Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 2 / 266 2. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Malignant exophthalmos 3 / 266 3. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 4 / 266 4. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Loss of recent memory D. Presence of nystagmus 5 / 266 5. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Electroconvulsive therapy 6 / 266 6. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C3, 4 C. C5, 6 D. C4, 5 7 / 266 7. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Astrocytoma 8 / 266 8. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Polyneuropathy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Loss of accommodation 9 / 266 9. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Weber-Christian disease C. Sturge-Weber disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 10 / 266 10. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Multiple sclerosis C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Cerebral haemorrhage 11 / 266 11. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Cerebral cortex 12 / 266 12. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Epilepsy C. Cerebellar infarction D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 13 / 266 13. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia 14 / 266 14. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Lathyrism 15 / 266 15. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Lead D. Arsenic 16 / 266 16. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Sensory ataxia C. Increased tone D. Intact proprioception 17 / 266 17. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Weakness and spasticity C. Absent superficial reflex D. Equivocal plantar response 18 / 266 18. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 19 / 266 19. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 20 / 266 20. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Coma C. Facial weakness D. Aphasia 21 / 266 21. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syphilis 22 / 266 22. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 23 / 266 23. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Testicular atrophy D. Brachycephaly 24 / 266 24. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Parietal D. Occipital 25 / 266 25. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 26 / 266 26. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 27 / 266 27. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Methoxyflurane C. Dantrolene D. Halothane 28 / 266 28. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Hypoxia 29 / 266 29. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 30 / 266 30. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 31 / 266 31. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Cerebral malaria C. Atypical pneumonia D. Enteric fever 32 / 266 32. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. PET scan C. CT scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 33 / 266 33. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Amphetamines C. Cocaine D. Flumazenil 34 / 266 34. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Cerebellum C. Putamen D. Midbrain 35 / 266 35. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 36 / 266 36. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 37 / 266 37. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Old age D. Organophosphorus poisoning 38 / 266 38. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Myoclonic seizures C. Tonic seizures D. Absence seizures 39 / 266 39. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 40 / 266 40. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Mamillary bodies 41 / 266 41. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 42 / 266 42. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 43 / 266 43. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Myositis 44 / 266 44. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Dementia in AIDS 45 / 266 45. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1 D. S1,S2 46 / 266 46. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hypothyroidism C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Ataxia 47 / 266 47. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. E. coli D. Meningococcous 48 / 266 48. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Central retinal artery occlusion 49 / 266 49. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Areflexia C. Apraxia D. Ataxia 50 / 266 50. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Amyloidosis C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pyridoxine deficiency 51 / 266 51. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 52 / 266 52. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 53 / 266 53. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV mannitol C. Glucocorticoids D. IV quinine 54 / 266 54. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 55 / 266 55. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 56 / 266 56. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 57 / 266 57. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Hemiballismus C. Dystonia D. Myoclonus 58 / 266 58. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Loss of immediate recall C. Confabulation D. Retrograde amnesia 59 / 266 59. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Hemicranial headache 60 / 266 60. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 61 / 266 61. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 62 / 266 62. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Botulism 63 / 266 63. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Ataxia D. Osteomalacia 64 / 266 64. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Negri bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Lewy bodies 65 / 266 65. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 66 / 266 66. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Dermatomyositis 67 / 266 67. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Cortex C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 68 / 266 68. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Bulbar palsy C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 69 / 266 69. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Trypanosomiasis D. Pickwickian syndrome 70 / 266 70. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Tunnel vision C. Central scotoma D. Homonymous hemianopia 71 / 266 71. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Male dominance D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 72 / 266 72. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Dexamethasone D. Oral glycerol 73 / 266 73. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Parkinsonism 74 / 266 74. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 75 / 266 75. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 76 / 266 76. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Pin-point pupil C. Paralysis D. Hypothermia 77 / 266 77. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 78 / 266 78. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Methotrexate C. Nitrofurantoin D. Vincristine 79 / 266 79. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 80 / 266 80. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Papilledema D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 81 / 266 81. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Nystagmus C. Papilloedema D. Aphasia 82 / 266 82. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Multiple sclerosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Peripheral neuropathy 83 / 266 83. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Choreoathetosis C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 84 / 266 84. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 85 / 266 85. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 86 / 266 86. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Refsum's disease 87 / 266 87. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Polycystic kidney C. Takayasu's disease D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 88 / 266 88. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 89 / 266 89. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Subacute combined degeneration 90 / 266 90. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 91 / 266 91. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 92 / 266 92. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Depression D. Passivity feelings 93 / 266 93. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents vasospasm 94 / 266 94. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Encephalitis C. Myelopathy D. Myopathy 95 / 266 95. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 96 / 266 96. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Trigeminal neuralgia 97 / 266 97. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 98 / 266 98. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Sleep paralysis 99 / 266 99. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine 100 / 266 100. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Pramipexole C. Ropinirole D. Tiagabine 101 / 266 101. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 102 / 266 102. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Kuru C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Rubella panencephalitis 103 / 266 103. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Athletes D. Myotonia 104 / 266 104. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Phenytoin D. Atenolol 105 / 266 105. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Ependymoma 106 / 266 106. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cerebral palsy 107 / 266 107. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Epilepsy 108 / 266 108. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 109 / 266 109. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 110 / 266 110. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 111 / 266 111. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 112 / 266 112. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Myopathy 113 / 266 113. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 114 / 266 114. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Tone and power 115 / 266 115. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T4 C. C8 D. T1 116 / 266 116. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Diminished auditory acuity 117 / 266 117. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Dementia D. Urinary incontinence 118 / 266 118. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Vigabatrin C. Felbamate D. Lamotrigine 119 / 266 119. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Tremor C. Confabulation D. Visual hallucinations 120 / 266 120. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Amiodarone 121 / 266 121. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 122 / 266 122. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Babinski's sign C. Fasciculations D. Clonus 123 / 266 123. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Raynaud's disease D. Tabes dorsalis 124 / 266 124. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Alzheimer's disease D. Infertility 125 / 266 125. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Deep coma 126 / 266 126. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumor C. Multiple sclerosis D. Tuberculous meningitis 127 / 266 127. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 128 / 266 128. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Ventral pons C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 129 / 266 129. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 130 / 266 130. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Apraxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 131 / 266 131. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Cerebellar infarction 132 / 266 132. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. Hysteria 133 / 266 133. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Addison's disease C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Hypervitaminosis D 134 / 266 134. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Galactorrhoea 135 / 266 135. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Metabolic disorder 136 / 266 136. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 137 / 266 137. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. Sensory functions 138 / 266 138. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Schizophrenia D. Mania 139 / 266 139. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Strangers C. High places D. Animals 140 / 266 140. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Emotional incontinence D. Extensor plantar response 141 / 266 141. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Aflatoxin C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Thiocyanates 142 / 266 142. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Pick's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 143 / 266 143. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Pinealomas D. Ependymoma 144 / 266 144. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Deep reflexes are depressed 145 / 266 145. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Huntington's chorea D. Post-encephalitic 146 / 266 146. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Oculomotor nerve C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 147 / 266 147. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Leukodystrophy 148 / 266 148. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypercalcemia 149 / 266 149. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Amblyopia C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Cerebellar disorder 150 / 266 150. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Convulsions D. Focal neuro deficit 151 / 266 151. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 152 / 266 152. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 153 / 266 153. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 154 / 266 154. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Scoliosis C. Optic glioma D. Acoustic neuroma 155 / 266 155. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myxoedema C. Gross pedal oedema D. Parkinsonism 156 / 266 156. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Heart valve abnormalities 157 / 266 157. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 158 / 266 158. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Quinolones C. Cephalosporins D. Aminoglycosides 159 / 266 159. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 160 / 266 160. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Oculomotor palsy D. Hutchinson's pupil 161 / 266 161. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left atrial myxoma D. Left ventricular aneurysm 162 / 266 162. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Aphasia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysarthria 163 / 266 163. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Enophthalmos D. Anhidrosis 164 / 266 164. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Glossitis C. Babinski's sign D. Anemia 166 / 266 166. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Olfactory groove C. Sylvian fissure D. Cerebello-pontine angle 167 / 266 167. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 168 / 266 168. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypotension D. Hypoxia 169 / 266 169. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Pyramidal signs 170 / 266 170. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Facial nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 171 / 266 171. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 172 / 266 172. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Seen in tall, thin people C. May occur spontaneously D. Quite often remits spontaneously 173 / 266 173. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 174 / 266 174. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Upper pons C. Lower pons D. Medulla 175 / 266 175. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 176 / 266 176. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 177 / 266 177. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Pituitary tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 178 / 266 178. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis major C. Calf muscles D. Infraspinatus 179 / 266 179. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 180 / 266 180. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Vth 181 / 266 181. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pseudolymphoma C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pendular nystagmus 182 / 266 182. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Mania 183 / 266 183. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 184 / 266 184. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Sudden onset 185 / 266 185. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 186 / 266 186. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Berry aneurysm rupture 187 / 266 187. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Periodic paralysis 188 / 266 188. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 189 / 266 189. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Diabetes mellitus 190 / 266 190. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Steroid myopathy C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 191 / 266 191. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Inflammatory C. Hemorrhagic D. Demyelinating 192 / 266 192. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Sturge-Weber disease 193 / 266 193. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Galactosaemia C. Haemochromatosis D. Myotonic dystrophy 194 / 266 194. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 195 / 266 195. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 196 / 266 196. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 197 / 266 197. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Deafness D. Retinitis pigmentosa 198 / 266 198. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Dysphagia D. Spastic tongue 199 / 266 199. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Epilepsy C. Trauma D. Encephalitis 200 / 266 200. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Wasting of muscles C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 201 / 266 201. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 202 / 266 202. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Reading a book C. Looking to the roof D. Looking in front 203 / 266 203. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Tetanus C. Diphtheria D. Quinsy 204 / 266 204. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Pineal body C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 205 / 266 205. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 206 / 266 206. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. White spots over trunk and limbs 207 / 266 207. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Ataxia D. Pyramidal lesion 208 / 266 208. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Phakomatosis D. Mental retardation 209 / 266 209. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Toxin C. Bacteria D. Autoimmunity 210 / 266 210. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Mania 211 / 266 211. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Organophosphorus poisoning 212 / 266 212. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 213 / 266 213. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Aspirin 214 / 266 214. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Babinski's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Chaddock's sign 216 / 266 216. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Cervical spondylosis 217 / 266 217. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Levodopa D. Amantadine 218 / 266 218. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Normal reflexes C. Rigidity D. Tremor 219 / 266 219. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Athetosis 220 / 266 220. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Infectious mononucleosis 221 / 266 221. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Puerperal sepsis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Venous sinus thrombosis 222 / 266 222. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Brainstem C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 223 / 266 223. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 24 hours C. 3 weeks D. 96 hours 224 / 266 224. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Absent deep reflexes C. Coma D. Retention of urine 225 / 266 225. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Drop attacks 226 / 266 226. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptive pills 227 / 266 227. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 228 / 266 228. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Myxoedema C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Alcohol 229 / 266 229. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Headache C. Convulsions D. Non-projectile vomiting 230 / 266 230. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Fatty liver C. Livedo reticularis D. Seizures 231 / 266 231. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Medulloblastoma 232 / 266 232. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Duodenal stenosis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer's disease 233 / 266 233. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Hyponatraemia C. Rheumatic fever D. Wilson's disease 234 / 266 234. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Eye opening C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 235 / 266 235. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 236 / 266 236. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Coprolalia 237 / 266 237. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-21 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-13 238 / 266 238. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 239 / 266 239. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral thrombosis 240 / 266 240. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Ethosuximide C. Valproate D. Topiramate 241 / 266 241. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 242 / 266 242. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumour 243 / 266 243. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Hyperpyrexia 244 / 266 244. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Acalculia 245 / 266 245. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle biopsy D. Muscle enzyme study 246 / 266 246. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Sensory dysfunction C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Argyll Robertson pupil 247 / 266 247. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Ocular myopathy 248 / 266 248. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Duchenne myopathy D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 249 / 266 249. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Optic neuritis C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Convulsions 250 / 266 250. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 251 / 266 251. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Onycholysis D. Hypothyroidism 252 / 266 252. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Migraine C. Myodonus D. Chorea 253 / 266 253. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Syringobulbia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Bell's palsy 254 / 266 254. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Titubation C. Hypermetria D. Dysrhythmokinesis 255 / 266 255. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Dolichocephaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 256 / 266 256. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 257 / 266 257. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Right homonymous hemianopia 258 / 266 258. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypothyroidism 259 / 266 259. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Optic nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 260 / 266 260. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cataract D. Alzheimer's disease 261 / 266 261. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Huntington's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 262 / 266 262. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Facial nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 263 / 266 263. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 264 / 266 264. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Petit mal 265 / 266 265. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Oesophagitis D. Acute renal failure 266 / 266 266. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Lovastatin C. Febuxostat D. Emetine LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology