Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 2 / 266 2. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 3 / 266 3. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Glioma 4 / 266 4. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 5 / 266 5. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked recessive 6 / 266 6. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 7 / 266 7. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 8 / 266 8. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 9 / 266 9. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 10 / 266 10. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hyperkalemia C. Deep coma D. Hypokalemia 11 / 266 11. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. Mania C. Polycythaemia vera D. SIADH 12 / 266 12. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Lacunar infarction D. Cerebral atrophy 13 / 266 13. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Absent deep reflexes C. Retention of urine D. Hypertonia 14 / 266 14. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Agraphia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 15 / 266 15. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Central scotoma 16 / 266 16. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Deep reflexes are depressed 18 / 266 18. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lamotrigine C. Vigabatrin D. Lubeluzole 19 / 266 19. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 20 / 266 20. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumor D. Tuberculous meningitis 21 / 266 21. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Refsum's disease D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 22 / 266 22. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. SIADH 23 / 266 23. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Ataxia C. Horner's syndrome D. Hiccups 24 / 266 24. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Encephalitis C. Neuropathy D. Myopathy 25 / 266 25. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 26 / 266 26. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Febrile C. Trauma D. Epilepsy 27 / 266 27. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 28 / 266 28. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 29 / 266 29. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Myotonia C. Chorea D. Tetany 30 / 266 30. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Focal neuro deficit C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Blindness 31 / 266 31. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Horner's syndrome 32 / 266 32. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Benzodiazepine 33 / 266 33. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Extensor plantar response C. Emotional incontinence D. Masked facies 34 / 266 34. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Infantile spasm C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Complex partial 35 / 266 35. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Radial nerve palsy 36 / 266 36. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 37 / 266 37. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Coprolalia 38 / 266 38. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 39 / 266 39. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. CT scan D. MRI scan 40 / 266 40. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trochlear nerve 41 / 266 41. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 42 / 266 42. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 43 / 266 43. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 44 / 266 44. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 45 / 266 45. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Coma 46 / 266 46. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 47 / 266 47. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Lithium C. Clomipramine D. Carbamazepine 48 / 266 48. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Anal reflex C. Snout reflex D. Sucking reflex 49 / 266 49. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Emetine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 50 / 266 50. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 51 / 266 51. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Nasal regurgitation C. Dysphagia D. Dysarthria 52 / 266 52. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Lead 53 / 266 53. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 54 / 266 54. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 55 / 266 55. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Botulism C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 56 / 266 56. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Absent tendon reflexes 57 / 266 57. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Male dominance C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Periorbital pain 58 / 266 58. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Midbrain 59 / 266 59. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 60 / 266 60. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 61 / 266 61. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Myotonic pupil C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Organophosphorus poisoning 62 / 266 62. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Embolic C. Hemorrhagic D. Demyelinating 63 / 266 63. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 64 / 266 64. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Leucodystrophy D. Cerebral palsy 65 / 266 65. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 66 / 266 66. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 67 / 266 67. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Athletes D. Myotonia 68 / 266 68. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Ataxia C. Apraxia D. Areflexia 69 / 266 69. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 70 / 266 70. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Oculomotor nerve D. Sympathetic nervous system 71 / 266 71. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Babinski's sign C. Small, spastic tongue D. Brisk jaw jerk 72 / 266 72. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Advanced pregnancy D. Huge ascites 73 / 266 73. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 74 / 266 74. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 75 / 266 75. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 76 / 266 76. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle biopsy C. Muscle enzyme study D. Electromyography 77 / 266 77. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Hysteria D. Peripheral neuropathy 78 / 266 78. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Cluster headache C. Syringobulbia D. Bell's palsy 79 / 266 79. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyponatraemia D. Wilson's disease 80 / 266 80. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Hyperkinesia C. Rigidity D. Tremor 81 / 266 81. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Babinski's sign C. Spasticity D. Clonus 82 / 266 82. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Venous thrombosis 83 / 266 83. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Diabetes mellitus 84 / 266 84. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Pentoxifylline C. Clopidogrel D. Aspirin 85 / 266 85. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 86 / 266 86. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 87 / 266 87. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Chaddock's sign 88 / 266 88. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Alcohol C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Valproic acid 89 / 266 89. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 90 / 266 90. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 91 / 266 91. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypertonia C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypermetria 92 / 266 92. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic neuropathy 93 / 266 93. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Hepatocellular failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Severe heart failure 94 / 266 94. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Lax abdominal wall 95 / 266 95. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Perspiration C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 96 / 266 96. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 97 / 266 97. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 98 / 266 98. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Dementia in AIDS 99 / 266 99. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Flumazenil C. Cocaine D. Amphetamines 100 / 266 100. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Takayasu's disease 101 / 266 101. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Absence of root pain C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 102 / 266 102. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Early onset C. Visual hallucinations D. Depression 103 / 266 103. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Pin-point pupil C. Hypothermia D. Paralysis 104 / 266 104. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 105 / 266 105. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Pseudoclonus 106 / 266 106. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. AV malformations C. Emotional excitement D. Systemic hypertension 107 / 266 107. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic D. Glioblastoma 108 / 266 108. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Apraxia D. Agnosia 109 / 266 109. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Ankle oedema D. Fatty liver 110 / 266 110. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 111 / 266 111. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 112 / 266 112. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's chorea 113 / 266 113. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Quinolones C. Macrolides D. Cephalosporins 114 / 266 114. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 115 / 266 115. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 116 / 266 116. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 117 / 266 117. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Botulinus poisoning 118 / 266 118. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 119 / 266 119. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Weil's disease C. Enteric fever D. Atypical pneumonia 120 / 266 120. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral infarction C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral haemorrhage 121 / 266 121. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Normal intellectual activity 122 / 266 122. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 123 / 266 123. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Tetanus D. Quinsy 124 / 266 124. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Dantrolene C. Methoxyflurane D. Succinylcholine 125 / 266 125. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syringomyelia C. Cervical spondylosis D. Motor neuron disease 126 / 266 126. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. Hysteria 127 / 266 127. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Ankle clonus C. Anemia D. Glossitis 128 / 266 128. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 129 / 266 129. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Seizures C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 130 / 266 130. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 131 / 266 131. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 132 / 266 132. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Verapamil D. Atenolol 133 / 266 133. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Involuntary movements C. Stereognosis D. Tone and power 134 / 266 134. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 135 / 266 135. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 136 / 266 136. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 137 / 266 137. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Myopathy C. Cervical rib D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 138 / 266 138. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 139 / 266 139. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypoxia 140 / 266 140. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Rubella panencephalitis 141 / 266 141. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. L5,S1 C. S1,S2 D. S1 142 / 266 142. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 143 / 266 143. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Onycholysis D. Diarrhoea 144 / 266 144. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Weakness and spasticity D. Absent superficial reflex 145 / 266 145. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 146 / 266 146. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 147 / 266 147. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Increased deep reflexes D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 148 / 266 148. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Testicular atrophy D. Brachycephaly 149 / 266 149. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Nystagmus C. Papilloedema D. Aphasia 150 / 266 150. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Metoclopramide-induced 151 / 266 151. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Addison's disease 152 / 266 152. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Dura matter C. Pineal body D. Choroid plexus 153 / 266 153. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents vasospasm 154 / 266 154. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Horner's syndrome C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 155 / 266 155. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Trypanosomiasis 156 / 266 156. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. Glucocorticoids C. 5% dextrose D. IV mannitol 157 / 266 157. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Wilson's disease C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Galactosaemia 158 / 266 158. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Cervical spine D. Brainstem 159 / 266 159. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Immunoglobulin D. Interferon 160 / 266 160. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 161 / 266 161. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 162 / 266 162. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Galactorrhoea C. Gynaecomastia D. Acromegaly 163 / 266 163. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 164 / 266 164. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Arrhythmia C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Tight aortic stenosis 165 / 266 165. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 166 / 266 166. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tay-Sachs disease 167 / 266 167. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Meningism D. Acoustic neurofibroma 168 / 266 168. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Polyneuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 169 / 266 169. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Parietal D. Occipital 170 / 266 170. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Substantia nigra D. Red nucleus 171 / 266 171. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Aortic incompetence D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 172 / 266 172. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cataract C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cirrhosis of liver 173 / 266 173. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 174 / 266 174. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Vibration sensation D. Perceptual rivalry 175 / 266 175. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 176 / 266 176. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 177 / 266 177. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Diplopia D. Drop attacks 178 / 266 178. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 179 / 266 179. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Seen in tall, thin people 180 / 266 180. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. TOCP poisoning C. Amyloidosis D. Acute intermittent porphyria 181 / 266 181. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure motor hemiparesis 182 / 266 182. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. EMG C. Cerebellar functions D. Sensory functions 183 / 266 183. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Huntington's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 184 / 266 184. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 185 / 266 185. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Brain tumour C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 186 / 266 186. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 187 / 266 187. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Tonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 188 / 266 188. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 189 / 266 189. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae snake bite 190 / 266 190. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 191 / 266 191. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 192 / 266 192. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Thrombocytopenia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 193 / 266 193. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 194 / 266 194. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Periodic paralysis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Myasthenia gravis 195 / 266 195. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Reading a book C. Looking in front D. Looking to the roof 196 / 266 196. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 197 / 266 197. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Malignant hypertension D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 198 / 266 198. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Loss of immediate recall C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 199 / 266 199. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Viral meningitis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 200 / 266 200. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Parkinsonism 201 / 266 201. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Ataxia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 202 / 266 202. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Megaloblastic anemia 203 / 266 203. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 204 / 266 204. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Infertility C. Alzheimer's disease D. Acromegaly 205 / 266 205. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Polymyositis 206 / 266 206. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Ropinirole C. Pramipexole D. Tiagabine 207 / 266 207. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Sensory dysfunction D. Waddling gait 208 / 266 208. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 209 / 266 209. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Neurofibromatosis D. Friedreich's ataxia 210 / 266 210. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sarcoidosis D. Infectious mononucleosis 211 / 266 211. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 212 / 266 212. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 213 / 266 213. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. Pneumococcus 214 / 266 214. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Motor response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 215 / 266 215. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 216 / 266 216. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Midbrain C. Putamen D. Cerebellum 217 / 266 217. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Deltoid D. Pectoralis major 218 / 266 218. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 219 / 266 219. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Pyramidal signs 220 / 266 220. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Acute renal failure C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Wallenberg's syndrome 221 / 266 221. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Flexor spasm C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Mass reflex 222 / 266 222. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Mania C. Depression D. Paranoia 223 / 266 223. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 224 / 266 224. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. T1 C. T2 D. C8 225 / 266 225. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Neurofibroma 226 / 266 226. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 227 / 266 227. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Pompholyx D. Adenoma sebaceum 228 / 266 228. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Toxin 229 / 266 229. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Hyperpyrexia C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Pseudoparkinsonism 230 / 266 230. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 231 / 266 231. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Sleep paralysis C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 232 / 266 232. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 233 / 266 233. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 234 / 266 234. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Trigeminal neuralgia 235 / 266 235. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Hepatic precoma D. Taboparesis 236 / 266 236. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Increased tone D. Brisk deep reflexes 237 / 266 237. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Headache C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Convulsions 238 / 266 238. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Aflatoxin D. Thiocyanates 239 / 266 239. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 240 / 266 240. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Paroxetine C. Sertraline D. Fluoxetine 241 / 266 241. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic carcinoma 242 / 266 242. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vth C. IIIrd D. Vllth 243 / 266 243. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 244 / 266 244. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ethambutol 245 / 266 245. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 246 / 266 246. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Normokalaemia 247 / 266 247. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 248 / 266 248. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Olfactory groove C. Sylvian fissure D. Over visual cortex 249 / 266 249. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 250 / 266 250. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Motor neuron disease D. Polymyositis 251 / 266 251. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 252 / 266 252. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Choreoathetosis C. Mental retardation D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 253 / 266 253. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Ocular myopathy 254 / 266 254. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 255 / 266 255. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Chorea D. Myoclonus 256 / 266 256. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Increased CSF pressure C. High protein content D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 257 / 266 257. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. High places C. Pain D. Strangers 258 / 266 258. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peripheral neuropathy 259 / 266 259. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 260 / 266 260. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Seizures D. Dysphasia 261 / 266 261. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Midbrain C. Lower pons D. Upper pons 262 / 266 262. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Cerebellar infarction C. Aura phase of migraine D. Lesion in visual cortex 263 / 266 263. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe 264 / 266 264. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Alcoholism D. Cerebellar disorder 265 / 266 265. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 266 / 266 266. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Steroid myopathy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology