Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Hepatic precoma D. Friedreich' s ataxia 2 / 266 2. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Thalamus 3 / 266 3. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Fluvoxamine 4 / 266 4. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Lower pons D. Midbrain 5 / 266 5. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 6 / 266 6. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Interferon C. Immunoglobulin D. Cyclophosphamide 7 / 266 7. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Temporal C. Frontal D. Occipital 8 / 266 8. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 9 / 266 9. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Botulism 10 / 266 10. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 11 / 266 11. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 12 / 266 12. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Brain tumour D. Diabetes mellitus 13 / 266 13. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Cardiac tamponade 14 / 266 14. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Duchenne myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Peripheral neuropathy 15 / 266 15. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 16 / 266 16. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypoparathyroidism 18 / 266 18. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Loss of recent memory C. Presence of nystagmus D. Associated with lacunar infarction 19 / 266 19. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 20 / 266 20. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Ataxia 21 / 266 21. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Common migraine has aura D. Hemicranial headache 22 / 266 22. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Alzheimer's disease 23 / 266 23. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Cerebellar infarction C. Aura phase of migraine D. Digitalis toxicity 24 / 266 24. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Ankle oedema D. Fatty liver 25 / 266 25. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Demyelinating 26 / 266 26. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 27 / 266 27. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 28 / 266 28. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Dementia 29 / 266 29. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Calcification within a lesion D. Pituitary tumors 30 / 266 30. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 31 / 266 31. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Pinealomas C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 32 / 266 32. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Raised intracranial pressure 33 / 266 33. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. May occur spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 34 / 266 34. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 35 / 266 35. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Emetine C. Lovastatin D. Zidovudine 36 / 266 36. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 37 / 266 37. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1 D. S1,S2 38 / 266 38. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Pick's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 39 / 266 39. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 40 / 266 40. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Male dominance D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 41 / 266 41. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 42 / 266 42. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 43 / 266 43. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 44 / 266 44. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Has a good prognosis in children D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 45 / 266 45. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Autoimmunity 46 / 266 46. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Thalamus 47 / 266 47. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Hyperpyrexia C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Pseudoparkinsonism 48 / 266 48. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Oculomotor nerve D. Ciliary ganglion 49 / 266 49. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Diplopia D. Drop attacks 50 / 266 50. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Subacute combined degeneration 51 / 266 51. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 52 / 266 52. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Huntington's chorea D. Alzheimer's disease 53 / 266 53. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercalcemia 54 / 266 54. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Electromyography C. Muscle biopsy D. Muscle enzyme study 55 / 266 55. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Petit mal 56 / 266 56. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 57 / 266 57. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Mass reflex D. Flexor plantar response 58 / 266 58. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. EMG C. Sensory functions D. Proprioception 59 / 266 59. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Refsum's disease D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 60 / 266 60. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Involuntary movements C. Tone and power D. Stereognosis 61 / 266 61. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. TOCP poisoning C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Amyloidosis 62 / 266 62. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Blindness C. Convulsions D. Radioculomyelopathy 63 / 266 63. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 64 / 266 64. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Syringobulbia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Bell's palsy 65 / 266 65. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 66 / 266 66. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hypothyroidism 67 / 266 67. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Encephalitis C. Epilepsy D. Febrile 68 / 266 68. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Verbal response C. Motor response D. Eye opening 69 / 266 69. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 70 / 266 70. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Retention of urine C. Absent deep reflexes D. Coma 71 / 266 71. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Two-point localisation 72 / 266 72. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Alcoholism D. Wilson's disease 73 / 266 73. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 74 / 266 74. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Ependymoma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Acoustic neuroma 75 / 266 75. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Cerebral malaria C. Weil's disease D. Enteric fever 76 / 266 76. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 77 / 266 77. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 78 / 266 78. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 79 / 266 79. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 80 / 266 80. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Papilledema 81 / 266 81. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Oculomotor palsy C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 82 / 266 82. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 83 / 266 83. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 84 / 266 84. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Neurosyphilis C. Lacunar infarction D. Chronic motor neuron disease 85 / 266 85. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 86 / 266 86. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 87 / 266 87. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Elapidae snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 88 / 266 88. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Polycystic kidney D. Takayasu's disease 89 / 266 89. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 90 / 266 90. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 91 / 266 91. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Ataxia C. Hiccups D. Pyramidal lesion 92 / 266 92. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 93 / 266 93. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Meningioma 94 / 266 94. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 95 / 266 95. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 96 / 266 96. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Leukodystrophy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 97 / 266 97. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Anemia C. Babinski's sign D. Glossitis 98 / 266 98. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Pons 99 / 266 99. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Amantadine D. Selegiline 100 / 266 100. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Coma D. Aphasia 101 / 266 101. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Areflexia C. Apraxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 102 / 266 102. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Shagreen patch 103 / 266 103. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 104 / 266 104. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Tabes dorsalis 105 / 266 105. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Cerebral embolism 106 / 266 106. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Gross pedal oedema C. Parkinsonism D. Tabes dorsalis 107 / 266 107. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Disconjugate gaze D. Pin-point pupil 108 / 266 108. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Myotonia C. Chorea D. Tetany 109 / 266 109. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 110 / 266 110. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 111 / 266 111. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Thrombocytopenia 112 / 266 112. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Benzodiazepine 113 / 266 113. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. C8 C. T1 D. T2 114 / 266 114. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Optic nerv 115 / 266 115. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 116 / 266 116. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Lax abdominal wall C. Obesity D. Hysteria 117 / 266 117. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Absence of root pain C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Bladder involvement is very late 118 / 266 118. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Trypanosomiasis 119 / 266 119. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Rheumatoid arthritis 120 / 266 120. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Visual hallucinations C. Confabulation D. Perspiration 121 / 266 121. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 122 / 266 122. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 123 / 266 123. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 124 / 266 124. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Epilepsy 125 / 266 125. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Nitrofurantoin C. Vincristine D. Methotrexate 126 / 266 126. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Clomipramine C. Lithium D. Haloperidol 127 / 266 127. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ocular myopathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 128 / 266 128. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Galactorrhoea C. Gynaecomastia D. Parkinsonism 129 / 266 129. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Polymyositis 130 / 266 130. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Myoclonus D. Chorea 131 / 266 131. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Phakomatosis 132 / 266 132. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pendular nystagmus 133 / 266 133. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 134 / 266 134. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Choreoathetosis D. Mental retardation 135 / 266 135. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Coprolalia C. Dementia D. Multiple tics 136 / 266 136. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 137 / 266 137. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Gaucher's disease 138 / 266 138. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Papilloedema 139 / 266 139. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-13 D. Turner's syndrome 140 / 266 140. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 141 / 266 141. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Macrolides 142 / 266 142. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Absent superficial reflex D. Brisk deep reflexes 143 / 266 143. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Extensor plantar response C. Masked facies D. Flaccid dysarthria 144 / 266 144. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 145 / 266 145. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Reserpine C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 146 / 266 146. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Polymyositis C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 147 / 266 147. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 148 / 266 148. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 149 / 266 149. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Platybasia C. Dolichocephaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 150 / 266 150. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Multiple sclerosis 151 / 266 151. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Early onset 152 / 266 152. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 153 / 266 153. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Hypermetria C. Titubation D. Dysrhythmokinesis 154 / 266 154. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Ocular myopathy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 155 / 266 155. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Brachycephaly C. Ptosis D. Frontal baldness 156 / 266 156. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud's disease C. Tabes dorsalis D. Leprosy 157 / 266 157. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Convulsions C. Optic neuritis D. Pseudobulbar palsy 158 / 266 158. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 159 / 266 159. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Polymyositis 160 / 266 160. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 161 / 266 161. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Fasciculations C. Clonus D. Spasticity 162 / 266 162. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Diarrhoea C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 163 / 266 163. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Dysphonia C. Aphasia D. Monotonous speech 164 / 266 164. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Animals C. Strangers D. High places 165 / 266 165. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 166 / 266 166. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 167 / 266 167. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Apraxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 168 / 266 168. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 169 / 266 169. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Wilson's disease D. Haemochromatosis 170 / 266 170. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Mania D. Paranoia 171 / 266 171. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 172 / 266 172. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Viral meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 173 / 266 173. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 174 / 266 174. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Pectoralis major C. Deltoid D. Calf muscles 175 / 266 175. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Putamen D. Thalamus 176 / 266 176. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myositis D. Polyneuropathy 177 / 266 177. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 178 / 266 178. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Tabes dorsalis 179 / 266 179. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 180 / 266 180. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Succinylcholine C. Dantrolene D. Halothane 181 / 266 181. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Aflatoxin 182 / 266 182. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Acute myocardial infarction 183 / 266 183. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C6, 7 C. C4, 5 D. C5, 6 184 / 266 184. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 185 / 266 185. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 186 / 266 186. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 187 / 266 187. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 188 / 266 188. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Cerebellar disorder C. Pontine glioma D. Amblyopia 189 / 266 189. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Rubella panencephalitis 190 / 266 190. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Poliomyelitis 191 / 266 191. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. MRI scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. CT scan 192 / 266 192. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Motor neuron disease C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peripheral neuropathy 193 / 266 193. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking to the roof C. Looking in front D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 194 / 266 194. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 195 / 266 195. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 196 / 266 196. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Vth 197 / 266 197. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Ethosuximide 198 / 266 198. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 199 / 266 199. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Phenytoin D. Atenolol 200 / 266 200. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 201 / 266 201. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Weber-Christian disease C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Sturge-Weber disease 202 / 266 202. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Flumazenil C. Amphetamines D. Cocaine 203 / 266 203. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 204 / 266 204. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents vasospasm D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 205 / 266 205. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Mania 206 / 266 206. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 207 / 266 207. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. Meningism D. After epileptic seizure 208 / 266 208. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Old age C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Myotonic pupil 209 / 266 209. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Sleep paralysis 210 / 266 210. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. AV malformations C. Systemic hypertension D. Emotional excitement 211 / 266 211. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Leprosy C. Ethambutol D. Multiple sclerosis 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 213 / 266 213. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 214 / 266 214. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Cerebral cortex D. Pons 215 / 266 215. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 216 / 266 216. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Spastic tongue D. Nasal regurgitation 217 / 266 217. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Clopidogrel D. Pentoxifylline 218 / 266 218. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Olfactory groove D. Over visual cortex 219 / 266 219. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Pyramidal signs 220 / 266 220. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Agraphia D. Acalculia 221 / 266 221. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 222 / 266 222. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 223 / 266 223. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Constricted pupil 224 / 266 224. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Inferior sagittal sinus 225 / 266 225. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Encephalitis C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 226 / 266 226. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. Pneumococcus 227 / 266 227. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 228 / 266 228. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Increased tone D. Sensory ataxia 229 / 266 229. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Loss of immediate recall 230 / 266 230. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 231 / 266 231. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Myxoedema C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Alcohol 232 / 266 232. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Negri bodies 233 / 266 233. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 234 / 266 234. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Diphtheria D. Tetanus 235 / 266 235. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Transverse myelitis D. Poliomyelitis 236 / 266 236. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Marathon runner D. Hypoglycaemic coma 237 / 266 237. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Putamen D. Red nucleus 238 / 266 238. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Anal reflex C. Snout reflex D. Sucking reflex 239 / 266 239. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Central scotoma 240 / 266 240. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 241 / 266 241. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 242 / 266 242. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 243 / 266 243. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Leucodystrophy C. Cerebral palsy D. Tuberous sclerosis 244 / 266 244. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 245 / 266 245. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 246 / 266 246. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 247 / 266 247. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lubeluzole C. Felbamate D. Lamotrigine 248 / 266 248. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Huntington's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 249 / 266 249. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Acute renal failure D. Oesophagitis 250 / 266 250. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Abducens palsy D. Paralysis of soft palate 251 / 266 251. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Hypoxia D. Malignant hypertension 252 / 266 252. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Alzheimer's disease 253 / 266 253. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Babinski's sign C. Sudden onset D. Brisk jaw jerk 254 / 266 254. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Tuberculosis D. Sarcoidosis 255 / 266 255. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 256 / 266 256. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Motor neuron disease C. Cervical spondylosis D. Multiple sclerosis 257 / 266 257. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Pseudoclonus 258 / 266 258. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Psychosis C. Migraine D. Chorea 259 / 266 259. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 260 / 266 260. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cord compression D. Acute transverse myelitis 261 / 266 261. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Seizures C. Diplopia D. Dysphasia 262 / 266 262. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Immune disorder 263 / 266 263. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Flexor plantar response C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 264 / 266 264. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Diplopia 265 / 266 265. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 266 / 266 266. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Parkinsonism LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology