Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Myasthenia Gravis 2 / 266 2. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 3 / 266 3. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 4 / 266 4. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 5 / 266 5. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Complete ptosis D. Enophthalmos 6 / 266 6. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Negri bodies 7 / 266 7. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Extensor plantar response C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Masked facies 8 / 266 8. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Leprosy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 9 / 266 9. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Coprolalia C. Dementia D. Multiple tics 10 / 266 10. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Electromyography C. Muscle biopsy D. Muscle enzyme study 11 / 266 11. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Cataplexy C. Sleep paralysis D. Hypnagogic hallucination 12 / 266 12. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 13 / 266 13. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 14 / 266 14. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pyogenic meningitis 15 / 266 15. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Scoliosis C. Meningioma D. Optic glioma 16 / 266 16. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Medulloblastoma 17 / 266 17. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. Glucocorticoids C. IV quinine D. IV mannitol 18 / 266 18. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Chloroquine D. Probenecid 19 / 266 19. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Pompholyx D. Adenoma sebaceum 20 / 266 20. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Diplopia C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 21 / 266 21. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Arrhythmia D. Cardiac tamponade 22 / 266 22. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Phenytoin D. Atenolol 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Male dominance D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 24 / 266 24. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Papilloedema C. Nystagmus D. Aphasia 25 / 266 25. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe 26 / 266 26. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents rebleeding 27 / 266 27. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Steroid myopathy 28 / 266 28. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Emotional excitement C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. Systemic hypertension 29 / 266 29. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 30 / 266 30. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Mental retardation C. Seizures D. Adenoma sebaceum 31 / 266 31. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Alcohol C. Myxoedema D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 32 / 266 32. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Presence of nystagmus 33 / 266 33. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 34 / 266 34. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Neurofibroma D. Patchy arachnoiditis 35 / 266 35. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Diplopia 36 / 266 36. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine 37 / 266 37. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Albright's disease D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 38 / 266 38. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Puerperal sepsis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 39 / 266 39. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Botulism D. Periodic paralysis 40 / 266 40. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trochlear nerve 41 / 266 41. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysphonia C. Dysarthria D. Aphasia 42 / 266 42. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Cephalosporins 43 / 266 43. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypocapnia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypotension 44 / 266 44. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 45 / 266 45. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 46 / 266 46. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sarcoidosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 47 / 266 47. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 48 / 266 48. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Loss of accommodation 49 / 266 49. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Urinary incontinence D. Dementia 50 / 266 50. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 51 / 266 51. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Pseudolymphoma 52 / 266 52. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Quinsy C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Diphtheria 53 / 266 53. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Increased CSF pressure D. High protein content 54 / 266 54. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Blindness 55 / 266 55. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 56 / 266 56. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Amantadine D. Selegiline 57 / 266 57. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Onycholysis C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 58 / 266 58. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking in front D. Reading a book 59 / 266 59. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Mass reflex C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor plantar response 60 / 266 60. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 61 / 266 61. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Visual hallucinations C. Confabulation D. Tremor 62 / 266 62. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 63 / 266 63. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Reserpine D. Pindolol 64 / 266 64. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 65 / 266 65. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 66 / 266 66. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 67 / 266 67. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. IV frusemide C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 68 / 266 68. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 69 / 266 69. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Mania 70 / 266 70. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumour C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Raised intracranial pressure 71 / 266 71. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 72 / 266 72. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 73 / 266 73. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Cervical rib 74 / 266 74. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Common migraine has aura D. Hemicranial headache 75 / 266 75. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Head injury C. Transient ischemic attack D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 76 / 266 76. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Equivocal plantar response C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Weakness and spasticity 77 / 266 77. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 78 / 266 78. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Hysteria 79 / 266 79. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 80 / 266 80. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Gross pedal oedema D. Tabes dorsalis 81 / 266 81. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 82 / 266 82. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Transverse sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Inferior sagittal sinus 83 / 266 83. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Alzheimer's disease D. Infertility 84 / 266 84. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 85 / 266 85. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 86 / 266 86. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 87 / 266 87. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Coma C. Hypertonia D. Absent deep reflexes 88 / 266 88. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Thalamus 89 / 266 89. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 90 / 266 90. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Anemia C. Ankle clonus D. Babinski's sign 91 / 266 91. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Dementia in AIDS 92 / 266 92. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Chronic motor neuron disease 93 / 266 93. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Thiocyanates D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 94 / 266 94. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Vllth C. Xth D. IIIrd 95 / 266 95. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Hyponatraemia 96 / 266 96. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Drop attacks 97 / 266 97. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cortex C. Cervical spine D. Internal capsule 98 / 266 98. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Ethosuximide 99 / 266 99. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Pneumococcus C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 100 / 266 100. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 101 / 266 101. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Facial nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Vagus nerve 102 / 266 102. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Wasting of muscles D. Proximal muscle weakness 103 / 266 103. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 104 / 266 104. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Leucodystrophy D. Cerebral palsy 105 / 266 105. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Absence of root pain C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Viral or post-vaccinal 106 / 266 106. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Cataract 107 / 266 107. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Lax abdominal wall C. Hysteria D. Obesity 108 / 266 108. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Myopathy D. Sarcoidosis 109 / 266 109. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 110 / 266 110. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5,S1 111 / 266 111. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Increased tone 112 / 266 112. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Ependymoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Phaeochromocytoma 113 / 266 113. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Deafness 114 / 266 114. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Polycystic kidney C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 115 / 266 115. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Leprosy 116 / 266 116. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 117 / 266 117. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Hypothermia D. Disconjugate gaze 118 / 266 118. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Two-point localisation D. Graphesthesia 119 / 266 119. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Gillespie's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 120 / 266 120. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Syringomyelia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 121 / 266 121. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 122 / 266 122. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Horner's syndrome C. Hiccups D. Ataxia 123 / 266 123. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Motor neuron disease C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peripheral neuropathy 124 / 266 124. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pituitary tumors 125 / 266 125. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Gynaecomastia C. Parkinsonism D. Galactorrhoea 126 / 266 126. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 127 / 266 127. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Ventral pons 128 / 266 128. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Haloperidol C. Trimipramine D. Chlorpromazine 129 / 266 129. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Punch-drunk syndrome 130 / 266 130. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 131 / 266 131. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Petit mal C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Infantile spasm 132 / 266 132. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 133 / 266 133. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 134 / 266 134. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Multiple sclerosis 135 / 266 135. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 136 / 266 136. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Rubella panencephalitis 137 / 266 137. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Small, spastic tongue C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Babinski's sign 138 / 266 138. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Pontine glioma 139 / 266 139. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Alcohol C. Vincristine D. Arsenic 140 / 266 140. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 141 / 266 141. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Raynaud's disease C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 142 / 266 142. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Malignant hypertension 143 / 266 143. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hypothyroidism 144 / 266 144. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Aura phase of migraine C. Cerebellar infarction D. Lesion in visual cortex 145 / 266 145. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Strangers C. Animals D. High places 146 / 266 146. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Occipital 147 / 266 147. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Athetosis C. Tetany D. Chorea 148 / 266 148. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 149 / 266 149. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Polymyositis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 150 / 266 150. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich's ataxia 151 / 266 151. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 152 / 266 152. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 153 / 266 153. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Distal muscle weakness D. Exaggerated deep reflex 154 / 266 154. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Hepatic precoma C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Subacute combined degeneration 155 / 266 155. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hyperkalemia C. Deep coma D. Hypokalemia 156 / 266 156. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 157 / 266 157. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Addison's disease 158 / 266 158. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 159 / 266 159. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Confabulation C. Loss of immediate recall D. Retrograde amnesia 160 / 266 160. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Neurosyphilis D. Lacunar infarction 161 / 266 161. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Autoimmunity 162 / 266 162. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 163 / 266 163. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Involuntary movements C. Stereognosis D. Tone and power 164 / 266 164. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Elapidae snake bite 165 / 266 165. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 166 / 266 166. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 167 / 266 167. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Marathon runner 168 / 266 168. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 169 / 266 169. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Trauma C. Encephalitis D. Epilepsy 170 / 266 170. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 171 / 266 171. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Huntington's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 172 / 266 172. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Agraphia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 173 / 266 173. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Headache D. Altered consciousness 174 / 266 174. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Subdural hematoma 175 / 266 175. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 176 / 266 176. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Embolic C. Demyelinating D. Hemorrhagic 177 / 266 177. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 178 / 266 178. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Spasticity C. Babinski's sign D. Fasciculations 179 / 266 179. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Clomipramine C. Lithium D. Carbamazepine 180 / 266 180. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 181 / 266 181. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Manual labourers D. Myotonia 182 / 266 182. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 183 / 266 183. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Botulinus poisoning C. Periodic paralysis D. Lathyrism 184 / 266 184. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypothyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 185 / 266 185. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Duchenne myopathy C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Cervical spondylosis 186 / 266 186. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Pentoxifylline 187 / 266 187. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Ependymoma D. Glioma 188 / 266 188. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Nasal regurgitation 189 / 266 189. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Limb shortening D. Anencephaly 190 / 266 190. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis major C. Infraspinatus D. Calf muscles 191 / 266 191. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 192 / 266 192. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Ataxia D. Hyperglycaemia 193 / 266 193. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 2 weeks C. 96 hours D. 3 weeks 194 / 266 194. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Amyloidosis 195 / 266 195. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Putamen C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 196 / 266 196. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 197 / 266 197. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 198 / 266 198. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypermetria C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 199 / 266 199. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebral diplegia 200 / 266 200. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Apraxia 201 / 266 201. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 202 / 266 202. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Babinski's sign 203 / 266 203. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Vestibular lesion 204 / 266 204. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Visual hallucinations C. Passivity feelings D. Early onset 205 / 266 205. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Myasthenia gravis 206 / 266 206. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 207 / 266 207. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 208 / 266 208. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Tonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 209 / 266 209. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Ciliary ganglion C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 210 / 266 210. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 211 / 266 211. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Tabes dorsalis 212 / 266 212. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 213 / 266 213. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Vincristine 214 / 266 214. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 215 / 266 215. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Pick's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 216 / 266 216. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Choreoathetosis 217 / 266 217. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 218 / 266 218. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 219 / 266 219. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Hysteria C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 220 / 266 220. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syphilis C. Ethambutol D. Leprosy 221 / 266 221. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 222 / 266 222. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypocalcemia 223 / 266 223. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Dolichocephaly 224 / 266 224. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Eye opening C. Verbal response D. Autonomic response 225 / 266 225. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Astrocytoma D. Metastatic 226 / 266 226. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. Pseudobulbar palsy 227 / 266 227. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Aortic incompetence C. Cerebellar disorder D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 228 / 266 228. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Hydrosis + miosis 229 / 266 229. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 230 / 266 230. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 231 / 266 231. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Tremor C. Rigidity D. Hyperkinesia 232 / 266 232. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Ropinirole 233 / 266 233. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Flumazenil C. Cocaine D. Carbamazepine 234 / 266 234. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 235 / 266 235. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. May be associated with malignancy D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 236 / 266 236. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myelopathy C. Myopathy D. Neuropathy 237 / 266 237. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Lubeluzole C. Felbamate D. Vigabatrin 238 / 266 238. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Poliomyelitis D. Radial nerve palsy 239 / 266 239. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. PET scan C. CT scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 240 / 266 240. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cord compression 241 / 266 241. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Ptosis C. Brachycephaly D. Frontal baldness 242 / 266 242. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 243 / 266 243. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Acute renal failure C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Oesophagitis 244 / 266 244. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. SIADH C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 245 / 266 245. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Pyramidal signs 246 / 266 246. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Deep Jaundice C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 247 / 266 247. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Neurofibromatosis 248 / 266 248. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Sylvian fissure C. Over visual cortex D. Cerebello-pontine angle 249 / 266 249. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Polyneuropathy C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Myositis 250 / 266 250. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Midbrain 251 / 266 251. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Myotonic dystrophy 252 / 266 252. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 253 / 266 253. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Seizures C. Ankle oedema D. Livedo reticularis 254 / 266 254. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Methoxyflurane C. Succinylcholine D. Halothane 255 / 266 255. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Tunnel vision 256 / 266 256. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Huntington's chorea C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Post-encephalitic 257 / 266 257. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Medulla C. Midbrain D. Upper pons 258 / 266 258. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Huge ascites D. Advanced pregnancy 259 / 266 259. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-13 260 / 266 260. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumor C. Multiple sclerosis D. Tuberculous meningitis 261 / 266 261. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Corpus striatum D. Temporal lobe 262 / 266 262. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 263 / 266 263. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Coma 264 / 266 264. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Snout reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Grasp reflex 265 / 266 265. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 266 / 266 266. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Myodonus C. Psychosis D. Chorea LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology