Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral infarction C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral haemorrhage 2 / 266 2. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Psychosis C. Chorea D. Myodonus 3 / 266 3. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Agnosia D. Apraxia 4 / 266 4. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Verapamil D. Atenolol 5 / 266 5. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. SIADH C. Polycythaemia vera D. Mania 6 / 266 6. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Nutrition of muscles C. Stereognosis D. Tone and power 7 / 266 7. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 8 / 266 8. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Niemann-Pick disease 9 / 266 9. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 10 / 266 10. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Glossitis C. Babinski's sign D. Anemia 11 / 266 11. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Schizophrenia C. Mania D. Alcohol withdrawal 12 / 266 12. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic D. Astrocytoma 13 / 266 13. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1 C. L5 D. S1,S2 14 / 266 14. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Diarrhoea C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 15 / 266 15. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Transverse myelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 16 / 266 16. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Hepatic precoma 17 / 266 17. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 18 / 266 18. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Central scotoma 19 / 266 19. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Coarctation of aorta D. Takayasu's disease 20 / 266 20. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Pons 21 / 266 21. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Embolic C. Demyelinating D. Inflammatory 22 / 266 22. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Leucodystrophy C. Cerebral palsy D. Alzheimer's disease 23 / 266 23. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 24 / 266 24. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Benzodiazepine 25 / 266 25. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 26 / 266 26. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Ataxia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 27 / 266 27. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Post-encephalitic D. Huntington's chorea 28 / 266 28. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Hyperpyrexia D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 29 / 266 29. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Hypothermia 30 / 266 30. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 31 / 266 31. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Temporal 32 / 266 32. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 33 / 266 33. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Oculomotor nerve C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Ciliary ganglion 34 / 266 34. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Selegiline C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Amantadine 35 / 266 35. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 36 / 266 36. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Ethosuximide 37 / 266 37. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Aspirin C. Ticlopidine D. Pentoxifylline 38 / 266 38. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Friedreich's ataxia 39 / 266 39. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Depression C. Early onset D. Passivity feelings 40 / 266 40. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 41 / 266 41. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Organophosphorus poisoning 42 / 266 42. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Haloperidol 43 / 266 43. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Midbrain C. Upper pons D. Lower pons 44 / 266 44. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. TOCP poisoning 45 / 266 45. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Brain tumor C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tuberculous meningitis 46 / 266 46. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 47 / 266 47. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV mannitol C. 5% dextrose D. IV quinine 48 / 266 48. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 49 / 266 49. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 50 / 266 50. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 51 / 266 51. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis major C. Calf muscles D. Infraspinatus 52 / 266 52. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Deafness C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 53 / 266 53. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 54 / 266 54. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Brain tumour D. Raised intracranial pressure 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Coma C. Absent deep reflexes D. Retention of urine 56 / 266 56. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-13 D. Turner's syndrome 57 / 266 57. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased deep reflexes C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 58 / 266 58. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 59 / 266 59. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Obesity 60 / 266 60. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Athetosis C. Tetany D. Chorea 61 / 266 61. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. High places C. Animals D. Strangers 62 / 266 62. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Multiple sclerosis C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Cerebral haemorrhage 63 / 266 63. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Loss of immediate recall C. Retrograde amnesia D. Confabulation 64 / 266 64. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Aphasia C. Coma D. Hemiparesis 65 / 266 65. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Malignant exophthalmos 66 / 266 66. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Cord compression 67 / 266 67. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. May be associated with malignancy C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 68 / 266 68. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Parkinsonism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myxoedema 69 / 266 69. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hyponatremia 70 / 266 70. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Hysteria C. Meningism D. Tetanus 71 / 266 71. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Neurofibroma 72 / 266 72. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Sarcoidosis 73 / 266 73. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Fasciculations C. Spasticity D. Babinski's sign 74 / 266 74. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Malignant hypertension C. Hypoxia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 75 / 266 75. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Cerebellar infarction C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Aura phase of migraine 76 / 266 76. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Pindolol C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 77 / 266 77. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Parietal lobe 78 / 266 78. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Dolichocephaly D. Platybasia 79 / 266 79. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Froin's loculation syndrome 80 / 266 80. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Convulsions C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. SIADH 81 / 266 81. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Paraesthesia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 82 / 266 82. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Pick's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 83 / 266 83. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud's disease C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 84 / 266 84. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ethambutol D. Leprosy 85 / 266 85. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Absent superficial reflex C. Equivocal plantar response D. Brisk deep reflexes 86 / 266 86. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 87 / 266 87. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking to the roof C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking in front 88 / 266 88. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Myoclonic seizures D. Absence seizures 89 / 266 89. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Spastic tongue D. Nasal regurgitation 90 / 266 90. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Athletes C. Myotonia D. Manual labourers 91 / 266 91. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Putamen 92 / 266 92. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Huntington's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 93 / 266 93. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Peripheral neuropathy 94 / 266 94. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Syringobulbia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Bell's palsy 95 / 266 95. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine 96 / 266 96. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Duodenal stenosis D. Polymyositis 97 / 266 97. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents rebleeding D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 98 / 266 98. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 99 / 266 99. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Hereditary predisposition 100 / 266 100. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Chaddock's sign 101 / 266 101. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 102 / 266 102. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 103 / 266 103. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Immune disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 104 / 266 104. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Aphasia D. Nystagmus 105 / 266 105. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV frusemide D. IV mannitol 106 / 266 106. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Haemochromatosis C. Wilson's disease D. Myotonic dystrophy 107 / 266 107. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypothyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 108 / 266 108. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 109 / 266 109. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Midbrain 110 / 266 110. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Glioma C. Pinealomas D. Ependymoma 111 / 266 111. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Weber-Christian disease 112 / 266 112. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Alzheimer's disease C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 113 / 266 113. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 114 / 266 114. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myelopathy D. Encephalitis 115 / 266 115. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 116 / 266 116. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 117 / 266 117. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Papilledema 118 / 266 118. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Mental retardation C. Limb shortening D. Heart valve abnormalities 119 / 266 119. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Acalculia C. Agraphia D. Aphasia 120 / 266 120. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 121 / 266 121. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Bulbar palsy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 122 / 266 122. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trochlear nerve D. Facial nerve 123 / 266 123. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C6, 7 124 / 266 124. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Acute transverse myelitis 125 / 266 125. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 126 / 266 126. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 127 / 266 127. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 128 / 266 128. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 129 / 266 129. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 130 / 266 130. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor spasm D. Mass reflex 131 / 266 131. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Snout reflex C. Anal reflex D. Grasp reflex 132 / 266 132. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 133 / 266 133. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 134 / 266 134. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Meningism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 135 / 266 135. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysphonia C. Dysarthria D. Monotonous speech 136 / 266 136. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 137 / 266 137. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 138 / 266 138. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 139 / 266 139. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Putamen C. Thalamus D. Midbrain 140 / 266 140. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 141 / 266 141. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Myopathy D. Sarcoidosis 142 / 266 142. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Polymyositis C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 143 / 266 143. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetes mellitus 144 / 266 144. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Wasting of muscles D. Absent tendon reflexes 145 / 266 145. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Myositis D. Tabes dorsalis 146 / 266 146. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 147 / 266 147. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Ataxia C. Horner's syndrome D. Hiccups 148 / 266 148. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pyogenic meningitis 149 / 266 149. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Felbamate C. Vigabatrin D. Lamotrigine 150 / 266 150. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Constricted pupil C. Anhidrosis D. Complete ptosis 151 / 266 151. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. Sensory functions 152 / 266 152. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 153 / 266 153. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Diplopia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 154 / 266 154. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Hypoparathyroidism 155 / 266 155. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Myopathy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 156 / 266 156. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Rubella panencephalitis 157 / 266 157. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Transverse sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 158 / 266 158. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Hysteria 159 / 266 159. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 160 / 266 160. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Hepatocellular failure D. Severe heart failure 161 / 266 161. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Epilepsy D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 162 / 266 162. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pseudolymphoma 163 / 266 163. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 164 / 266 164. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Confabulation C. Presence of nystagmus D. Loss of recent memory 165 / 266 165. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Radioculomyelopathy 166 / 266 166. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Absence of root pain 167 / 266 167. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 168 / 266 168. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Interferon C. Immunoglobulin D. Cyclophosphamide 169 / 266 169. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Increased tone D. Intact proprioception 170 / 266 170. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 171 / 266 171. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 172 / 266 172. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Oesophagitis C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 173 / 266 173. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Meningioma 174 / 266 174. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypoxia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocapnia 175 / 266 175. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 176 / 266 176. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Cerebral atrophy C. Lacunar infarction D. Chronic motor neuron disease 177 / 266 177. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Mania D. Paranoia 178 / 266 178. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 179 / 266 179. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Seizures C. Livedo reticularis D. Ankle oedema 180 / 266 180. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Toxin C. Bacteria D. Virus 181 / 266 181. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cortex C. Cervical spine D. Internal capsule 182 / 266 182. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Abducens nerve 183 / 266 183. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Convulsions C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Headache 184 / 266 184. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Steroid myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 185 / 266 185. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Motor neuron disease 186 / 266 186. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 187 / 266 187. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 188 / 266 188. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Thalamus D. Cerebral cortex 189 / 266 189. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Succinylcholine C. Dantrolene D. Methoxyflurane 190 / 266 190. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Distal muscle weakness 191 / 266 191. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Over visual cortex C. Olfactory groove D. Cerebello-pontine angle 192 / 266 192. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. AV malformations C. Systemic hypertension D. Emotional excitement 193 / 266 193. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 194 / 266 194. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral infarction C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 195 / 266 195. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 196 / 266 196. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Alcohol C. Myxoedema D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 197 / 266 197. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Emotional incontinence C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Extensor plantar response 198 / 266 198. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 199 / 266 199. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Choroid plexus C. Basal ganglia D. Pineal body 200 / 266 200. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Cerebellar disorder D. Alcoholism 201 / 266 201. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 202 / 266 202. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Osteomalacia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 203 / 266 203. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 204 / 266 204. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Rasagiline C. Ropinirole D. Pramipexole 205 / 266 205. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Brachycephaly C. Ptosis D. Testicular atrophy 206 / 266 206. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 207 / 266 207. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 208 / 266 208. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Small, spastic tongue D. Sudden onset 209 / 266 209. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 210 / 266 210. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Xth C. Vth D. Vllth 211 / 266 211. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. CT scan C. PET scan D. MRI scan 212 / 266 212. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Chloroquine D. Probenecid 213 / 266 213. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Advanced pregnancy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Huge ascites 214 / 266 214. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. Adenoma sebaceum C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Shagreen patch 215 / 266 215. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia 216 / 266 216. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 217 / 266 217. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 218 / 266 218. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Two-point localisation C. Graphesthesia D. Perceptual rivalry 219 / 266 219. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Complex partial D. Infantile spasm 220 / 266 220. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Flumazenil 221 / 266 221. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Has a good prognosis in children 222 / 266 222. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 223 / 266 223. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Punch-drunk syndrome 224 / 266 224. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 225 / 266 225. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Increased CSF pressure C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. High protein content 226 / 266 226. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Parkinsonism 227 / 266 227. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 228 / 266 228. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Epilepsy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 229 / 266 229. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Ocular myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis 230 / 266 230. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 231 / 266 231. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cataract D. Cirrhosis of liver 232 / 266 232. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 233 / 266 233. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Periorbital pain D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 234 / 266 234. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 235 / 266 235. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Perspiration C. Tremor D. Confabulation 236 / 266 236. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 237 / 266 237. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Trypanosomiasis D. Subdural hematoma 238 / 266 238. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Rheumatic fever C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Hyponatraemia 239 / 266 239. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Epilepsy 240 / 266 240. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 241 / 266 241. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 242 / 266 242. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral hemorrhage 243 / 266 243. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 244 / 266 244. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Arrhythmia D. Cardiac tamponade 245 / 266 245. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 246 / 266 246. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 247 / 266 247. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 248 / 266 248. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Meningococcous C. E. coli D. Pneumococcus 249 / 266 249. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 250 / 266 250. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 251 / 266 251. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 252 / 266 252. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 253 / 266 253. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Enteric fever C. Cerebral malaria D. Weil's disease 254 / 266 254. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 255 / 266 255. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Apraxia C. Ataxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 256 / 266 256. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Eye opening C. Autonomic response D. Verbal response 257 / 266 257. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hypothyroidism C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Ataxia 258 / 266 258. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Lovastatin C. Zidovudine D. Emetine 259 / 266 259. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 260 / 266 260. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 261 / 266 261. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 262 / 266 262. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 263 / 266 263. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 264 / 266 264. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Transient ischemic attack C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Epilepsy 265 / 266 265. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Gynaecomastia 266 / 266 266. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Argyll Robertson pupil LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology