Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cluster headache C. Bell's palsy D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 2 / 266 2. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Loss of accommodation C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Polyneuropathy 3 / 266 3. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Fasciculations D. Spasticity 4 / 266 4. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Immune disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 5 / 266 5. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 6 / 266 6. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Aphasia C. Dysarthria D. Dysphonia 7 / 266 7. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 8 / 266 8. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Deep Jaundice 9 / 266 9. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Apraxia 10 / 266 10. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 11 / 266 11. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 12 / 266 12. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure motor hemiparesis 13 / 266 13. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cortex 14 / 266 14. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Haemochromatosis 15 / 266 15. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Pindolol C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 16 / 266 16. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking in front C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking to the roof 17 / 266 17. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Dolichocephaly 18 / 266 18. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral thrombosis 19 / 266 19. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 20 / 266 20. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Phakomatosis C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Seizures 21 / 266 21. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 22 / 266 22. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Aura phase of migraine C. Digitalis toxicity D. Lesion in visual cortex 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Babinski's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Chaddock's sign 24 / 266 24. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. Sensory functions C. EMG D. Proprioception 25 / 266 25. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Virus C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 26 / 266 26. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Febrile D. Trauma 27 / 266 27. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Pentoxifylline C. Clopidogrel D. Aspirin 28 / 266 28. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 29 / 266 29. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 30 / 266 30. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Blindness C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Focal neuro deficit 31 / 266 31. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Dystonia C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 32 / 266 32. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Superior sagittal sinus 33 / 266 33. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Snout reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Grasp reflex 34 / 266 34. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 35 / 266 35. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 36 / 266 36. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Pyramidal lesion C. Horner's syndrome D. Hiccups 37 / 266 37. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 38 / 266 38. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 39 / 266 39. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Anencephaly C. Mental retardation D. Heart valve abnormalities 40 / 266 40. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Absent deep reflexes C. Hypertonia D. Retention of urine 41 / 266 41. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Calf muscles C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 42 / 266 42. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-18 43 / 266 43. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Glioblastoma 44 / 266 44. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Hyperpyrexia 45 / 266 45. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 46 / 266 46. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Defect in learning C. Confabulation D. Retrograde amnesia 47 / 266 47. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Putamen C. Midbrain D. Thalamus 48 / 266 48. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 49 / 266 49. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 50 / 266 50. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 51 / 266 51. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Loss of recent memory D. Confabulation 52 / 266 52. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Osteomalacia 53 / 266 53. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 54 / 266 54. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 55 / 266 55. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Brain tumour C. Diabetes mellitus D. Gradenigo's syndrome 56 / 266 56. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 57 / 266 57. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Organophosphorus poisoning 58 / 266 58. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Motor neuron disease C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peripheral neuropathy 59 / 266 59. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C5, 6 C. C3, 4 D. C6, 7 60 / 266 60. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents vasospasm 61 / 266 61. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Cortex 62 / 266 62. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 63 / 266 63. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Emetine C. Lovastatin D. Febuxostat 64 / 266 64. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Old age C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Organophosphorus poisoning 65 / 266 65. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Acalculia C. Apraxia D. Aphasia 66 / 266 66. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Hypoxia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Malignant hypertension 67 / 266 67. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Carbamazepine C. Haloperidol D. Lithium 68 / 266 68. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 69 / 266 69. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypothyroidism 70 / 266 70. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Unequal pupil 71 / 266 71. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 72 / 266 72. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 73 / 266 73. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 74 / 266 74. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Verapamil C. Atenolol D. Sumatriptan 75 / 266 75. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 76 / 266 76. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Shagreen patch C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Pompholyx 77 / 266 77. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 78 / 266 78. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 79 / 266 79. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Diminished auditory acuity D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 80 / 266 80. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Deafness D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 81 / 266 81. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 82 / 266 82. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 83 / 266 83. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 84 / 266 84. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Oculomotor palsy 85 / 266 85. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 86 / 266 86. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Syringomyelia 87 / 266 87. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Addison's disease C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 88 / 266 88. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 89 / 266 89. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 90 / 266 90. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 91 / 266 91. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5 D. S1 92 / 266 92. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 93 / 266 93. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Cervical rib 94 / 266 94. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 95 / 266 95. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Weakness and spasticity C. Absent superficial reflex D. Equivocal plantar response 96 / 266 96. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Hyperkinesia C. Normal reflexes D. Tremor 97 / 266 97. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Viral meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 98 / 266 98. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Thiocyanates 99 / 266 99. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vth C. Xth D. Vllth 100 / 266 100. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Takayasu's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 101 / 266 101. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Dementia D. Ataxia 102 / 266 102. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Seizures 103 / 266 103. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Puerperal sepsis 104 / 266 104. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Midbrain C. Medulla D. Upper pons 105 / 266 105. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Neurofibroma D. Subacute combined degeneration 106 / 266 106. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle enzyme study D. Electromyography 107 / 266 107. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Pons 108 / 266 108. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Ptosis C. Frontal baldness D. Testicular atrophy 109 / 266 109. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Rasagiline 110 / 266 110. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Gaucher's disease 111 / 266 111. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 112 / 266 112. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 113 / 266 113. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Wilson's disease 114 / 266 114. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Oesophagitis C. Acute renal failure D. Wallenberg's syndrome 115 / 266 115. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Ethambutol 116 / 266 116. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Sturge-Weber disease 117 / 266 117. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Temporal C. Frontal D. Occipital 118 / 266 118. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Thalamus 119 / 266 119. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Diplopia 120 / 266 120. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 121 / 266 121. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Oculomotor nerve D. Sympathetic nervous system 122 / 266 122. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. Polycythaemia vera C. Mania D. SIADH 123 / 266 123. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Mental retardation C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 124 / 266 124. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Methotrexate 125 / 266 125. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Babinski's sign C. Small, spastic tongue D. Brisk jaw jerk 126 / 266 126. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Rabies C. Snakebite D. Poliomyelitis 127 / 266 127. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Cerebral malaria C. Enteric fever D. Weil's disease 128 / 266 128. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Embolic C. Hemorrhagic D. Inflammatory 129 / 266 129. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Vestibular lesion 130 / 266 130. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Aortic incompetence D. Parkinsonism 131 / 266 131. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Two-point localisation C. Graphesthesia D. Perceptual rivalry 132 / 266 132. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 133 / 266 133. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hysteria D. Duchenne myopathy 134 / 266 134. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Hyponatraemia D. Thyrotoxicosis 135 / 266 135. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Aphasia C. Facial weakness D. Coma 136 / 266 136. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Dermatomyositis 137 / 266 137. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 138 / 266 138. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Cataplexy C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 139 / 266 139. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Flumazenil 140 / 266 140. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Mamillary bodies D. Frontal lobe 141 / 266 141. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 142 / 266 142. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 143 / 266 143. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Polymyositis C. Myopathy D. Motor neuron disease 144 / 266 144. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Polymyositis C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 145 / 266 145. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Pick's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 146 / 266 146. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 147 / 266 147. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 148 / 266 148. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Early onset 149 / 266 149. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 150 / 266 150. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 151 / 266 151. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. After epileptic seizure C. Meningism D. Hysteria 152 / 266 152. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Quinsy 153 / 266 153. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Poliomyelitis C. Restlessness D. Hung-up knee jerk 154 / 266 154. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 155 / 266 155. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Motor neuron disease 156 / 266 156. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Duodenal stenosis 157 / 266 157. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Hepatic precoma 158 / 266 158. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Corticosteroid C. Cyclophosphamide D. Immunoglobulin 159 / 266 159. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 160 / 266 160. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Babinski's sign C. Glossitis D. Ankle clonus 161 / 266 161. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Myotonia 162 / 266 162. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 163 / 266 163. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 164 / 266 164. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 165 / 266 165. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 166 / 266 166. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Spastic tongue C. Dysarthria D. Nasal regurgitation 167 / 266 167. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Tone and power D. Involuntary movements 168 / 266 168. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 169 / 266 169. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Lubeluzole C. Felbamate D. Vigabatrin 170 / 266 170. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Pontine glioma C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Amblyopia 171 / 266 171. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Putamen C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 172 / 266 172. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased deep reflexes D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 173 / 266 173. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Olfactory groove C. Sylvian fissure D. Over visual cortex 174 / 266 174. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 175 / 266 175. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Onycholysis C. Hypothyroidism D. Diarrhoea 176 / 266 176. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 177 / 266 177. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Papilloedema D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 178 / 266 178. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pseudolymphoma D. Cerebellar syndrome 179 / 266 179. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Gross pedal oedema D. Tabes dorsalis 180 / 266 180. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Altered consciousness C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Convulsions 181 / 266 181. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Weber-Christian disease C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Sturge-Weber disease 182 / 266 182. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypotension 183 / 266 183. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Alcohol D. Myxoedema 184 / 266 184. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 185 / 266 185. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Dura matter 186 / 266 186. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pinealomas 187 / 266 187. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 188 / 266 188. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 189 / 266 189. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sarcoidosis D. Infectious mononucleosis 190 / 266 190. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Topiramate C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam 191 / 266 191. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 192 / 266 192. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 193 / 266 193. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 194 / 266 194. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Increased tone C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Sensory ataxia 195 / 266 195. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Myoclonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Tonic seizures 196 / 266 196. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 197 / 266 197. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Trypanosomiasis C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 198 / 266 198. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 199 / 266 199. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Petit mal 200 / 266 200. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Trigeminal neuralgia 201 / 266 201. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 202 / 266 202. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Ependymoma 203 / 266 203. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Lax abdominal wall 204 / 266 204. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Multiple sclerosis C. Pituitary tumors D. Posterior fossa tumors 205 / 266 205. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Optic glioma C. Meningioma D. Scoliosis 206 / 266 206. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 207 / 266 207. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Viral meningitis 208 / 266 208. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Acromegaly 209 / 266 209. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Lead C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 210 / 266 210. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Dysphasia C. Paraesthesia D. Seizures 211 / 266 211. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 212 / 266 212. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Papilledema 213 / 266 213. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Encephalitis 214 / 266 214. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Leucodystrophy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Alzheimer's disease 215 / 266 215. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 216 / 266 216. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. Drop attacks C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 217 / 266 217. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Schaumann bodies 218 / 266 218. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral infarction C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 219 / 266 219. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Friedreich's ataxia 220 / 266 220. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 221 / 266 221. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 222 / 266 222. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Hypertonia C. Titubation D. Dysrhythmokinesis 223 / 266 223. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 224 / 266 224. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 225 / 266 225. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Dantrolene C. Succinylcholine D. Methoxyflurane 226 / 266 226. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Facial nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Optic nerv 227 / 266 227. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Epilepsy C. Cerebellar infarction D. Multiple sclerosis 228 / 266 228. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Berry aneurysm rupture 229 / 266 229. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 230 / 266 230. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 231 / 266 231. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hyperkalemia 232 / 266 232. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. 5% dextrose 233 / 266 233. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Raynaud's disease 234 / 266 234. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Tunnel vision C. Central scotoma D. Homonymous hemianopia 235 / 266 235. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Anhidrosis C. Constricted pupil D. Complete ptosis 236 / 266 236. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. SIADH 237 / 266 237. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 238 / 266 238. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Pain C. Strangers D. Animals 239 / 266 239. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Huge ascites C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 240 / 266 240. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Chlorpromazine 241 / 266 241. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Tremor C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 242 / 266 242. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hereditary predisposition C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 243 / 266 243. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 244 / 266 244. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 245 / 266 245. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Athetosis C. Tetany D. Myotonia 246 / 266 246. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 247 / 266 247. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Steroid myopathy 248 / 266 248. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia 249 / 266 249. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Mania D. Paranoia 250 / 266 250. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. May be associated with malignancy 251 / 266 251. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 252 / 266 252. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. Autonomic response 253 / 266 253. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 254 / 266 254. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. PET scan C. MRI scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 255 / 266 255. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Arrhythmia D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 256 / 266 256. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 257 / 266 257. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Coprolalia C. Multiple tics D. Relief by haloperidol 258 / 266 258. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Wasting of muscles C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Absent tendon reflexes 259 / 266 259. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. High protein content C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 260 / 266 260. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Infertility 261 / 266 261. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Rubella panencephalitis 262 / 266 262. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Frontal lobe 263 / 266 263. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Dementia in AIDS 264 / 266 264. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant 265 / 266 265. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Amantadine C. Selegiline D. Trihexyphenidyl 266 / 266 266. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Fluoxetine LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology