Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Febuxostat C. Zidovudine D. Lovastatin 2 / 266 2. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. High places C. Strangers D. Pain 3 / 266 3. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 4 / 266 4. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Myoclonic seizures 5 / 266 5. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Xth 6 / 266 6. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 7 / 266 7. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Male dominance 8 / 266 8. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Onycholysis D. Hypothyroidism 9 / 266 9. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral infarction C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 10 / 266 10. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Syringomyelia C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Poliomyelitis 11 / 266 11. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluoxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Sertraline 12 / 266 12. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Meningism D. Froin's loculation syndrome 13 / 266 13. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Pindolol 14 / 266 14. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hereditary predisposition C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 15 / 266 15. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Monotonous speech C. Dysarthria D. Aphasia 16 / 266 16. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 17 / 266 17. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Neurofibroma 18 / 266 18. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 19 / 266 19. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. Pneumococcus C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 20 / 266 20. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 21 / 266 21. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Hyperkinesia C. Rigidity D. Tremor 22 / 266 22. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Atenolol C. Sumatriptan D. Verapamil 23 / 266 23. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Occipital lobe 24 / 266 24. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 25 / 266 25. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Diplopia D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 26 / 266 26. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Ocular myopathy 27 / 266 27. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 28 / 266 28. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Calcification within a lesion 29 / 266 29. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Depression C. Visual hallucinations D. Early onset 30 / 266 30. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Distal muscle weakness C. Pseudoclonus D. Exaggerated deep reflex 31 / 266 31. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 3 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 96 hours 32 / 266 32. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-13 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-18 33 / 266 33. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5 C. S1,S2 D. L5,S1 34 / 266 34. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 35 / 266 35. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Defect in learning C. Loss of immediate recall D. Confabulation 36 / 266 36. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Pinealomas D. Glioma 37 / 266 37. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 38 / 266 38. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure sensory stroke 39 / 266 39. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syringomyelia D. Cervical spondylosis 40 / 266 40. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 41 / 266 41. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Leprosy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Raynaud's disease 42 / 266 42. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Felbamate C. Vigabatrin D. Lubeluzole 43 / 266 43. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking in front D. Looking to the roof 44 / 266 44. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Complete ptosis 45 / 266 45. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Multiple tics C. Dementia D. Relief by haloperidol 46 / 266 46. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Proximal muscle weakness 47 / 266 47. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Lax abdominal wall C. Obesity D. Multiparous woman 48 / 266 48. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Viral meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 49 / 266 49. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Malignant hypertension 50 / 266 50. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 51 / 266 51. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 52 / 266 52. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 53 / 266 53. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 54 / 266 54. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Rabies C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 55 / 266 55. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 56 / 266 56. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Horner's syndrome C. Hiccups D. Ataxia 57 / 266 57. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cervical spine D. Cortex 58 / 266 58. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. INH C. Nitrofurantoin D. Vincristine 59 / 266 59. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism 60 / 266 60. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 61 / 266 61. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 62 / 266 62. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Cervical rib C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 63 / 266 63. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Myotonia C. Chorea D. Athetosis 64 / 266 64. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 65 / 266 65. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Pyramidal signs D. Facial nerve palsy 66 / 266 66. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Convulsions C. Blindness D. Radioculomyelopathy 67 / 266 67. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Retinal hemorrhage 68 / 266 68. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Wilson's disease D. Rheumatic fever 69 / 266 69. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 70 / 266 70. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 71 / 266 71. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Polycystic kidney C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 72 / 266 72. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Migraine 73 / 266 73. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 74 / 266 74. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Glioblastoma 75 / 266 75. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 76 / 266 76. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 77 / 266 77. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Cocaine C. Carbamazepine D. Amphetamines 78 / 266 78. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Acromegaly 79 / 266 79. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 80 / 266 80. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 81 / 266 81. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. Systemic hypertension D. AV malformations 82 / 266 82. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Calf muscles C. Infraspinatus D. Deltoid 83 / 266 83. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Albright's disease 84 / 266 84. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Diabetes mellitus 85 / 266 85. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Upper pons C. Medulla D. Lower pons 86 / 266 86. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Vagus nerve 87 / 266 87. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Spasticity C. Babinski's sign D. Clonus 88 / 266 88. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Deafness 89 / 266 89. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 90 / 266 90. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Gaucher's disease 91 / 266 91. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 92 / 266 92. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Syphilis C. Ethambutol D. Multiple sclerosis 93 / 266 93. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Oculomotor nerve C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Ciliary ganglion 94 / 266 94. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 95 / 266 95. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Hepatic precoma D. Taboparesis 96 / 266 96. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 97 / 266 97. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 98 / 266 98. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Cerebral palsy 99 / 266 99. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. 5% dextrose C. IV mannitol D. IV quinine 100 / 266 100. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Papilloedema 101 / 266 101. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 102 / 266 102. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral haemorrhage 103 / 266 103. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Hypertonia C. Titubation D. Dysrhythmokinesis 104 / 266 104. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Paraesthesia 105 / 266 105. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 106 / 266 106. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Brain tumour C. Diabetes mellitus D. Gradenigo's syndrome 107 / 266 107. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulism C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Myasthenia gravis 108 / 266 108. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Flexor plantar response 109 / 266 109. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Oesophagitis C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Acute renal failure 110 / 266 110. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Weber-Christian disease 111 / 266 111. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Seen in tall, thin people C. May occur spontaneously D. Quite often remits spontaneously 112 / 266 112. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 113 / 266 113. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Puerperal sepsis 114 / 266 114. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Motor response D. Autonomic response 115 / 266 115. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Advanced pregnancy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Huge ascites 116 / 266 116. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 117 / 266 117. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Motor neuron disease C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy 118 / 266 118. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Muscle biopsy D. Electromyography 119 / 266 119. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 120 / 266 120. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Trauma C. Febrile D. Epilepsy 121 / 266 121. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Acute transverse myelitis 122 / 266 122. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Ventral pons C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 123 / 266 123. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 124 / 266 124. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Meningioma C. Medulloblastoma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 125 / 266 125. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 126 / 266 126. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Electroconvulsive therapy 127 / 266 127. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myelopathy D. Encephalitis 128 / 266 128. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Sleep paralysis C. Epilepsy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 129 / 266 129. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 130 / 266 130. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Unequal pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 131 / 266 131. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left atrial myxoma 132 / 266 132. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. SIADH D. Convulsions 133 / 266 133. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Pons 134 / 266 134. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Phobia 135 / 266 135. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Pontine glioma C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Amblyopia 136 / 266 136. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Flexor spasm C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Mass reflex 137 / 266 137. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 138 / 266 138. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Xanthochromia C. Increased CSF pressure D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 139 / 266 139. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Digitalis toxicity C. Cerebellar infarction D. Lesion in visual cortex 140 / 266 140. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Cerebellar infarction 141 / 266 141. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cataract 142 / 266 142. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Parkinsonism 143 / 266 143. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 144 / 266 144. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Ethambutol C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 145 / 266 145. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Valproic acid C. Myxoedema D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 146 / 266 146. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Addison's disease 147 / 266 147. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Anencephaly C. Mental retardation D. Heart valve abnormalities 148 / 266 148. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 149 / 266 149. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 150 / 266 150. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 151 / 266 151. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. CT scan D. PET scan 152 / 266 152. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Aphasia C. Coma D. Hemiparesis 153 / 266 153. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 154 / 266 154. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Tunnel vision C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Homonymous hemianopia 155 / 266 155. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 156 / 266 156. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Myositis D. Polyneuropathy 157 / 266 157. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Agraphia D. Acalculia 158 / 266 158. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 159 / 266 159. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Scoliosis C. Optic glioma D. Acoustic neuroma 160 / 266 160. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Cervical spondylosis 161 / 266 161. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Anemia C. Glossitis D. Ankle clonus 162 / 266 162. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 163 / 266 163. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Nasal regurgitation C. Spastic tongue D. Dysphagia 164 / 266 164. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Pick's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 165 / 266 165. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 166 / 266 166. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 167 / 266 167. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 168 / 266 168. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Platybasia C. Dolichocephaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 169 / 266 169. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Subdural hematoma C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Encephalitis lethargica 170 / 266 170. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 171 / 266 171. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 172 / 266 172. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 173 / 266 173. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Sensory functions D. Proprioception 174 / 266 174. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Brachycephaly C. Ptosis D. Testicular atrophy 175 / 266 175. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Inflammatory C. Hemorrhagic D. Embolic 176 / 266 176. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 177 / 266 177. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Chorea C. Hemiballismus D. Myoclonus 178 / 266 178. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Periodic paralysis 179 / 266 179. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Dura matter 180 / 266 180. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Hypothermia C. Paralysis D. Pin-point pupil 181 / 266 181. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Lithium 182 / 266 182. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 183 / 266 183. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Sensory ataxia 184 / 266 184. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Hysteria C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 185 / 266 185. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 186 / 266 186. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Phakomatosis C. Seizures D. Adenoma sebaceum 187 / 266 187. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Friedreich's ataxia 188 / 266 188. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 189 / 266 189. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Brainstem C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 190 / 266 190. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 191 / 266 191. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Presence of nystagmus D. Loss of recent memory 192 / 266 192. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Diabetic amyotrophy 193 / 266 193. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Acalculia 194 / 266 194. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 195 / 266 195. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 196 / 266 196. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Hypertonia C. Retention of urine D. Absent deep reflexes 197 / 266 197. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 198 / 266 198. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 199 / 266 199. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Immune disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 200 / 266 200. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Parkinsonism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Gross pedal oedema 201 / 266 201. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Pentoxifylline 202 / 266 202. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Tremor 203 / 266 203. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Temporal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Frontal lobe 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Has a good prognosis in children 205 / 266 205. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 206 / 266 206. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Brisk jaw jerk 207 / 266 207. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 208 / 266 208. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Sensory dysfunction 209 / 266 209. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 210 / 266 210. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Rasagiline C. Tiagabine D. Pramipexole 211 / 266 211. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Levodopa C. Amantadine D. Trihexyphenidyl 212 / 266 212. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Transverse myelitis D. Restlessness 213 / 266 213. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 214 / 266 214. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Dexamethasone C. IV mannitol D. Oral glycerol 215 / 266 215. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Megaloblastic anemia 216 / 266 216. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Duodenal stenosis 217 / 266 217. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Pseudoparkinsonism 218 / 266 218. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Tone and power C. Nutrition of muscles D. Stereognosis 219 / 266 219. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Livedo reticularis 220 / 266 220. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 221 / 266 221. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 222 / 266 222. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Diazepam C. Topiramate D. Ethosuximide 223 / 266 223. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. TOCP poisoning C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pyridoxine deficiency 224 / 266 224. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 225 / 266 225. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 226 / 266 226. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 227 / 266 227. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 228 / 266 228. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Steroid myopathy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 229 / 266 229. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Ependymoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Phaeochromocytoma 230 / 266 230. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 231 / 266 231. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 232 / 266 232. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Headache D. Altered consciousness 233 / 266 233. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cluster headache C. Syringobulbia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 234 / 266 234. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 235 / 266 235. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Frontal 236 / 266 236. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Olfactory groove C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Sylvian fissure 237 / 266 237. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypotension C. Hypocapnia D. Hypoxia 238 / 266 238. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Horner's syndrome C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Oculomotor palsy 239 / 266 239. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 240 / 266 240. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypercalcemia 241 / 266 241. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Alzheimer's disease D. Infertility 242 / 266 242. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 243 / 266 243. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 244 / 266 244. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 245 / 266 245. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Carotid artery occlusion D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 246 / 266 246. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents vasospasm 247 / 266 247. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 248 / 266 248. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Myotonia C. Manual labourers D. Athletes 249 / 266 249. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Dementia C. Ataxia D. Normal intellectual activity 250 / 266 250. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Absence of root pain D. Viral or post-vaccinal 251 / 266 251. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 252 / 266 252. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Ocular myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 253 / 266 253. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. Apraxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 254 / 266 254. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Tight aortic stenosis 255 / 266 255. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Alzheimer's disease C. Post-encephalitic D. Huntington's chorea 256 / 266 256. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Thalamus 257 / 266 257. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Central retinal artery occlusion 258 / 266 258. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Neurosarcoidosis 259 / 266 259. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Quinsy C. Diphtheria D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 260 / 266 260. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Parkinsonism 261 / 266 261. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Immunoglobulin D. Interferon 262 / 266 262. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Schizophrenia C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Alcohol withdrawal 263 / 266 263. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Infantile spasm C. Petit mal D. Generalized tonic clonic 264 / 266 264. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Brain tumor D. Tuberculous meningitis 265 / 266 265. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Negri bodies D. Asteroid bodies 266 / 266 266. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Wilson's disease C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Galactosaemia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology