Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Dysphasia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 2 / 266 2. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 3 / 266 3. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 4 / 266 4. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Papilledema C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Retinal hemorrhage 5 / 266 5. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Myopathy D. Cervical rib 6 / 266 6. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Frontal 7 / 266 7. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Alzheimer's disease 8 / 266 8. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 9 / 266 9. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Mental retardation C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 10 / 266 10. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Hypertonia C. Retention of urine D. Absent deep reflexes 11 / 266 11. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Valproic acid C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Alcohol 12 / 266 12. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 13 / 266 13. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe 14 / 266 14. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 15 / 266 15. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 16 / 266 16. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Sensory dysfunction 17 / 266 17. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 18 / 266 18. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Graphesthesia C. Vibration sensation D. Two-point localisation 19 / 266 19. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 20 / 266 20. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Calcification within a lesion C. Multiple sclerosis D. Posterior fossa tumors 21 / 266 21. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Ankle oedema C. Livedo reticularis D. Fatty liver 22 / 266 22. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. TOCP poisoning C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pyridoxine deficiency 23 / 266 23. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Peripheral neuropathy 24 / 266 24. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Acalculia C. Agraphia D. Aphasia 25 / 266 25. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Hiccups C. Horner's syndrome D. Ataxia 26 / 266 26. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Cyclophosphamide C. Interferon D. Immunoglobulin 27 / 266 27. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Flexor spasm C. Flexor plantar response D. Mass reflex 28 / 266 28. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Tabes dorsalis 29 / 266 29. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. T1 C. T2 D. C8 30 / 266 30. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Obesity C. Hysteria D. Multiparous woman 31 / 266 31. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 32 / 266 32. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 33 / 266 33. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Acromegaly 34 / 266 34. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 35 / 266 35. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Periorbital pain C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 36 / 266 36. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 37 / 266 37. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 38 / 266 38. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Quinsy C. Tetanus D. Diphtheria 39 / 266 39. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Facial weakness 40 / 266 40. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Oesophagitis 41 / 266 41. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Babinski's sign 42 / 266 42. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Glioma 43 / 266 43. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 44 / 266 44. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Tuberculosis D. Leprosy 45 / 266 45. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Leprosy 46 / 266 46. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluvoxamine C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 47 / 266 47. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 48 / 266 48. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 49 / 266 49. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Arrhythmia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tight aortic stenosis 50 / 266 50. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 51 / 266 51. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Galactosaemia C. Haemochromatosis D. Wilson's disease 52 / 266 52. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 53 / 266 53. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Vincristine C. Lead D. Arsenic 54 / 266 54. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Leprosy C. Ethambutol D. Syphilis 55 / 266 55. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 56 / 266 56. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 57 / 266 57. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 58 / 266 58. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. May be associated with malignancy D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 59 / 266 59. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 60 / 266 60. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Severe heart failure 61 / 266 61. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Frontal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 62 / 266 62. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 63 / 266 63. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Mental retardation C. Seizures D. Adenoma sebaceum 64 / 266 64. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Gross pedal oedema D. Parkinsonism 65 / 266 65. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 66 / 266 66. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 67 / 266 67. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Febrile 68 / 266 68. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Strangers C. High places D. Pain 69 / 266 69. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 70 / 266 70. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 71 / 266 71. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Dementia D. Multiple tics 72 / 266 72. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Deep coma C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 73 / 266 73. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 74 / 266 74. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Old age C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Organophosphorus poisoning 75 / 266 75. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 76 / 266 76. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Ocular myopathy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Malignant exophthalmos 77 / 266 77. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Onycholysis 78 / 266 78. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Leprosy C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Raynaud's disease 79 / 266 79. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Sturge-Weber disease D. von Recklinghausen's disease 80 / 266 80. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 81 / 266 81. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 82 / 266 82. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Pseudoparkinsonism 83 / 266 83. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 84 / 266 84. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. After epileptic seizure C. Hysteria D. Meningism 85 / 266 85. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Areflexia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 86 / 266 86. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Xanthochromia C. Increased CSF pressure D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 87 / 266 87. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Normal reflexes C. Rigidity D. Tremor 88 / 266 88. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 89 / 266 89. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Phobia C. Depression D. Mania 90 / 266 90. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 91 / 266 91. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral infarction D. Hysteria 92 / 266 92. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 93 / 266 93. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Trypanosomiasis C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Subdural hematoma 94 / 266 94. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Thrombocytopenia 95 / 266 95. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Rheumatic fever D. Thyrotoxicosis 96 / 266 96. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Metoclopramide-induced 97 / 266 97. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Convulsions C. Blindness D. Radioculomyelopathy 98 / 266 98. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Oculomotor palsy D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 99 / 266 99. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. MRI scan D. PET scan 100 / 266 100. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Puerperal sepsis 101 / 266 101. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Giant cell arteritis C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 102 / 266 102. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Eye opening D. Verbal response 103 / 266 103. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 104 / 266 104. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Vigabatrin C. Felbamate D. Lubeluzole 105 / 266 105. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Huge ascites 106 / 266 106. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Abducens palsy C. Polyneuropathy D. Paralysis of soft palate 107 / 266 107. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 108 / 266 108. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Pseudoclonus 109 / 266 109. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Looking in front C. Reading a book D. Looking to the roof 110 / 266 110. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 111 / 266 111. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Myopathy 112 / 266 112. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Weber-Christian disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 113 / 266 113. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Donazepril is used in treatment 114 / 266 114. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Kuru 115 / 266 115. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Duodenal stenosis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Patent ductus arteriosus 116 / 266 116. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 117 / 266 117. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell's palsy C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Syringobulbia 118 / 266 118. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Transient ischemic attack C. Epilepsy D. Head injury 119 / 266 119. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pseudolymphoma 120 / 266 120. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Ependymoma 121 / 266 121. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Aspirin C. Ticlopidine D. Clopidogrel 122 / 266 122. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Absent superficial reflex 123 / 266 123. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased deep reflexes C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 124 / 266 124. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents vasospasm 125 / 266 125. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Non-projectile vomiting 126 / 266 126. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 127 / 266 127. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Negri bodies 128 / 266 128. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Aortic incompetence D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 129 / 266 129. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Nystagmus D. Aphasia 130 / 266 130. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 131 / 266 131. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Diazepam C. Ethosuximide D. Topiramate 132 / 266 132. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Immune disorder 133 / 266 133. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 134 / 266 134. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Platybasia C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 135 / 266 135. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Chloroquine C. Amiodarone D. Probenecid 136 / 266 136. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hyponatremia 137 / 266 137. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Thalamus C. Cerebellum D. Midbrain 138 / 266 138. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Superior sagittal sinus 139 / 266 139. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 140 / 266 140. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic C. Glioblastoma D. Astrocytoma 141 / 266 141. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Ciliary ganglion C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 142 / 266 142. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 143 / 266 143. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Brachycephaly C. Testicular atrophy D. Frontal baldness 144 / 266 144. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Leucodystrophy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 145 / 266 145. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Neurofibroma 146 / 266 146. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Froin's loculation syndrome 147 / 266 147. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Huntington's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 148 / 266 148. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Schizophrenia 149 / 266 149. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Horner's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 150 / 266 150. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 151 / 266 151. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 152 / 266 152. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 153 / 266 153. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Diplopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 154 / 266 154. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Malignant hypertension D. Hypoxia 155 / 266 155. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myopathy 156 / 266 156. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Perspiration C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 157 / 266 157. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 158 / 266 158. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 159 / 266 159. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Viral meningitis 160 / 266 160. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Chorea 161 / 266 161. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 162 / 266 162. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Sylvian fissure C. Olfactory groove D. Cerebello-pontine angle 163 / 266 163. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 164 / 266 164. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 165 / 266 165. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Pons 166 / 266 166. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Midbrain lesion 167 / 266 167. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Enteric fever D. Weil's disease 168 / 266 168. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Cord compression 169 / 266 169. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Benzodiazepine C. Haloperidol D. Chlorpromazine 170 / 266 170. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 171 / 266 171. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Extensor plantar response C. Emotional incontinence D. Flaccid dysarthria 172 / 266 172. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Snout reflex C. Anal reflex D. Grasp reflex 173 / 266 173. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 174 / 266 174. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Lithium C. Haloperidol D. Carbamazepine 175 / 266 175. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Lovastatin C. Zidovudine D. Febuxostat 176 / 266 176. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 177 / 266 177. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 178 / 266 178. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 179 / 266 179. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 180 / 266 180. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Nitrofurantoin C. Vincristine D. INH 181 / 266 181. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Ocular myopathy 182 / 266 182. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Alzheimer's disease D. Parkinsonism 183 / 266 183. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Tunnel vision C. Central scotoma D. Bitemporal hemianopi 184 / 266 184. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Agnosia D. Apraxia 185 / 266 185. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Polycystic kidney 186 / 266 186. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Quinolones C. Macrolides D. Cephalosporins 187 / 266 187. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Verapamil D. Atenolol 188 / 266 188. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 189 / 266 189. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysarthria D. Dysphagia 190 / 266 190. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Disconjugate gaze C. Pin-point pupil D. Hypothermia 191 / 266 191. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Amblyopia D. Cerebellar disorder 192 / 266 192. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Sudden onset C. Small, spastic tongue D. Brisk jaw jerk 193 / 266 193. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Flumazenil 194 / 266 194. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Deafness B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 195 / 266 195. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Thiocyanates 196 / 266 196. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Myotonia C. Athletes D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 197 / 266 197. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Ventral pons C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 198 / 266 198. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Myodonus C. Chorea D. Migraine 199 / 266 199. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Passivity feelings C. Early onset D. Visual hallucinations 200 / 266 200. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 201 / 266 201. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. SIADH C. Polycythaemia vera D. Cluster headache 202 / 266 202. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 203 / 266 203. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Optic glioma C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 204 / 266 204. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 205 / 266 205. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Polymyositis 206 / 266 206. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Sensory ataxia 207 / 266 207. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. H. influenzae C. Pneumococcus D. E. coli 208 / 266 208. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 209 / 266 209. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 210 / 266 210. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Internal capsule 211 / 266 211. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Wilson's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Alcoholism 212 / 266 212. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Meningism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 213 / 266 213. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Anhidrosis C. Constricted pupil D. Enophthalmos 214 / 266 214. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. Glucocorticoids C. IV quinine D. 5% dextrose 215 / 266 215. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 216 / 266 216. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Ataxia D. Hyperglycaemia 217 / 266 217. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Cerebellar infarction C. Multiple sclerosis D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 218 / 266 218. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 219 / 266 219. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Dementia D. Urinary incontinence 220 / 266 220. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tuberculous meningitis 221 / 266 221. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Wasting of muscles D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 222 / 266 222. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 223 / 266 223. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Hepatic precoma 224 / 266 224. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 225 / 266 225. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Fasciculations 226 / 266 226. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Lower pons C. Midbrain D. Medulla 227 / 266 227. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trochlear nerve 228 / 266 228. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypotension D. Hypoxia 229 / 266 229. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Dementia in AIDS C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Hysterical gait disorder 230 / 266 230. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 231 / 266 231. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Virus D. Autoimmunity 232 / 266 232. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Viral meningitis 233 / 266 233. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Drop attacks D. Diplopia 234 / 266 234. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 235 / 266 235. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Peripheral neuropathy 236 / 266 236. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5,S1 237 / 266 237. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Infectious mononucleosis 238 / 266 238. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Lathyrism D. Elapidae group snake bite 239 / 266 239. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Reserpine D. Pindolol 240 / 266 240. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Selegiline C. Levodopa D. Amantadine 241 / 266 241. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Rasagiline C. Pramipexole D. Tiagabine 242 / 266 242. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-21 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-18 243 / 266 243. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 96 hours 244 / 266 244. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Confabulation 245 / 266 245. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 246 / 266 246. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Tonic seizures 247 / 266 247. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Steroid myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 248 / 266 248. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Aura phase of migraine D. Digitalis toxicity 249 / 266 249. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Anemia C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 250 / 266 250. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Succinylcholine C. Methoxyflurane D. Halothane 251 / 266 251. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Calf muscles C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 252 / 266 252. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 253 / 266 253. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Absence of root pain C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Bladder involvement is very late 254 / 266 254. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 255 / 266 255. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Sleep paralysis C. Cataplexy D. Epilepsy 256 / 266 256. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Raised intracranial pressure 257 / 266 257. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Shagreen patch D. Adenoma sebaceum 258 / 266 258. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. IV frusemide C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 259 / 266 259. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Syringomyelia 260 / 266 260. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 261 / 266 261. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 262 / 266 262. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. Xth C. IIIrd D. Vth 263 / 266 263. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Convulsions C. SIADH D. Optic neuritis 264 / 266 264. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hyperkalemia 265 / 266 265. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Cataract C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multiple sclerosis 266 / 266 266. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Demyelinating C. Embolic D. Hemorrhagic LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology