Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Hyperkinesia C. Tremor D. Normal reflexes 2 / 266 2. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 3 / 266 3. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Diarrhoea D. Onycholysis 4 / 266 4. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Apraxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 5 / 266 5. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Sudden onset C. Small, spastic tongue D. Brisk jaw jerk 6 / 266 6. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Headache 7 / 266 7. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. E. coli D. H. influenzae 8 / 266 8. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 9 / 266 9. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 10 / 266 10. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Syringobulbia D. Cluster headache 11 / 266 11. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 12 / 266 12. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Ocular muscles 13 / 266 13. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Aortic incompetence C. Parkinsonism D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 14 / 266 14. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 15 / 266 15. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Complete ptosis C. Enophthalmos D. Constricted pupil 16 / 266 16. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 17 / 266 17. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Nystagmus C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Aphasia 18 / 266 18. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Agnosia D. Acalculia 19 / 266 19. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 20 / 266 20. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 21 / 266 21. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Strangers C. Pain D. High places 22 / 266 22. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Refsum's disease D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 23 / 266 23. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Kuru C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 24 / 266 24. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Midbrain 25 / 266 25. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 26 / 266 26. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 27 / 266 27. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked dominant 28 / 266 28. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 29 / 266 29. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 30 / 266 30. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hyponatremia 31 / 266 31. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Hypothermia D. Disconjugate gaze 32 / 266 32. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Agraphia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 33 / 266 33. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Perceptual rivalry C. Vibration sensation D. Two-point localisation 34 / 266 34. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 35 / 266 35. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral hemorrhage 36 / 266 36. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Hemiparesis C. Coma D. Facial weakness 37 / 266 37. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Oesophagitis D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 38 / 266 38. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 39 / 266 39. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Pectoralis major C. Infraspinatus D. Deltoid 40 / 266 40. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Tuberculous meningitis 41 / 266 41. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 42 / 266 42. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lubeluzole C. Lamotrigine D. Vigabatrin 43 / 266 43. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 44 / 266 44. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 45 / 266 45. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Myopathy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 46 / 266 46. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 47 / 266 47. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Tetany C. Chorea D. Athetosis 48 / 266 48. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Basal ganglia infarction 49 / 266 49. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Wilson's disease C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Rheumatic fever 50 / 266 50. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Lax abdominal wall C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 51 / 266 51. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 52 / 266 52. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe 53 / 266 53. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Periorbital pain C. Male dominance D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 54 / 266 54. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Weber-Christian disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common migraine has aura C. Common in women D. Hemicranial headache 56 / 266 56. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Aura phase of migraine D. Digitalis toxicity 57 / 266 57. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Wilson's disease 58 / 266 58. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Wilson's disease C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Galactosaemia 59 / 266 59. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Tuberous sclerosis D. von Recklinghausen's disease 60 / 266 60. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 61 / 266 61. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cerebral palsy 62 / 266 62. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. 5% dextrose C. IV mannitol D. IV quinine 63 / 266 63. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysphagia C. Dysarthria D. Nasal regurgitation 64 / 266 64. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 65 / 266 65. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Trauma C. Encephalitis D. Epilepsy 66 / 266 66. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Diplopia C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 67 / 266 67. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1 D. S1,S2 68 / 266 68. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 69 / 266 69. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 70 / 266 70. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. May be associated with malignancy D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 71 / 266 71. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 72 / 266 72. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Scoliosis 73 / 266 73. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 74 / 266 74. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Nitrofurantoin D. Methotrexate 75 / 266 75. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Multiple sclerosis 76 / 266 76. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Convulsions D. Focal neuro deficit 77 / 266 77. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Dysphasia C. Paraesthesia D. Diplopia 78 / 266 78. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Reading a book 79 / 266 79. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 80 / 266 80. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Immune disorder D. Metabolic disorder 81 / 266 81. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Hysteria C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 82 / 266 82. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 83 / 266 83. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Acromegaly C. Infertility D. Parkinsonism 84 / 266 84. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Hyperthyroidism 85 / 266 85. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Convulsions C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Optic neuritis 86 / 266 86. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor spasm D. Flexor plantar response 87 / 266 87. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Thalamus C. Ventral pons D. Internal capsule 88 / 266 88. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Alzheimer's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 89 / 266 89. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Confabulation D. Associated with lacunar infarction 90 / 266 90. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 91 / 266 91. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 92 / 266 92. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Polymyositis 93 / 266 93. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Post-encephalitic D. Huntington's chorea 94 / 266 94. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Temporal 95 / 266 95. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Sensory functions D. Proprioception 96 / 266 96. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Inflammatory C. Hemorrhagic D. Embolic 97 / 266 97. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Haloperidol C. Benzodiazepine D. Chlorpromazine 98 / 266 98. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 99 / 266 99. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Leprosy C. Syphilis D. Multiple sclerosis 100 / 266 100. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 101 / 266 101. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Facial nerve 102 / 266 102. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 103 / 266 103. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Leprosy C. Raynaud's disease D. Diabetic neuropathy 104 / 266 104. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 105 / 266 105. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Cerebellar signs 106 / 266 106. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trochlear nerve C. Facial nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 107 / 266 107. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Pick's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 108 / 266 108. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Hypertonia C. Absent deep reflexes D. Coma 109 / 266 109. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Periodic paralysis C. Lathyrism D. Elapidae group snake bite 110 / 266 110. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercalcemia 111 / 266 111. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Polycystic kidney D. Takayasu's disease 112 / 266 112. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 113 / 266 113. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Dolichocephaly 114 / 266 114. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Cortex 115 / 266 115. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Rasagiline C. Tiagabine D. Pramipexole 116 / 266 116. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 117 / 266 117. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Rabies C. Poliomyelitis D. Myasthenia gravis 118 / 266 118. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Babinski's sign C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 119 / 266 119. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 120 / 266 120. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Ataxia D. Hyperglycaemia 121 / 266 121. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Addison's disease 122 / 266 122. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Selegiline C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 123 / 266 123. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 124 / 266 124. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 125 / 266 125. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 126 / 266 126. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Syringomyelia 127 / 266 127. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Dystonia D. Hemiballismus 128 / 266 128. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Duchenne myopathy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 129 / 266 129. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Medulla C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 130 / 266 130. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Hysteria C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Brain tumor 131 / 266 131. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Midbrain lesion 132 / 266 132. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Huntington's chorea D. Punch-drunk syndrome 133 / 266 133. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 134 / 266 134. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypothyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 135 / 266 135. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Arrhythmia 136 / 266 136. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ocular myopathy 137 / 266 137. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Ptosis C. Brachycephaly D. Frontal baldness 138 / 266 138. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Unequal pupil 139 / 266 139. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acromegaly C. Galactorrhoea D. Parkinsonism 140 / 266 140. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myelopathy C. Neuropathy D. Myopathy 141 / 266 141. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 142 / 266 142. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Anal reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Grasp reflex 143 / 266 143. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Phenytoin 144 / 266 144. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 145 / 266 145. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 146 / 266 146. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Limb shortening 147 / 266 147. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Vllth 148 / 266 148. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Venous thrombosis 149 / 266 149. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Wasting of muscles C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Absent tendon reflexes 150 / 266 150. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 24 hours C. 2 weeks D. 96 hours 151 / 266 151. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 152 / 266 152. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Eye opening C. Motor response D. Verbal response 153 / 266 153. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Cervical spine D. Brainstem 154 / 266 154. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 155 / 266 155. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Corpus striatum D. Temporal lobe 156 / 266 156. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 157 / 266 157. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Complex partial D. Petit mal 158 / 266 158. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Oculomotor palsy 159 / 266 159. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Negri bodies 160 / 266 160. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Choreoathetosis 161 / 266 161. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 162 / 266 162. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Radial nerve palsy 163 / 266 163. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Meningism D. Acoustic neurofibroma 164 / 266 164. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Horner's syndrome C. Pyramidal lesion D. Hiccups 165 / 266 165. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Calcification within a lesion C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 166 / 266 166. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 167 / 266 167. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Olfactory groove C. Sylvian fissure D. Cerebello-pontine angle 168 / 266 168. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Leukodystrophy 169 / 266 169. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 170 / 266 170. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Megaloblastic anemia 171 / 266 171. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Periodic paralysis D. Botulism 172 / 266 172. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 173 / 266 173. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Malignant hypertension D. Hypoxia 174 / 266 174. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Gonda sign D. Rossolimo's sign 175 / 266 175. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Parkinsonism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Gross pedal oedema 176 / 266 176. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptive pills 177 / 266 177. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Sarcoidosis D. Infectious mononucleosis 178 / 266 178. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 179 / 266 179. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Hyperpyrexia C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 180 / 266 180. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Deafness B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 181 / 266 181. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 182 / 266 182. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 183 / 266 183. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Perspiration C. Confabulation D. Tremor 184 / 266 184. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Putamen D. Thalamus 185 / 266 185. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Schizophrenia D. Mania 186 / 266 186. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C4, 5 187 / 266 187. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Sleep paralysis D. Cataplexy 188 / 266 188. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Cerebellar disorder D. Pontine glioma 189 / 266 189. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Advanced pregnancy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 190 / 266 190. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 191 / 266 191. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Shagreen patch C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Pompholyx 192 / 266 192. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Depression 193 / 266 193. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 194 / 266 194. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Head injury D. Epilepsy 195 / 266 195. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Neurofibroma D. Spinal epidural abscess 196 / 266 196. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Deep Jaundice C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Froin's loculation syndrome 197 / 266 197. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Dysphonia C. Aphasia D. Monotonous speech 198 / 266 198. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Clopidogrel C. Ticlopidine D. Aspirin 199 / 266 199. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 200 / 266 200. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Diplopia 201 / 266 201. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. CT scan D. MRI scan 202 / 266 202. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Taboparesis C. Hepatic precoma D. Friedreich' s ataxia 203 / 266 203. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 204 / 266 204. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Fourth ventricle 205 / 266 205. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Glioblastoma C. Astrocytoma D. Metastatic 206 / 266 206. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Restlessness C. Poliomyelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 207 / 266 207. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Emetine C. Febuxostat D. Zidovudine 208 / 266 208. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Central scotoma C. Tunnel vision D. Homonymous hemianopia 209 / 266 209. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Increased tone C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Sensory ataxia 210 / 266 210. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Livedo reticularis C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 211 / 266 211. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 212 / 266 212. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Deep coma D. Hypokalemia 213 / 266 213. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Old age C. Myotonic pupil D. Organophosphorus poisoning 214 / 266 214. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Haloperidol 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Areflexia C. Apraxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 216 / 266 216. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 217 / 266 217. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 218 / 266 218. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Dantrolene D. Methoxyflurane 219 / 266 219. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Motor neuron disease C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy 220 / 266 220. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Masked facies C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Emotional incontinence 221 / 266 221. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Albright's disease D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 222 / 266 222. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Oculomotor nerve D. Ciliary ganglion 223 / 266 223. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Fluoxetine C. Sertraline D. Paroxetine 224 / 266 224. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Pseudoclonus C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Exaggerated deep reflex 225 / 266 225. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Cord compression C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 226 / 266 226. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Flumazenil C. Carbamazepine D. Amphetamines 227 / 266 227. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Depression D. Visual hallucinations 228 / 266 228. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Tetanus D. Quinsy 229 / 266 229. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Myxoedema C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Alcohol 230 / 266 230. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Relief by haloperidol C. Coprolalia D. Dementia 231 / 266 231. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 232 / 266 232. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-18 233 / 266 233. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Dementia C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 234 / 266 234. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Raised intracranial pressure 235 / 266 235. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T4 D. T2 236 / 266 236. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 237 / 266 237. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Waddling gait C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Argyll Robertson pupil 238 / 266 238. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 239 / 266 239. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Absent superficial reflex 240 / 266 240. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Amyloidosis C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pyridoxine deficiency 241 / 266 241. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Anemia C. Babinski's sign D. Ankle clonus 242 / 266 242. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Myotonia 243 / 266 243. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Mania C. SIADH D. Cluster headache 244 / 266 244. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 245 / 266 245. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 246 / 266 246. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 247 / 266 247. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Meningioma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 248 / 266 248. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 249 / 266 249. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypotension D. Hypoxia 250 / 266 250. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Metoclopramide-induced 251 / 266 251. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Pinealomas 252 / 266 252. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 253 / 266 253. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Poliomyelitis 254 / 266 254. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 255 / 266 255. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Polymyositis 256 / 266 256. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Mental retardation C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Seizures 257 / 266 257. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Loss of immediate recall C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 258 / 266 258. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Nerve conduction study C. Electromyography D. Muscle enzyme study 259 / 266 259. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 260 / 266 260. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Amiodarone 261 / 266 261. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Retinal hemorrhage 262 / 266 262. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Myodonus C. Migraine D. Psychosis 263 / 266 263. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Donazepril is used in treatment 264 / 266 264. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Increased CSF pressure 265 / 266 265. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Infantile spasm 266 / 266 266. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Oculomotor palsy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology