Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Taboparesis 2 / 266 2. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 3 / 266 3. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Felbamate C. Lamotrigine D. Vigabatrin 4 / 266 4. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Oculomotor nerve D. Sympathetic nervous system 5 / 266 5. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 6 / 266 6. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 7 / 266 7. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Nasal regurgitation C. Spastic tongue D. Dysarthria 8 / 266 8. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Tabes dorsalis 9 / 266 9. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agnosia 10 / 266 10. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 11 / 266 11. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 12 / 266 12. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Marathon runner 13 / 266 13. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Diminished auditory acuity C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 14 / 266 14. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 15 / 266 15. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Polyneuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 16 / 266 16. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Aspirin C. Pentoxifylline D. Clopidogrel 18 / 266 18. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 19 / 266 19. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Myopathy 20 / 266 20. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 21 / 266 21. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Lead 22 / 266 22. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 23 / 266 23. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Seen in tall, thin people C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. May occur spontaneously 24 / 266 24. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Aminoglycosides C. Macrolides D. Cephalosporins 25 / 266 25. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. CT scan D. MRI scan 26 / 266 26. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Atenolol 27 / 266 27. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 28 / 266 28. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 29 / 266 29. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 30 / 266 30. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumour 31 / 266 31. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 32 / 266 32. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Diarrhoea 33 / 266 33. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Takayasu's disease 34 / 266 34. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Ocular myopathy 35 / 266 35. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 36 / 266 36. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Gonda sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Babinski's sign 37 / 266 37. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Tone and power C. Stereognosis D. Nutrition of muscles 38 / 266 38. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Viral meningitis 39 / 266 39. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 40 / 266 40. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Temporal 41 / 266 41. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Horner's syndrome C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 42 / 266 42. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Cervical rib 43 / 266 43. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Fatty liver C. Ankle oedema D. Livedo reticularis 44 / 266 44. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Tetanus 45 / 266 45. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Absent deep reflexes C. Hypertonia D. Coma 46 / 266 46. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Tuberous sclerosis 47 / 266 47. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Oculomotor palsy 48 / 266 48. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Increased deep reflexes C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Flexor plantar response 49 / 266 49. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 50 / 266 50. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 51 / 266 51. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Oesophagitis C. Acute renal failure D. Wallenberg's syndrome 52 / 266 52. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Trypanosomiasis C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Subdural hematoma 53 / 266 53. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Deep coma D. Hyperkalemia 54 / 266 54. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Drop attacks C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Diplopia 55 / 266 55. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myelopathy C. Neuropathy D. Myopathy 56 / 266 56. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 57 / 266 57. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysarthria C. Monotonous speech D. Dysphonia 58 / 266 58. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-18 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-13 59 / 266 59. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Papilledema C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Retinal hemorrhage 60 / 266 60. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Dermatomyositis 61 / 266 61. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pseudolymphoma D. Cerebellar syndrome 62 / 266 62. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 63 / 266 63. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 64 / 266 64. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Pindolol D. Oral contraceptive pills 65 / 266 65. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Tremor C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 66 / 266 66. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 67 / 266 67. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Infantile spasm C. Petit mal D. Generalized tonic clonic 68 / 266 68. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Nitrofurantoin D. Methotrexate 69 / 266 69. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 70 / 266 70. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Negri bodies D. Asteroid bodies 71 / 266 71. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Eye opening D. Verbal response 72 / 266 72. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Refsum's disease C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 73 / 266 73. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syringomyelia 74 / 266 74. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 75 / 266 75. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Clomipramine 76 / 266 76. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 77 / 266 77. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Has a good prognosis in children C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 78 / 266 78. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 24 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 79 / 266 79. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 80 / 266 80. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 81 / 266 81. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe 82 / 266 82. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Aflatoxin C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Thiocyanates 83 / 266 83. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Wilson's disease C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 84 / 266 84. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 85 / 266 85. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 86 / 266 86. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 87 / 266 87. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Sudden onset 88 / 266 88. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Rabies C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 89 / 266 89. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 90 / 266 90. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Clonus C. Fasciculations D. Babinski's sign 91 / 266 91. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Chorea C. Tetany D. Athetosis 92 / 266 92. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 93 / 266 93. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Spinal epidural abscess 94 / 266 94. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Internal capsule 95 / 266 95. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking to the roof C. Looking in front D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 96 / 266 96. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Haemochromatosis C. Wilson's disease D. Galactosaemia 97 / 266 97. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Sleep paralysis C. Epilepsy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 98 / 266 98. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 99 / 266 99. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Pinealomas 100 / 266 100. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Metoclopramide-induced 101 / 266 101. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 102 / 266 102. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV frusemide C. Dexamethasone D. IV mannitol 103 / 266 103. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 104 / 266 104. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Froin's loculation syndrome 105 / 266 105. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Neurofibromatosis 106 / 266 106. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 107 / 266 107. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 108 / 266 108. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Epilepsy C. Febrile D. Trauma 109 / 266 109. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Areflexia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Apraxia 110 / 266 110. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 111 / 266 111. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 112 / 266 112. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 113 / 266 113. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. May be associated with malignancy 114 / 266 114. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Confabulation D. Presence of nystagmus 115 / 266 115. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Chlorpromazine 116 / 266 116. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Medulloblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 117 / 266 117. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Rheumatic fever C. Wilson's disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 118 / 266 118. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 119 / 266 119. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Probenecid C. Amiodarone D. Chloroquine 120 / 266 120. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. Systemic hypertension D. AV malformations 121 / 266 121. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Huge ascites C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Advanced pregnancy 122 / 266 122. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cervical spondylosis D. Duchenne myopathy 123 / 266 123. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pinealomas 124 / 266 124. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Cardiac tamponade C. Arrhythmia D. Tight aortic stenosis 125 / 266 125. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. T2 C. C8 D. T1 126 / 266 126. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Fluoxetine D. Sertraline 127 / 266 127. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 128 / 266 128. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Dementia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Ataxia 129 / 266 129. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 130 / 266 130. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Olfactory groove C. Over visual cortex D. Cerebello-pontine angle 131 / 266 131. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C3, 4 C. C4, 5 D. C6, 7 132 / 266 132. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Cerebral atrophy C. Lacunar infarction D. Neurosyphilis 133 / 266 133. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syphilis 134 / 266 134. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 135 / 266 135. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Syringobulbia C. Bell's palsy D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 136 / 266 136. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 137 / 266 137. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Depression C. Early onset D. Passivity feelings 138 / 266 138. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 139 / 266 139. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Chorea C. Myodonus D. Migraine 140 / 266 140. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Focal neuro deficit D. Convulsions 141 / 266 141. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. H. influenzae C. E. coli D. Pneumococcus 142 / 266 142. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypotension D. Hypocapnia 143 / 266 143. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents rebleeding 144 / 266 144. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Ankle clonus C. Anemia D. Babinski's sign 145 / 266 145. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Immune disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 146 / 266 146. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Polymyositis 147 / 266 147. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Brachycephaly C. Ptosis D. Testicular atrophy 148 / 266 148. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Depression 149 / 266 149. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Facial nerve palsy C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 150 / 266 150. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. Sensory functions 151 / 266 151. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. Meningism D. After epileptic seizure 152 / 266 152. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Myotonia C. Manual labourers D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 153 / 266 153. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's chorea D. Post-encephalitic 154 / 266 154. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Xanthochromia C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. High protein content 155 / 266 155. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Hypoxia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 156 / 266 156. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 157 / 266 157. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1,S2 D. S1 158 / 266 158. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 159 / 266 159. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Animals C. Pain D. High places 160 / 266 160. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Anal reflex C. Snout reflex D. Sucking reflex 161 / 266 161. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Facial weakness 162 / 266 162. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Severe heart failure 163 / 266 163. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Mass reflex D. Flexor spasm 164 / 266 164. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Ataxia D. Hyperglycaemia 165 / 266 165. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Corpus striatum C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 166 / 266 166. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Syringomyelia 167 / 266 167. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 168 / 266 168. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 169 / 266 169. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Facial nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 170 / 266 170. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 171 / 266 171. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Mental retardation D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 172 / 266 172. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Raynaud's disease 173 / 266 173. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hysteria 174 / 266 174. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 175 / 266 175. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Cocaine 176 / 266 176. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Increased tone 177 / 266 177. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 178 / 266 178. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Platybasia D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 179 / 266 179. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 180 / 266 180. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 181 / 266 181. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Aortic incompetence 182 / 266 182. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Mania D. Schizophrenia 183 / 266 183. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Sarcoidosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 184 / 266 184. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. SIADH D. Optic neuritis 185 / 266 185. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 186 / 266 186. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Apraxia 187 / 266 187. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 188 / 266 188. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 189 / 266 189. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 190 / 266 190. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Dystonia C. Hemiballismus D. Chorea 191 / 266 191. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Motor neuron disease 192 / 266 192. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 193 / 266 193. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Old age D. Organophosphorus poisoning 194 / 266 194. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 195 / 266 195. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 196 / 266 196. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 197 / 266 197. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Horner's syndrome D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 198 / 266 198. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Nystagmus C. Papilloedema D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 199 / 266 199. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Botulinus poisoning C. Periodic paralysis D. Lathyrism 200 / 266 200. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 201 / 266 201. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Hypothyroidism D. Thrombocytopenia 202 / 266 202. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Right homonymous hemianopia 203 / 266 203. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 204 / 266 204. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 205 / 266 205. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 206 / 266 206. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common migraine has aura C. Common in women D. Hemicranial headache 207 / 266 207. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 208 / 266 208. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Ocular muscles 209 / 266 209. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Putamen 210 / 266 210. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 211 / 266 211. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 212 / 266 212. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 213 / 266 213. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 214 / 266 214. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Transverse myelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 215 / 266 215. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 216 / 266 216. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Normal reflexes C. Hyperkinesia D. Rigidity 217 / 266 217. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Hypervitaminosis D 218 / 266 218. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Argyll Robertson pupil 219 / 266 219. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Midbrain C. Medulla D. Upper pons 220 / 266 220. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Pramipexole C. Rasagiline D. Tiagabine 221 / 266 221. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 222 / 266 222. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Central scotoma D. Homonymous hemianopia 223 / 266 223. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Altered consciousness D. Headache 224 / 266 224. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 225 / 266 225. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 226 / 266 226. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Motor neuron disease D. Polymyositis 227 / 266 227. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Absent superficial reflex D. Brisk deep reflexes 228 / 266 228. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 229 / 266 229. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 230 / 266 230. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Abducens palsy D. Paralysis of soft palate 231 / 266 231. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Confabulation 232 / 266 232. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Puerperal sepsis 233 / 266 233. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 234 / 266 234. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Metastatic 235 / 266 235. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumor C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 236 / 266 236. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Lovastatin C. Zidovudine D. Febuxostat 237 / 266 237. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 238 / 266 238. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 239 / 266 239. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Rubella panencephalitis 240 / 266 240. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Steroid myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 241 / 266 241. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Limb shortening 242 / 266 242. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Optic glioma D. Scoliosis 243 / 266 243. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Pin-point pupil C. Paralysis D. Hypothermia 244 / 266 244. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 245 / 266 245. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. Xth C. Vth D. IIIrd 246 / 266 246. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Pick's disease 247 / 266 247. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Amblyopia D. Cerebellar disorder 248 / 266 248. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. Glucocorticoids C. IV quinine D. IV mannitol 249 / 266 249. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Ventral pons D. Thalamus 250 / 266 250. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 251 / 266 251. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Gynaecomastia D. Galactorrhoea 252 / 266 252. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 253 / 266 253. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 254 / 266 254. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Hysteria 255 / 266 255. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Epilepsy D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 256 / 266 256. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Pompholyx 257 / 266 257. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Masked facies C. Extensor plantar response D. Emotional incontinence 258 / 266 258. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia 259 / 266 259. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Cerebellum C. Putamen D. Midbrain 260 / 266 260. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 261 / 266 261. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Demyelinating C. Hemorrhagic D. Embolic 262 / 266 262. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Distal muscle weakness C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Exaggerated deep reflex 263 / 266 263. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Digitalis toxicity D. Aura phase of migraine 264 / 266 264. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Botulism 265 / 266 265. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Cerebral palsy D. Leucodystrophy 266 / 266 266. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology