Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Aflatoxin C. Thiocyanates D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 2 / 266 2. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Oesophagitis C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Wallenberg's syndrome 3 / 266 3. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Brain tumor 4 / 266 4. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 5 / 266 5. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased deep reflexes C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 6 / 266 6. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Gynaecomastia C. Galactorrhoea D. Parkinsonism 7 / 266 7. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Tunnel vision C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Bitemporal hemianopi 8 / 266 8. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Cluster headache D. Syringobulbia 9 / 266 9. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Nystagmus 10 / 266 10. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 11 / 266 11. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 12 / 266 12. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 13 / 266 13. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Coma C. Facial weakness D. Hemiparesis 14 / 266 14. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypotension C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocapnia 15 / 266 15. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Bacteria 16 / 266 16. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 17 / 266 17. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 18 / 266 18. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Viral meningitis 19 / 266 19. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Wilson's disease D. Galactosaemia 20 / 266 20. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Sturge-Weber disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 21 / 266 21. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 22 / 266 22. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Pinealomas D. Ependymoma 23 / 266 23. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 24 / 266 24. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism D. Chronic motor neuron disease 25 / 266 25. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 26 / 266 26. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 27 / 266 27. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Over visual cortex C. Sylvian fissure D. Olfactory groove 28 / 266 28. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 29 / 266 29. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 30 / 266 30. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 31 / 266 31. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Flexor plantar response C. Mass reflex D. Increased tone in flexor groups 32 / 266 32. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Motor neuron disease 33 / 266 33. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 34 / 266 34. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 35 / 266 35. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 36 / 266 36. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Ciliary ganglion D. Sympathetic nervous system 37 / 266 37. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Ocular myopathy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Malignant exophthalmos 38 / 266 38. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Hyperpyrexia 39 / 266 39. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Parkinsonism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myxoedema 40 / 266 40. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Lax abdominal wall C. Hysteria D. Multiparous woman 41 / 266 41. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 42 / 266 42. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 43 / 266 43. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 44 / 266 44. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 45 / 266 45. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Calf muscles C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 46 / 266 46. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Lower pons C. Medulla D. Upper pons 47 / 266 47. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 48 / 266 48. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Amyloidosis D. TOCP poisoning 49 / 266 49. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Venous thrombosis 50 / 266 50. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Areflexia D. Apraxia 51 / 266 51. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 52 / 266 52. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Deafness C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 53 / 266 53. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 54 / 266 54. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 55 / 266 55. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 56 / 266 56. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Refsum's disease D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 57 / 266 57. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Drop attacks C. Diplopia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 58 / 266 58. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 59 / 266 59. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 60 / 266 60. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 61 / 266 61. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 62 / 266 62. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Ptosis 63 / 266 63. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Trigeminal neuralgia 64 / 266 64. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Chorea C. Myoclonus D. Hemiballismus 65 / 266 65. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Kuru 66 / 266 66. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 67 / 266 67. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 68 / 266 68. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. C8 C. T4 D. T2 69 / 266 69. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Taboparesis D. Friedreich' s ataxia 70 / 266 70. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hyperkaliemia 71 / 266 71. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Febrile 72 / 266 72. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Quinsy D. Diphtheria 73 / 266 73. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Fasciculations D. Clonus 74 / 266 74. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 75 / 266 75. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 76 / 266 76. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C3, 4 C. C5, 6 D. C4, 5 77 / 266 77. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Immunoglobulin C. Corticosteroid D. Interferon 78 / 266 78. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 79 / 266 79. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Sensory dysfunction D. Loss of ankle jerk 80 / 266 80. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Depression C. Paranoia D. Phobia 81 / 266 81. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine 82 / 266 82. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. E. coli C. Pneumococcus D. Meningococcous 83 / 266 83. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Tone and power D. Involuntary movements 84 / 266 84. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents rebleeding 85 / 266 85. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 86 / 266 86. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 87 / 266 87. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Eye opening C. Autonomic response D. Verbal response 88 / 266 88. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 89 / 266 89. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Cerebral palsy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 90 / 266 90. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Anal reflex D. Snout reflex 91 / 266 91. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5 D. S1 92 / 266 92. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 24 hours C. 2 weeks D. 96 hours 93 / 266 93. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Presence of nystagmus D. Associated with lacunar infarction 94 / 266 94. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Poliomyelitis 95 / 266 95. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Apraxia 96 / 266 96. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Neurofibroma 97 / 266 97. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Thrombocytopenia 98 / 266 98. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 99 / 266 99. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 100 / 266 100. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 101 / 266 101. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Chorea C. Migraine D. Psychosis 102 / 266 102. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 103 / 266 103. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Rheumatoid arthritis 104 / 266 104. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Deep coma D. Hyperkalemia 105 / 266 105. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Glossitis C. Babinski's sign D. Anemia 106 / 266 106. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Alcoholism D. Wilson's disease 107 / 266 107. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syringomyelia C. Cervical spondylosis D. Motor neuron disease 108 / 266 108. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 109 / 266 109. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrigine D. Felbamate 110 / 266 110. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Wasting of muscles 111 / 266 111. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Vibration sensation D. Perceptual rivalry 112 / 266 112. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Equivocal plantar response 113 / 266 113. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Weil's disease C. Enteric fever D. Cerebral malaria 114 / 266 114. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 115 / 266 115. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Myotonia C. Manual labourers D. Athletes 116 / 266 116. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Chlorpromazine 117 / 266 117. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysarthria C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysphagia 118 / 266 118. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. CT scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. PET scan 119 / 266 119. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Cataplexy 120 / 266 120. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 121 / 266 121. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 122 / 266 122. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Leprosy 123 / 266 123. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Niemann-Pick disease 124 / 266 124. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich's ataxia 125 / 266 125. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Cerebellar signs C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Facial nerve palsy 126 / 266 126. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Gonda sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Babinski's sign 127 / 266 127. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 128 / 266 128. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Negri bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Schaumann bodies 129 / 266 129. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Increased tone D. Sensory ataxia 130 / 266 130. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 131 / 266 131. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Hyponatraemia C. Rheumatic fever D. Wilson's disease 132 / 266 132. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 133 / 266 133. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Tremor C. Rigidity D. Normal reflexes 134 / 266 134. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 135 / 266 135. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 136 / 266 136. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Complex partial 137 / 266 137. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Cord compression D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 138 / 266 138. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Tetanus C. Hysteria D. Meningism 139 / 266 139. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 140 / 266 140. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 141 / 266 141. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 142 / 266 142. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 143 / 266 143. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Valproic acid C. Alcohol D. Myxoedema 144 / 266 144. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 145 / 266 145. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Arsenic D. Alcohol 146 / 266 146. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 147 / 266 147. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 148 / 266 148. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Meningioma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Medulloblastoma 149 / 266 149. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Quinolones 150 / 266 150. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Frontal lobe 151 / 266 151. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 152 / 266 152. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Schizophrenia D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 153 / 266 153. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 154 / 266 154. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Parietal C. Frontal D. Occipital 155 / 266 155. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Altered consciousness D. Convulsions 156 / 266 156. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 157 / 266 157. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. Cerebellar functions D. EMG 158 / 266 158. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Myopathy D. Sarcoidosis 159 / 266 159. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pendular nystagmus C. Pseudolymphoma D. Megaloblastic anemia 160 / 266 160. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV frusemide D. IV mannitol 161 / 266 161. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Facial nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 162 / 266 162. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 163 / 266 163. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Scoliosis 164 / 266 164. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Animals C. Pain D. Strangers 165 / 266 165. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Babinski's sign C. Sudden onset D. Small, spastic tongue 166 / 266 166. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. May be associated with malignancy D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 167 / 266 167. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Choreoathetosis C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Mental retardation 168 / 266 168. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 169 / 266 169. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Hypothermia C. Pin-point pupil D. Paralysis 170 / 266 170. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Increased CSF pressure C. High protein content D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 171 / 266 171. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Emetine D. Lovastatin 172 / 266 172. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Organophosphorus poisoning 173 / 266 173. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Old age C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Organophosphorus poisoning 174 / 266 174. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic 175 / 266 175. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulinus poisoning D. Elapidae group snake bite 176 / 266 176. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 177 / 266 177. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Osteomalacia 178 / 266 178. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Ataxia C. Hiccups D. Pyramidal lesion 179 / 266 179. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Aspirin C. Pentoxifylline D. Ticlopidine 180 / 266 180. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Parkinsonism C. Alzheimer's disease D. Acromegaly 181 / 266 181. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Addison's disease C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Hypervitaminosis D 182 / 266 182. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Lacunar infarction 183 / 266 183. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Froin's loculation syndrome 184 / 266 184. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure motor hemiparesis 185 / 266 185. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Radial nerve palsy 186 / 266 186. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Succinylcholine C. Dantrolene D. Halothane 187 / 266 187. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 188 / 266 188. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Levodopa C. Selegiline D. Amantadine 189 / 266 189. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Reading a book C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking to the roof 190 / 266 190. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Cerebellar infarction C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Aura phase of migraine 191 / 266 191. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Duodenal stenosis C. Polymyositis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 192 / 266 192. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Agraphia 193 / 266 193. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Loss of accommodation 194 / 266 194. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Diazepam D. Topiramate 195 / 266 195. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 196 / 266 196. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Anhidrosis C. Constricted pupil D. Complete ptosis 197 / 266 197. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Diabetes mellitus 198 / 266 198. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 199 / 266 199. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Arrhythmia 200 / 266 200. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Phakomatosis C. Mental retardation D. Seizures 201 / 266 201. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 202 / 266 202. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 203 / 266 203. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Transverse myelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 204 / 266 204. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 205 / 266 205. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Pinealomas D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 206 / 266 206. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hemicranial headache C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common in women 207 / 266 207. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 208 / 266 208. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 209 / 266 209. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Pompholyx C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Shagreen patch 210 / 266 210. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Retrograde amnesia C. Defect in learning D. Confabulation 211 / 266 211. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 212 / 266 212. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Encephalitis lethargica 213 / 266 213. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 214 / 266 214. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Infectious mononucleosis 215 / 266 215. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Encephalitis C. Neuropathy D. Myelopathy 216 / 266 216. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Cluster headache C. Polycythaemia vera D. SIADH 217 / 266 217. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Reserpine C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 218 / 266 218. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Multiple sclerosis C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Duchenne myopathy 219 / 266 219. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Putamen 220 / 266 220. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Amphetamines C. Cocaine D. Flumazenil 221 / 266 221. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 222 / 266 222. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Epilepsy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebellar infarction 223 / 266 223. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 224 / 266 224. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Polycystic kidney C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Takayasu's disease 225 / 266 225. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 226 / 266 226. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Midbrain lesion 227 / 266 227. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Platybasia C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Dolichocephaly 228 / 266 228. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Seen in tall, thin people C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. May occur spontaneously 229 / 266 229. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Rasagiline D. Ropinirole 230 / 266 230. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Fluvoxamine 231 / 266 231. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Cortex D. Midbrain 232 / 266 232. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. IV mannitol 233 / 266 233. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 234 / 266 234. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Tremor 235 / 266 235. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 236 / 266 236. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 237 / 266 237. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Raynaud's disease C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Leprosy 238 / 266 238. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Aphasia 239 / 266 239. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 240 / 266 240. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Malignant hypertension C. Hypoxia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 241 / 266 241. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cataract D. Alzheimer's disease 242 / 266 242. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Advanced pregnancy 243 / 266 243. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 244 / 266 244. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hyperthyroidism 245 / 266 245. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Demyelinating C. Embolic D. Inflammatory 246 / 266 246. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Elapidae snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 247 / 266 247. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Onycholysis D. Hypothyroidism 248 / 266 248. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Nerve conduction study 249 / 266 249. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Metoclopramide-induced 250 / 266 250. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 251 / 266 251. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 252 / 266 252. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 253 / 266 253. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Polymyositis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 254 / 266 254. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Athetosis C. Myotonia D. Chorea 255 / 266 255. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Radioculomyelopathy 256 / 266 256. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. von Recklinghausen's disease 257 / 266 257. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Pick's disease 258 / 266 258. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. IIIrd C. Vllth D. Vth 259 / 266 259. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Calcification within a lesion D. Posterior fossa tumors 260 / 266 260. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 261 / 266 261. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Coma C. Absent deep reflexes D. Hypertonia 262 / 266 262. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Convulsions C. SIADH D. Optic neuritis 263 / 266 263. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Normal intellectual activity C. Dementia D. Ataxia 264 / 266 264. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Depression C. Passivity feelings D. Early onset 265 / 266 265. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Seizures C. Fatty liver D. Livedo reticularis 266 / 266 266. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-18 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-13 LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology