Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Meningioma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 2 / 266 2. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. Adenoma sebaceum C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Shagreen patch 3 / 266 3. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Ethambutol C. Amiodarone D. Chloroquine 4 / 266 4. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. High protein content C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 5 / 266 5. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's chorea 6 / 266 6. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Quinolones D. Aminoglycosides 7 / 266 7. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hypokalemia C. Deep coma D. Hyperkalemia 8 / 266 8. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 9 / 266 9. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Alzheimer's disease 10 / 266 10. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 11 / 266 11. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Brainstem 12 / 266 12. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Gonda sign 13 / 266 13. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Gillespie's syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 14 / 266 14. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Pseudolymphoma C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Megaloblastic anemia 15 / 266 15. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Leprosy 16 / 266 16. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Cerebral palsy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 17 / 266 17. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Weakness and spasticity C. Absent superficial reflex D. Equivocal plantar response 18 / 266 18. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 19 / 266 19. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Polyneuropathy D. Myositis 20 / 266 20. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Athletes C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 21 / 266 21. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Ataxia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 22 / 266 22. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 23 / 266 23. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Mania C. Depression D. Phobia 24 / 266 24. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Mamillary bodies 25 / 266 25. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Puerperal sepsis 26 / 266 26. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 27 / 266 27. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Normal reflexes C. Rigidity D. Tremor 28 / 266 28. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 29 / 266 29. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 30 / 266 30. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Reading a book C. Looking in front D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 31 / 266 31. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Pentoxifylline C. Aspirin D. Clopidogrel 32 / 266 32. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 33 / 266 33. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Multiple tics C. Relief by haloperidol D. Coprolalia 34 / 266 34. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Superior sagittal sinus 35 / 266 35. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Altered consciousness D. Headache 36 / 266 36. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 37 / 266 37. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Schizophrenia D. Mania 38 / 266 38. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 39 / 266 39. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Vagus nerve 40 / 266 40. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 41 / 266 41. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Polycythaemia vera C. SIADH D. Cluster headache 42 / 266 42. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Epilepsy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 43 / 266 43. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Lovastatin C. Emetine D. Febuxostat 44 / 266 44. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Metoclopramide-induced 45 / 266 45. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 46 / 266 46. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hereditary predisposition C. Common in women D. Hemicranial headache 47 / 266 47. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebellar infarction 48 / 266 48. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Scoliosis C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 49 / 266 49. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 50 / 266 50. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Hydrosis + miosis 51 / 266 51. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 52 / 266 52. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Putamen 53 / 266 53. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 54 / 266 54. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyponatraemia D. Rheumatic fever 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 56 / 266 56. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 57 / 266 57. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 58 / 266 58. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 59 / 266 59. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 60 / 266 60. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 61 / 266 61. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 62 / 266 62. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Amyloidosis D. TOCP poisoning 63 / 266 63. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Sarcoidosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Infectious mononucleosis 64 / 266 64. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 65 / 266 65. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Vestibular lesion 66 / 266 66. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Confabulation C. Visual hallucinations D. Perspiration 67 / 266 67. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Marathon runner 68 / 266 68. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Schaumann bodies 69 / 266 69. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Aflatoxin C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 70 / 266 70. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 71 / 266 71. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Old age D. Organophosphorus poisoning 72 / 266 72. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Raynaud's disease C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetic neuropathy 73 / 266 73. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 74 / 266 74. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Babinski's sign C. Sudden onset D. Small, spastic tongue 75 / 266 75. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 76 / 266 76. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Parkinsonism C. Aortic incompetence D. Cerebellar disorder 77 / 266 77. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Patchy arachnoiditis 78 / 266 78. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 79 / 266 79. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Nitrofurantoin C. Vincristine D. Methotrexate 80 / 266 80. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Deafness 81 / 266 81. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. Cerebellar functions D. EMG 82 / 266 82. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 83 / 266 83. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 84 / 266 84. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Waddling gait C. Sensory dysfunction D. Argyll Robertson pupil 85 / 266 85. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C3, 4 C. C5, 6 D. C4, 5 86 / 266 86. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Poliomyelitis C. Rabies D. Snakebite 87 / 266 87. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine D. Benzodiazepine 88 / 266 88. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 89 / 266 89. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. PET scan C. MRI scan D. CT scan 90 / 266 90. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 91 / 266 91. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 92 / 266 92. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 93 / 266 93. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Frontal baldness 94 / 266 94. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Anhidrosis C. Complete ptosis D. Constricted pupil 95 / 266 95. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 96 / 266 96. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Galactosaemia C. Haemochromatosis D. Wilson's disease 97 / 266 97. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Digitalis toxicity 98 / 266 98. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 99 / 266 99. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Dementia in AIDS C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 100 / 266 100. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Hysteria 101 / 266 101. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Enteric fever D. Weil's disease 102 / 266 102. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Cervical rib C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 103 / 266 103. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 104 / 266 104. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 105 / 266 105. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Selegiline D. Amantadine 106 / 266 106. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 107 / 266 107. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 108 / 266 108. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Lathyrism C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 109 / 266 109. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Infantile spasm 110 / 266 110. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrigine D. Lubeluzole 111 / 266 111. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 112 / 266 112. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Hiccups C. Ataxia D. Pyramidal lesion 113 / 266 113. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 114 / 266 114. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Snout reflex D. Grasp reflex 115 / 266 115. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 116 / 266 116. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Taboparesis D. Friedreich' s ataxia 117 / 266 117. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Viral meningitis 118 / 266 118. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. SIADH C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Convulsions 119 / 266 119. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Diazepam C. Valproate D. Topiramate 120 / 266 120. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Paraesthesia 121 / 266 121. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Takayasu's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 122 / 266 122. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 123 / 266 123. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Polymyositis D. Diabetic amyotrophy 124 / 266 124. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Cord compression D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 125 / 266 125. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Hypothyroidism 126 / 266 126. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 127 / 266 127. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 128 / 266 128. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Acromegaly C. Alzheimer's disease D. Infertility 129 / 266 129. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 130 / 266 130. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Chorea C. Myotonia D. Athetosis 131 / 266 131. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 132 / 266 132. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Subdural hematoma C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Trypanosomiasis 133 / 266 133. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Dystonia C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 134 / 266 134. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 135 / 266 135. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Pyramidal signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 136 / 266 136. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Acalculia D. Agraphia 137 / 266 137. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Horner's syndrome 138 / 266 138. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 139 / 266 139. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Dementia 140 / 266 140. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe 141 / 266 141. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypermetria C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypertonia 142 / 266 142. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 143 / 266 143. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Quinsy D. Tetanus 144 / 266 144. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Hypoxia D. Malignant hypertension 145 / 266 145. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Leprosy C. Ethambutol D. Syphilis 146 / 266 146. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Oesophagitis 147 / 266 147. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-21 148 / 266 148. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypercalcemia 149 / 266 149. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 150 / 266 150. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Gynaecomastia C. Galactorrhoea D. Acromegaly 151 / 266 151. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Ciliary ganglion 152 / 266 152. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Myxoedema 153 / 266 153. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Spasticity C. Babinski's sign D. Clonus 154 / 266 154. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 155 / 266 155. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Transient ischemic attack C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Epilepsy 156 / 266 156. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Nystagmus C. Aphasia D. Papilloedema 157 / 266 157. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 158 / 266 158. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Tone and power 159 / 266 159. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Clomipramine C. Lithium D. Haloperidol 160 / 266 160. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 161 / 266 161. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Bulbar palsy C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 162 / 266 162. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Duodenal stenosis D. Polymyositis 163 / 266 163. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 164 / 266 164. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Kuru 165 / 266 165. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 166 / 266 166. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 167 / 266 167. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myopathy 168 / 266 168. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Tunnel vision D. Central scotoma 169 / 266 169. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 170 / 266 170. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Two-point localisation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 171 / 266 171. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 172 / 266 172. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Tuberculous meningitis 173 / 266 173. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 174 / 266 174. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Apraxia 175 / 266 175. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Anemia C. Ankle clonus D. Glossitis 176 / 266 176. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 177 / 266 177. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 178 / 266 178. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Weber-Christian disease 179 / 266 179. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 180 / 266 180. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Increased tone C. Intact proprioception D. Sensory ataxia 181 / 266 181. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 182 / 266 182. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 183 / 266 183. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 184 / 266 184. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Retinal hemorrhage 185 / 266 185. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Blindness C. Convulsions D. Radioculomyelopathy 186 / 266 186. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 187 / 266 187. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral hemorrhage 188 / 266 188. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents vasospasm 189 / 266 189. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Diabetes mellitus C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Gradenigo's syndrome 190 / 266 190. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Muscle enzyme study C. Muscle biopsy D. Nerve conduction study 191 / 266 191. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Tabes dorsalis 192 / 266 192. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cirrhosis of liver 193 / 266 193. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Coma C. Absent deep reflexes D. Hypertonia 194 / 266 194. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 195 / 266 195. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 196 / 266 196. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 197 / 266 197. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 198 / 266 198. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Paroxetine D. Sertraline 199 / 266 199. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Absence of root pain D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 200 / 266 200. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 201 / 266 201. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Pineal body C. Choroid plexus D. Dura matter 202 / 266 202. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 203 / 266 203. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Parietal 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 205 / 266 205. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 206 / 266 206. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 207 / 266 207. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Ventral pons C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 208 / 266 208. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 209 / 266 209. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Alcoholism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 210 / 266 210. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Olfactory groove C. Sylvian fissure D. Over visual cortex 211 / 266 211. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 212 / 266 212. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 213 / 266 213. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Pain C. Animals D. Strangers 214 / 266 214. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Polyneuropathy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Loss of accommodation 215 / 266 215. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 216 / 266 216. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 217 / 266 217. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 218 / 266 218. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Arrhythmia 219 / 266 219. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 220 / 266 220. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Syringobulbia D. Bell's palsy 221 / 266 221. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. Drop attacks D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 222 / 266 222. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. IV frusemide C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 223 / 266 223. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 224 / 266 224. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 225 / 266 225. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Extensor plantar response C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Emotional incontinence 226 / 266 226. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 227 / 266 227. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Multiparous woman C. Obesity D. Lax abdominal wall 228 / 266 228. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Immune disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 229 / 266 229. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. IV mannitol 230 / 266 230. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Ataxia C. Areflexia D. Apraxia 231 / 266 231. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Depression C. Early onset D. Visual hallucinations 232 / 266 232. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Unequal pupil 233 / 266 233. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 234 / 266 234. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Meningism 235 / 266 235. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Pontine glioma C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Cerebellar disorder 236 / 266 236. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 96 hours C. 24 hours D. 2 weeks 237 / 266 237. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Niemann-Pick disease 238 / 266 238. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Dysarthria C. Aphasia D. Monotonous speech 239 / 266 239. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Myoclonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Tonic seizures 240 / 266 240. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Leukodystrophy 241 / 266 241. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. von Recklinghausen's disease 242 / 266 242. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Cocaine C. Amphetamines D. Flumazenil 243 / 266 243. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Metastatic 244 / 266 244. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Seen in tall, thin people 245 / 266 245. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T4 C. T2 D. C8 246 / 266 246. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 247 / 266 247. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 248 / 266 248. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Nasal regurgitation 249 / 266 249. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. May be associated with malignancy 250 / 266 250. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Neurosyphilis 251 / 266 251. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 252 / 266 252. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Hypervitaminosis D 253 / 266 253. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 254 / 266 254. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral diplegia C. Motor neuron disease D. Parkinsonism 255 / 266 255. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Chorea C. Migraine D. Psychosis 256 / 266 256. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Phakomatosis C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Seizures 257 / 266 257. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Pick's disease 258 / 266 258. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. Systemic hypertension D. AV malformations 259 / 266 259. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 260 / 266 260. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Inflammatory C. Demyelinating D. Embolic 261 / 266 261. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1 262 / 266 262. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Confabulation D. Presence of nystagmus 263 / 266 263. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Infraspinatus C. Pectoralis major D. Calf muscles 264 / 266 264. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Advanced pregnancy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 265 / 266 265. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agnosia 266 / 266 266. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology