Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Red nucleus 2 / 266 2. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Myotonic dystrophy 3 / 266 3. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Exaggerated deep reflex 4 / 266 4. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. AV malformations C. Systemic hypertension D. Berry aneurysm rupture 5 / 266 5. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Aspirin C. Pentoxifylline D. Ticlopidine 6 / 266 6. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Migraine C. Myodonus D. Psychosis 7 / 266 7. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Pyramidal signs 8 / 266 8. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Chronic motor neuron disease 9 / 266 9. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 10 / 266 10. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Neurofibroma 11 / 266 11. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Vibration sensation D. Graphesthesia 12 / 266 12. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Petit mal 13 / 266 13. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Has a good prognosis in children D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 14 / 266 14. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Facial nerve D. Vagus nerve 15 / 266 15. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Deep coma 16 / 266 16. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T4 C. T1 D. C8 17 / 266 17. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Autonomic dysfunction 18 / 266 18. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 19 / 266 19. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 20 / 266 20. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 21 / 266 21. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myopathy C. Myelopathy D. Encephalitis 22 / 266 22. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Advanced pregnancy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 23 / 266 23. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 24 / 266 24. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 25 / 266 25. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 26 / 266 26. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. H. influenzae C. Pneumococcus D. Meningococcous 27 / 266 27. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Dystonia 28 / 266 28. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 29 / 266 29. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Brain tumor 30 / 266 30. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV quinine 31 / 266 31. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. SIADH C. Convulsions D. Optic neuritis 32 / 266 32. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 33 / 266 33. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysarthria D. Dysphagia 34 / 266 34. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Alzheimer's disease 35 / 266 35. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer's disease 36 / 266 36. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Polymyositis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 37 / 266 37. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae snake bite 38 / 266 38. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 39 / 266 39. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 40 / 266 40. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 41 / 266 41. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Lathyrism 42 / 266 42. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 43 / 266 43. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 44 / 266 44. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Alzheimer's disease 45 / 266 45. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 46 / 266 46. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 47 / 266 47. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 48 / 266 48. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Clonus C. Spasticity D. Fasciculations 49 / 266 49. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Shagreen patch 50 / 266 50. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Strangers C. Pain D. Animals 51 / 266 51. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Wilson's disease C. Rheumatic fever D. Thyrotoxicosis 52 / 266 52. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Absent deep reflexes C. Retention of urine D. Hypertonia 53 / 266 53. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 54 / 266 54. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral hemorrhage 55 / 266 55. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 56 / 266 56. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Infraspinatus C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 57 / 266 57. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 58 / 266 58. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 59 / 266 59. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 60 / 266 60. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Cerebral diplegia D. Parkinsonism 61 / 266 61. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 62 / 266 62. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 63 / 266 63. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Myasthenia gravis C. Snakebite D. Poliomyelitis 64 / 266 64. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Immune disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 65 / 266 65. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 66 / 266 66. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 67 / 266 67. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Multiple sclerosis 68 / 266 68. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 69 / 266 69. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Tetanus 70 / 266 70. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. TOCP poisoning C. Amyloidosis D. Acute intermittent porphyria 71 / 266 71. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 72 / 266 72. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Blindness C. Focal neuro deficit D. Convulsions 73 / 266 73. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Inflammatory C. Embolic D. Demyelinating 74 / 266 74. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 75 / 266 75. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Trypanosomiasis D. Subdural hematoma 76 / 266 76. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cortex 77 / 266 77. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Babinski's sign C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Small, spastic tongue 78 / 266 78. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Hysteria C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Duchenne myopathy 79 / 266 79. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal 80 / 266 80. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 81 / 266 81. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Puerperal sepsis 82 / 266 82. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hypothyroidism C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Ataxia 83 / 266 83. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Amblyopia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Phenytoin toxicity 84 / 266 84. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 85 / 266 85. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 86 / 266 86. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Pick's disease 87 / 266 87. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. Vth C. IIIrd D. Xth 88 / 266 88. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Paraesthesia 89 / 266 89. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Visual hallucinations C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 90 / 266 90. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Febrile 91 / 266 91. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Tremor C. Perspiration D. Visual hallucinations 92 / 266 92. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Tetany D. Athetosis 93 / 266 93. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 94 / 266 94. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 95 / 266 95. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cerebral palsy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 96 / 266 96. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Oculomotor nerve C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Ciliary ganglion 97 / 266 97. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Wasting of muscles D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 98 / 266 98. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Acromegaly C. Galactorrhoea D. Gynaecomastia 99 / 266 99. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic carcinoma 100 / 266 100. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Ependymoma C. Meningioma D. Phaeochromocytoma 101 / 266 101. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1 C. L5,S1 D. S1,S2 102 / 266 102. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 103 / 266 103. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Emetine C. Lovastatin D. Febuxostat 104 / 266 104. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 105 / 266 105. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Horner's syndrome D. Hutchinson's pupil 106 / 266 106. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 107 / 266 107. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Tone and power C. Stereognosis D. Nutrition of muscles 108 / 266 108. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. EMG C. Sensory functions D. Cerebellar functions 109 / 266 109. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Ataxia C. Urinary incontinence D. Normal intellectual activity 110 / 266 110. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Mass reflex D. Flexor plantar response 111 / 266 111. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 112 / 266 112. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 113 / 266 113. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Multiple sclerosis C. Pituitary tumors D. Posterior fossa tumors 114 / 266 114. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Phenytoin 115 / 266 115. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Ptosis C. Brachycephaly D. Frontal baldness 116 / 266 116. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Cerebellar disorder C. Alcoholism D. Parkinsonism 117 / 266 117. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Aortic incompetence 118 / 266 118. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Acute renal failure D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 119 / 266 119. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Diplopia C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 120 / 266 120. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 121 / 266 121. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 122 / 266 122. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 123 / 266 123. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Alcohol C. Myxoedema D. Valproic acid 124 / 266 124. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 125 / 266 125. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 126 / 266 126. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 127 / 266 127. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Viral or post-vaccinal 128 / 266 128. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 129 / 266 129. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Sylvian fissure C. Over visual cortex D. Olfactory groove 130 / 266 130. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 131 / 266 131. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 132 / 266 132. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 133 / 266 133. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 134 / 266 134. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 135 / 266 135. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 136 / 266 136. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 137 / 266 137. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 138 / 266 138. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 139 / 266 139. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Oculomotor palsy 140 / 266 140. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Venous thrombosis 141 / 266 141. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Mania 142 / 266 142. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Myositis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Subacute combined degeneration 143 / 266 143. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Malignant hypertension C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 144 / 266 144. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Basal ganglia infarction 145 / 266 145. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 146 / 266 146. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 147 / 266 147. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 3 weeks C. 24 hours D. 2 weeks 148 / 266 148. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Glioma C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Ependymoma 149 / 266 149. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 150 / 266 150. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Cyclophosphamide C. Interferon D. Corticosteroid 151 / 266 151. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Gross pedal oedema 152 / 266 152. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 153 / 266 153. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Hepatic precoma D. Taboparesis 154 / 266 154. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Brain tumour 155 / 266 155. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 156 / 266 156. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Cerebral atrophy D. Neurosyphilis 157 / 266 157. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 158 / 266 158. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Polyneuropathy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 159 / 266 159. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 160 / 266 160. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Ethambutol C. Syphilis D. Multiple sclerosis 161 / 266 161. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Motor response D. Autonomic response 162 / 266 162. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Loss of immediate recall C. Defect in learning D. Confabulation 163 / 266 163. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Frontal lobe 164 / 266 164. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 165 / 266 165. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 166 / 266 166. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Agraphia C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 167 / 266 167. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 168 / 266 168. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 169 / 266 169. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Myasthenia Gravis 170 / 266 170. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Myoclonic seizures D. Tonic seizures 171 / 266 171. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Nystagmus C. Aphasia D. Papilloedema 172 / 266 172. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Cerebral cortex 173 / 266 173. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Levodopa D. Amantadine 174 / 266 174. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Aura phase of migraine C. Digitalis toxicity D. Cerebellar infarction 175 / 266 175. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 176 / 266 176. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 177 / 266 177. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 178 / 266 178. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Choreoathetosis C. Mental retardation D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 179 / 266 179. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypotension 180 / 266 180. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 181 / 266 181. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Apraxia C. Aphasia D. Agnosia 182 / 266 182. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Haloperidol C. Clomipramine D. Carbamazepine 183 / 266 183. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 184 / 266 184. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 185 / 266 185. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 186 / 266 186. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 187 / 266 187. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cord compression D. Acute transverse myelitis 188 / 266 188. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Poliomyelitis D. Restlessness 189 / 266 189. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. INH C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 190 / 266 190. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 191 / 266 191. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Cortex C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 192 / 266 192. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Dolichocephaly 193 / 266 193. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Midbrain C. Putamen D. Cerebellum 194 / 266 194. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypocalcemia 195 / 266 195. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Peripheral neuropathy 196 / 266 196. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Reading a book C. Looking in front D. Looking to the roof 197 / 266 197. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Titubation C. Hypermetria D. Dysrhythmokinesis 198 / 266 198. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Radial nerve palsy C. Syringomyelia D. Poliomyelitis 199 / 266 199. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Head injury D. Transient ischemic attack 200 / 266 200. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Ataxia C. Diarrhoea D. Hypothyroidism 201 / 266 201. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 202 / 266 202. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Paroxetine C. Sertraline D. Fluoxetine 203 / 266 203. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Sensory dysfunction D. Argyll Robertson pupil 204 / 266 204. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 205 / 266 205. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Headache C. Convulsions D. Non-projectile vomiting 206 / 266 206. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C6, 7 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 207 / 266 207. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Felbamate C. Lubeluzole D. Vigabatrin 208 / 266 208. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Cocaine D. Amphetamines 209 / 266 209. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle enzyme study D. Muscle biopsy 210 / 266 210. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Ataxia C. Areflexia D. External ophthalmoplegia 211 / 266 211. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Myotonia C. Manual labourers D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 212 / 266 212. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Complete ptosis C. Enophthalmos D. Constricted pupil 213 / 266 213. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 214 / 266 214. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Increased tone 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Periorbital pain D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 216 / 266 216. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 217 / 266 217. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Alcohol C. Vincristine D. Arsenic 218 / 266 218. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 219 / 266 219. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 220 / 266 220. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Polymyositis D. Motor neuron disease 221 / 266 221. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Central scotoma C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Tunnel vision 222 / 266 222. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Tabes dorsalis 223 / 266 223. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Phobia C. Mania D. Depression 224 / 266 224. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Drop attacks 225 / 266 225. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 226 / 266 226. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Tuberculosis 227 / 266 227. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Normokalaemia 228 / 266 228. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Aflatoxin C. Thiocyanates D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 229 / 266 229. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Schaumann bodies 230 / 266 230. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pendular nystagmus 231 / 266 231. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Osteomalacia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 232 / 266 232. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 233 / 266 233. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Xanthochromia C. High protein content D. Increased CSF pressure 234 / 266 234. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Arrhythmia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tight aortic stenosis 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Glossitis C. Babinski's sign D. Anemia 236 / 266 236. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 237 / 266 237. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 238 / 266 238. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Obesity D. Hysteria 239 / 266 239. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Myotonic pupil 240 / 266 240. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 241 / 266 241. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 242 / 266 242. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 243 / 266 243. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Acute transverse myelitis 244 / 266 244. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Glioblastoma C. Astrocytoma D. Meningioma 245 / 266 245. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. PET scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. CT scan 246 / 266 246. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 247 / 266 247. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Medulla 248 / 266 248. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Hiccups C. Ataxia D. Pyramidal lesion 249 / 266 249. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-21 250 / 266 250. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 251 / 266 251. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Rigidity C. Tremor D. Normal reflexes 252 / 266 252. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Sucking reflex 253 / 266 253. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Epilepsy C. Cataplexy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 254 / 266 254. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Hypothermia C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 255 / 266 255. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 256 / 266 256. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Extensor plantar response C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Masked facies 257 / 266 257. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic neuropathy 258 / 266 258. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 259 / 266 259. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Neurofibromatosis 260 / 266 260. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 261 / 266 261. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 262 / 266 262. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Weil's disease D. Enteric fever 263 / 266 263. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 264 / 266 264. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 265 / 266 265. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Ocular myopathy 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Babinski's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Gonda sign LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology