Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 2 / 266 2. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Phakomatosis D. Mental retardation 3 / 266 3. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 4 / 266 4. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Unequal pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 5 / 266 5. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Thalamus D. Ventral pons 6 / 266 6. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 7 / 266 7. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 8 / 266 8. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Blindness 9 / 266 9. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hypocapnia 10 / 266 10. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ethambutol C. Syphilis D. Leprosy 11 / 266 11. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Emetine 12 / 266 12. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Hemiparesis C. Facial weakness D. Aphasia 13 / 266 13. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Onycholysis C. Diarrhoea D. Ataxia 14 / 266 14. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Chorea C. Myodonus D. Migraine 15 / 266 15. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 16 / 266 16. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Absence of root pain 17 / 266 17. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Dolichocephaly D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 18 / 266 18. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Glioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic 19 / 266 19. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Cerebellar infarction 20 / 266 20. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Complete ptosis 21 / 266 21. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysphonia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysarthria 22 / 266 22. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Osteomalacia 23 / 266 23. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 24 / 266 24. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Diazepam C. Ethosuximide D. Valproate 25 / 266 25. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Paralysis 26 / 266 26. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 27 / 266 27. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Carotid artery occlusion D. Basilar artery thrombosis 28 / 266 28. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 29 / 266 29. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Cervical spondylosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 30 / 266 30. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Hereditary predisposition C. Common migraine has aura D. Common in women 31 / 266 31. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Venous thrombosis 32 / 266 32. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Viral meningitis 33 / 266 33. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 34 / 266 34. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Looking to the roof C. Reading a book D. Looking in front 35 / 266 35. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myxoedema D. Gross pedal oedema 36 / 266 36. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 37 / 266 37. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. SIADH D. Convulsions 38 / 266 38. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Selegiline D. Trihexyphenidyl 39 / 266 39. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Papilledema C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 40 / 266 40. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 41 / 266 41. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Parkinsonism 42 / 266 42. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyponatraemia D. Rheumatic fever 43 / 266 43. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cervical spondylosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syringomyelia 44 / 266 44. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 45 / 266 45. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 46 / 266 46. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Cataplexy D. Sleep paralysis 47 / 266 47. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Inflammatory D. Hemorrhagic 48 / 266 48. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 49 / 266 49. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. INH C. Vincristine D. Methotrexate 50 / 266 50. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 51 / 266 51. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Apraxia D. Ataxia 52 / 266 52. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Parkinsonism C. Gynaecomastia D. Acromegaly 53 / 266 53. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 54 / 266 54. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Hyperpyrexia 55 / 266 55. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Pseudoclonus 56 / 266 56. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 57 / 266 57. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Leprosy 58 / 266 58. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Myositis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Tabes dorsalis 59 / 266 59. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Immune disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 60 / 266 60. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Ciliary ganglion C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Oculomotor nerve 61 / 266 61. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 62 / 266 62. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Diplopia 63 / 266 63. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Aflatoxin C. Thiocyanates D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 64 / 266 64. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Myopathy C. Neuropathy D. Encephalitis 65 / 266 65. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Confabulation D. Loss of recent memory 66 / 266 66. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 67 / 266 67. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 68 / 266 68. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Facial nerve palsy C. Cerebellar signs D. Pyramidal signs 69 / 266 69. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Alzheimer's disease C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 70 / 266 70. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 71 / 266 71. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 72 / 266 72. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hysteria 73 / 266 73. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 74 / 266 74. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 75 / 266 75. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Caudate nucleus C. Putamen D. Red nucleus 76 / 266 76. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Mental retardation D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 77 / 266 77. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Hyperkinesia C. Rigidity D. Tremor 78 / 266 78. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 24 hours C. 3 weeks D. 2 weeks 79 / 266 79. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Polymyositis D. Motor neuron disease 80 / 266 80. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Poliomyelitis 81 / 266 81. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Optic glioma 82 / 266 82. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Cerebellar infarction C. Digitalis toxicity D. Aura phase of migraine 83 / 266 83. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Alzheimer's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 84 / 266 84. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 85 / 266 85. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Interferon C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 86 / 266 86. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerve 87 / 266 87. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 88 / 266 88. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. PET scan C. MRI scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 89 / 266 89. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Cerebral embolism 90 / 266 90. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Cervical rib 91 / 266 91. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Obesity 92 / 266 92. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Bacteria 93 / 266 93. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 94 / 266 94. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 95 / 266 95. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Steroid myopathy 96 / 266 96. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 97 / 266 97. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Fatty liver C. Livedo reticularis D. Seizures 98 / 266 98. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Pindolol D. Reserpine 99 / 266 99. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Urinary incontinence D. Dementia 100 / 266 100. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Nystagmus C. Aphasia D. Papilloedema 101 / 266 101. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Mania D. Schizophrenia 102 / 266 102. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Pinealomas D. Multiple sclerosis 103 / 266 103. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 104 / 266 104. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 105 / 266 105. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Benzodiazepine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 106 / 266 106. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Manual labourers D. Myotonia 107 / 266 107. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Meningioma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Acoustic neuroma 108 / 266 108. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 109 / 266 109. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 110 / 266 110. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 111 / 266 111. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Lathyrism D. Elapidae group snake bite 112 / 266 112. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Over visual cortex D. Olfactory groove 113 / 266 113. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe 114 / 266 114. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Felbamate C. Lamotrigine D. Lubeluzole 115 / 266 115. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Electroconvulsive therapy 116 / 266 116. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 117 / 266 117. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 118 / 266 118. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Chorea C. Myoclonus D. Dystonia 119 / 266 119. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Spasticity 120 / 266 120. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Has a good prognosis in children D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 121 / 266 121. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Polycythaemia vera C. SIADH D. Cluster headache 122 / 266 122. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Pentoxifylline 123 / 266 123. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 124 / 266 124. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 125 / 266 125. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Arsenic D. Lead 126 / 266 126. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Periorbital pain 127 / 266 127. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Ocular myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 128 / 266 128. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 129 / 266 129. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Fluoxetine 130 / 266 130. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 131 / 266 131. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Amyloidosis 132 / 266 132. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Gradenigo's syndrome 133 / 266 133. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Motor neuron disease 134 / 266 134. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Intact proprioception D. Sensory ataxia 135 / 266 135. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 136 / 266 136. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 137 / 266 137. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 138 / 266 138. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Atypical pneumonia C. Cerebral malaria D. Enteric fever 139 / 266 139. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 140 / 266 140. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Left atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 141 / 266 141. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 142 / 266 142. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. L5,S1 C. S1 D. S1,S2 143 / 266 143. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Calf muscles C. Deltoid D. Infraspinatus 144 / 266 144. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 145 / 266 145. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 146 / 266 146. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Cervical spine 147 / 266 147. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Taboparesis 148 / 266 148. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Infectious mononucleosis 149 / 266 149. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Multiple sclerosis 150 / 266 150. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Retention of urine C. Absent deep reflexes D. Coma 151 / 266 151. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Diplopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Right homonymous hemianopia 152 / 266 152. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Viral meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 153 / 266 153. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 154 / 266 154. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Phenytoin C. Sumatriptan D. Atenolol 155 / 266 155. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud's disease C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 156 / 266 156. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 157 / 266 157. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Cephalosporins 158 / 266 158. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Midbrain 159 / 266 159. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 160 / 266 160. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 161 / 266 161. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 162 / 266 162. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 163 / 266 163. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington's chorea 164 / 266 164. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Cerebral infarction 165 / 266 165. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Leucodystrophy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 166 / 266 166. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Oculomotor palsy C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 167 / 266 167. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 168 / 266 168. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Sudden onset C. Babinski's sign D. Brisk jaw jerk 169 / 266 169. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 170 / 266 170. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Bitemporal hemianopi 171 / 266 171. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Headache D. Altered consciousness 172 / 266 172. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 173 / 266 173. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 174 / 266 174. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Methoxyflurane C. Dantrolene D. Halothane 175 / 266 175. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Hyperthyroidism C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Chronic motor neuron disease 176 / 266 176. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Bell's palsy D. Syringobulbia 177 / 266 177. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Ocular muscles 178 / 266 178. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 179 / 266 179. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Punch-drunk syndrome 180 / 266 180. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 181 / 266 181. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Anal reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Grasp reflex 182 / 266 182. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Weber-Christian disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 183 / 266 183. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Xanthochromia D. High protein content 184 / 266 184. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Trypanosomiasis C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 185 / 266 185. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 186 / 266 186. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Testicular atrophy 187 / 266 187. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor spasm C. Flexor plantar response D. Increased tone in flexor groups 188 / 266 188. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Phobia C. Mania D. Depression 189 / 266 189. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Emotional incontinence C. Extensor plantar response D. Flaccid dysarthria 190 / 266 190. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 191 / 266 191. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 192 / 266 192. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Pick's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 193 / 266 193. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Acute renal failure C. Oesophagitis D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 194 / 266 194. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 195 / 266 195. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 196 / 266 196. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Carbamazepine D. Flumazenil 197 / 266 197. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 198 / 266 198. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Infantile spasm 199 / 266 199. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents vasospasm 200 / 266 200. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 201 / 266 201. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Deep coma 202 / 266 202. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Wasting of muscles 203 / 266 203. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Gonda sign 205 / 266 205. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Absent superficial reflex C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 206 / 266 206. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Arrhythmia D. Cardiac tamponade 207 / 266 207. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Nasal regurgitation 208 / 266 208. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 209 / 266 209. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Horner's syndrome 210 / 266 210. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Leprosy 211 / 266 211. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Pinealomas D. Ependymoma 212 / 266 212. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Pneumococcus C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 213 / 266 213. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 214 / 266 214. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 215 / 266 215. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 216 / 266 216. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. White spots over trunk and limbs 217 / 266 217. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 218 / 266 218. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 219 / 266 219. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 220 / 266 220. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 221 / 266 221. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Animals C. Strangers D. High places 222 / 266 222. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 223 / 266 223. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Quinsy C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Diphtheria 224 / 266 224. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Hung-up knee jerk 225 / 266 225. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Cord compression C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 226 / 266 226. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Hiccups C. Horner's syndrome D. Pyramidal lesion 227 / 266 227. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hyponatremia 228 / 266 228. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 229 / 266 229. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 230 / 266 230. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 231 / 266 231. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypercalcemia 232 / 266 232. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Perspiration C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 233 / 266 233. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Tetany D. Athetosis 234 / 266 234. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 235 / 266 235. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Organophosphorus poisoning 236 / 266 236. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Haloperidol 237 / 266 237. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Waddling gait 238 / 266 238. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 239 / 266 239. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Parietal C. Frontal D. Occipital 240 / 266 240. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. Sensory functions C. Proprioception D. EMG 241 / 266 241. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 242 / 266 242. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Acalculia 243 / 266 243. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 244 / 266 244. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Visual hallucinations 245 / 266 245. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. IIIrd C. Vllth D. Vth 246 / 266 246. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 247 / 266 247. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Polyneuropathy C. Loss of accommodation D. Abducens palsy 248 / 266 248. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 249 / 266 249. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Galactosaemia C. Haemochromatosis D. Wilson's disease 250 / 266 250. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Diplopia 251 / 266 251. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Neurofibroma 252 / 266 252. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. IV mannitol D. Glucocorticoids 253 / 266 253. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Coprolalia C. Dementia D. Multiple tics 254 / 266 254. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 255 / 266 255. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Tetanus C. Hysteria D. Meningism 256 / 266 256. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 257 / 266 257. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Rasagiline 258 / 266 258. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 259 / 266 259. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Negri bodies 260 / 266 260. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Febrile C. Epilepsy D. Encephalitis 261 / 266 261. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 262 / 266 262. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Two-point localisation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Graphesthesia 263 / 266 263. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Hypoxia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 264 / 266 264. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased deep reflexes D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 265 / 266 265. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Takayasu's disease 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Tone and power C. Stereognosis D. Involuntary movements LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology