Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Haloperidol 2 / 266 2. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Deafness D. Retinitis pigmentosa 3 / 266 3. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Lacunar infarction C. Cerebral atrophy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 4 / 266 4. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 5 / 266 5. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Lathyrism C. Periodic paralysis D. Botulinus poisoning 6 / 266 6. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Multiple sclerosis C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Pinealomas 7 / 266 7. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Meningism 8 / 266 8. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Diabetic amyotrophy 9 / 266 9. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 10 / 266 10. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 11 / 266 11. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Leukodystrophy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 12 / 266 12. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 13 / 266 13. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Motor neuron disease C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 14 / 266 14. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Wilson's disease C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 15 / 266 15. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 16 / 266 16. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 17 / 266 17. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 18 / 266 18. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 19 / 266 19. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common in women 20 / 266 20. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Myopathy D. Cervical rib 21 / 266 21. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Nystagmus C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 22 / 266 22. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Increased tone 23 / 266 23. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Hysteria C. Lax abdominal wall D. Obesity 24 / 266 24. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Diabetes mellitus C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Gradenigo's syndrome 25 / 266 25. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Deltoid D. Pectoralis major 26 / 266 26. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Facial nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 27 / 266 27. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Complex partial C. Infantile spasm D. Petit mal 28 / 266 28. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Transverse myelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 29 / 266 29. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Myxoedema D. Valproic acid 30 / 266 30. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Pick's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 31 / 266 31. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Pindolol 32 / 266 32. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 33 / 266 33. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Ataxia C. Diarrhoea D. Hypothyroidism 34 / 266 34. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 35 / 266 35. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypotension 36 / 266 36. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 37 / 266 37. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Confabulation C. Perspiration D. Visual hallucinations 38 / 266 38. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Sturge-Weber disease 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 40 / 266 40. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 41 / 266 41. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Central scotoma 42 / 266 42. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Myotonia 43 / 266 43. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Vibration sensation C. Two-point localisation D. Perceptual rivalry 44 / 266 44. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Oesophagitis D. Acute renal failure 45 / 266 45. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Thiocyanates 46 / 266 46. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 47 / 266 47. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Putamen C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum 48 / 266 48. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Lamotrigine C. Vigabatrin D. Felbamate 49 / 266 49. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 50 / 266 50. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 51 / 266 51. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Mania C. Phobia D. Paranoia 52 / 266 52. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 53 / 266 53. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 54 / 266 54. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Clonus C. Spasticity D. Fasciculations 55 / 266 55. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 56 / 266 56. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Flexor plantar response C. Mass reflex D. Flexor spasm 57 / 266 57. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Diplopia C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 58 / 266 58. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 59 / 266 59. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. Autonomic response 60 / 266 60. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Snout reflex 61 / 266 61. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine D. Trimipramine 62 / 266 62. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Glioma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 63 / 266 63. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 64 / 266 64. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Meningioma 65 / 266 65. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trigeminal nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Facial nerve 66 / 266 66. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Ataxia 67 / 266 67. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 68 / 266 68. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 69 / 266 69. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Diazepam D. Topiramate 70 / 266 70. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Frontal 71 / 266 71. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Parkinsonism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myxoedema 72 / 266 72. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 73 / 266 73. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 74 / 266 74. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Pyramidal signs D. Facial nerve palsy 75 / 266 75. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Dementia in AIDS 76 / 266 76. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 77 / 266 77. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 78 / 266 78. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Chronic motor neuron disease 79 / 266 79. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypertonia 80 / 266 80. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 81 / 266 81. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 82 / 266 82. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hyponatremia 83 / 266 83. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Retrograde amnesia C. Loss of immediate recall D. Confabulation 84 / 266 84. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Oculomotor palsy 85 / 266 85. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Chorea C. Tetany D. Athetosis 86 / 266 86. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Reading a book C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking in front 87 / 266 87. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 88 / 266 88. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Extensor plantar response C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Emotional incontinence 89 / 266 89. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Apraxia D. Areflexia 90 / 266 90. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Wasting of muscles 91 / 266 91. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Alzheimer's disease 92 / 266 92. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Trypanosomiasis D. Subdural hematoma 93 / 266 93. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Hyperpyrexia C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Pseudoparkinsonism 94 / 266 94. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Red nucleus D. Putamen 95 / 266 95. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Dysphonia C. Aphasia D. Monotonous speech 96 / 266 96. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Thrombocytopenia 97 / 266 97. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. H. influenzae C. E. coli D. Pneumococcus 98 / 266 98. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Parkinsonism C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Cerebellar disorder 99 / 266 99. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Pentoxifylline C. Aspirin D. Clopidogrel 100 / 266 100. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Syringomyelia C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Poliomyelitis 101 / 266 101. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. PET scan D. CT scan 102 / 266 102. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Ethambutol 103 / 266 103. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Stereognosis C. Involuntary movements D. Nutrition of muscles 104 / 266 104. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Seizures C. Fatty liver D. Livedo reticularis 105 / 266 105. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 106 / 266 106. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Immune disorder 107 / 266 107. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Periorbital pain C. Male dominance D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 108 / 266 108. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Distal muscle weakness C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Exaggerated deep reflex 109 / 266 109. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 110 / 266 110. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 111 / 266 111. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Pain C. High places D. Strangers 112 / 266 112. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 113 / 266 113. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 114 / 266 114. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 115 / 266 115. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Horner's syndrome C. Hiccups D. Ataxia 116 / 266 116. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 117 / 266 117. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 118 / 266 118. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 119 / 266 119. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C4, 5 C. C6, 7 D. C3, 4 120 / 266 120. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 121 / 266 121. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Horner's syndrome 122 / 266 122. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Aura phase of migraine D. Digitalis toxicity 123 / 266 123. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Snakebite C. Myasthenia gravis D. Rabies 124 / 266 124. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Marathon runner 125 / 266 125. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Calcification within a lesion C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 126 / 266 126. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Convulsions C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 127 / 266 127. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 128 / 266 128. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Abducens palsy 129 / 266 129. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. May be associated with malignancy D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 130 / 266 130. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Brain tumor C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tuberculous meningitis 131 / 266 131. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Retention of urine C. Absent deep reflexes D. Hypertonia 132 / 266 132. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Right homonymous hemianopia 133 / 266 133. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Shagreen patch C. Pompholyx D. Adenoma sebaceum 134 / 266 134. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. 5% dextrose C. IV mannitol D. IV quinine 135 / 266 135. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 136 / 266 136. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Polymyositis 137 / 266 137. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle biopsy C. Electromyography D. Muscle enzyme study 138 / 266 138. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Babinski's sign D. Small, spastic tongue 139 / 266 139. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Niemann-Pick disease 140 / 266 140. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 141 / 266 141. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. L5,S1 C. S1,S2 D. S1 142 / 266 142. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Refsum's disease C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 143 / 266 143. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 144 / 266 144. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Duodenal stenosis 145 / 266 145. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. C8 C. T2 D. T4 146 / 266 146. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Neurofibromatosis 147 / 266 147. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cervical spondylosis 148 / 266 148. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Advanced pregnancy D. Huge ascites 149 / 266 149. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. IV frusemide C. IV mannitol D. Oral glycerol 150 / 266 150. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Weil's disease C. Cerebral malaria D. Enteric fever 151 / 266 151. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 152 / 266 152. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Seizures C. Paraesthesia D. Dysphasia 153 / 266 153. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 154 / 266 154. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 155 / 266 155. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Brainstem 156 / 266 156. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 157 / 266 157. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Anemia C. Glossitis D. Ankle clonus 158 / 266 158. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 159 / 266 159. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 160 / 266 160. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 161 / 266 161. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 162 / 266 162. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Epilepsy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 163 / 266 163. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 164 / 266 164. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Addison's disease 166 / 266 166. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe 167 / 266 167. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Has a good prognosis in children 168 / 266 168. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 169 / 266 169. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Botulism C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 170 / 266 170. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Papilledema C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Infarction of occipital lobe 171 / 266 171. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Dysarthria 172 / 266 172. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Severe heart failure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Raised intracranial pressure 173 / 266 173. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Focal neuro deficit C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Convulsions 174 / 266 174. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. Proprioception C. Sensory functions D. EMG 175 / 266 175. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vth C. Xth D. Vllth 176 / 266 176. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Cyclophosphamide C. Immunoglobulin D. Corticosteroid 177 / 266 177. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 178 / 266 178. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 179 / 266 179. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Tremor C. Hyperkinesia D. Rigidity 180 / 266 180. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Pure motor hemiparesis 181 / 266 181. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Olfactory groove C. Sylvian fissure D. Cerebello-pontine angle 182 / 266 182. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Cerebral palsy C. Leucodystrophy D. Alzheimer's disease 183 / 266 183. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 184 / 266 184. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Aphasia D. Agraphia 185 / 266 185. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Febrile C. Trauma D. Encephalitis 186 / 266 186. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Vincristine 187 / 266 187. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 188 / 266 188. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Frontal baldness 189 / 266 189. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Amyloidosis C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Acute intermittent porphyria 190 / 266 190. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 191 / 266 191. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 192 / 266 192. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Pons 193 / 266 193. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Fluoxetine D. Sertraline 194 / 266 194. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Choroid plexus C. Dura matter D. Pineal body 195 / 266 195. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Raynaud's disease C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 196 / 266 196. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Dementia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Ataxia 197 / 266 197. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Alzheimer's disease D. Parkinsonism 198 / 266 198. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Leprosy D. Tuberculosis 199 / 266 199. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 200 / 266 200. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Sensory dysfunction D. Loss of ankle jerk 201 / 266 201. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 202 / 266 202. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Quinolones 203 / 266 203. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Ocular myopathy 204 / 266 204. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Rheumatic fever C. Wilson's disease D. Hyponatraemia 205 / 266 205. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Hemorrhagic C. Demyelinating D. Embolic 206 / 266 206. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 207 / 266 207. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hypokalemia C. Deep coma D. Hyperkalemia 208 / 266 208. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Gynaecomastia 209 / 266 209. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 210 / 266 210. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-13 D. Turner's syndrome 211 / 266 211. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant 212 / 266 212. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Toxin C. Virus D. Bacteria 213 / 266 213. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Absence of root pain 214 / 266 214. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Meningism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 215 / 266 215. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents rebleeding 216 / 266 216. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Rasagiline C. Pramipexole D. Ropinirole 217 / 266 217. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Lower pons C. Medulla D. Midbrain 218 / 266 218. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 219 / 266 219. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Venous thrombosis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 220 / 266 220. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Tuberculous meningitis 221 / 266 221. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski's sign D. Chaddock's sign 222 / 266 222. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Equivocal plantar response C. Weakness and spasticity D. Absent superficial reflex 223 / 266 223. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cord compression D. Acute transverse myelitis 224 / 266 224. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Lovastatin C. Zidovudine D. Febuxostat 225 / 266 225. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Loss of recent memory C. Confabulation D. Presence of nystagmus 226 / 266 226. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Diminished auditory acuity 227 / 266 227. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetes mellitus 228 / 266 228. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Horner's syndrome D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 229 / 266 229. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myositis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Polyneuropathy 230 / 266 230. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Mania D. Schizophrenia 231 / 266 231. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Metoclopramide-induced 232 / 266 232. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Mental retardation D. Limb shortening 233 / 266 233. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 234 / 266 234. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 235 / 266 235. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 236 / 266 236. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Spinal epidural abscess 237 / 266 237. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pseudolymphoma 238 / 266 238. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 239 / 266 239. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 240 / 266 240. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Alzheimer's disease 241 / 266 241. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Myoclonus D. Chorea 242 / 266 242. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Choreoathetosis C. Mental retardation D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 243 / 266 243. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 244 / 266 244. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Paralysis D. Disconjugate gaze 245 / 266 245. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Sarcoidosis D. Infectious mononucleosis 246 / 266 246. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Chronic motor neuron disease 247 / 266 247. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 248 / 266 248. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Huntington's chorea C. Post-encephalitic D. Alzheimer's disease 249 / 266 249. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Lead 250 / 266 250. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. SIADH D. Convulsions 251 / 266 251. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ethambutol 252 / 266 252. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Glioblastoma C. Astrocytoma D. Meningioma 253 / 266 253. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Passivity feelings C. Early onset D. Depression 254 / 266 254. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Tetanus 255 / 266 255. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Hemiparesis D. Coma 256 / 266 256. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 257 / 266 257. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Selegiline D. Trihexyphenidyl 258 / 266 258. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Puerperal sepsis 259 / 266 259. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Constricted pupil 260 / 266 260. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Diabetes mellitus 261 / 266 261. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 262 / 266 262. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Migraine C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 263 / 266 263. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Huntington's chorea C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 264 / 266 264. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 265 / 266 265. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 266 / 266 266. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypothyroidism LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology