Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 2 / 266 2. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Hyperpyrexia C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 3 / 266 3. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Leucodystrophy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 4 / 266 4. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Bladder involvement is very late 5 / 266 5. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Bacteria C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 6 / 266 6. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 7 / 266 7. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Interferon C. Immunoglobulin D. Cyclophosphamide 8 / 266 8. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Paranoia C. Mania D. Phobia 9 / 266 9. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Xanthochromia C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. High protein content 10 / 266 10. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 11 / 266 11. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Oculomotor nerve C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 12 / 266 12. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Dysphasia C. Paraesthesia D. Diplopia 13 / 266 13. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 14 / 266 14. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Cord compression 15 / 266 15. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 16 / 266 16. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 17 / 266 17. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Coprolalia D. Multiple tics 18 / 266 18. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Schizophrenia C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Alcohol withdrawal 19 / 266 19. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Sensory dysfunction C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Loss of ankle jerk 20 / 266 20. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Athetosis C. Myotonia D. Tetany 21 / 266 21. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 22 / 266 22. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 23 / 266 23. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 24 / 266 24. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Absent superficial reflex D. Brisk deep reflexes 25 / 266 25. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Malignant exophthalmos D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 26 / 266 26. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. May occur spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 27 / 266 27. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Puerperal sepsis 28 / 266 28. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Putamen C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum 29 / 266 29. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 30 / 266 30. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking in front C. Looking to the roof D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 31 / 266 31. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 32 / 266 32. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral hemorrhage 33 / 266 33. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Hepatic precoma C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 34 / 266 34. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Two-point localisation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Graphesthesia 35 / 266 35. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 36 / 266 36. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Quinsy C. Diphtheria D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 37 / 266 37. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Metastatic 38 / 266 38. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Methoxyflurane C. Halothane D. Dantrolene 39 / 266 39. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Hypothyroidism C. Thrombocytopenia D. Ataxia 40 / 266 40. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Hyperkinesia C. Tremor D. Normal reflexes 41 / 266 41. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 42 / 266 42. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 43 / 266 43. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Pseudoclonus C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Exaggerated deep reflex 44 / 266 44. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Abducens palsy D. Paralysis of soft palate 45 / 266 45. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Testicular atrophy C. Brachycephaly D. Frontal baldness 46 / 266 46. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Dermatomyositis 47 / 266 47. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 48 / 266 48. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Dysarthria 49 / 266 49. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 50 / 266 50. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Putamen D. Caudate nucleus 51 / 266 51. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Osteomalacia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 52 / 266 52. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Cerebral infarction 53 / 266 53. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Ethambutol C. Chloroquine D. Amiodarone 54 / 266 54. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Apraxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 55 / 266 55. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Gross pedal oedema C. Myxoedema D. Parkinsonism 56 / 266 56. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Dementia in AIDS 57 / 266 57. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Cerebellar disorder C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 58 / 266 58. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agnosia 59 / 266 59. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 60 / 266 60. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Lower pons C. Medulla D. Midbrain 61 / 266 61. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 62 / 266 62. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 63 / 266 63. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 64 / 266 64. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Periorbital pain D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 65 / 266 65. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Selegiline D. Amantadine 66 / 266 66. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Tuberculosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 67 / 266 67. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Wilson's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 68 / 266 68. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Shagreen patch 69 / 266 69. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Pyramidal lesion C. Hiccups D. Ataxia 70 / 266 70. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Chaddock's sign 71 / 266 71. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Visual hallucinations D. Passivity feelings 72 / 266 72. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Flexor spasm C. Flexor plantar response D. Mass reflex 73 / 266 73. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Alcohol C. Vincristine D. Lead 74 / 266 74. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Left atrial myxoma 75 / 266 75. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 76 / 266 76. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Anal reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Snout reflex 77 / 266 77. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 78 / 266 78. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Dementia 79 / 266 79. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis major D. Calf muscles 80 / 266 80. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Pramipexole C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 81 / 266 81. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Syringobulbia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Bell's palsy 82 / 266 82. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diarrhoea C. Onycholysis D. Ataxia 83 / 266 83. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Rheumatic fever C. Hyponatraemia D. Wilson's disease 84 / 266 84. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 85 / 266 85. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Absent deep reflexes C. Retention of urine D. Hypertonia 86 / 266 86. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV quinine C. IV mannitol D. Glucocorticoids 87 / 266 87. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 88 / 266 88. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Apraxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Areflexia 89 / 266 89. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Agraphia 90 / 266 90. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 91 / 266 91. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 92 / 266 92. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Acute myocardial infarction 93 / 266 93. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Carbamazepine C. Lithium D. Haloperidol 94 / 266 94. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Duodenal stenosis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Polymyositis 95 / 266 95. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Complete ptosis 96 / 266 96. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Central scotoma D. Homonymous hemianopia 97 / 266 97. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 98 / 266 98. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 99 / 266 99. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Encephalitis C. Neuropathy D. Myelopathy 100 / 266 100. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 101 / 266 101. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Autonomic response C. Motor response D. Verbal response 102 / 266 102. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pituitary tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Posterior fossa tumors 103 / 266 103. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Ethosuximide C. Valproate D. Topiramate 104 / 266 104. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Myopathy C. Sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 105 / 266 105. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 106 / 266 106. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 107 / 266 107. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Methotrexate C. Vincristine D. Nitrofurantoin 108 / 266 108. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Brain tumor 109 / 266 109. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myositis D. Subacute combined degeneration 110 / 266 110. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 3 weeks C. 96 hours D. 2 weeks 111 / 266 111. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 112 / 266 112. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Froin's loculation syndrome 113 / 266 113. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Bulbar palsy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 114 / 266 114. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Mamillary bodies 115 / 266 115. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 116 / 266 116. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Pindolol C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 117 / 266 117. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. May be associated with malignancy 118 / 266 118. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 119 / 266 119. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 120 / 266 120. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Takayasu's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 121 / 266 121. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Blindness 122 / 266 122. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Haemochromatosis C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Wilson's disease 123 / 266 123. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 124 / 266 124. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 125 / 266 125. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Subdural hematoma C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Trypanosomiasis 126 / 266 126. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Petit mal 127 / 266 127. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Wasting of muscles D. Proximal muscle weakness 128 / 266 128. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 129 / 266 129. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Hemiparesis C. Facial weakness D. Coma 130 / 266 130. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 131 / 266 131. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Cataract C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alzheimer's disease 132 / 266 132. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 133 / 266 133. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Subacute combined degeneration 134 / 266 134. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Increased deep reflexes D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 135 / 266 135. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 136 / 266 136. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 137 / 266 137. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Gaucher's disease 138 / 266 138. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Extensor plantar response D. Masked facies 139 / 266 139. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cervical spine C. Brainstem D. Cortex 140 / 266 140. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 141 / 266 141. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 142 / 266 142. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Mental retardation 143 / 266 143. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Phakomatosis 144 / 266 144. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 145 / 266 145. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Malignant hypertension C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 146 / 266 146. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Neurosarcoidosis 147 / 266 147. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Drop attacks 148 / 266 148. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Diabetes mellitus 149 / 266 149. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Polymyositis 150 / 266 150. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Infarction of occipital lobe 151 / 266 151. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Tonic seizures 152 / 266 152. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 153 / 266 153. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peripheral neuropathy 154 / 266 154. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. After epileptic seizure 155 / 266 155. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common migraine has aura 156 / 266 156. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 157 / 266 157. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 158 / 266 158. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Peripheral neuropathy 159 / 266 159. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Trauma C. Encephalitis D. Febrile 160 / 266 160. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 161 / 266 161. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 162 / 266 162. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 163 / 266 163. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Poliomyelitis 164 / 266 164. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 165 / 266 165. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 166 / 266 166. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypocalcemia 167 / 266 167. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Gillespie's syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 168 / 266 168. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5 C. L5,S1 D. S1,S2 169 / 266 169. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Inflammatory C. Demyelinating D. Hemorrhagic 170 / 266 170. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 171 / 266 171. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Diminished auditory acuity 172 / 266 172. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Thalamus C. Ventral pons D. Internal capsule 173 / 266 173. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Vllth C. Xth D. IIIrd 174 / 266 174. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 175 / 266 175. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington's chorea 176 / 266 176. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 177 / 266 177. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Acoustic neuroma 178 / 266 178. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Duchenne myopathy 179 / 266 179. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 180 / 266 180. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 181 / 266 181. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked recessive 182 / 266 182. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Felbamate C. Lubeluzole D. Vigabatrin 183 / 266 183. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Stereognosis C. Tone and power D. Involuntary movements 184 / 266 184. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Proprioception C. Sensory functions D. Cerebellar functions 185 / 266 185. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Glossitis 186 / 266 186. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 187 / 266 187. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Manual labourers D. Athletes 188 / 266 188. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Petit mal epilepsy 189 / 266 189. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Oesophagitis 190 / 266 190. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Chronic motor neuron disease 191 / 266 191. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 192 / 266 192. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Atenolol 193 / 266 193. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Weber-Christian disease 194 / 266 194. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 195 / 266 195. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 196 / 266 196. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Horner's syndrome C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 197 / 266 197. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 198 / 266 198. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 199 / 266 199. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Presence of nystagmus 200 / 266 200. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Cerebral cortex 201 / 266 201. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-21 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-13 202 / 266 202. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Dura matter 203 / 266 203. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 204 / 266 204. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Sudden onset C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Small, spastic tongue 205 / 266 205. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 206 / 266 206. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hyponatremia 207 / 266 207. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Snakebite C. Myasthenia gravis D. Poliomyelitis 208 / 266 208. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Leprosy D. Raynaud's disease 209 / 266 209. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 210 / 266 210. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Fatty liver C. Livedo reticularis D. Seizures 211 / 266 211. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Increased tone 212 / 266 212. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. Polycythaemia vera C. SIADH D. Mania 213 / 266 213. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Dolichocephaly D. Platybasia 214 / 266 214. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Steroid myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 215 / 266 215. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 216 / 266 216. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Aura phase of migraine C. Cerebellar infarction D. Digitalis toxicity 217 / 266 217. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Kuru D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 218 / 266 218. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Rheumatoid arthritis 219 / 266 219. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hyperkalemia C. Deep coma D. Hypokalemia 220 / 266 220. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Confabulation C. Visual hallucinations D. Perspiration 221 / 266 221. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 222 / 266 222. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Cerebral cortex 223 / 266 223. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Occipital 224 / 266 224. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 225 / 266 225. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 226 / 266 226. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Syphilis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ethambutol 227 / 266 227. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Advanced pregnancy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 228 / 266 228. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Headache C. Convulsions D. Altered consciousness 229 / 266 229. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 230 / 266 230. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Aspirin C. Clopidogrel D. Pentoxifylline 231 / 266 231. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Alzheimer's disease D. Pick's disease 232 / 266 232. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Tay-Sachs disease 233 / 266 233. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 234 / 266 234. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Froin's loculation syndrome 235 / 266 235. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Sylvian fissure C. Olfactory groove D. Cerebello-pontine angle 236 / 266 236. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Myodonus C. Psychosis D. Migraine 237 / 266 237. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Sleep paralysis C. Cataplexy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 238 / 266 238. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 239 / 266 239. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. PET scan C. CT scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 240 / 266 240. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 241 / 266 241. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Papilloedema D. Aphasia 242 / 266 242. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Lathyrism 243 / 266 243. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 244 / 266 244. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. C8 C. T4 D. T2 245 / 266 245. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 246 / 266 246. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral haemorrhage 247 / 266 247. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C6, 7 248 / 266 248. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 249 / 266 249. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Amyloidosis 250 / 266 250. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluoxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Paroxetine 251 / 266 251. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 252 / 266 252. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure sensory stroke 253 / 266 253. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Head injury C. Epilepsy D. Transient ischemic attack 254 / 266 254. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Meningioma 255 / 266 255. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Tight aortic stenosis 256 / 266 256. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 257 / 266 257. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones D. Cephalosporins 258 / 266 258. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Animals C. Pain D. High places 259 / 266 259. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Negri bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Schaumann bodies 260 / 266 260. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 261 / 266 261. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 262 / 266 262. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ocular myopathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 263 / 266 263. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Ependymoma C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Glioma 264 / 266 264. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Deep reflexes are depressed 265 / 266 265. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Aortic incompetence D. Cerebellar disorder 266 / 266 266. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. SIADH D. Convulsions LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology