Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 2 / 266 2. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Ciliary ganglion 3 / 266 3. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 4 / 266 4. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Putamen D. Thalamus 5 / 266 5. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Hiccups C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 6 / 266 6. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Virus C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 7 / 266 7. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Mania 8 / 266 8. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Diazepam D. Topiramate 9 / 266 9. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Abducens palsy D. Paralysis of soft palate 10 / 266 10. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Peripheral neuropathy 11 / 266 11. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 12 / 266 12. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 13 / 266 13. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 14 / 266 14. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 15 / 266 15. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Aphasia D. Nystagmus 16 / 266 16. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Duchenne myopathy 17 / 266 17. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Flexor plantar response 18 / 266 18. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Obesity 19 / 266 19. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Infantile spasm C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 20 / 266 20. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Migraine C. Chorea D. Myodonus 21 / 266 21. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Chorea C. Myoclonus D. Hemiballismus 22 / 266 22. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Gross pedal oedema 23 / 266 23. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 24 / 266 24. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis major D. Infraspinatus 25 / 266 25. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Myositis D. Tabes dorsalis 26 / 266 26. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 27 / 266 27. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 28 / 266 28. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Mental retardation C. Limb shortening D. Heart valve abnormalities 29 / 266 29. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Frontal 30 / 266 30. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Fatty liver C. Ankle oedema D. Seizures 31 / 266 31. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Anal reflex 32 / 266 32. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 33 / 266 33. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Syringomyelia D. Tabes dorsalis 34 / 266 34. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 35 / 266 35. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 36 / 266 36. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Two-point localisation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Graphesthesia 37 / 266 37. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Amantadine C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Selegiline 38 / 266 38. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Convulsions D. Altered consciousness 39 / 266 39. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Convulsions C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Focal neuro deficit 40 / 266 40. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Tuberous sclerosis 41 / 266 41. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Relief by haloperidol 42 / 266 42. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 43 / 266 43. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Elapidae snake bite 44 / 266 44. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Cluster headache C. Polycythaemia vera D. SIADH 45 / 266 45. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Spastic tongue C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysarthria 46 / 266 46. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Small, spastic tongue C. Sudden onset D. Brisk jaw jerk 47 / 266 47. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 48 / 266 48. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 49 / 266 49. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 50 / 266 50. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 51 / 266 51. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Seen in tall, thin people C. May occur spontaneously D. Quite often remits spontaneously 52 / 266 52. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Periodic paralysis C. Lathyrism D. Elapidae group snake bite 53 / 266 53. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Testicular atrophy C. Frontal baldness D. Brachycephaly 54 / 266 54. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Phakomatosis D. Mental retardation 55 / 266 55. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents rebleeding 56 / 266 56. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. May be associated with malignancy C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 57 / 266 57. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Brainstem 58 / 266 58. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Dantrolene D. Methoxyflurane 59 / 266 59. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Paraesthesia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 60 / 266 60. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 61 / 266 61. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Interferon C. Corticosteroid D. Immunoglobulin 62 / 266 62. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 63 / 266 63. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Quinsy C. Tetanus D. Diphtheria 64 / 266 64. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Cocaine C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 65 / 266 65. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 66 / 266 66. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Asteroid bodies 67 / 266 67. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-21 68 / 266 68. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 69 / 266 69. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Weil's disease C. Enteric fever D. Atypical pneumonia 70 / 266 70. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pendular nystagmus C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pseudolymphoma 71 / 266 71. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myasthenia gravis 72 / 266 72. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 73 / 266 73. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Putamen 74 / 266 74. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Optic neuritis C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. SIADH 75 / 266 75. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Over visual cortex D. Olfactory groove 76 / 266 76. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Retention of urine C. Coma D. Absent deep reflexes 77 / 266 77. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Choreoathetosis D. Mental retardation 78 / 266 78. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 79 / 266 79. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Optic glioma C. Scoliosis D. Acoustic neuroma 80 / 266 80. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Wilson's disease 81 / 266 81. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Lead C. Vincristine D. Arsenic 82 / 266 82. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 83 / 266 83. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 84 / 266 84. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Febrile C. Trauma D. Epilepsy 85 / 266 85. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 86 / 266 86. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Myotonia C. Athletes D. Manual labourers 87 / 266 87. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 88 / 266 88. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Bell's palsy 89 / 266 89. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 90 / 266 90. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Rubella panencephalitis 91 / 266 91. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Aortic incompetence 92 / 266 92. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 93 / 266 93. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Argyll Robertson pupil 94 / 266 94. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Cerebral embolism 95 / 266 95. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Polymyositis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 96 / 266 96. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Takayasu's disease 97 / 266 97. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Periorbital pain C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Male dominance 98 / 266 98. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 99 / 266 99. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Rigidity C. Normal reflexes D. Hyperkinesia 100 / 266 100. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Deep reflexes are depressed 101 / 266 101. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 102 / 266 102. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T4 C. C8 D. T2 103 / 266 103. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Tay-Sachs disease 104 / 266 104. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Eye opening 105 / 266 105. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 106 / 266 106. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Ataxia D. Areflexia 107 / 266 107. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Steroid myopathy C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 108 / 266 108. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 109 / 266 109. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 110 / 266 110. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Neurosyphilis 111 / 266 111. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Emotional incontinence D. Extensor plantar response 112 / 266 112. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Ataxia 113 / 266 113. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 114 / 266 114. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine D. Trimipramine 115 / 266 115. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Macrolides C. Aminoglycosides D. Cephalosporins 116 / 266 116. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. Cerebellar functions D. EMG 117 / 266 117. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 118 / 266 118. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Loss of immediate recall C. Confabulation D. Defect in learning 119 / 266 119. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Trypanosomiasis D. Subdural hematoma 120 / 266 120. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 121 / 266 121. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypothyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 122 / 266 122. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 123 / 266 123. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Syphilis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 124 / 266 124. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Multiple sclerosis 125 / 266 125. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypermetria C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 126 / 266 126. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Pituitary tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Calcification within a lesion 127 / 266 127. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 128 / 266 128. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 129 / 266 129. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Diplopia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 130 / 266 130. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Chloroquine C. Probenecid D. Amiodarone 131 / 266 131. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 132 / 266 132. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's disease 133 / 266 133. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Refsum's disease C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 134 / 266 134. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Facial nerve palsy C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 135 / 266 135. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Neurofibroma D. Patchy arachnoiditis 136 / 266 136. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Post-encephalitic 137 / 266 137. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 138 / 266 138. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Glioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic 139 / 266 139. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 140 / 266 140. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 141 / 266 141. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 142 / 266 142. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C6, 7 143 / 266 143. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Muscle biopsy C. Muscle enzyme study D. Nerve conduction study 144 / 266 144. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 145 / 266 145. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. MRI scan 146 / 266 146. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 147 / 266 147. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Hepatic precoma 148 / 266 148. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Embolic C. Hemorrhagic D. Demyelinating 149 / 266 149. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Retinal hemorrhage 150 / 266 150. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Leprosy D. Raynaud's disease 151 / 266 151. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Advanced pregnancy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 152 / 266 152. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 153 / 266 153. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Hyponatraemia 154 / 266 154. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 155 / 266 155. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 156 / 266 156. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. Glucocorticoids 157 / 266 157. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Mamillary bodies D. Temporal lobe 158 / 266 158. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 159 / 266 159. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 160 / 266 160. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Pinealomas D. Glioma 161 / 266 161. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hyperkalemia 162 / 266 162. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Leprosy 163 / 266 163. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Ventral pons C. Thalamus D. Cortex 164 / 266 164. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 165 / 266 165. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 166 / 266 166. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Tuberous sclerosis 167 / 266 167. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Frontal lobe 168 / 266 168. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Multiple sclerosis C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Duchenne myopathy 169 / 266 169. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Clomipramine 170 / 266 170. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Visual hallucinations C. Depression D. Passivity feelings 171 / 266 171. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Ocular myopathy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 172 / 266 172. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Aflatoxin C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Thiocyanates 173 / 266 173. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 174 / 266 174. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Severe heart failure D. Hepatocellular failure 175 / 266 175. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 176 / 266 176. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Dementia in AIDS D. Hysterical gait disorder 177 / 266 177. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Clopidogrel 178 / 266 178. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Anemia C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 179 / 266 179. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 180 / 266 180. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Tone and power C. Stereognosis D. Nutrition of muscles 181 / 266 181. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Radial nerve palsy 182 / 266 182. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Cerebellar infarction C. Epilepsy D. Multiple sclerosis 183 / 266 183. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Encephalitis 184 / 266 184. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 185 / 266 185. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Cerebellar disorder C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 186 / 266 186. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Mania 187 / 266 187. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Head injury C. Transient ischemic attack D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 188 / 266 188. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Distal muscle weakness C. Pseudoclonus D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 189 / 266 189. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Rasagiline C. Tiagabine D. Ropinirole 190 / 266 190. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Animals C. Strangers D. High places 191 / 266 191. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Constricted pupil C. Enophthalmos D. Anhidrosis 192 / 266 192. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 193 / 266 193. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 194 / 266 194. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 195 / 266 195. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Flexor plantar response C. Mass reflex D. Increased tone in flexor groups 196 / 266 196. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 197 / 266 197. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 198 / 266 198. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Hutchinson's pupil 199 / 266 199. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 200 / 266 200. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Hypothyroidism D. Onycholysis 201 / 266 201. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Alzheimer's disease C. Infertility D. Parkinsonism 202 / 266 202. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Hemicranial headache 203 / 266 203. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 204 / 266 204. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lubeluzole C. Vigabatrin D. Lamotrigine 205 / 266 205. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Shagreen patch 206 / 266 206. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Agraphia C. Acalculia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 207 / 266 207. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Tetanus C. Hysteria D. Meningism 208 / 266 208. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Looking in front C. Reading a book D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 209 / 266 209. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 210 / 266 210. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Tunnel vision 211 / 266 211. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 212 / 266 212. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Midbrain C. Medulla D. Upper pons 213 / 266 213. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypotension C. Hypocapnia D. Hypoxia 214 / 266 214. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 215 / 266 215. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Digitalis toxicity C. Aura phase of migraine D. Lesion in visual cortex 216 / 266 216. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Myopathy 217 / 266 217. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 218 / 266 218. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 219 / 266 219. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Hyperpyrexia C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Autonomic dysfunction 220 / 266 220. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysarthria C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 221 / 266 221. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 222 / 266 222. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Friedreich's ataxia 223 / 266 223. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Perspiration C. Confabulation D. Tremor 224 / 266 224. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multiple sclerosis 225 / 266 225. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Cortex C. Pons D. Internal capsule 226 / 266 226. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 227 / 266 227. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Hung-up knee jerk 228 / 266 228. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Hypoxia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 229 / 266 229. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Albright's disease 230 / 266 230. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 231 / 266 231. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Pick's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 232 / 266 232. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Dermatomyositis 233 / 266 233. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pinealomas 234 / 266 234. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Alcoholism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Wilson's disease 235 / 266 235. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Disconjugate gaze C. Paralysis D. Hypothermia 236 / 266 236. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 237 / 266 237. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumor C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 238 / 266 238. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. Vth D. IIIrd 239 / 266 239. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 240 / 266 240. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Brain tumour 241 / 266 241. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Apraxia 242 / 266 242. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 243 / 266 243. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Myotonic pupil 244 / 266 244. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Increased tone C. Sensory ataxia D. Intact proprioception 245 / 266 245. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 246 / 266 246. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Babinski's sign C. Spasticity D. Clonus 247 / 266 247. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1 C. L5 D. S1,S2 248 / 266 248. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 249 / 266 249. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Absent superficial reflex 250 / 266 250. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Oesophagitis 251 / 266 251. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Thrombocytopenia 252 / 266 252. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Meningioma 253 / 266 253. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Chorea C. Tetany D. Athetosis 254 / 266 254. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 255 / 266 255. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 256 / 266 256. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Gonda sign 257 / 266 257. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Basal ganglia C. Dura matter D. Choroid plexus 258 / 266 258. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Duodenal stenosis D. Polymyositis 259 / 266 259. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Hysteria D. Brain tumor 260 / 266 260. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Verapamil C. Atenolol D. Sumatriptan 261 / 266 261. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 262 / 266 262. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 263 / 266 263. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 264 / 266 264. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Immune disorder D. Metabolic disorder 265 / 266 265. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Snakebite C. Myasthenia gravis D. Poliomyelitis 266 / 266 266. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. TOCP poisoning LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology