 / 266 105. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Trypanosomiasis C. Subdural hematoma D. Encephalitis lethargica 106 / 266 106. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Diazepam C. Valproate D. Topiramate 107 / 266 107. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. E. coli D. Meningococcous 108 / 266 108. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 109 / 266 109. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Pentoxifylline C. Clopidogrel D. Aspirin 110 / 266 110. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Refsum's disease 111 / 266 111. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 112 / 266 112. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Dementia 113 / 266 113. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lamotrigine C. Lubeluzole D. Felbamate 114 / 266 114. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 115 / 266 115. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Aphasia 116 / 266 116. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 117 / 266 117. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Tremor C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 118 / 266 118. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Papilloedema D. Nystagmus 119 / 266 119. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 120 / 266 120. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 121 / 266 121. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Takayasu's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 122 / 266 122. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 123 / 266 123. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 124 / 266 124. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Aflatoxin 125 / 266 125. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Lower pons C. Midbrain D. Upper pons 126 / 266 126. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-21 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-18 127 / 266 127. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Reading a book D. Looking to the roof 128 / 266 128. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 129 / 266 129. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Weakness and spasticity 130 / 266 130. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 2 weeks C. 96 hours D. 3 weeks 131 / 266 131. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Alzheimer's disease D. Infertility 132 / 266 132. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Mass reflex C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 133 / 266 133. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Neuropathy 134 / 266 134. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Sertraline C. Fluvoxamine D. Fluoxetine 135 / 266 135. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Selegiline C. Levodopa D. Amantadine 136 / 266 136. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 137 / 266 137. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Cataract 138 / 266 138. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Cervical rib C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 139 / 266 139. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Ocular muscles 140 / 266 140. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Brachycephaly C. Frontal baldness D. Testicular atrophy 141 / 266 141. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Phenytoin C. Sumatriptan D. Verapamil 142 / 266 142. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Zidovudine C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 143 / 266 143. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Infectious mononucleosis 144 / 266 144. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 145 / 266 145. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 146 / 266 146. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 147 / 266 147. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 148 / 266 148. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 149 / 266 149. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Huntington's chorea D. Post-encephalitic 150 / 266 150. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Arrhythmia C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Cardiac tamponade 151 / 266 151. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ethambutol C. Syphilis D. Leprosy 152 / 266 152. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 153 / 266 153. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Glossitis C. Babinski's sign D. Anemia 154 / 266 154. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Paralysis C. Hypothermia D. Disconjugate gaze 155 / 266 155. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Oesophagitis C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Acute renal failure 156 / 266 156. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 157 / 266 157. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Animals C. Pain D. High places 158 / 266 158. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Myositis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Subacute combined degeneration 159 / 266 159. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Horner's syndrome C. Hiccups D. Pyramidal lesion 160 / 266 160. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Horner's syndrome 161 / 266 161. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 162 / 266 162. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Central scotoma C. Tunnel vision D. Bitemporal hemianopi 163 / 266 163. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Peripheral neuropathy 164 / 266 164. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Internal capsule 165 / 266 165. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Tetanus 166 / 266 166. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 167 / 266 167. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Digitalis toxicity C. Aura phase of migraine D. Lesion in visual cortex 168 / 266 168. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 169 / 266 169. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Retrograde amnesia C. Loss of immediate recall D. Defect in learning 170 / 266 170. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Electromyography C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle biopsy 171 / 266 171. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 172 / 266 172. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Scoliosis C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 173 / 266 173. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Tabes dorsalis 174 / 266 174. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Metoclopramide-induced 175 / 266 175. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Negri bodies D. Asteroid bodies 176 / 266 176. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Headache C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Convulsions 177 / 266 177. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased deep reflexes C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 178 / 266 178. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Facial weakness C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 179 / 266 179. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. May be associated with malignancy C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 180 / 266 180. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Subacute combined degeneration 181 / 266 181. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Emotional excitement C. Systemic hypertension D. Berry aneurysm rupture 182 / 266 182. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Pseudoclonus C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Distal muscle weakness 183 / 266 183. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Presence of nystagmus D. Loss of recent memory 184 / 266 184. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 185 / 266 185. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Wasting of muscles D. Proximal muscle weakness 186 / 266 186. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 187 / 266 187. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 188 / 266 188. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Dystonia C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 189 / 266 189. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 190 / 266 190. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Babinski's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Chaddock's sign 191 / 266 191. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Leprosy D. Polymyositis 192 / 266 192. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 193 / 266 193. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Pyramidal signs 194 / 266 194. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 195 / 266 195. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Loss of accommodation 196 / 266 196. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Oculomotor palsy 197 / 266 197. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Oculomotor nerve 198 / 266 198. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Interferon C. Corticosteroid D. Cyclophosphamide 199 / 266 199. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Vincristine C. Lead D. Alcohol 200 / 266 200. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 201 / 266 201. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Enophthalmos D. Anhidrosis 202 / 266 202. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Myodonus D. Psychosis 203 / 266 203. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Clomipramine C. Lithium D. Carbamazepine 204 / 266 204. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 205 / 266 205. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 206 / 266 206. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 207 / 266 207. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 208 / 266 208. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Radial nerve palsy 209 / 266 209. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 210 / 266 210. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 211 / 266 211. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypervitaminosis D 213 / 266 213. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Myopathy 214 / 266 214. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 215 / 266 215. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Wilson's disease D. Rheumatic fever 216 / 266 216. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 217 / 266 217. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C4, 5 C. C6, 7 D. C3, 4 218 / 266 218. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Dysphasia C. Diplopia D. Paraesthesia 219 / 266 219. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Oculomotor palsy 220 / 266 220. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Pineal body 221 / 266 221. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Small, spastic tongue D. Sudden onset 222 / 266 222. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Peripheral neuropathy 223 / 266 223. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Deafness D. Retinitis pigmentosa 224 / 266 224. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Fatty liver C. Livedo reticularis D. Seizures 225 / 266 225. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Diabetes mellitus 226 / 266 226. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Embolic C. Inflammatory D. Hemorrhagic 227 / 266 227. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Acute myocardial infarction 228 / 266 228. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Cataplexy C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 229 / 266 229. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 230 / 266 230. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Oral glycerol C. IV frusemide D. Dexamethasone 231 / 266 231. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysphagia 232 / 266 232. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Calcification within a lesion C. Pituitary tumors D. Posterior fossa tumors 233 / 266 233. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Deep coma C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hypokalemia 234 / 266 234. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Polycythaemia vera D. Mania 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Fasciculations C. Babinski's sign D. Clonus 236 / 266 236. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Temporal C. Frontal D. Occipital 237 / 266 237. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Aphasia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysarthria 238 / 266 238. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Transverse sinus D. Inferior sagittal sinus 239 / 266 239. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Extensor plantar response C. Emotional incontinence D. Flaccid dysarthria 240 / 266 240. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Athletes D. Manual labourers 241 / 266 241. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 242 / 266 242. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Polymyositis C. Myopathy D. Myasthenia gravis 243 / 266 243. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 244 / 266 244. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Tonic seizures 245 / 266 245. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 246 / 266 246. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 247 / 266 247. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 248 / 266 248. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 249 / 266 249. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Seen in tall, thin people D. Quite often remits spontaneously 250 / 266 250. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 251 / 266 251. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Diplopia D. Drop attacks 252 / 266 252. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Cerebral palsy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Leucodystrophy 253 / 266 253. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 254 / 266 254. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 255 / 266 255. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral infarction 256 / 266 256. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 257 / 266 257. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 258 / 266 258. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 259 / 266 259. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 260 / 266 260. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Ethambutol C. Chloroquine D. Amiodarone 261 / 266 261. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T4 D. T2 262 / 266 262. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Anal reflex 263 / 266 263. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 264 / 266 264. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Thalamus 265 / 266 265. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 266 / 266 266. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Dementia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology