Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 2 / 266 2. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Pain C. High places D. Strangers 3 / 266 3. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Vestibular lesion 4 / 266 4. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Multiple sclerosis 5 / 266 5. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 6 / 266 6. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 7 / 266 7. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Hysteria 8 / 266 8. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Myasthenia gravis 9 / 266 9. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 10 / 266 10. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Enophthalmos C. Anhidrosis D. Complete ptosis 11 / 266 11. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Thiocyanates C. Aflatoxin D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 12 / 266 12. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 13 / 266 13. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Marathon runner 14 / 266 14. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Brachycephaly C. Frontal baldness D. Ptosis 15 / 266 15. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 16 / 266 16. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Infarction of occipital lobe 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Has a good prognosis in children 18 / 266 18. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Leprosy C. Syphilis D. Multiple sclerosis 19 / 266 19. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. EMG C. Sensory functions D. Proprioception 20 / 266 20. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 21 / 266 21. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 22 / 266 22. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Sensory ataxia D. Increased tone 23 / 266 23. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Bulbar palsy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 24 / 266 24. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 25 / 266 25. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Absence of root pain 26 / 266 26. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Huntington's chorea C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 27 / 266 27. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 28 / 266 28. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 29 / 266 29. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Coma 30 / 266 30. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Cluster headache C. SIADH D. Mania 31 / 266 31. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lamotrigine C. Vigabatrin D. Lubeluzole 32 / 266 32. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 33 / 266 33. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Motor neuron disease 34 / 266 34. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Cervical spondylosis 35 / 266 35. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Focal neuro deficit C. Blindness D. Radioculomyelopathy 36 / 266 36. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Caudate nucleus C. Putamen D. Red nucleus 37 / 266 37. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 38 / 266 38. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. Systemic hypertension D. AV malformations 39 / 266 39. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 40 / 266 40. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocalcemia 41 / 266 41. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 42 / 266 42. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common in women C. Common migraine has aura D. Hereditary predisposition 43 / 266 43. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Male dominance D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 44 / 266 44. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Hyperpyrexia 45 / 266 45. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 46 / 266 46. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Autoimmunity C. Bacteria D. Virus 47 / 266 47. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. SIADH C. Convulsions D. Pseudobulbar palsy 48 / 266 48. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Paroxetine D. Sertraline 49 / 266 49. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Tabes dorsalis 50 / 266 50. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypocapnia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypotension 51 / 266 51. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 52 / 266 52. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 53 / 266 53. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 54 / 266 54. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C6, 7 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 55 / 266 55. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 56 / 266 56. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Deep coma C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 57 / 266 57. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Left ventricular aneurysm 58 / 266 58. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Upper pons C. Medulla D. Lower pons 59 / 266 59. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Apraxia C. Aphasia D. Agnosia 60 / 266 60. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Nutrition of muscles C. Stereognosis D. Involuntary movements 61 / 266 61. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Sensory dysfunction 62 / 266 62. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Pendular nystagmus C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Megaloblastic anemia 63 / 266 63. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 64 / 266 64. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myositis D. Polyneuropathy 65 / 266 65. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 66 / 266 66. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Myotonia D. Athletes 67 / 266 67. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 68 / 266 68. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Chorea 69 / 266 69. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 70 / 266 70. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myelopathy D. Encephalitis 71 / 266 71. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Haloperidol C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 72 / 266 72. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Normal reflexes 73 / 266 73. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Metastatic 74 / 266 74. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Patchy arachnoiditis 75 / 266 75. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 76 / 266 76. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Flumazenil C. Carbamazepine D. Cocaine 77 / 266 77. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 78 / 266 78. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Lax abdominal wall D. Multiparous woman 79 / 266 79. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Oesophagitis C. Acute renal failure D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 80 / 266 80. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Thalamus D. Putamen 81 / 266 81. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Diminished auditory acuity C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 82 / 266 82. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Wasting of muscles D. Absent tendon reflexes 83 / 266 83. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Absent superficial reflex C. Weakness and spasticity D. Equivocal plantar response 84 / 266 84. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Ependymoma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Acoustic neuroma 85 / 266 85. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Infantile spasm 86 / 266 86. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 87 / 266 87. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 88 / 266 88. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 89 / 266 89. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Ocular myopathy D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 90 / 266 90. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Advanced pregnancy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 91 / 266 91. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumour D. Raised intracranial pressure 92 / 266 92. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe 93 / 266 93. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 94 / 266 94. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Two-point localisation C. Graphesthesia D. Vibration sensation 95 / 266 95. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Cerebral embolism 96 / 266 96. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 97 / 266 97. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Oculomotor nerve C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 98 / 266 98. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Central scotoma C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Tunnel vision 99 / 266 99. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 100 / 266 100. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 101 / 266 101. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sarcoidosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 102 / 266 102. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Malignant hypertension 103 / 266 103. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Masked facies C. Emotional incontinence D. Extensor plantar response 104 / 266 104. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Leprosy C. Raynaud's disease D. Tabes dorsalis 105 / 266 105. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Sucking reflex 106 / 266 106. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Takayasu's disease D. Polycystic kidney 107 / 266 107. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Confabulation C. Loss of immediate recall D. Defect in learning 108 / 266 108. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Aortic incompetence D. Cerebellar disorder 109 / 266 109. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Medulloblastoma 110 / 266 110. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Over visual cortex C. Sylvian fissure D. Olfactory groove 111 / 266 111. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Scoliosis C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 112 / 266 112. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Succinylcholine C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 113 / 266 113. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 114 / 266 114. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Loss of accommodation D. Abducens palsy 115 / 266 115. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Seizures C. Diplopia D. Paraesthesia 116 / 266 116. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Midbrain D. Pons 117 / 266 117. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Atenolol C. Sumatriptan D. Verapamil 118 / 266 118. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Inflammatory D. Embolic 119 / 266 119. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hysteria C. Multiple sclerosis D. Duchenne myopathy 120 / 266 120. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Chorea C. Myoclonus D. Dystonia 121 / 266 121. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 122 / 266 122. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 123 / 266 123. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Head injury C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Transient ischemic attack 124 / 266 124. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 125 / 266 125. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Amantadine D. Selegiline 126 / 266 126. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV mannitol C. IV quinine D. 5% dextrose 127 / 266 127. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 128 / 266 128. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Arrhythmia 129 / 266 129. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Nystagmus C. Papilloedema D. Aphasia 130 / 266 130. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Pentoxifylline 131 / 266 131. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Leukodystrophy 132 / 266 132. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 133 / 266 133. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Dementia in AIDS C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 134 / 266 134. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Drop attacks 135 / 266 135. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Paralysis C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 136 / 266 136. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Multiple sclerosis 137 / 266 137. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 138 / 266 138. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 139 / 266 139. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Niemann-Pick disease 140 / 266 140. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Mania 141 / 266 141. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Alzheimer's disease 142 / 266 142. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Pick's disease 143 / 266 143. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Brain tumor 144 / 266 144. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. May be associated with malignancy D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 145 / 266 145. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Botulism 146 / 266 146. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Ependymoma C. Pinealomas D. Glioma 147 / 266 147. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 148 / 266 148. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 149 / 266 149. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Myopathy C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 150 / 266 150. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Pseudoclonus D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 151 / 266 151. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Huntington's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Alzheimer's disease 152 / 266 152. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Myasthenia Gravis 153 / 266 153. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Gonda sign D. Rossolimo's sign 154 / 266 154. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Psychosis C. Chorea D. Myodonus 155 / 266 155. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Ethambutol 156 / 266 156. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Cerebral infarction 157 / 266 157. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve 158 / 266 158. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Syringomyelia C. Radial nerve palsy D. Poliomyelitis 159 / 266 159. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Lead 160 / 266 160. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents rebleeding D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 161 / 266 161. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 24 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 162 / 266 162. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Amyloidosis D. TOCP poisoning 163 / 266 163. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased deep reflexes D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 164 / 266 164. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 165 / 266 165. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Diarrhoea D. Onycholysis 166 / 266 166. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Oral glycerol C. Dexamethasone D. IV mannitol 167 / 266 167. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 168 / 266 168. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Increased CSF pressure C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. Xanthochromia 169 / 266 169. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 170 / 266 170. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Hiccups C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 171 / 266 171. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Lathyrism 172 / 266 172. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones D. Cephalosporins 173 / 266 173. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Pompholyx C. Shagreen patch D. Adenoma sebaceum 174 / 266 174. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 175 / 266 175. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 176 / 266 176. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Dolichocephaly 177 / 266 177. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Diplopia 178 / 266 178. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Cortex C. Pons D. Internal capsule 179 / 266 179. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T1 C. C8 D. T4 180 / 266 180. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Hutchinson's pupil 181 / 266 181. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 182 / 266 182. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 183 / 266 183. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 184 / 266 184. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Brainstem D. Thalamus 185 / 266 185. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Areflexia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 186 / 266 186. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Small, spastic tongue D. Sudden onset 187 / 266 187. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 188 / 266 188. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 189 / 266 189. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 190 / 266 190. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 191 / 266 191. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 192 / 266 192. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Leprosy D. Polymyositis 193 / 266 193. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 194 / 266 194. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Botulism 195 / 266 195. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 196 / 266 196. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 197 / 266 197. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Reading a book C. Looking in front D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 198 / 266 198. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 199 / 266 199. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 200 / 266 200. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Glossitis C. Babinski's sign D. Ankle clonus 201 / 266 201. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Cerebellar disorder C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 202 / 266 202. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Alcoholism 203 / 266 203. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 204 / 266 204. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 205 / 266 205. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-18 206 / 266 206. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Viral meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 207 / 266 207. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cord compression 208 / 266 208. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Pineal body C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 209 / 266 209. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Depression C. Mania D. Phobia 210 / 266 210. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Urinary incontinence C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 211 / 266 211. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Deafness 212 / 266 212. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 213 / 266 213. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 214 / 266 214. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 215 / 266 215. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Negri bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Schaumann bodies 216 / 266 216. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 217 / 266 217. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Topiramate C. Diazepam D. Valproate 218 / 266 218. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. E. coli C. H. influenzae D. Pneumococcus 219 / 266 219. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 220 / 266 220. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Cerebellar infarction C. Multiple sclerosis D. Epilepsy 221 / 266 221. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 222 / 266 222. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Visual hallucinations 223 / 266 223. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Monotonous speech C. Aphasia D. Dysarthria 224 / 266 224. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 225 / 266 225. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 226 / 266 226. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5 227 / 266 227. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Methotrexate C. Nitrofurantoin D. Vincristine 228 / 266 228. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Pituitary tumors 229 / 266 229. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Horner's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 230 / 266 230. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 231 / 266 231. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Tetanus D. Quinsy 232 / 266 232. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Pramipexole C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 233 / 266 233. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Myxoedema 234 / 266 234. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 235 / 266 235. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypokalemia 236 / 266 236. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Digitalis toxicity C. Cerebellar infarction D. Aura phase of migraine 237 / 266 237. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Infantile spasm 238 / 266 238. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Immune disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 239 / 266 239. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Acromegaly D. Parkinsonism 240 / 266 240. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Polymyositis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 241 / 266 241. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Occipital 242 / 266 242. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Epilepsy C. Encephalitis D. Febrile 243 / 266 243. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Spastic tongue C. Dysarthria D. Nasal regurgitation 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Seizures D. Phakomatosis 245 / 266 245. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Myxoedema C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Valproic acid 246 / 266 246. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 247 / 266 247. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Absent deep reflexes C. Coma D. Retention of urine 248 / 266 248. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Galactosaemia D. Haemochromatosis 249 / 266 249. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 250 / 266 250. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Osteomalacia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Hyperglycaemia 251 / 266 251. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Ataxia 252 / 266 252. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 253 / 266 253. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Wilson's disease 254 / 266 254. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Alzheimer's disease D. Parkinsonism 255 / 266 255. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 256 / 266 256. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 257 / 266 257. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypervitaminosis D 258 / 266 258. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Mental retardation C. Anencephaly D. Limb shortening 259 / 266 259. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Presence of nystagmus 260 / 266 260. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Cataplexy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Epilepsy 261 / 266 261. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. CT scan D. MRI scan 262 / 266 262. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Lacunar infarction C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Cerebral atrophy 263 / 266 263. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Spasticity 264 / 266 264. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Steroid myopathy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 265 / 266 265. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Leucodystrophy C. Cerebral palsy D. Tuberous sclerosis 266 / 266 266. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Visual hallucinations C. Tremor D. Confabulation LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology