Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 2 / 266 2. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypervitaminosis D 3 / 266 3. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Encephalitis C. Neuropathy D. Myelopathy 4 / 266 4. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Quinsy 5 / 266 5. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 6 / 266 6. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 7 / 266 7. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 8 / 266 8. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 9 / 266 9. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Perspiration C. Confabulation D. Visual hallucinations 10 / 266 10. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 11 / 266 11. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Wilson's disease C. Haemochromatosis D. Myotonic dystrophy 12 / 266 12. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Tunnel vision C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Central scotoma 13 / 266 13. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Internal capsule 14 / 266 14. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Acromegaly C. Gynaecomastia D. Parkinsonism 15 / 266 15. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 16 / 266 16. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Arrhythmia 17 / 266 17. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Altered consciousness C. Convulsions D. Non-projectile vomiting 18 / 266 18. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Cerebral cortex 19 / 266 19. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Hysteria C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 20 / 266 20. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Pinealomas D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 21 / 266 21. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. L5,S1 C. S1 D. S1,S2 22 / 266 22. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Inflammatory C. Demyelinating D. Embolic 23 / 266 23. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Froin's loculation syndrome 24 / 266 24. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Leprosy C. Raynaud's disease D. Diabetic neuropathy 25 / 266 25. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Facial nerve palsy 26 / 266 26. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 27 / 266 27. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Bell's palsy D. Syringobulbia 28 / 266 28. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Ependymoma C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Glioma 29 / 266 29. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 30 / 266 30. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Weber-Christian disease C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 31 / 266 31. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Snakebite C. Poliomyelitis D. Myasthenia gravis 32 / 266 32. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Cerebellar infarction C. Multiple sclerosis D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 33 / 266 33. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Chlorpromazine C. Benzodiazepine D. Haloperidol 34 / 266 34. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Apraxia 35 / 266 35. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Advanced pregnancy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 36 / 266 36. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Poliomyelitis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Syringomyelia 37 / 266 37. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Organophosphorus poisoning 38 / 266 38. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Botulinus poisoning C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae group snake bite 39 / 266 39. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Ocular myopathy 40 / 266 40. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Lower pons C. Upper pons D. Midbrain 41 / 266 41. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Malignant hypertension C. Hypoxia D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 42 / 266 42. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 43 / 266 43. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 44 / 266 44. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Leprosy 45 / 266 45. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 46 / 266 46. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 47 / 266 47. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Cortex C. Ventral pons D. Internal capsule 48 / 266 48. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 49 / 266 49. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Perceptual rivalry C. Two-point localisation D. Vibration sensation 50 / 266 50. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Onycholysis 51 / 266 51. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Stereognosis C. Involuntary movements D. Nutrition of muscles 52 / 266 52. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Emotional excitement C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. AV malformations 53 / 266 53. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Immune disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 54 / 266 54. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Platybasia C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 55 / 266 55. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Xth C. Vllth D. IIIrd 56 / 266 56. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Migraine C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 57 / 266 57. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hypokalemia D. Deep coma 58 / 266 58. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 59 / 266 59. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Ciliary ganglion D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 60 / 266 60. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Lathyrism 61 / 266 61. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 62 / 266 62. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypercalcemia 63 / 266 63. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Acute renal failure 64 / 266 64. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Multiple sclerosis 65 / 266 65. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Sarcoidosis 66 / 266 66. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 67 / 266 67. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Trigeminal neuralgia 68 / 266 68. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 69 / 266 69. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 70 / 266 70. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Anal reflex C. Snout reflex D. Grasp reflex 71 / 266 71. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. EMG 72 / 266 72. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 73 / 266 73. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 74 / 266 74. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left atrial myxoma C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 75 / 266 75. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Occipital lobe 76 / 266 76. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Dementia D. Ataxia 77 / 266 77. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 78 / 266 78. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Ethosuximide 79 / 266 79. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Frontal baldness C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 80 / 266 80. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Choroid plexus C. Basal ganglia D. Dura matter 81 / 266 81. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Unequal pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 82 / 266 82. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 83 / 266 83. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 84 / 266 84. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 85 / 266 85. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 86 / 266 86. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Tuberculosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 87 / 266 87. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 88 / 266 88. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 89 / 266 89. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 90 / 266 90. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Myoclonus C. Hemiballismus D. Chorea 91 / 266 91. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 92 / 266 92. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Puerperal sepsis D. Venous sinus thrombosis 93 / 266 93. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Athletes C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 94 / 266 94. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 95 / 266 95. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking in front C. Looking to the roof D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 96 / 266 96. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Osteomalacia D. Hyperglycaemia 97 / 266 97. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Ethambutol C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 98 / 266 98. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 99 / 266 99. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Depression C. Paranoia D. Phobia 100 / 266 100. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. T4 D. C8 101 / 266 101. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Valproic acid C. Myxoedema D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 102 / 266 102. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Leucodystrophy 103 / 266 103. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 104 / 266 104. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 105 / 266 105. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 106 / 266 106. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Facial nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 107 / 266 107. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Infertility 108 / 266 108. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Toxin 109 / 266 109. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 110 / 266 110. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 111 / 266 111. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 112 / 266 112. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 113 / 266 113. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Leprosy D. Polymyositis 114 / 266 114. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 115 / 266 115. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 116 / 266 116. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 117 / 266 117. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 118 / 266 118. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 119 / 266 119. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Tonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 120 / 266 120. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Loss of immediate recall C. Defect in learning D. Confabulation 121 / 266 121. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 122 / 266 122. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Sleep paralysis C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 123 / 266 123. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Optic neuritis D. Convulsions 124 / 266 124. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Steroid myopathy 125 / 266 125. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Poliomyelitis 126 / 266 126. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 127 / 266 127. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Occipital C. Frontal D. Parietal 128 / 266 128. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Rigidity C. Normal reflexes D. Tremor 129 / 266 129. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Vestibular lesion 130 / 266 130. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 131 / 266 131. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerve 132 / 266 132. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Pseudoparkinsonism 133 / 266 133. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Subacute combined degeneration 134 / 266 134. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Rheumatic fever 135 / 266 135. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 136 / 266 136. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tay-Sachs disease 137 / 266 137. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 138 / 266 138. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Parkinsonism C. Motor neuron disease D. Multiple sclerosis 139 / 266 139. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 140 / 266 140. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Thiocyanates C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 141 / 266 141. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Livedo reticularis 142 / 266 142. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Periorbital pain C. Male dominance D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 143 / 266 143. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 144 / 266 144. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 145 / 266 145. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 146 / 266 146. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Glossitis C. Anemia D. Babinski's sign 147 / 266 147. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Thalamus D. Putamen 148 / 266 148. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 149 / 266 149. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Pick's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Alzheimer's disease 150 / 266 150. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Abducens nerve 151 / 266 151. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Dementia in AIDS C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 152 / 266 152. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Infantile spasm C. Complex partial D. Petit mal 153 / 266 153. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Phaeochromocytoma 154 / 266 154. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 155 / 266 155. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Astrocytoma D. Metastatic 156 / 266 156. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Carbamazepine C. Haloperidol D. Clomipramine 157 / 266 157. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral thrombosis 158 / 266 158. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 159 / 266 159. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Negri bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Lewy bodies 160 / 266 160. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Sensory ataxia 161 / 266 161. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypermetria D. Hypertonia 162 / 266 162. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Kuru C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Rubella panencephalitis 163 / 266 163. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Interferon C. Cyclophosphamide D. Immunoglobulin 164 / 266 164. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 165 / 266 165. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 166 / 266 166. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Obesity D. Hysteria 167 / 266 167. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 168 / 266 168. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Paralysis C. Hypothermia D. Pin-point pupil 169 / 266 169. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Apraxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 170 / 266 170. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Babinski's sign C. Gonda sign D. Chaddock's sign 171 / 266 171. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 172 / 266 172. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 173 / 266 173. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Alzheimer's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Huntington's disease 174 / 266 174. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 175 / 266 175. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 176 / 266 176. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Papilloedema C. Nystagmus D. Aphasia 177 / 266 177. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 178 / 266 178. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. CT scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. MRI scan 179 / 266 179. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 180 / 266 180. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 181 / 266 181. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Polycystic kidney C. Takayasu's disease D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 182 / 266 182. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 183 / 266 183. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Aspirin C. Pentoxifylline D. Clopidogrel 184 / 266 184. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine 185 / 266 185. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Oculomotor palsy D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 186 / 266 186. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Depression 187 / 266 187. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. Glucocorticoids C. IV quinine D. IV mannitol 188 / 266 188. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Cluster headache C. SIADH D. Polycythaemia vera 189 / 266 189. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Duodenal stenosis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer's disease 190 / 266 190. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Pseudoclonus C. Distal muscle weakness D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 191 / 266 191. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased deep reflexes C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 192 / 266 192. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Neurosyphilis 193 / 266 193. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Gross pedal oedema 194 / 266 194. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Convulsions C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Blindness 195 / 266 195. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrigine D. Felbamate 196 / 266 196. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Cerebellar disorder 197 / 266 197. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Meningococcous C. Pneumococcus D. E. coli 198 / 266 198. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 199 / 266 199. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Diplopia 200 / 266 200. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Brain tumour 201 / 266 201. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 202 / 266 202. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. High protein content D. Increased CSF pressure 203 / 266 203. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Myasthenia gravis D. Polymyositis 204 / 266 204. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Cervical spondylosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Multiple sclerosis 205 / 266 205. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Marathon runner D. Hypoglycaemic coma 206 / 266 206. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Pontine glioma D. Amblyopia 207 / 266 207. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Olfactory groove C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Over visual cortex 208 / 266 208. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Has a good prognosis in children D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 209 / 266 209. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Horner's syndrome C. Hiccups D. Pyramidal lesion 210 / 266 210. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Acute transverse myelitis 211 / 266 211. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Aphasia C. Facial weakness D. Coma 212 / 266 212. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Carbamazepine C. Flumazenil D. Amphetamines 213 / 266 213. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 214 / 266 214. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cervical spine 215 / 266 215. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Equivocal plantar response C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Weakness and spasticity 216 / 266 216. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Coprolalia 217 / 266 217. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure sensory stroke 218 / 266 218. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hemicranial headache C. Common in women D. Hereditary predisposition 219 / 266 219. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 220 / 266 220. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 221 / 266 221. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 222 / 266 222. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Sudden onset D. Babinski's sign 223 / 266 223. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Putamen D. Caudate nucleus 224 / 266 224. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 225 / 266 225. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Aortic incompetence C. Cerebellar disorder D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 226 / 266 226. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Rasagiline C. Ropinirole D. Pramipexole 227 / 266 227. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 228 / 266 228. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral infarction 229 / 266 229. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 230 / 266 230. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hyponatremia 231 / 266 231. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Acalculia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Aphasia 232 / 266 232. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 233 / 266 233. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Fasciculations C. Clonus D. Babinski's sign 234 / 266 234. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones D. Cephalosporins 235 / 266 235. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Cerebellar infarction C. Aura phase of migraine D. Digitalis toxicity 236 / 266 236. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Leukodystrophy 237 / 266 237. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Myopathy C. Cervical rib D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 238 / 266 238. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Head injury C. Transient ischemic attack D. Epilepsy 239 / 266 239. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 240 / 266 240. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-18 241 / 266 241. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle enzyme study D. Electromyography 242 / 266 242. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 243 / 266 243. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Scoliosis D. Meningioma 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Hypertonia C. Absent deep reflexes D. Coma 245 / 266 245. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 246 / 266 246. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypoxia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocapnia 247 / 266 247. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Trypanosomiasis 248 / 266 248. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 249 / 266 249. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 250 / 266 250. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Mental retardation D. Anencephaly 251 / 266 251. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Eye opening 252 / 266 252. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Hepatic precoma C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Subacute combined degeneration 253 / 266 253. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Thrombocytopenia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Ataxia 254 / 266 254. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. INH C. Nitrofurantoin D. Methotrexate 255 / 266 255. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Encephalitis C. Epilepsy D. Febrile 256 / 266 256. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 257 / 266 257. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysarthria D. Dysphagia 258 / 266 258. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Meningioma 259 / 266 259. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Acalculia 260 / 266 260. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 261 / 266 261. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Dysphasia C. Diplopia D. Paraesthesia 262 / 266 262. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 263 / 266 263. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Phenytoin C. Atenolol D. Verapamil 264 / 266 264. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 265 / 266 265. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Amantadine C. Selegiline D. Trihexyphenidyl 266 / 266 266. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Strangers C. High places D. 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