Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 2 / 266 2. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Limb shortening C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Mental retardation 3 / 266 3. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 4 / 266 4. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Facial nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trigeminal nerve 5 / 266 5. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Wilson's disease C. Galactosaemia D. Haemochromatosis 6 / 266 6. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Weil's disease C. Enteric fever D. Atypical pneumonia 7 / 266 7. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 8 / 266 8. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Sarcoidosis D. Infectious mononucleosis 9 / 266 9. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis D. Sarcoidosis 10 / 266 10. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Takayasu's disease 11 / 266 11. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Graphesthesia C. Two-point localisation D. Vibration sensation 12 / 266 12. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Gynaecomastia C. Parkinsonism D. Galactorrhoea 13 / 266 13. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 14 / 266 14. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multiple sclerosis 15 / 266 15. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Emetine C. Lovastatin D. Febuxostat 16 / 266 16. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked recessive 17 / 266 17. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 18 / 266 18. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Mental retardation 19 / 266 19. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 20 / 266 20. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Cervical rib C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 21 / 266 21. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 22 / 266 22. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Pain C. Animals D. High places 23 / 266 23. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve 24 / 266 24. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 25 / 266 25. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 26 / 266 26. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Venous thrombosis 27 / 266 27. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Alzheimer's disease C. Post-encephalitic D. Huntington's chorea 28 / 266 28. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Viral meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 29 / 266 29. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 30 / 266 30. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 31 / 266 31. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Pituitary tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Posterior fossa tumors 32 / 266 32. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. May be associated with malignancy D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 33 / 266 33. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Drop attacks C. Diplopia D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 34 / 266 34. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Masked facies D. Emotional incontinence 35 / 266 35. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Neurosyphilis C. Cerebral atrophy D. Lacunar infarction 36 / 266 36. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal 37 / 266 37. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Normokalaemia 38 / 266 38. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Cerebellar disorder D. Pontine glioma 39 / 266 39. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Deep Jaundice C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 40 / 266 40. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Pineal body C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 41 / 266 41. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Leprosy C. Polymyositis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 42 / 266 42. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 43 / 266 43. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 44 / 266 44. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 45 / 266 45. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Alzheimer's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 46 / 266 46. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Albright's disease 47 / 266 47. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 48 / 266 48. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Multiple sclerosis 49 / 266 49. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Over visual cortex C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Olfactory groove 50 / 266 50. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Topiramate C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam 51 / 266 51. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Pons 52 / 266 52. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Seizures D. Dysphasia 53 / 266 53. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 54 / 266 54. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Multiple sclerosis 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common in women C. Common migraine has aura D. Hereditary predisposition 56 / 266 56. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 57 / 266 57. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Fourth ventricle 58 / 266 58. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 59 / 266 59. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Ocular myopathy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 60 / 266 60. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Reading a book D. Looking to the roof 61 / 266 61. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 62 / 266 62. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 63 / 266 63. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 64 / 266 64. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Thiocyanates D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 65 / 266 65. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Methoxyflurane C. Halothane D. Succinylcholine 66 / 266 66. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 67 / 266 67. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 68 / 266 68. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Neurofibroma D. Spinal epidural abscess 69 / 266 69. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Onycholysis C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 70 / 266 70. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 71 / 266 71. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Leprosy 72 / 266 72. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Giant cell arteritis C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 73 / 266 73. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Emotional excitement C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. Systemic hypertension 74 / 266 74. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Astrocytoma 75 / 266 75. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. von Recklinghausen's disease 76 / 266 76. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Increased tone D. Intact proprioception 77 / 266 77. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Upper pons C. Medulla D. Midbrain 78 / 266 78. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Hysteria C. Duchenne myopathy D. Peripheral neuropathy 79 / 266 79. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 80 / 266 80. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Distal muscle weakness C. Pseudoclonus D. Exaggerated deep reflex 81 / 266 81. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Bacteria C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 82 / 266 82. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 83 / 266 83. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T2 D. T4 84 / 266 84. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Immune disorder 85 / 266 85. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Cataplexy C. Epilepsy D. Sleep paralysis 86 / 266 86. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Peripheral neuropathy 87 / 266 87. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-13 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-21 88 / 266 88. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypothyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 89 / 266 89. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 90 / 266 90. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Babinski's sign 91 / 266 91. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Dementia 92 / 266 92. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 93 / 266 93. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Hyponatraemia D. Rheumatic fever 94 / 266 94. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Bulbar palsy 95 / 266 95. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Dystonia 96 / 266 96. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Absence of root pain 97 / 266 97. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 98 / 266 98. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Facial nerve palsy D. Cerebellar signs 99 / 266 99. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 100 / 266 100. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5,S1 C. S1 D. L5 101 / 266 101. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones D. Cephalosporins 102 / 266 102. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure motor hemiparesis 103 / 266 103. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 104 / 266 104. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Defect in learning C. Confabulation D. Loss of immediate recall 105 / 266 105. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Syringomyelia C. Radial nerve palsy D. Poliomyelitis 106 / 266 106. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Basal ganglia infarction 107 / 266 107. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Deep coma D. Hyperkalemia 108 / 266 108. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Apraxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 109 / 266 109. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Motor neuron disease D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 110 / 266 110. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 111 / 266 111. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Cocaine C. Carbamazepine D. Flumazenil 112 / 266 112. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV frusemide D. IV mannitol 113 / 266 113. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Head injury 114 / 266 114. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 115 / 266 115. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 116 / 266 116. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 117 / 266 117. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 118 / 266 118. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 119 / 266 119. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Mania 120 / 266 120. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. May occur spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 121 / 266 121. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. After epileptic seizure C. Tetanus D. Hysteria 122 / 266 122. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 123 / 266 123. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer's disease 124 / 266 124. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Alzheimer's disease 125 / 266 125. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumor 126 / 266 126. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Hypothermia 127 / 266 127. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Presence of nystagmus 128 / 266 128. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Cerebral diplegia 129 / 266 129. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Myodonus D. Psychosis 130 / 266 130. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Athletes C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 131 / 266 131. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Papilledema 132 / 266 132. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Gonda sign D. Babinski's sign 133 / 266 133. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Tay-Sachs disease 134 / 266 134. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Tiagabine C. Ropinirole D. Pramipexole 135 / 266 135. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Depression D. Passivity feelings 136 / 266 136. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 137 / 266 137. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Apraxia C. Ataxia D. Areflexia 138 / 266 138. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 139 / 266 139. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hypothyroidism 140 / 266 140. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 141 / 266 141. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. IV mannitol C. Glucocorticoids D. 5% dextrose 142 / 266 142. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Embolic C. Demyelinating D. Inflammatory 143 / 266 143. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Parkinsonism 144 / 266 144. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 145 / 266 145. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Ethambutol 146 / 266 146. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 147 / 266 147. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Tremor C. Confabulation D. Perspiration 148 / 266 148. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 149 / 266 149. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 150 / 266 150. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 151 / 266 151. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 152 / 266 152. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Headache 153 / 266 153. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Dementia in AIDS D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 154 / 266 154. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Ataxia C. Horner's syndrome D. Hiccups 155 / 266 155. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 156 / 266 156. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 157 / 266 157. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Constricted pupil C. Complete ptosis D. Enophthalmos 158 / 266 158. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 159 / 266 159. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Apraxia C. Aphasia D. Agnosia 160 / 266 160. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 161 / 266 161. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Kuru D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 162 / 266 162. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Paroxetine D. Sertraline 163 / 266 163. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Dysarthria 164 / 266 164. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 166 / 266 166. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 167 / 266 167. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Xanthochromia C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. Increased CSF pressure 168 / 266 168. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Red nucleus 169 / 266 169. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 170 / 266 170. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Sumatriptan 171 / 266 171. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Cluster headache D. Bell's palsy 172 / 266 172. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 173 / 266 173. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypoxia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocapnia 174 / 266 174. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Pseudoparkinsonism 175 / 266 175. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Weakness and spasticity D. Absent superficial reflex 176 / 266 176. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 177 / 266 177. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 178 / 266 178. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Puerperal sepsis 179 / 266 179. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Coma C. Facial weakness D. Aphasia 180 / 266 180. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myopathy C. Myelopathy D. Neuropathy 181 / 266 181. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Infraspinatus C. Deltoid D. Calf muscles 182 / 266 182. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 183 / 266 183. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 184 / 266 184. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Pons 185 / 266 185. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Ankle clonus C. Anemia D. Glossitis 186 / 266 186. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 187 / 266 187. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Oculomotor nerve 188 / 266 188. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Leucodystrophy 189 / 266 189. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 190 / 266 190. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Putamen C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum 191 / 266 191. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Hysteria C. Obesity D. Multiparous woman 192 / 266 192. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 193 / 266 193. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. E. coli C. H. influenzae D. Meningococcous 194 / 266 194. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Febrile C. Epilepsy D. Trauma 195 / 266 195. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Periorbital pain D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 196 / 266 196. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 197 / 266 197. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Epilepsy C. Cerebellar infarction D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 198 / 266 198. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Anal reflex D. Snout reflex 199 / 266 199. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Sudden onset 200 / 266 200. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Brainstem C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 201 / 266 201. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Convulsions C. Focal neuro deficit D. Radioculomyelopathy 202 / 266 202. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Tetany C. Chorea D. Myotonia 203 / 266 203. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Froin's loculation syndrome 204 / 266 204. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Ependymoma C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral lymphoma 205 / 266 205. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 206 / 266 206. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 207 / 266 207. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 208 / 266 208. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 209 / 266 209. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Coma C. Absent deep reflexes D. Retention of urine 210 / 266 210. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 211 / 266 211. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C5, 6 C. C4, 5 D. C3, 4 212 / 266 212. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Dolichocephaly C. Platybasia D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 213 / 266 213. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Acute renal failure C. Oesophagitis D. Wallenberg's syndrome 214 / 266 214. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 215 / 266 215. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Electromyography C. Muscle biopsy D. Muscle enzyme study 216 / 266 216. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Vincristine D. Alcohol 217 / 266 217. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syphilis C. Ethambutol D. Leprosy 218 / 266 218. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Leukodystrophy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 219 / 266 219. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 220 / 266 220. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Motor neuron disease C. Myopathy D. Myasthenia gravis 221 / 266 221. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Complex partial D. Infantile spasm 222 / 266 222. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Lathyrism C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 223 / 266 223. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Subdural hematoma 224 / 266 224. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Meningioma C. Ependymoma D. Acoustic neuroma 225 / 266 225. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 226 / 266 226. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 227 / 266 227. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 228 / 266 228. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Alcoholism D. Wilson's disease 229 / 266 229. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Amantadine D. Levodopa 230 / 266 230. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Parkinsonism 231 / 266 231. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Multiple sclerosis 232 / 266 232. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Pseudolymphoma C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Megaloblastic anemia 233 / 266 233. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysphagia 234 / 266 234. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Tetanus C. Diphtheria D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 236 / 266 236. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Pindolol C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptive pills 237 / 266 237. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 238 / 266 238. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 239 / 266 239. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Frontal lobe 240 / 266 240. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myositis D. Subacute combined degeneration 241 / 266 241. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 242 / 266 242. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Corticosteroid C. Immunoglobulin D. Cyclophosphamide 243 / 266 243. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 244 / 266 244. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Nitrofurantoin 245 / 266 245. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 246 / 266 246. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lamotrigine C. Felbamate D. Lubeluzole 247 / 266 247. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Aura phase of migraine C. Digitalis toxicity D. Cerebellar infarction 248 / 266 248. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Tone and power C. Stereognosis D. Nutrition of muscles 249 / 266 249. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Fatty liver C. Ankle oedema D. Livedo reticularis 250 / 266 250. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Nystagmus D. Papilloedema 251 / 266 251. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Aspirin 252 / 266 252. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Tunnel vision C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Bitemporal hemianopi 253 / 266 253. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Tabes dorsalis 254 / 266 254. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 255 / 266 255. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Haloperidol 256 / 266 256. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myasthenia gravis 257 / 266 257. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Hypermetria C. Titubation D. Dysrhythmokinesis 258 / 266 258. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Lewy bodies 259 / 266 259. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. Pseudobulbar palsy 260 / 266 260. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Poliomyelitis C. Restlessness D. Hung-up knee jerk 261 / 266 261. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. PET scan D. CT scan 262 / 266 262. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 263 / 266 263. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Phobia C. Depression D. Mania 264 / 266 264. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Brachycephaly D. Ptosis 265 / 266 265. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 266 / 266 266. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Complete ptosis + miosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology