Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Thalamus 2 / 266 2. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Xth C. IIIrd D. Vllth 3 / 266 3. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Duchenne myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 4 / 266 4. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Mental retardation C. Seizures D. Adenoma sebaceum 5 / 266 5. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Raynaud's disease D. Leprosy 6 / 266 6. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 7 / 266 7. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 8 / 266 8. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 9 / 266 9. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 10 / 266 10. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Gynaecomastia 11 / 266 11. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Pinealomas D. Multiple sclerosis 12 / 266 12. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Myoclonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Tonic seizures 13 / 266 13. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. Apraxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 14 / 266 14. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Dementia D. Urinary incontinence 15 / 266 15. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 16 / 266 16. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 17 / 266 17. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Mania C. SIADH D. Cluster headache 18 / 266 18. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. 5% dextrose C. IV quinine D. IV mannitol 19 / 266 19. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Flexor spasm C. Flexor plantar response D. Mass reflex 20 / 266 20. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 21 / 266 21. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 22 / 266 22. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerv 23 / 266 23. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 24 / 266 24. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's chorea D. Post-encephalitic 25 / 266 25. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. S1 C. L5,S1 D. L5 26 / 266 26. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C5, 6 C. C6, 7 D. C4, 5 27 / 266 27. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Motor neuron disease D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 28 / 266 28. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Visual hallucinations C. Confabulation D. Tremor 29 / 266 29. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 30 / 266 30. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 31 / 266 31. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. High places C. Animals D. Pain 32 / 266 32. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Sylvian fissure C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Over visual cortex 33 / 266 33. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 34 / 266 34. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Ocular myopathy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 35 / 266 35. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 36 / 266 36. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Visual hallucinations C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 37 / 266 37. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Ankle oedema D. Fatty liver 38 / 266 38. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocalcemia 39 / 266 39. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pendular nystagmus C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pseudolymphoma 40 / 266 40. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 41 / 266 41. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Constricted pupil C. Anhidrosis D. Complete ptosis 42 / 266 42. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 43 / 266 43. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. Dexamethasone 44 / 266 44. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 45 / 266 45. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Myotonic dystrophy 46 / 266 46. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 47 / 266 47. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Cerebral palsy 48 / 266 48. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Poliomyelitis 49 / 266 49. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Anal reflex 50 / 266 50. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 51 / 266 51. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Poliomyelitis C. Transverse myelitis D. Restlessness 52 / 266 52. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 53 / 266 53. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Gonda sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Chaddock's sign 54 / 266 54. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 55 / 266 55. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Nystagmus C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Aphasia 56 / 266 56. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 57 / 266 57. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ethambutol C. Syphilis D. Leprosy 58 / 266 58. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Thrombocytopenia 59 / 266 59. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Febuxostat C. Emetine D. Zidovudine 60 / 266 60. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 61 / 266 61. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebellar infarction C. Epilepsy D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 62 / 266 62. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T4 C. C8 D. T2 63 / 266 63. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Rabies 64 / 266 64. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 65 / 266 65. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Pinealomas C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 66 / 266 66. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 67 / 266 67. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Malignant hypertension C. Hypoxia D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 68 / 266 68. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Infantile spasm C. Petit mal D. Generalized tonic clonic 69 / 266 69. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-21 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-13 70 / 266 70. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 71 / 266 71. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 72 / 266 72. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Alzheimer's disease 73 / 266 73. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Calcification within a lesion C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 74 / 266 74. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Selegiline C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 75 / 266 75. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Venous thrombosis D. Acute myocardial infarction 76 / 266 76. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Scoliosis C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 77 / 266 77. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 78 / 266 78. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Anemia D. Glossitis 79 / 266 79. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Loss of immediate recall 80 / 266 80. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Weber-Christian disease C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 81 / 266 81. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Organophosphorus poisoning 82 / 266 82. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 83 / 266 83. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumor C. Multiple sclerosis D. Tuberculous meningitis 84 / 266 84. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Aphasia 85 / 266 85. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Diazepam 86 / 266 86. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked dominant 87 / 266 87. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 88 / 266 88. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 89 / 266 89. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Cerebellar infarction D. Digitalis toxicity 90 / 266 90. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Alzheimer's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 91 / 266 91. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 92 / 266 92. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 93 / 266 93. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Parkinsonism C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Cerebellar disorder 94 / 266 94. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Diabetes mellitus 95 / 266 95. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Sensory dysfunction 96 / 266 96. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Absent superficial reflex C. Weakness and spasticity D. Brisk deep reflexes 97 / 266 97. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 98 / 266 98. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 99 / 266 99. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Central scotoma C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Bitemporal hemianopi 100 / 266 100. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syringomyelia C. Motor neuron disease D. Cervical spondylosis 101 / 266 101. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 102 / 266 102. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 103 / 266 103. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Osteomalacia 104 / 266 104. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 105 / 266 105. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 106 / 266 106. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Horner's syndrome C. Botulism D. Oculomotor palsy 107 / 266 107. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Basal ganglia infarction 108 / 266 108. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Flumazenil C. Cocaine D. Carbamazepine 109 / 266 109. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 110 / 266 110. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Autoimmunity D. Toxin 111 / 266 111. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Cerebral cortex D. Midbrain 112 / 266 112. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Medulla C. Midbrain D. Upper pons 113 / 266 113. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Huntington's chorea C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 114 / 266 114. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Demyelinating C. Inflammatory D. Embolic 115 / 266 115. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. EMG C. Sensory functions D. Cerebellar functions 116 / 266 116. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Electromyography C. Muscle biopsy D. Nerve conduction study 117 / 266 117. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Tetanus 118 / 266 118. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Increased CSF pressure C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. High protein content 119 / 266 119. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Meningism D. Froin's loculation syndrome 120 / 266 120. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Flexor plantar response C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 121 / 266 121. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Horner's syndrome C. Hiccups D. Ataxia 122 / 266 122. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 123 / 266 123. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 124 / 266 124. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hyperkalemia 125 / 266 125. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 126 / 266 126. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Phenytoin C. Sumatriptan D. Verapamil 127 / 266 127. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Lax abdominal wall C. Obesity D. Multiparous woman 128 / 266 128. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Oral contraceptive pills 129 / 266 129. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 130 / 266 130. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Dolichocephaly 131 / 266 131. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Non-projectile vomiting 132 / 266 132. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Pentoxifylline C. Ticlopidine D. Aspirin 133 / 266 133. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Patchy arachnoiditis 134 / 266 134. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Pramipexole C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 135 / 266 135. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Parkinsonism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myxoedema 136 / 266 136. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 137 / 266 137. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Ciliary ganglion C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 138 / 266 138. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Marathon runner D. Peripheral neuropathy 139 / 266 139. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Absence of root pain 140 / 266 140. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Acute renal failure D. Oesophagitis 141 / 266 141. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Dysarthria 142 / 266 142. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure motor hemiparesis 143 / 266 143. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Immune disorder 144 / 266 144. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 145 / 266 145. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. CT scan D. PET scan 146 / 266 146. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 147 / 266 147. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 148 / 266 148. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Tremor C. Normal reflexes D. Hyperkinesia 149 / 266 149. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Gillespie's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 150 / 266 150. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Phobia 151 / 266 151. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Periodic paralysis D. Botulism 152 / 266 152. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Alcohol C. Arsenic D. Vincristine 153 / 266 153. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Tabes dorsalis 154 / 266 154. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Vigabatrin C. Lubeluzole D. Felbamate 155 / 266 155. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Increased tone 156 / 266 156. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Onycholysis C. Ataxia D. Diarrhoea 157 / 266 157. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Blindness C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Focal neuro deficit 158 / 266 158. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Myotonia C. Chorea D. Tetany 159 / 266 159. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Addison's disease 160 / 266 160. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. Meningism C. After epileptic seizure D. Hysteria 161 / 266 161. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Myopathy 162 / 266 162. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 163 / 266 163. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Epilepsy C. Encephalitis D. Febrile 164 / 266 164. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 165 / 266 165. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Psychosis C. Migraine D. Chorea 166 / 266 166. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Trypanosomiasis 167 / 266 167. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Paralysis C. Hypothermia D. Pin-point pupil 168 / 266 168. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Caudate nucleus C. Putamen D. Substantia nigra 169 / 266 169. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral hemorrhage 170 / 266 170. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Spasticity C. Babinski's sign D. Clonus 171 / 266 171. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Cataplexy C. Epilepsy D. Sleep paralysis 172 / 266 172. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Babinski's sign C. Small, spastic tongue D. Brisk jaw jerk 173 / 266 173. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Ptosis C. Testicular atrophy D. Brachycephaly 174 / 266 174. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Duodenal stenosis D. Polymyositis 175 / 266 175. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Diplopia 176 / 266 176. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Astrocytoma 177 / 266 177. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Lathyrism 178 / 266 178. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 179 / 266 179. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Lacunar infarction C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Cerebral atrophy 180 / 266 180. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents rebleeding 181 / 266 181. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Leprosy 182 / 266 182. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Advanced pregnancy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 183 / 266 183. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Wilson's disease 184 / 266 184. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 185 / 266 185. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Coma C. Absent deep reflexes D. Retention of urine 186 / 266 186. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Quinolones C. Cephalosporins D. Aminoglycosides 187 / 266 187. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Parietal 188 / 266 188. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Diabetic amyotrophy 189 / 266 189. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 190 / 266 190. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 191 / 266 191. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Phaeochromocytoma 192 / 266 192. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Dysphasia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 193 / 266 193. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Optic neuritis C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Convulsions 194 / 266 194. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Succinylcholine C. Dantrolene D. Halothane 195 / 266 195. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Neuropathy D. Encephalitis 196 / 266 196. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 197 / 266 197. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Polyneuropathy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 198 / 266 198. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 199 / 266 199. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 200 / 266 200. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 201 / 266 201. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 202 / 266 202. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Infarction of occipital lobe 203 / 266 203. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myasthenia gravis 204 / 266 204. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 205 / 266 205. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral infarction C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 206 / 266 206. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 207 / 266 207. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Stereognosis C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 208 / 266 208. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Sarcoidosis 209 / 266 209. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 210 / 266 210. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 211 / 266 211. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Subacute combined degeneration 212 / 266 212. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe 213 / 266 213. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 214 / 266 214. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Emotional excitement C. Systemic hypertension D. Berry aneurysm rupture 215 / 266 215. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Myotonia C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Athletes 216 / 266 216. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 217 / 266 217. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. TOCP poisoning C. Amyloidosis D. Acute intermittent porphyria 218 / 266 218. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Deep Jaundice C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 219 / 266 219. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Vincristine 220 / 266 220. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Eye opening D. Verbal response 221 / 266 221. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 222 / 266 222. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Wasting of muscles C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 223 / 266 223. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Brain tumour 224 / 266 224. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Lewy bodies 225 / 266 225. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 226 / 266 226. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 227 / 266 227. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Meningioma 228 / 266 228. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 229 / 266 229. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypocapnia C. Hypoxia D. Hyponatremia 230 / 266 230. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperthyroidism 231 / 266 231. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 232 / 266 232. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Extensor plantar response C. Masked facies D. Flaccid dysarthria 233 / 266 233. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 234 / 266 234. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Bell's palsy C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Cluster headache 235 / 266 235. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 236 / 266 236. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Hereditary predisposition C. Common in women D. Common migraine has aura 237 / 266 237. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Benzodiazepine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 238 / 266 238. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Viral meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 239 / 266 239. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 240 / 266 240. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 241 / 266 241. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 242 / 266 242. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 243 / 266 243. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Horner's syndrome C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Oculomotor palsy 244 / 266 244. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Alzheimer's disease 245 / 266 245. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 246 / 266 246. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Thalamus 247 / 266 247. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 248 / 266 248. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 249 / 266 249. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 250 / 266 250. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Takayasu's disease C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 251 / 266 251. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Fluoxetine 252 / 266 252. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Midbrain 253 / 266 253. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 254 / 266 254. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Cerebellar disorder C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Amblyopia 255 / 266 255. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Albright's disease 256 / 266 256. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 257 / 266 257. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Myoclonus D. Chorea 258 / 266 258. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Viral meningitis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 259 / 266 259. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyponatraemia D. Rheumatic fever 260 / 266 260. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Reading a book 261 / 266 261. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Hepatocellular failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 262 / 266 262. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 263 / 266 263. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Ventral pons D. Thalamus 264 / 266 264. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 265 / 266 265. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 96 hours C. 3 weeks D. 2 weeks 266 / 266 266. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. 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