Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Polyneuropathy D. Abducens palsy 2 / 266 2. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 3 / 266 3. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Frontal 4 / 266 4. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Brachycephaly C. Frontal baldness D. Testicular atrophy 5 / 266 5. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Inferior sagittal sinus 6 / 266 6. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 7 / 266 7. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 8 / 266 8. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 9 / 266 9. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Pseudoclonus C. Distal muscle weakness D. Exaggerated deep reflex 10 / 266 10. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 11 / 266 11. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Vincristine 12 / 266 12. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Taboparesis D. Friedreich' s ataxia 13 / 266 13. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Hyperthyroidism 14 / 266 14. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Dementia in AIDS D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 15 / 266 15. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Complex partial D. Petit mal 16 / 266 16. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 17 / 266 17. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Oculomotor nerve C. Ciliary ganglion D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 18 / 266 18. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Absence of root pain D. Viral or post-vaccinal 19 / 266 19. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 20 / 266 20. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Meningioma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Medulloblastoma 21 / 266 21. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Sleep paralysis C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 22 / 266 22. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 23 / 266 23. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 24 / 266 24. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Polycythaemia vera C. Mania D. Cluster headache 25 / 266 25. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Schaumann bodies 26 / 266 26. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Cerebellar signs 27 / 266 27. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Increased CSF pressure C. Xanthochromia D. High protein content 28 / 266 28. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. Cerebellar functions D. EMG 29 / 266 29. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 30 / 266 30. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Hypothyroidism C. Onycholysis D. Ataxia 31 / 266 31. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Carbamazepine 32 / 266 32. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Nystagmus D. Aphasia 33 / 266 33. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 34 / 266 34. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 35 / 266 35. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 36 / 266 36. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Presence of nystagmus C. Confabulation D. Loss of recent memory 37 / 266 37. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Acute renal failure 38 / 266 38. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypermetria D. Hypertonia 39 / 266 39. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Drop attacks 40 / 266 40. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Neurofibroma D. Spinal epidural abscess 41 / 266 41. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Brainstem C. Cervical spine D. Internal capsule 42 / 266 42. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Schizophrenia 43 / 266 43. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperthyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hypothyroidism 44 / 266 44. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Trigeminal neuralgia 45 / 266 45. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C5, 6 D. C6, 7 46 / 266 46. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Cocaine C. Amphetamines D. Flumazenil 47 / 266 47. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 48 / 266 48. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 49 / 266 49. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Myxoedema 50 / 266 50. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 51 / 266 51. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Paranoia C. Phobia D. Mania 52 / 266 52. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Migraine C. Psychosis D. Chorea 53 / 266 53. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Emotional excitement C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. Systemic hypertension 54 / 266 54. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Cerebellar disorder D. Amblyopia 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Agraphia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Acalculia 56 / 266 56. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Cephalosporins 57 / 266 57. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Hypoxia D. Malignant hypertension 58 / 266 58. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Lathyrism 59 / 266 59. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 60 / 266 60. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Cerebellar infarction D. Digitalis toxicity 61 / 266 61. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 62 / 266 62. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 63 / 266 63. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Apraxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Areflexia 64 / 266 64. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Immune disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 65 / 266 65. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hemicranial headache C. Common in women D. Hereditary predisposition 66 / 266 66. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 67 / 266 67. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Huntington's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 68 / 266 68. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 69 / 266 69. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Facial nerve 70 / 266 70. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Deafness D. Retinitis pigmentosa 71 / 266 71. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Infertility 72 / 266 72. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 73 / 266 73. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Coma D. Hemiparesis 74 / 266 74. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Reading a book C. Looking in front D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 75 / 266 75. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Confabulation C. Tremor D. Visual hallucinations 76 / 266 76. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. PET scan C. MRI scan D. CT scan 77 / 266 77. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 78 / 266 78. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Viral meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 79 / 266 79. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 80 / 266 80. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Hysteria C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 81 / 266 81. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Brain tumor C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 82 / 266 82. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 83 / 266 83. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Seizures 84 / 266 84. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 85 / 266 85. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Brain tumour D. Gradenigo's syndrome 86 / 266 86. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 87 / 266 87. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 88 / 266 88. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Athetosis D. Tetany 89 / 266 89. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Pituitary tumors 90 / 266 90. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 91 / 266 91. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Horner's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 92 / 266 92. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Ataxia C. Osteomalacia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 93 / 266 93. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Dolichocephaly 94 / 266 94. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 95 / 266 95. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 96 / 266 96. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 97 / 266 97. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 98 / 266 98. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Motor neuron disease 99 / 266 99. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Niemann-Pick disease 100 / 266 100. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 101 / 266 101. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hyponatremia C. Hypoxia D. Hypocapnia 102 / 266 102. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Retrograde amnesia C. Confabulation D. Loss of immediate recall 103 / 266 103. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Poliomyelitis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Syringomyelia 104 / 266 104. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 105 / 266 105. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Optic glioma D. Acoustic neuroma 106 / 266 106. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 107 / 266 107. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Cerebral palsy 108 / 266 108. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Tetanus 109 / 266 109. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Rasagiline C. Tiagabine D. Pramipexole 110 / 266 110. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 111 / 266 111. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Benzodiazepine 112 / 266 112. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Wasting of muscles 113 / 266 113. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 114 / 266 114. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 115 / 266 115. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrigine D. Lubeluzole 116 / 266 116. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 117 / 266 117. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Donazepril is used in treatment 118 / 266 118. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Epilepsy 119 / 266 119. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Methoxyflurane C. Halothane D. Dantrolene 120 / 266 120. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Sensory ataxia C. Increased tone D. Intact proprioception 121 / 266 121. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Emotional incontinence C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Extensor plantar response 122 / 266 122. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Embolic C. Demyelinating D. Hemorrhagic 123 / 266 123. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 124 / 266 124. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 125 / 266 125. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 126 / 266 126. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Aortic incompetence 127 / 266 127. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Perceptual rivalry 128 / 266 128. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 129 / 266 129. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Weakness and spasticity C. Equivocal plantar response D. Absent superficial reflex 130 / 266 130. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Hypertonia C. Absent deep reflexes D. Retention of urine 131 / 266 131. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Kuru C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 132 / 266 132. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 133 / 266 133. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Myopathy C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 134 / 266 134. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Alcohol C. Arsenic D. Vincristine 135 / 266 135. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 136 / 266 136. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Atenolol C. Sumatriptan D. Phenytoin 137 / 266 137. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Pick's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 138 / 266 138. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Flexor plantar response 139 / 266 139. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 140 / 266 140. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Deltoid C. Calf muscles D. Infraspinatus 141 / 266 141. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Anal reflex D. Snout reflex 142 / 266 142. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Fasciculations C. Babinski's sign D. Spasticity 143 / 266 143. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 144 / 266 144. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 145 / 266 145. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 146 / 266 146. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 147 / 266 147. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Elapidae snake bite 148 / 266 148. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Hyperpyrexia 149 / 266 149. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 150 / 266 150. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Alzheimer's disease C. Post-encephalitic D. Multi-infarct dementia 151 / 266 151. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Haemochromatosis 152 / 266 152. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 153 / 266 153. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Reserpine D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 154 / 266 154. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic D. Glioblastoma 155 / 266 155. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Subdural hematoma C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Encephalitis lethargica 156 / 266 156. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 157 / 266 157. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Rigidity C. Normal reflexes D. Hyperkinesia 158 / 266 158. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Pinealomas C. Ependymoma D. Cerebral lymphoma 159 / 266 159. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hypothyroidism 160 / 266 160. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Red nucleus 161 / 266 161. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Cervical rib D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 162 / 266 162. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 163 / 266 163. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Myositis 164 / 266 164. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. 5% dextrose C. IV mannitol D. IV quinine 165 / 266 165. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Medulla C. Lower pons D. Midbrain 166 / 266 166. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myelopathy D. Myopathy 167 / 266 167. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 168 / 266 168. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syringomyelia D. Cervical spondylosis 169 / 266 169. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 170 / 266 170. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Pons 171 / 266 171. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Gonda sign D. Chaddock's sign 172 / 266 172. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Leprosy C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 173 / 266 173. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Polymyositis D. Diabetic amyotrophy 174 / 266 174. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 175 / 266 175. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 176 / 266 176. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Convulsions C. SIADH D. Pseudobulbar palsy 177 / 266 177. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 178 / 266 178. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocalcemia 179 / 266 179. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerve 180 / 266 180. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Central scotoma D. Bitemporal hemianopi 181 / 266 181. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Spastic tongue D. Dysphagia 182 / 266 182. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 183 / 266 183. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 184 / 266 184. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Obesity C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 185 / 266 185. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Alcoholism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Wilson's disease 186 / 266 186. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 187 / 266 187. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Papilledema 188 / 266 188. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Polymyositis D. Duodenal stenosis 189 / 266 189. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Olfactory groove C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Over visual cortex 190 / 266 190. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 191 / 266 191. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Strangers C. High places D. Animals 192 / 266 192. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Petit mal epilepsy 193 / 266 193. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 194 / 266 194. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 195 / 266 195. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Diazepam C. Ethosuximide D. Valproate 196 / 266 196. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Clopidogrel C. Ticlopidine D. Pentoxifylline 197 / 266 197. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe 198 / 266 198. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Sudden onset C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Babinski's sign 199 / 266 199. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 200 / 266 200. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Thalamus D. Putamen 201 / 266 201. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 202 / 266 202. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 203 / 266 203. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 204 / 266 204. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Pineal body C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 205 / 266 205. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 206 / 266 206. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 207 / 266 207. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Restlessness C. Poliomyelitis D. Transverse myelitis 208 / 266 208. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 209 / 266 209. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Choreoathetosis C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Mental retardation 210 / 266 210. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ethambutol C. Leprosy D. Syphilis 211 / 266 211. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. Pneumococcus 212 / 266 212. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral diplegia D. Parkinsonism 213 / 266 213. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Poliomyelitis 214 / 266 214. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 215 / 266 215. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5,S1 D. L5 216 / 266 216. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Diabetes mellitus 217 / 266 217. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Convulsions C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 218 / 266 218. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 219 / 266 219. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Fluoxetine C. Paroxetine D. Sertraline 220 / 266 220. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Paralysis D. Disconjugate gaze 221 / 266 221. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Stereognosis 222 / 266 222. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Malignant exophthalmos D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 223 / 266 223. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Puerperal sepsis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 224 / 266 224. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Heart valve abnormalities 225 / 266 225. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Polycystic kidney D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 226 / 266 226. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Lovastatin D. Febuxostat 227 / 266 227. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumor C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 228 / 266 228. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor plantar response D. Flexor spasm 229 / 266 229. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Autonomic response C. Motor response D. Eye opening 230 / 266 230. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Constricted pupil 231 / 266 231. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Cortex D. Pons 232 / 266 232. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Hiccups C. Horner's syndrome D. Ataxia 233 / 266 233. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 234 / 266 234. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Deep coma D. Hyperkalemia 235 / 266 235. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Brainstem D. Cerebral cortex 236 / 266 236. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerv 237 / 266 237. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Pinealomas D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 238 / 266 238. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pseudolymphoma D. Pendular nystagmus 239 / 266 239. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 240 / 266 240. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Galactorrhoea C. Parkinsonism D. Gynaecomastia 241 / 266 241. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 242 / 266 242. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 243 / 266 243. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 244 / 266 244. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 3 weeks C. 24 hours D. 96 hours 245 / 266 245. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Blindness D. Convulsions 246 / 266 246. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Electromyography C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle biopsy 247 / 266 247. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Anemia C. Ankle clonus D. Glossitis 248 / 266 248. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy D. Polymyositis 249 / 266 249. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 250 / 266 250. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 251 / 266 251. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Refsum's disease 252 / 266 252. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Dystonia D. Hemiballismus 253 / 266 253. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 254 / 266 254. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Cyclophosphamide C. Corticosteroid D. Interferon 255 / 266 255. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 256 / 266 256. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cervical spondylosis C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Duchenne myopathy 257 / 266 257. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 258 / 266 258. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 259 / 266 259. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Visual hallucinations D. Passivity feelings 260 / 266 260. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Vllth 261 / 266 261. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 262 / 266 262. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-18 D. Turner's syndrome 263 / 266 263. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. May occur spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 264 / 266 264. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Meningism 265 / 266 265. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Amyloidosis 266 / 266 266. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Paraesthesia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology