Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Hung-up knee jerk 2 / 266 2. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 3 / 266 3. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Frontal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Temporal lobe 4 / 266 4. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Midbrain C. Lower pons D. Upper pons 5 / 266 5. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Polyneuropathy D. Myositis 6 / 266 6. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Small, spastic tongue C. Sudden onset D. Brisk jaw jerk 7 / 266 7. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Gross pedal oedema C. Parkinsonism D. Myxoedema 8 / 266 8. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 9 / 266 9. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 10 / 266 10. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 11 / 266 11. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal 12 / 266 12. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 13 / 266 13. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Mass reflex C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor plantar response 14 / 266 14. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 15 / 266 15. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Lovastatin C. Zidovudine D. Febuxostat 16 / 266 16. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Rheumatic fever 17 / 266 17. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Papilledema 18 / 266 18. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 19 / 266 19. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Testicular atrophy 20 / 266 20. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Cerebellar infarction C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Aura phase of migraine 21 / 266 21. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Verapamil C. Atenolol D. Sumatriptan 22 / 266 22. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Autoimmunity D. Toxin 23 / 266 23. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Cord compression D. Lathyrism 24 / 266 24. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 25 / 266 25. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Infraspinatus C. Pectoralis major D. Calf muscles 26 / 266 26. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Rabies 27 / 266 27. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Sertraline C. Fluvoxamine D. Fluoxetine 28 / 266 28. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Livedo reticularis C. Seizures D. Ankle oedema 29 / 266 29. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 30 / 266 30. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Elapidae snake bite 31 / 266 31. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Oculomotor palsy 32 / 266 32. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Leucodystrophy D. Cerebral palsy 33 / 266 33. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Ventral pons 34 / 266 34. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 35 / 266 35. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Petit mal C. Infantile spasm D. Generalized tonic clonic 36 / 266 36. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 37 / 266 37. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Diplopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 38 / 266 38. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Coma C. Hypertonia D. Absent deep reflexes 39 / 266 39. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 40 / 266 40. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Brain tumour 41 / 266 41. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Increased CSF pressure C. Xanthochromia D. High protein content 42 / 266 42. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Basal ganglia 43 / 266 43. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Cervical rib C. Myopathy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 44 / 266 44. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. IIIrd C. Xth D. Vllth 45 / 266 45. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 46 / 266 46. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Brainstem 47 / 266 47. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Myotonia C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Manual labourers 48 / 266 48. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Vincristine 49 / 266 49. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Vestibular lesion 50 / 266 50. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Myopathy 51 / 266 51. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Alcohol C. Lead D. Vincristine 52 / 266 52. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Ataxia D. Osteomalacia 53 / 266 53. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Mental retardation D. Limb shortening 54 / 266 54. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 55 / 266 55. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Defect in learning C. Loss of immediate recall D. Confabulation 56 / 266 56. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 57 / 266 57. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 58 / 266 58. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Babinski's sign C. Ankle clonus D. Glossitis 59 / 266 59. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 60 / 266 60. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. MRI scan 61 / 266 61. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 62 / 266 62. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Pinealomas D. Glioma 63 / 266 63. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 64 / 266 64. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Reading a book C. Looking in front D. Looking to the roof 65 / 266 65. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Oculomotor nerve C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 66 / 266 66. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 67 / 266 67. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Polymyositis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Patent ductus arteriosus 68 / 266 68. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Amiodarone C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 69 / 266 69. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Focal neuro deficit C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Convulsions 70 / 266 70. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 71 / 266 71. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 72 / 266 72. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Brain tumor 73 / 266 73. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Quinolones 74 / 266 74. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. EMG 75 / 266 75. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 76 / 266 76. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Ocular myopathy 77 / 266 77. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Depression C. Passivity feelings D. Early onset 78 / 266 78. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Cerebral cortex C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 79 / 266 79. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Apraxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 80 / 266 80. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Lewy bodies 81 / 266 81. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 82 / 266 82. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 83 / 266 83. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Aortic incompetence C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 84 / 266 84. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Polycystic kidney D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 85 / 266 85. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 86 / 266 86. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Depression C. Phobia D. Paranoia 87 / 266 87. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumor C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 88 / 266 88. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 89 / 266 89. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Lubeluzole C. Felbamate D. Vigabatrin 90 / 266 90. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Subdural hematoma C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Trypanosomiasis 91 / 266 91. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Duchenne myopathy 92 / 266 92. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 93 / 266 93. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Masked facies D. Emotional incontinence 94 / 266 94. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Alcohol D. Valproic acid 95 / 266 95. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Sleep paralysis C. Epilepsy D. Cataplexy 96 / 266 96. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 97 / 266 97. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. Pseudobulbar palsy 98 / 266 98. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hypokalemia C. Deep coma D. Hyperkalemia 99 / 266 99. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Electromyography C. Muscle enzyme study D. Muscle biopsy 100 / 266 100. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents vasospasm D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 101 / 266 101. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Pseudoclonus C. Distal muscle weakness D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 102 / 266 102. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 103 / 266 103. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Unequal pupil 104 / 266 104. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 105 / 266 105. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 106 / 266 106. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cluster headache C. Bell's palsy D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 107 / 266 107. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Tone and power C. Involuntary movements D. Stereognosis 108 / 266 108. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Hyperthyroidism C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 109 / 266 109. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Malignant exophthalmos 110 / 266 110. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Emotional excitement C. Systemic hypertension D. Berry aneurysm rupture 111 / 266 111. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Raised intracranial pressure 112 / 266 112. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Mania 113 / 266 113. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agraphia 114 / 266 114. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Cerebellar signs C. Pyramidal signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 115 / 266 115. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Huge ascites 116 / 266 116. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Wasting of muscles C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 117 / 266 117. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Lithium C. Haloperidol D. Carbamazepine 118 / 266 118. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Snout reflex C. Anal reflex D. Grasp reflex 119 / 266 119. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 120 / 266 120. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Malignant hypertension C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 121 / 266 121. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysphagia C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysarthria 122 / 266 122. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Paraesthesia C. Dysphasia D. Diplopia 123 / 266 123. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 124 / 266 124. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Ropinirole 125 / 266 125. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Tetany D. Athetosis 126 / 266 126. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 127 / 266 127. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 128 / 266 128. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Viral meningitis 129 / 266 129. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Selegiline D. Levodopa 130 / 266 130. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Absence of root pain C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 131 / 266 131. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Steroid myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 132 / 266 132. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Albright's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 133 / 266 133. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pseudolymphoma 134 / 266 134. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Putamen 135 / 266 135. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 136 / 266 136. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 137 / 266 137. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 138 / 266 138. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Has a good prognosis in children D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 139 / 266 139. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Lax abdominal wall C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 140 / 266 140. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Clonus C. Spasticity D. Babinski's sign 141 / 266 141. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Papilloedema C. Aphasia D. Nystagmus 142 / 266 142. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 143 / 266 143. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Eye opening D. Verbal response 144 / 266 144. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Febrile C. Epilepsy D. Trauma 145 / 266 145. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Sensory ataxia C. Intact proprioception D. Brisk deep reflexes 146 / 266 146. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 147 / 266 147. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Petit mal epilepsy 148 / 266 148. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 149 / 266 149. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 150 / 266 150. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Central scotoma D. Homonymous hemianopia 151 / 266 151. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Tabes dorsalis 152 / 266 152. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypermetria C. Titubation D. Hypertonia 153 / 266 153. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 154 / 266 154. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Syringomyelia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Friedreich's ataxia 155 / 266 155. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Myodonus D. Psychosis 156 / 266 156. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Neurosyphilis 157 / 266 157. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypothyroidism 158 / 266 158. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Meningioma 159 / 266 159. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Reserpine C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Pindolol 160 / 266 160. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe 161 / 266 161. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Viral meningitis 162 / 266 162. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 163 / 266 163. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Confabulation C. Loss of recent memory D. Presence of nystagmus 164 / 266 164. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV quinine 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Poliomyelitis 166 / 266 166. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 167 / 266 167. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 168 / 266 168. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Tonic seizures D. Myoclonic seizures 169 / 266 169. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Alzheimer's disease C. Post-encephalitic D. Multi-infarct dementia 170 / 266 170. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 171 / 266 171. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 172 / 266 172. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ethambutol D. Leprosy 173 / 266 173. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 174 / 266 174. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Aphasia 175 / 266 175. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. S1 C. L5,S1 D. L5 176 / 266 176. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 177 / 266 177. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 178 / 266 178. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Mental retardation D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 179 / 266 179. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Complete ptosis C. Constricted pupil D. Enophthalmos 180 / 266 180. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 181 / 266 181. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 182 / 266 182. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Diminished auditory acuity C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 183 / 266 183. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 184 / 266 184. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Organophosphorus poisoning 185 / 266 185. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 186 / 266 186. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Periorbital pain C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 187 / 266 187. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Sarcoidosis 188 / 266 188. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Adenoma sebaceum C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Pompholyx 189 / 266 189. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Normal intellectual activity 190 / 266 190. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Galactorrhoea C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 191 / 266 191. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Acute renal failure C. Oesophagitis D. Wallenberg's syndrome 192 / 266 192. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure motor hemiparesis 193 / 266 193. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Raynaud's disease D. Tabes dorsalis 194 / 266 194. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 195 / 266 195. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Dementia in AIDS C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 196 / 266 196. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysphonia C. Aphasia D. Dysarthria 197 / 266 197. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Calcification within a lesion C. Pituitary tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 198 / 266 198. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Myopathy C. Neuropathy D. Encephalitis 199 / 266 199. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. TOCP poisoning D. Amyloidosis 200 / 266 200. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Drop attacks 201 / 266 201. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Visual hallucinations C. Confabulation D. Perspiration 202 / 266 202. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Hereditary predisposition 203 / 266 203. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Wilson's disease C. Galactosaemia D. Myotonic dystrophy 204 / 266 204. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Alzheimer's disease C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 205 / 266 205. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Cerebellar infarction C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 206 / 266 206. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 207 / 266 207. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Hysteria D. Tetanus 208 / 266 208. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Cerebral infarction 209 / 266 209. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Coma 210 / 266 210. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Weil's disease C. Enteric fever D. Atypical pneumonia 211 / 266 211. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Altered consciousness C. Headache D. Non-projectile vomiting 212 / 266 212. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Paralysis C. Hypothermia D. Disconjugate gaze 213 / 266 213. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 214 / 266 214. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Diphtheria D. Quinsy 215 / 266 215. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 216 / 266 216. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Lathyrism 217 / 266 217. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Refsum's disease 218 / 266 218. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 219 / 266 219. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Dermatomyositis 220 / 266 220. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased deep reflexes D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 221 / 266 221. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Neurofibroma D. Spinal epidural abscess 222 / 266 222. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Cerebellar disorder D. Pontine glioma 223 / 266 223. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Parkinsonism 224 / 266 224. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 225 / 266 225. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 226 / 266 226. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 227 / 266 227. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 228 / 266 228. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Immunoglobulin D. Interferon 229 / 266 229. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Hemorrhagic D. Inflammatory 230 / 266 230. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Flumazenil C. Cocaine D. Amphetamines 231 / 266 231. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Phakomatosis D. Mental retardation 232 / 266 232. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 233 / 266 233. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Hiccups C. Ataxia D. Horner's syndrome 234 / 266 234. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Multiple tics C. Relief by haloperidol D. Dementia 235 / 266 235. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Botulinus poisoning C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae group snake bite 236 / 266 236. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 96 hours C. 3 weeks D. 2 weeks 237 / 266 237. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Diazepam C. Topiramate D. Valproate 238 / 266 238. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T4 D. T2 239 / 266 239. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Absent superficial reflex C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Equivocal plantar response 240 / 266 240. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 241 / 266 241. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Astrocytoma 242 / 266 242. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Over visual cortex C. Sylvian fissure D. Olfactory groove 243 / 266 243. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Pain C. Strangers D. High places 244 / 266 244. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypokalemia 245 / 266 245. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Ocular muscles 246 / 266 246. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Hepatic precoma D. Taboparesis 247 / 266 247. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cataract D. Cirrhosis of liver 248 / 266 248. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Abducens palsy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 249 / 266 249. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypotension 250 / 266 250. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 251 / 266 251. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trochlear nerve C. Facial nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 252 / 266 252. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Arrhythmia D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 253 / 266 253. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Pick's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 254 / 266 254. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Diarrhoea C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 255 / 266 255. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Clopidogrel D. Pentoxifylline 256 / 266 256. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 257 / 266 257. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 258 / 266 258. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Hyperkinesia C. Normal reflexes D. Rigidity 259 / 266 259. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 260 / 266 260. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 261 / 266 261. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Red nucleus D. Caudate nucleus 262 / 266 262. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Cerebellar disorder 263 / 266 263. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Immune disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 264 / 266 264. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 265 / 266 265. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Dystonia C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 266 / 266 266. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Hyperpyrexia C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. 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