Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 2 / 266 2. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Verapamil D. Atenolol 3 / 266 3. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. EMG D. Cerebellar functions 4 / 266 4. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Lewy bodies 5 / 266 5. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 6 / 266 6. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Inflammatory C. Demyelinating D. Hemorrhagic 7 / 266 7. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Encephalitis C. Myelopathy D. Neuropathy 8 / 266 8. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Aflatoxin D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 9 / 266 9. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Constricted pupil 10 / 266 10. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Syringomyelia 11 / 266 11. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Multiple sclerosis C. Pituitary tumors D. Posterior fossa tumors 12 / 266 12. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Niemann-Pick disease 13 / 266 13. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 14 / 266 14. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Hypertonia C. Coma D. Absent deep reflexes 15 / 266 15. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Acute renal failure C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Oesophagitis 16 / 266 16. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Pindolol 17 / 266 17. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Tunnel vision C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Central scotoma 18 / 266 18. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 19 / 266 19. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 20 / 266 20. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluvoxamine C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 21 / 266 21. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Transverse myelitis C. Poliomyelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 22 / 266 22. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Tonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Myoclonic seizures 23 / 266 23. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Chloroquine C. Probenecid D. Ethambutol 24 / 266 24. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Chorea C. Athetosis D. Tetany 25 / 266 25. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 26 / 266 26. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 27 / 266 27. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Myopathy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 28 / 266 28. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Deep coma 29 / 266 29. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Calf muscles C. Infraspinatus D. Deltoid 30 / 266 30. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Apraxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 31 / 266 31. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Wilson's disease C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 32 / 266 32. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Rasagiline C. Pramipexole D. Tiagabine 33 / 266 33. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Motor neuron disease C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 34 / 266 34. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Pinealomas C. Ependymoma D. Cerebral lymphoma 35 / 266 35. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 36 / 266 36. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Ciliary ganglion 37 / 266 37. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Vigabatrin C. Felbamate D. Lamotrigine 38 / 266 38. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 39 / 266 39. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Oculomotor palsy C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 40 / 266 40. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Passivity feelings C. Early onset D. Visual hallucinations 41 / 266 41. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 42 / 266 42. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. May occur spontaneously C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 43 / 266 43. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Viral meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 44 / 266 44. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Dementia 45 / 266 45. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Unequal pupil 46 / 266 46. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cord compression 47 / 266 47. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Hiccups C. Horner's syndrome D. Pyramidal lesion 48 / 266 48. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Steroid myopathy 49 / 266 49. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. Drop attacks D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 50 / 266 50. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. H. influenzae C. E. coli D. Pneumococcus 51 / 266 51. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 52 / 266 52. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 53 / 266 53. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Male dominance C. Periorbital pain D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 54 / 266 54. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Meningioma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Acoustic neuroma 55 / 266 55. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. Dexamethasone 56 / 266 56. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Ataxia C. Dementia D. Normal intellectual activity 57 / 266 57. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 58 / 266 58. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 59 / 266 59. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 60 / 266 60. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Myodonus C. Migraine D. Psychosis 61 / 266 61. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 62 / 266 62. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones D. Macrolides 63 / 266 63. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 64 / 266 64. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 65 / 266 65. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve 66 / 266 66. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Pentoxifylline C. Ticlopidine D. Clopidogrel 67 / 266 67. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Vibration sensation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Graphesthesia 68 / 266 68. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Medulla C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 69 / 266 69. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Sleep paralysis C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 70 / 266 70. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5 C. S1,S2 D. L5,S1 71 / 266 71. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Meningioma C. Astrocytoma D. Glioblastoma 72 / 266 72. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Increased deep reflexes C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Flexor plantar response 73 / 266 73. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Hysteria 74 / 266 74. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Amblyopia C. Pontine glioma D. Phenytoin toxicity 75 / 266 75. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sarcoidosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Infectious mononucleosis 76 / 266 76. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Tuberculosis 77 / 266 77. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Huntington's chorea C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Punch-drunk syndrome 78 / 266 78. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 79 / 266 79. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 80 / 266 80. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. CT scan C. PET scan D. MRI scan 81 / 266 81. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Mental retardation 82 / 266 82. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 83 / 266 83. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Amyloidosis 84 / 266 84. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 85 / 266 85. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Hyperpyrexia C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Autonomic dysfunction 86 / 266 86. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 87 / 266 87. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 88 / 266 88. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypocalcemia 89 / 266 89. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 90 / 266 90. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 91 / 266 91. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysarthria C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 92 / 266 92. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 93 / 266 93. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Quinsy D. Diphtheria 94 / 266 94. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 95 / 266 95. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 96 / 266 96. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 97 / 266 97. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 98 / 266 98. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 99 / 266 99. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Dysphasia C. Paraesthesia D. Diplopia 100 / 266 100. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Focal neuro deficit C. Blindness D. Radioculomyelopathy 101 / 266 101. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Malignant exophthalmos 102 / 266 102. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 103 / 266 103. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Ethosuximide 104 / 266 104. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Hepatocellular failure 105 / 266 105. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 106 / 266 106. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Benzodiazepine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 107 / 266 107. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Hemiparesis C. Facial weakness D. Coma 108 / 266 108. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Nitrofurantoin 109 / 266 109. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 110 / 266 110. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agnosia 111 / 266 111. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 112 / 266 112. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Absence of root pain C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Bladder involvement is very late 113 / 266 113. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Cerebellar infarction C. Aura phase of migraine D. Lesion in visual cortex 114 / 266 114. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 115 / 266 115. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Mental retardation C. Anencephaly D. Heart valve abnormalities 116 / 266 116. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Bell's palsy D. Syringobulbia 117 / 266 117. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 118 / 266 118. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Putamen C. Thalamus D. Midbrain 119 / 266 119. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 120 / 266 120. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Increased CSF pressure D. High protein content 121 / 266 121. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Meningioma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 122 / 266 122. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Diminished auditory acuity C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 123 / 266 123. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 124 / 266 124. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 125 / 266 125. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Extensor plantar response D. Masked facies 126 / 266 126. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 127 / 266 127. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 128 / 266 128. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Mental retardation C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Seizures 129 / 266 129. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 130 / 266 130. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Cerebral palsy 131 / 266 131. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 132 / 266 132. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pseudolymphoma D. Megaloblastic anemia 133 / 266 133. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Cerebral atrophy D. Neurosyphilis 134 / 266 134. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 135 / 266 135. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Onycholysis C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 136 / 266 136. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 137 / 266 137. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Meningism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Froin's loculation syndrome 138 / 266 138. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Strangers C. Animals D. Pain 139 / 266 139. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Temporal 140 / 266 140. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Gross pedal oedema 141 / 266 141. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 142 / 266 142. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Dystonia C. Myoclonus D. Chorea 143 / 266 143. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 144 / 266 144. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Confabulation D. Presence of nystagmus 145 / 266 145. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Confabulation C. Perspiration D. Visual hallucinations 146 / 266 146. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Malignant hypertension D. Hypoxia 147 / 266 147. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cervical spine D. Cortex 148 / 266 148. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Meningioma 149 / 266 149. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 150 / 266 150. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Thrombocytopenia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Ataxia 151 / 266 151. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 152 / 266 152. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Thalamus 153 / 266 153. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 154 / 266 154. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Elapidae snake bite 155 / 266 155. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Equivocal plantar response 156 / 266 156. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. May be associated with malignancy C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 157 / 266 157. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Trigeminal neuralgia 158 / 266 158. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Neurosarcoidosis 159 / 266 159. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Mania 160 / 266 160. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Emetine D. Lovastatin 161 / 266 161. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Mass reflex C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 162 / 266 162. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 163 / 266 163. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Alcohol C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Valproic acid 164 / 266 164. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Kuru 165 / 266 165. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkalemia 166 / 266 166. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. Hysteria C. Meningism D. After epileptic seizure 167 / 266 167. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Testicular atrophy C. Frontal baldness D. Ptosis 168 / 266 168. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Involuntary movements C. Tone and power D. Nutrition of muscles 169 / 266 169. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 170 / 266 170. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Haloperidol C. Lithium D. Clomipramine 171 / 266 171. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 172 / 266 172. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Petit mal C. Infantile spasm D. Complex partial 173 / 266 173. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 174 / 266 174. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Polymyositis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy 175 / 266 175. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Paralysis C. Hypothermia D. Disconjugate gaze 176 / 266 176. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Ventral pons C. Cortex D. Thalamus 177 / 266 177. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Botulinus poisoning 178 / 266 178. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 179 / 266 179. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 180 / 266 180. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Botulism D. Horner's syndrome 181 / 266 181. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C5, 6 D. C6, 7 182 / 266 182. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 183 / 266 183. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 184 / 266 184. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Trypanosomiasis 185 / 266 185. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Alzheimer's disease 186 / 266 186. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Refsum's disease C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 187 / 266 187. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 188 / 266 188. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myositis D. Subacute combined degeneration 189 / 266 189. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Duchenne myopathy D. Hysteria 190 / 266 190. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Raynaud's disease 191 / 266 191. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Tremor C. Hyperkinesia D. Rigidity 192 / 266 192. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Glossitis C. Anemia D. Babinski's sign 193 / 266 193. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ethambutol C. Leprosy D. Syphilis 194 / 266 194. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's chorea 195 / 266 195. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Diplopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Right homonymous hemianopia 196 / 266 196. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 197 / 266 197. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 198 / 266 198. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T4 C. T2 D. T1 199 / 266 199. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Optic nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 200 / 266 200. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypoxia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypotension 201 / 266 201. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Spinal epidural abscess 202 / 266 202. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Cerebral cortex 203 / 266 203. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 204 / 266 204. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Anal reflex D. Sucking reflex 205 / 266 205. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Pseudoclonus C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Distal muscle weakness 206 / 266 206. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Looking in front C. Looking to the roof D. Reading a book 207 / 266 207. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Wasting of muscles C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 208 / 266 208. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 209 / 266 209. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 210 / 266 210. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 211 / 266 211. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common migraine has aura C. Common in women D. Hemicranial headache 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypoparathyroidism 213 / 266 213. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Venous thrombosis 214 / 266 214. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 215 / 266 215. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Diabetic amyotrophy 216 / 266 216. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 217 / 266 217. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe 218 / 266 218. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 219 / 266 219. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Pick's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 220 / 266 220. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. SIADH D. Convulsions 221 / 266 221. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 222 / 266 222. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Brain tumor C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tuberculous meningitis 223 / 266 223. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Nasal regurgitation 224 / 266 224. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 225 / 266 225. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Babinski's sign C. Sudden onset D. Small, spastic tongue 226 / 266 226. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 227 / 266 227. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Arrhythmia D. Cardiac tamponade 228 / 266 228. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Pyramidal signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 229 / 266 229. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Cocaine C. Amphetamines D. Flumazenil 230 / 266 230. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Cerebellar infarction C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 231 / 266 231. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 232 / 266 232. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 233 / 266 233. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Manual labourers C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 234 / 266 234. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Xth 235 / 266 235. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Headache C. Altered consciousness D. Convulsions 236 / 266 236. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Putamen 237 / 266 237. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Confabulation 238 / 266 238. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Head trauma in professional boxers 239 / 266 239. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. Systemic hypertension D. AV malformations 240 / 266 240. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Organophosphorus poisoning 241 / 266 241. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 242 / 266 242. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Puerperal sepsis 243 / 266 243. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 244 / 266 244. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Marathon runner 245 / 266 245. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Succinylcholine C. Dantrolene D. Halothane 246 / 266 246. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 247 / 266 247. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Shagreen patch C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Pompholyx 248 / 266 248. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Livedo reticularis C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 249 / 266 249. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 250 / 266 250. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Duodenal stenosis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 251 / 266 251. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 252 / 266 252. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Over visual cortex C. Sylvian fissure D. Olfactory groove 253 / 266 253. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 254 / 266 254. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Papilloedema 255 / 266 255. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Inferior sagittal sinus 256 / 266 256. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Nerve conduction study C. Electromyography D. Muscle enzyme study 257 / 266 257. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Galactorrhoea 258 / 266 258. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. 5% dextrose C. IV quinine D. Glucocorticoids 259 / 266 259. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 260 / 266 260. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 261 / 266 261. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Huge ascites C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Advanced pregnancy 262 / 266 262. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 263 / 266 263. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cortex 264 / 266 264. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 265 / 266 265. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Babinski's sign C. Clonus D. Spasticity 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Aphasia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology