Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Leprosy 2 / 266 2. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 3 / 266 3. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Cluster headache C. SIADH D. Polycythaemia vera 4 / 266 4. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 5 / 266 5. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Putamen 6 / 266 6. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 7 / 266 7. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Dementia in AIDS D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 8 / 266 8. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Pick's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 9 / 266 9. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 10 / 266 10. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Carotid artery occlusion 11 / 266 11. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Tay-Sachs disease 12 / 266 12. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Hyperkinesia C. Normal reflexes D. Rigidity 13 / 266 13. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptive pills 14 / 266 14. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Myxoedema 15 / 266 15. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 16 / 266 16. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 17 / 266 17. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 18 / 266 18. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure motor hemiparesis 19 / 266 19. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agraphia 20 / 266 20. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 21 / 266 21. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Increased tone C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Sensory ataxia 22 / 266 22. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Pyramidal signs C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Facial nerve palsy 23 / 266 23. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Cocaine C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 24 / 266 24. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 25 / 266 25. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Gonda sign 26 / 266 26. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 27 / 266 27. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Early onset C. Visual hallucinations D. Depression 28 / 266 28. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 29 / 266 29. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 30 / 266 30. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Hypothermia C. Disconjugate gaze D. Paralysis 31 / 266 31. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Negri bodies 32 / 266 32. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Apraxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 33 / 266 33. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Myoclonic seizures D. Absence seizures 34 / 266 34. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 35 / 266 35. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 36 / 266 36. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Brain tumour 37 / 266 37. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 38 / 266 38. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Perceptual rivalry 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Hemicranial headache C. Common migraine has aura D. Common in women 40 / 266 40. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Demyelinating 41 / 266 41. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Proximal muscle weakness 42 / 266 42. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diarrhoea C. Onycholysis D. Ataxia 43 / 266 43. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Tone and power C. Stereognosis D. Involuntary movements 44 / 266 44. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hypothyroidism 45 / 266 45. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lubeluzole C. Lamotrigine D. Vigabatrin 46 / 266 46. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Trypanosomiasis 47 / 266 47. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Myopathy 48 / 266 48. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 49 / 266 49. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Scoliosis C. Optic glioma D. Acoustic neuroma 50 / 266 50. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral diplegia D. Parkinsonism 51 / 266 51. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 52 / 266 52. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 53 / 266 53. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Altered consciousness C. Convulsions D. Non-projectile vomiting 54 / 266 54. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 55 / 266 55. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Oesophagitis C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Wallenberg's syndrome 56 / 266 56. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Tabes dorsalis 57 / 266 57. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Caudate nucleus C. Substantia nigra D. Putamen 58 / 266 58. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 59 / 266 59. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Peripheral neuropathy 60 / 266 60. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Leucodystrophy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 61 / 266 61. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 62 / 266 62. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pendular nystagmus 63 / 266 63. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 64 / 266 64. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 65 / 266 65. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Platybasia C. Dolichocephaly D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 66 / 266 66. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Haloperidol C. Lithium D. Clomipramine 67 / 266 67. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 68 / 266 68. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Cerebellar functions C. EMG D. Sensory functions 69 / 266 69. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Subacute combined degeneration 70 / 266 70. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 71 / 266 71. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Ptosis 72 / 266 72. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Mental retardation D. Retinitis pigmentosa 73 / 266 73. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. Shagreen patch D. White spots over trunk and limbs 74 / 266 74. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Hyponatraemia D. Rheumatic fever 75 / 266 75. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis D. Sarcoidosis 76 / 266 76. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 77 / 266 77. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Deep coma D. Hypokalemia 78 / 266 78. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Transient ischemic attack C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Head injury 79 / 266 79. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Diminished auditory acuity C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 80 / 266 80. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. May occur spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 81 / 266 81. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Medulla C. Midbrain D. Upper pons 82 / 266 82. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vth C. Vllth D. Xth 83 / 266 83. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 84 / 266 84. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 85 / 266 85. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 86 / 266 86. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Takayasu's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 87 / 266 87. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Ataxia C. Pyramidal lesion D. Horner's syndrome 88 / 266 88. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. C8 C. T4 D. T1 89 / 266 89. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Oculomotor nerve C. Ciliary ganglion D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 90 / 266 90. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. Glucocorticoids C. IV quinine D. 5% dextrose 91 / 266 91. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Botulinus poisoning C. Lathyrism D. Periodic paralysis 92 / 266 92. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 93 / 266 93. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Digitalis toxicity C. Cerebellar infarction D. Lesion in visual cortex 94 / 266 94. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Hysteria C. Obesity D. Multiparous woman 95 / 266 95. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Frontal D. Temporal 96 / 266 96. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Corpus striatum C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 97 / 266 97. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Neurofibroma C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Subacute combined degeneration 98 / 266 98. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 99 / 266 99. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Infantile spasm C. Complex partial D. Petit mal 100 / 266 100. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV mannitol C. IV frusemide D. Dexamethasone 101 / 266 101. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Meningococcous C. E. coli D. Pneumococcus 102 / 266 102. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 103 / 266 103. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Myopathy 104 / 266 104. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Polymyositis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy 105 / 266 105. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pituitary tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Posterior fossa tumors 106 / 266 106. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 107 / 266 107. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Advanced pregnancy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 108 / 266 108. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Bulbar palsy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 109 / 266 109. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Central scotoma 110 / 266 110. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 111 / 266 111. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Animals C. High places D. Strangers 112 / 266 112. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Sarcoidosis D. Infectious mononucleosis 113 / 266 113. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Metoclopramide-induced 114 / 266 114. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 115 / 266 115. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Rabies 116 / 266 116. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 117 / 266 117. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Schizophrenia D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 118 / 266 118. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Autoimmunity D. Toxin 119 / 266 119. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Optic nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 120 / 266 120. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 121 / 266 121. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Cerebral embolism D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 122 / 266 122. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Myodonus C. Psychosis D. Chorea 123 / 266 123. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Deep Jaundice 124 / 266 124. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe 125 / 266 125. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Pramipexole C. Tiagabine D. Rasagiline 126 / 266 126. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Galactorrhoea C. Gynaecomastia D. Parkinsonism 127 / 266 127. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Trauma C. Febrile D. Encephalitis 128 / 266 128. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Medulloblastoma 129 / 266 129. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Methotrexate C. Vincristine D. INH 130 / 266 130. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 131 / 266 131. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Ethambutol D. Chloroquine 132 / 266 132. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5,S1 D. L5 133 / 266 133. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Paroxetine C. Sertraline D. Fluvoxamine 134 / 266 134. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 135 / 266 135. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Lovastatin C. Emetine D. Febuxostat 136 / 266 136. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 137 / 266 137. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Waddling gait 138 / 266 138. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Immune disorder D. Metabolic disorder 139 / 266 139. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 140 / 266 140. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypoxia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocapnia 141 / 266 141. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Severe heart failure D. Hepatocellular failure 142 / 266 142. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Venous thrombosis 143 / 266 143. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Increased CSF pressure C. High protein content D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 144 / 266 144. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Calf muscles C. Infraspinatus D. Deltoid 145 / 266 145. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Snout reflex C. Anal reflex D. Sucking reflex 146 / 266 146. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Extensor plantar response C. Masked facies D. Flaccid dysarthria 147 / 266 147. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 148 / 266 148. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 149 / 266 149. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Papilloedema D. Aphasia 150 / 266 150. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 151 / 266 151. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 152 / 266 152. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Polymyositis 153 / 266 153. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 154 / 266 154. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Giant cell arteritis C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 155 / 266 155. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Reading a book C. Looking in front D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 156 / 266 156. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Tetany D. Myotonia 157 / 266 157. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Myotonic pupil C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Application of pilocarpine drops 158 / 266 158. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 159 / 266 159. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 160 / 266 160. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 161 / 266 161. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C5, 6 C. C3, 4 D. C6, 7 162 / 266 162. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 163 / 266 163. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 164 / 266 164. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Steroid myopathy 165 / 266 165. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 166 / 266 166. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 167 / 266 167. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Arrhythmia 168 / 266 168. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 2 weeks C. 24 hours D. 96 hours 169 / 266 169. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Sudden onset D. Babinski's sign 170 / 266 170. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Hysteria C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 171 / 266 171. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Ependymoma 172 / 266 172. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 173 / 266 173. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Hysteria C. Tetanus D. Meningism 174 / 266 174. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Clopidogrel C. Pentoxifylline D. Aspirin 175 / 266 175. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Coma 176 / 266 176. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Flexor plantar response 177 / 266 177. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Spastic tongue C. Dysarthria D. Nasal regurgitation 178 / 266 178. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Organophosphorus poisoning 179 / 266 179. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae snake bite 180 / 266 180. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypocalcemia 181 / 266 181. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Mental retardation C. Phakomatosis D. Seizures 182 / 266 182. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 183 / 266 183. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 184 / 266 184. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Fatty liver C. Seizures D. Ankle oedema 185 / 266 185. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 186 / 266 186. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Berry aneurysm rupture 187 / 266 187. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Ataxia C. Urinary incontinence D. Normal intellectual activity 188 / 266 188. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Male dominance D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 189 / 266 189. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Fasciculations 190 / 266 190. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypertonia D. Hypermetria 191 / 266 191. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Osteomalacia 192 / 266 192. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Hypertonia C. Coma D. Retention of urine 193 / 266 193. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Brainstem D. Cerebral cortex 194 / 266 194. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Lead 195 / 266 195. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Polyneuropathy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 196 / 266 196. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Has a good prognosis in children 197 / 266 197. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Amblyopia C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Pontine glioma 198 / 266 198. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Ataxia D. Areflexia 199 / 266 199. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Manual labourers D. Athletes 200 / 266 200. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Blindness D. Convulsions 201 / 266 201. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Epilepsy C. Cerebellar infarction D. Multiple sclerosis 202 / 266 202. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Hydrosis + miosis 203 / 266 203. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Cluster headache C. Bell's palsy D. Syringobulbia 204 / 266 204. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Benzodiazepine C. Haloperidol D. Trimipramine 205 / 266 205. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 206 / 266 206. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syphilis D. Ethambutol 207 / 266 207. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 208 / 266 208. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 209 / 266 209. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 210 / 266 210. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 211 / 266 211. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Mass reflex C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor plantar response 212 / 266 212. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 213 / 266 213. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Lacunar infarction 214 / 266 214. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ocular myopathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 215 / 266 215. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Myotonic dystrophy 216 / 266 216. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 217 / 266 217. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 218 / 266 218. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 219 / 266 219. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Tremor C. Visual hallucinations D. Perspiration 220 / 266 220. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 221 / 266 221. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Weber-Christian disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 222 / 266 222. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 223 / 266 223. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Glioma C. Ependymoma D. Cerebral lymphoma 224 / 266 224. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 225 / 266 225. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 226 / 266 226. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 227 / 266 227. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Tetanus C. Diphtheria D. Quinsy 228 / 266 228. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 229 / 266 229. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 230 / 266 230. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Hysteria C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Brain tumor 231 / 266 231. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulism C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Myasthenia gravis 232 / 266 232. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Constricted pupil C. Enophthalmos D. Anhidrosis 233 / 266 233. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Pseudoclonus C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Distal muscle weakness 234 / 266 234. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Immunoglobulin C. Corticosteroid D. Interferon 235 / 266 235. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Mania C. Depression D. Paranoia 236 / 266 236. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Gillespie's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 237 / 266 237. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Cephalosporins D. Quinolones 238 / 266 238. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Hemiballismus C. Dystonia D. Myoclonus 239 / 266 239. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Cord compression D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 240 / 266 240. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Levodopa D. Amantadine 241 / 266 241. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 242 / 266 242. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Paraesthesia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 243 / 266 243. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Topiramate C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam 244 / 266 244. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic D. Astrocytoma 245 / 266 245. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 246 / 266 246. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Alcoholism 247 / 266 247. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 248 / 266 248. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Retrograde amnesia C. Defect in learning D. Loss of immediate recall 249 / 266 249. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Horner's syndrome C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Oculomotor palsy 250 / 266 250. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 251 / 266 251. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. SIADH C. Optic neuritis D. Pseudobulbar palsy 252 / 266 252. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's chorea D. Post-encephalitic 253 / 266 253. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. CT scan C. MRI scan D. PET scan 254 / 266 254. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Cataplexy C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 255 / 266 255. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. Drop attacks D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 256 / 266 256. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. Motor response 257 / 266 257. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Refsum's disease 258 / 266 258. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 259 / 266 259. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 260 / 266 260. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 261 / 266 261. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Autonomic dysfunction 262 / 266 262. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Deafness D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 263 / 266 263. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Olfactory groove D. Over visual cortex 264 / 266 264. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 265 / 266 265. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 266 / 266 266. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. 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