Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Gynaecomastia 2 / 266 2. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluoxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Paroxetine 3 / 266 3. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe 4 / 266 4. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 5 / 266 5. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Central scotoma C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Bitemporal hemianopi 6 / 266 6. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 7 / 266 7. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumor C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 8 / 266 8. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Sumatriptan C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 9 / 266 9. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Myoclonic seizures D. Tonic seizures 10 / 266 10. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Sarcoidosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 11 / 266 11. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Rasagiline C. Ropinirole D. Pramipexole 12 / 266 12. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 13 / 266 13. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Thrombocytopenia 14 / 266 14. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 15 / 266 15. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 16 / 266 16. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Thoracic inlet syndrome C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 17 / 266 17. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 18 / 266 18. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 19 / 266 19. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine D. Trimipramine 20 / 266 20. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Coprolalia 21 / 266 21. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Tay-Sachs disease 22 / 266 22. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Pontine glioma D. Amblyopia 23 / 266 23. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Malignant hypertension C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Hypoxia 24 / 266 24. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Babinski's sign C. Anemia D. Ankle clonus 25 / 266 25. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Optic neuritis C. SIADH D. Convulsions 26 / 266 26. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Oculomotor palsy C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 27 / 266 27. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sarcoidosis D. Infectious mononucleosis 28 / 266 28. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 29 / 266 29. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Diplopia C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 30 / 266 30. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 31 / 266 31. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Parietal 32 / 266 32. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Hyperpyrexia 33 / 266 33. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 34 / 266 34. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Myotonic pupil D. Application of pilocarpine drops 35 / 266 35. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Muscle biopsy C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 36 / 266 36. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Cataplexy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Epilepsy 37 / 266 37. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Malignant exophthalmos 38 / 266 38. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Mental retardation 40 / 266 40. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Hepatocellular failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Severe heart failure 41 / 266 41. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Polycystic kidney D. Coarctation of aorta 42 / 266 42. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Convulsions C. Focal neuro deficit D. Radioculomyelopathy 43 / 266 43. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Thalamus D. Putamen 44 / 266 44. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Loss of immediate recall C. Confabulation D. Defect in learning 45 / 266 45. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Lovastatin C. Zidovudine D. Emetine 46 / 266 46. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 47 / 266 47. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 48 / 266 48. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 49 / 266 49. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C4, 5 50 / 266 50. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trochlear nerve 51 / 266 51. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 52 / 266 52. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 53 / 266 53. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 54 / 266 54. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Reserpine C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Oral contraceptive pills 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysarthria D. Dysphagia 56 / 266 56. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Galactosaemia C. Haemochromatosis D. Myotonic dystrophy 57 / 266 57. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Extensor plantar response D. Emotional incontinence 58 / 266 58. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T4 D. T2 59 / 266 59. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 60 / 266 60. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 61 / 266 61. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 62 / 266 62. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Pendular nystagmus C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Cerebellar syndrome 63 / 266 63. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Viral meningitis 64 / 266 64. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 65 / 266 65. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 66 / 266 66. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Valproic acid C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Myxoedema 67 / 266 67. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. TOCP poisoning C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Amyloidosis 68 / 266 68. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Apraxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 69 / 266 69. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Aphasia C. Dysarthria D. Dysphonia 70 / 266 70. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Meningism 71 / 266 71. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 72 / 266 72. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Thiocyanates D. Aflatoxin 73 / 266 73. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Tuberous sclerosis 74 / 266 74. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 75 / 266 75. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Venous sinus thrombosis 76 / 266 76. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Manual labourers C. Myotonia D. Athletes 77 / 266 77. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 78 / 266 78. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Cocaine C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 79 / 266 79. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Lewy bodies 80 / 266 80. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 81 / 266 81. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Papilledema 82 / 266 82. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 83 / 266 83. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 84 / 266 84. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left atrial myxoma D. Left ventricular aneurysm 85 / 266 85. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Alzheimer's disease D. Pick's disease 86 / 266 86. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Retinitis pigmentosa 87 / 266 87. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Mass reflex C. Flexor plantar response D. Flexor spasm 88 / 266 88. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Hysteria C. Tetanus D. Meningism 89 / 266 89. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Cardiac tamponade 90 / 266 90. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. EMG C. Sensory functions D. Cerebellar functions 91 / 266 91. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Sudden onset C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Small, spastic tongue 92 / 266 92. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Retention of urine C. Coma D. Absent deep reflexes 93 / 266 93. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 94 / 266 94. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Poliomyelitis 95 / 266 95. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 96 / 266 96. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 97 / 266 97. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Male dominance C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 98 / 266 98. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Dementia C. Ataxia D. Normal intellectual activity 99 / 266 99. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Ethambutol 100 / 266 100. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Acute myocardial infarction 101 / 266 101. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. May occur spontaneously 102 / 266 102. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 103 / 266 103. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 104 / 266 104. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Digitalis toxicity C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Cerebellar infarction 105 / 266 105. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Kuru C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Rubella panencephalitis 106 / 266 106. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Fourth ventricle 107 / 266 107. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 108 / 266 108. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Increased deep reflexes C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Flexor plantar response 109 / 266 109. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 110 / 266 110. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 111 / 266 111. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Infantile spasm C. Complex partial D. Petit mal 112 / 266 112. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral thrombosis 113 / 266 113. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Tremor 114 / 266 114. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 115 / 266 115. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Restlessness D. Transverse myelitis 116 / 266 116. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 117 / 266 117. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Vincristine C. Methotrexate D. INH 118 / 266 118. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV mannitol C. IV frusemide D. Dexamethasone 119 / 266 119. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Subdural hematoma C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Pickwickian syndrome 120 / 266 120. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Gaucher's disease 121 / 266 121. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 122 / 266 122. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Haloperidol C. Carbamazepine D. Lithium 123 / 266 123. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 124 / 266 124. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 125 / 266 125. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Altered consciousness D. Convulsions 126 / 266 126. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Intact proprioception C. Increased tone D. Brisk deep reflexes 127 / 266 127. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Hemicranial headache C. Common in women D. Common migraine has aura 128 / 266 128. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Putamen D. Red nucleus 129 / 266 129. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 130 / 266 130. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Nystagmus C. Papilloedema D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 131 / 266 131. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 132 / 266 132. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Cord compression 133 / 266 133. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Brain tumour D. Diabetes mellitus 134 / 266 134. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Reading a book C. Looking to the roof D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 135 / 266 135. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Seizures C. Diplopia D. Paraesthesia 136 / 266 136. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Ethambutol C. Chloroquine D. Probenecid 137 / 266 137. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure sensory stroke 138 / 266 138. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Pentoxifylline C. Ticlopidine D. Aspirin 139 / 266 139. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 140 / 266 140. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Quinsy C. Tetanus D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 141 / 266 141. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 142 / 266 142. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Parkinsonism D. Aortic incompetence 143 / 266 143. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 144 / 266 144. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 145 / 266 145. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 146 / 266 146. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. MRI scan C. PET scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 147 / 266 147. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 148 / 266 148. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Stereognosis 149 / 266 149. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 150 / 266 150. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Complete ptosis C. Enophthalmos D. Constricted pupil 151 / 266 151. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 152 / 266 152. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Osteomalacia 153 / 266 153. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Poliomyelitis C. Rabies D. Snakebite 154 / 266 154. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Multiple sclerosis 155 / 266 155. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Animals C. High places D. Strangers 156 / 266 156. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Oculomotor palsy 157 / 266 157. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Mania C. Depression D. Phobia 158 / 266 158. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Xth D. Vth 159 / 266 159. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Valproate C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam 160 / 266 160. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Bell's palsy D. Cluster headache 161 / 266 161. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve 162 / 266 162. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Pyramidal lesion C. Ataxia D. Hiccups 163 / 266 163. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 164 / 266 164. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Acute renal failure C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Oesophagitis 165 / 266 165. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Wasting of muscles 166 / 266 166. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Giant cell arteritis D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 167 / 266 167. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Athetosis C. Chorea D. Tetany 168 / 266 168. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Cerebellar infarction C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 169 / 266 169. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 170 / 266 170. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Dementia in AIDS C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Hysterical gait disorder 171 / 266 171. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Psychosis C. Chorea D. Migraine 172 / 266 172. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Over visual cortex C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Sylvian fissure 173 / 266 173. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 174 / 266 174. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Advanced pregnancy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Huge ascites 175 / 266 175. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Raynaud's disease D. Tabes dorsalis 176 / 266 176. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Acalculia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Aphasia 177 / 266 177. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Hypothyroidism D. Onycholysis 178 / 266 178. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Medulla 179 / 266 179. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypercalcemia 180 / 266 180. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Weil's disease D. Enteric fever 181 / 266 181. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Weakness and spasticity C. Equivocal plantar response D. Brisk deep reflexes 182 / 266 182. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Cortex 183 / 266 183. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Petit mal epilepsy 184 / 266 184. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Demyelinating 185 / 266 185. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. Glucocorticoids C. IV mannitol D. 5% dextrose 186 / 266 186. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Mental retardation C. Limb shortening D. Anencephaly 187 / 266 187. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Emotional excitement C. AV malformations D. Berry aneurysm rupture 188 / 266 188. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypoxia D. Hypotension 189 / 266 189. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Cerebellar disorder D. Alcoholism 190 / 266 190. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-18 D. Turner's syndrome 191 / 266 191. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Interferon C. Corticosteroid D. Immunoglobulin 192 / 266 192. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 193 / 266 193. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 194 / 266 194. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 195 / 266 195. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 196 / 266 196. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Cerebral palsy 197 / 266 197. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Confabulation D. Associated with lacunar infarction 198 / 266 198. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Lathyrism C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 199 / 266 199. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. Polycythaemia vera C. Mania D. SIADH 200 / 266 200. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Marathon runner C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 201 / 266 201. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 202 / 266 202. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Frontal baldness C. Testicular atrophy D. Ptosis 203 / 266 203. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy D. Motor neuron disease 204 / 266 204. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Sensory dysfunction C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Loss of ankle jerk 205 / 266 205. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Encephalitis C. Epilepsy D. Febrile 206 / 266 206. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 207 / 266 207. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 208 / 266 208. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Lacunar infarction D. Neurosyphilis 209 / 266 209. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Shagreen patch D. Pompholyx 210 / 266 210. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. May be associated with malignancy D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 211 / 266 211. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 212 / 266 212. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Deep coma C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 213 / 266 213. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercalcemia 214 / 266 214. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Alzheimer's disease D. Parkinsonism 215 / 266 215. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Midbrain 216 / 266 216. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Paralysis C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 217 / 266 217. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Hemiballismus C. Dystonia D. Myoclonus 218 / 266 218. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Alcohol C. Arsenic D. Vincristine 219 / 266 219. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Eye opening D. Verbal response 220 / 266 220. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 221 / 266 221. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. Pneumococcus 222 / 266 222. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hysteria D. Duchenne myopathy 223 / 266 223. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 224 / 266 224. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Selegiline 225 / 266 225. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 226 / 266 226. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Duodenal stenosis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Polymyositis 227 / 266 227. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 228 / 266 228. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Neurofibroma 229 / 266 229. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 230 / 266 230. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Mania C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 231 / 266 231. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Gonda sign D. Babinski's sign 232 / 266 232. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Rheumatic fever C. Hyponatraemia D. Wilson's disease 233 / 266 233. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 96 hours 234 / 266 234. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Areflexia D. Apraxia 235 / 266 235. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Obesity 236 / 266 236. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Deltoid C. Infraspinatus D. Calf muscles 237 / 266 237. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 238 / 266 238. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Ependymoma C. Glioma D. Pinealomas 239 / 266 239. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Immune disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 240 / 266 240. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5 C. L5,S1 D. S1 241 / 266 241. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 242 / 266 242. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Facial weakness C. Aphasia D. Coma 243 / 266 243. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Depression C. Visual hallucinations D. Passivity feelings 244 / 266 244. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Albright's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 245 / 266 245. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Increased CSF pressure C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. High protein content 246 / 266 246. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 247 / 266 247. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Gillespie's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 248 / 266 248. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Agnosia D. Apraxia 249 / 266 249. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Myopathy C. Neuropathy D. Encephalitis 250 / 266 250. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 251 / 266 251. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 252 / 266 252. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Babinski's sign C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 253 / 266 253. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Perceptual rivalry C. Two-point localisation D. Vibration sensation 254 / 266 254. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Gross pedal oedema C. Myxoedema D. Tabes dorsalis 255 / 266 255. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 256 / 266 256. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Oculomotor nerve 257 / 266 257. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 258 / 266 258. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 259 / 266 259. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 260 / 266 260. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Oculomotor palsy D. Periodic paralysis 261 / 266 261. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 262 / 266 262. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 263 / 266 263. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Distal muscle weakness D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 264 / 266 264. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Alzheimer's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 265 / 266 265. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lamotrigine C. Felbamate D. Lubeluzole 266 / 266 266. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Anal reflex D. Sucking reflex LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology