Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Syringomyelia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich's ataxia 2 / 266 2. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 3 / 266 3. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Agraphia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Acalculia 4 / 266 4. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Diarrhoea C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 5 / 266 5. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Bell's palsy C. Cluster headache D. Syringobulbia 6 / 266 6. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. AV malformations C. Emotional excitement D. Systemic hypertension 7 / 266 7. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 8 / 266 8. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 9 / 266 9. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Absence of root pain D. Bladder involvement is very late 10 / 266 10. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents vasospasm 11 / 266 11. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Severe heart failure 12 / 266 12. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 13 / 266 13. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. E. coli C. Pneumococcus D. H. influenzae 14 / 266 14. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Weakness and spasticity 15 / 266 15. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ethambutol 16 / 266 16. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 17 / 266 17. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 18 / 266 18. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 19 / 266 19. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Putamen D. Thalamus 20 / 266 20. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 21 / 266 21. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 22 / 266 22. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerve 23 / 266 23. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Deltoid D. Pectoralis major 24 / 266 24. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Immune disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 25 / 266 25. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. INH 26 / 266 26. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Rasagiline C. Tiagabine D. Pramipexole 27 / 266 27. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski's sign D. Chaddock's sign 28 / 266 28. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Phenytoin C. Atenolol D. Verapamil 29 / 266 29. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 30 / 266 30. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Infantile spasm 31 / 266 31. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Dystonia 32 / 266 32. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Retention of urine C. Coma D. Hypertonia 33 / 266 33. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Clopidogrel D. Pentoxifylline 34 / 266 34. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Deafness 35 / 266 35. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 36 / 266 36. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 37 / 266 37. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Fatty liver C. Seizures D. Ankle oedema 38 / 266 38. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5 D. S1 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common migraine has aura C. Hemicranial headache D. Common in women 40 / 266 40. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Apraxia 41 / 266 41. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebellar infarction C. Epilepsy D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 42 / 266 42. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Deep coma 43 / 266 43. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Central scotoma D. Tunnel vision 44 / 266 44. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 45 / 266 45. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Mania 46 / 266 46. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 47 / 266 47. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 48 / 266 48. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Refsum's disease D. Leprosy 49 / 266 49. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Polyneuropathy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 50 / 266 50. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. MRI scan 51 / 266 51. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 52 / 266 52. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 53 / 266 53. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Cocaine C. Flumazenil D. Amphetamines 54 / 266 54. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 55 / 266 55. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 56 / 266 56. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Ethambutol C. Amiodarone D. Probenecid 57 / 266 57. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Lathyrism D. Periodic paralysis 58 / 266 58. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypervitaminosis D 59 / 266 59. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Aura phase of migraine C. Digitalis toxicity D. Lesion in visual cortex 60 / 266 60. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Dolichocephaly 61 / 266 61. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Loss of immediate recall 62 / 266 62. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 63 / 266 63. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 64 / 266 64. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 65 / 266 65. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Cerebral cortex D. Midbrain 66 / 266 66. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Polycythaemia vera C. SIADH D. Cluster headache 67 / 266 67. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 68 / 266 68. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Galactosaemia C. Haemochromatosis D. Myotonic dystrophy 69 / 266 69. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 70 / 266 70. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Thiocyanates C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 71 / 266 71. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 72 / 266 72. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 73 / 266 73. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Increased CSF pressure C. Xanthochromia D. High protein content 74 / 266 74. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 75 / 266 75. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 76 / 266 76. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 77 / 266 77. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hyperkaliemia 78 / 266 78. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 79 / 266 79. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Spinal epidural abscess 80 / 266 80. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 81 / 266 81. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Astrocytoma 82 / 266 82. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 83 / 266 83. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Trimipramine 84 / 266 84. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Focal neuro deficit D. Convulsions 85 / 266 85. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle enzyme study D. Muscle biopsy 86 / 266 86. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Polyneuropathy C. Myositis D. Subacute combined degeneration 87 / 266 87. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 88 / 266 88. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Depression C. Mania D. Paranoia 89 / 266 89. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Alzheimer's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 90 / 266 90. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 91 / 266 91. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Sensory ataxia D. Intact proprioception 92 / 266 92. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 93 / 266 93. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Oesophagitis D. Wallenberg's syndrome 94 / 266 94. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Sudden onset C. Babinski's sign D. Brisk jaw jerk 95 / 266 95. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 96 / 266 96. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 97 / 266 97. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Hysteria 98 / 266 98. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Unequal pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 99 / 266 99. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 100 / 266 100. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Acromegaly C. Infertility D. Alzheimer's disease 101 / 266 101. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Periorbital pain C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 102 / 266 102. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral infarction D. Venous thrombosis 103 / 266 103. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Elapidae snake bite C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 104 / 266 104. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Occipital lobe 105 / 266 105. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysphonia 106 / 266 106. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Dura matter C. Pineal body D. Choroid plexus 107 / 266 107. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Hypoxia 108 / 266 108. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 3 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 96 hours 109 / 266 109. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Wilson's disease D. Parkinsonism 110 / 266 110. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Rheumatic fever D. Thyrotoxicosis 111 / 266 111. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Depression C. Early onset D. Passivity feelings 112 / 266 112. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Parkinsonism D. Aortic incompetence 113 / 266 113. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Brain tumor C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 114 / 266 114. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Emotional incontinence C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Extensor plantar response 115 / 266 115. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Nystagmus D. Papilloedema 116 / 266 116. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 117 / 266 117. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 118 / 266 118. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Weber-Christian disease 119 / 266 119. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 120 / 266 120. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Hydrosis + miosis 121 / 266 121. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysarthria D. Dysphagia 122 / 266 122. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Oral contraceptive pills 123 / 266 123. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 124 / 266 124. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 125 / 266 125. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Coprolalia D. Multiple tics 126 / 266 126. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Graphesthesia C. Vibration sensation D. Two-point localisation 127 / 266 127. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Duodenal stenosis 128 / 266 128. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Stereognosis C. Tone and power D. Nutrition of muscles 129 / 266 129. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 130 / 266 130. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Giant cell arteritis D. Trigeminal neuralgia 131 / 266 131. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 132 / 266 132. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 133 / 266 133. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Frontal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 134 / 266 134. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Coma 135 / 266 135. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Oculomotor nerve 136 / 266 136. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 137 / 266 137. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Advanced pregnancy 138 / 266 138. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 139 / 266 139. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 140 / 266 140. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Hysteria D. Tetanus 141 / 266 141. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Selegiline 142 / 266 142. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 143 / 266 143. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Raised intracranial pressure 144 / 266 144. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Pain C. High places D. Strangers 145 / 266 145. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cirrhosis of liver 146 / 266 146. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 147 / 266 147. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 148 / 266 148. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Papilledema 149 / 266 149. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Haloperidol C. Lithium D. Clomipramine 150 / 266 150. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Bulbar palsy D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 151 / 266 151. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 152 / 266 152. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Olfactory groove C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Sylvian fissure 153 / 266 153. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Ptosis C. Frontal baldness D. Testicular atrophy 154 / 266 154. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Myopathy C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 155 / 266 155. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 156 / 266 156. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 157 / 266 157. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Absence seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Tonic seizures 158 / 266 158. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Ataxia C. Horner's syndrome D. Hiccups 159 / 266 159. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia D. Multiple sclerosis 160 / 266 160. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Substantia nigra D. Red nucleus 161 / 266 161. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 162 / 266 162. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 163 / 266 163. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hypothyroidism 164 / 266 164. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Encephalitis C. Febrile D. Epilepsy 165 / 266 165. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Gynaecomastia 166 / 266 166. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Peripheral neuropathy 167 / 266 167. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Headache C. Convulsions D. Non-projectile vomiting 168 / 266 168. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Froin's loculation syndrome 169 / 266 169. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Negri bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Schaumann bodies 170 / 266 170. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 171 / 266 171. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 172 / 266 172. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basilar artery thrombosis 173 / 266 173. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Osteomalacia 174 / 266 174. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 175 / 266 175. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Quinsy C. Tetanus D. Diphtheria 176 / 266 176. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 177 / 266 177. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Tuberculosis 178 / 266 178. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 179 / 266 179. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Babinski's sign C. Fasciculations D. Clonus 180 / 266 180. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Diazepam D. Topiramate 181 / 266 181. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Dementia in AIDS C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Hysterical gait disorder 182 / 266 182. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Disconjugate gaze C. Pin-point pupil D. Paralysis 183 / 266 183. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 184 / 266 184. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lamotrigine C. Lubeluzole D. Felbamate 185 / 266 185. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Calcification within a lesion C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 186 / 266 186. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 187 / 266 187. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Midbrain lesion 188 / 266 188. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Thalamus C. Ventral pons D. Internal capsule 189 / 266 189. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Tabes dorsalis 190 / 266 190. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 191 / 266 191. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 192 / 266 192. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. 5% dextrose C. IV mannitol D. IV quinine 193 / 266 193. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 194 / 266 194. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism 195 / 266 195. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Leprosy C. Raynaud's disease D. Tabes dorsalis 196 / 266 196. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. T2 C. C8 D. T1 197 / 266 197. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cervical spondylosis 198 / 266 198. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 199 / 266 199. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Amyloidosis C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Acute intermittent porphyria 200 / 266 200. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Hepatic precoma D. Subacute combined degeneration 201 / 266 201. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Athetosis C. Tetany D. Myotonia 202 / 266 202. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypertonia D. Titubation 203 / 266 203. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Sleep paralysis 204 / 266 204. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Reading a book D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 205 / 266 205. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Apraxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 206 / 266 206. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Choreoathetosis D. Mental retardation 207 / 266 207. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Trypanosomiasis 208 / 266 208. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 209 / 266 209. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 210 / 266 210. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. Pseudobulbar palsy 211 / 266 211. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 212 / 266 212. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Botulism D. Progressive muscular atrophy 213 / 266 213. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 214 / 266 214. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Huntington's chorea C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 215 / 266 215. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Glioma C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral lymphoma 216 / 266 216. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cerebral palsy D. Tuberous sclerosis 217 / 266 217. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Polymyositis D. Leprosy 218 / 266 218. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Proximal muscle weakness 219 / 266 219. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral infarction D. Hysteria 220 / 266 220. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Limb shortening D. Anencephaly 221 / 266 221. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Visual hallucinations C. Tremor D. Confabulation 222 / 266 222. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Sensory dysfunction 223 / 266 223. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor plantar response D. Flexor spasm 224 / 266 224. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypoxia C. Hypocapnia D. Hyponatremia 225 / 266 225. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 226 / 266 226. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Glossitis C. Ankle clonus D. Babinski's sign 227 / 266 227. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 228 / 266 228. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 229 / 266 229. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Polymyositis 230 / 266 230. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 231 / 266 231. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Cerebellar disorder C. Pontine glioma D. Amblyopia 232 / 266 232. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Frontal 233 / 266 233. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluoxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Paroxetine 234 / 266 234. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 236 / 266 236. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Polycystic kidney C. Takayasu's disease D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 237 / 266 237. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Emetine C. Lovastatin D. Febuxostat 238 / 266 238. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 239 / 266 239. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 240 / 266 240. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Psychosis C. Myodonus D. Migraine 241 / 266 241. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 242 / 266 242. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. Proprioception C. EMG D. Sensory functions 243 / 266 243. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 244 / 266 244. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Neuropathy 245 / 266 245. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tight aortic stenosis 246 / 266 246. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Pinealomas 247 / 266 247. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Quinolones 248 / 266 248. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Medulla C. Upper pons D. Lower pons 249 / 266 249. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 250 / 266 250. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 251 / 266 251. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Anal reflex D. Snout reflex 252 / 266 252. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Inflammatory C. Demyelinating D. Hemorrhagic 253 / 266 253. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. May occur spontaneously 254 / 266 254. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 255 / 266 255. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Motor neuron disease C. Cerebral diplegia D. Multiple sclerosis 256 / 266 256. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Kuru 257 / 266 257. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Presence of nystagmus C. Confabulation D. Associated with lacunar infarction 258 / 266 258. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 259 / 266 259. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-18 260 / 266 260. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Shagreen patch D. Pompholyx 261 / 266 261. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Increased deep reflexes D. Flexor plantar response 262 / 266 262. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Arsenic D. Lead 263 / 266 263. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 264 / 266 264. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Paraesthesia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 265 / 266 265. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Lathyrism 266 / 266 266. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Neurosyphilis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology