Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Caudate nucleus C. Putamen D. Substantia nigra 2 / 266 2. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 3 / 266 3. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Trypanosomiasis D. Pickwickian syndrome 4 / 266 4. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 5 / 266 5. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Diabetic amyotrophy 6 / 266 6. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Ankle clonus C. Anemia D. Glossitis 7 / 266 7. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 8 / 266 8. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T4 C. C8 D. T2 9 / 266 9. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 10 / 266 10. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Deafness D. Retinitis pigmentosa 11 / 266 11. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Cocaine 12 / 266 12. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 13 / 266 13. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 14 / 266 14. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Masked facies C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Extensor plantar response 15 / 266 15. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Weakness and spasticity D. Absent superficial reflex 16 / 266 16. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 17 / 266 17. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Facial nerve palsy C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 18 / 266 18. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cirrhosis of liver 19 / 266 19. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 20 / 266 20. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 21 / 266 21. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 22 / 266 22. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 23 / 266 23. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 24 / 266 24. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Ependymoma C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Glioma 25 / 266 25. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. May be associated with malignancy D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 26 / 266 26. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Reading a book 27 / 266 27. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Increased CSF pressure D. High protein content 28 / 266 28. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 29 / 266 29. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 30 / 266 30. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Reserpine C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 31 / 266 31. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle biopsy D. Muscle enzyme study 32 / 266 32. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Agnosia 33 / 266 33. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Fluvoxamine 34 / 266 34. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Raynaud's disease C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetic neuropathy 35 / 266 35. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. Hysteria 36 / 266 36. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Valproic acid C. Myxoedema D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 37 / 266 37. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 38 / 266 38. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 39 / 266 39. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Shagreen patch C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Pompholyx 40 / 266 40. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. IV mannitol 41 / 266 41. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Distal muscle weakness C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Exaggerated deep reflex 42 / 266 42. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common in women 43 / 266 43. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 44 / 266 44. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 45 / 266 45. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Acute renal failure D. Oesophagitis 46 / 266 46. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Malignant hypertension D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 47 / 266 47. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Trimipramine C. Benzodiazepine D. Chlorpromazine 48 / 266 48. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Drop attacks 49 / 266 49. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 50 / 266 50. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Athletes C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 51 / 266 51. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Temporal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Frontal lobe 52 / 266 52. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Pentoxifylline C. Aspirin D. Ticlopidine 53 / 266 53. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Loss of accommodation 54 / 266 54. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Sensory dysfunction 55 / 266 55. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 56 / 266 56. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulinus poisoning D. Elapidae group snake bite 57 / 266 57. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Syringomyelia 58 / 266 58. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Putamen 59 / 266 59. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Olfactory groove D. Sylvian fissure 60 / 266 60. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 61 / 266 61. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 62 / 266 62. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. E. coli C. H. influenzae D. Meningococcous 63 / 266 63. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents rebleeding 64 / 266 64. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 65 / 266 65. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 66 / 266 66. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Babinski's sign C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Sudden onset 67 / 266 67. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Punch-drunk syndrome 68 / 266 68. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 69 / 266 69. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Aflatoxin D. Thiocyanates 70 / 266 70. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Seizures D. Dysphasia 71 / 266 71. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Left atrial myxoma 72 / 266 72. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Gonda sign D. Babinski's sign 73 / 266 73. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Patchy arachnoiditis 74 / 266 74. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Pain C. Strangers D. Animals 75 / 266 75. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Frontal D. Temporal 76 / 266 76. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Arrhythmia 77 / 266 77. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-21 78 / 266 78. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Increased tone D. Intact proprioception 79 / 266 79. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Systemic hypertension D. Emotional excitement 80 / 266 80. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Visual hallucinations 81 / 266 81. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Stereognosis 82 / 266 82. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Methoxyflurane C. Succinylcholine D. Halothane 83 / 266 83. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 84 / 266 84. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Hyponatraemia C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Wilson's disease 85 / 266 85. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Polycystic kidney 86 / 266 86. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Gynaecomastia 87 / 266 87. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Cataplexy C. Sleep paralysis D. Hypnagogic hallucination 88 / 266 88. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Amblyopia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Phenytoin toxicity 89 / 266 89. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Ocular myopathy D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 90 / 266 90. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Phenytoin C. Sumatriptan D. Atenolol 91 / 266 91. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Autonomic response C. Motor response D. Verbal response 92 / 266 92. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 93 / 266 93. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Deep coma 94 / 266 94. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Medulla C. Upper pons D. Lower pons 95 / 266 95. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV frusemide C. Dexamethasone D. IV mannitol 96 / 266 96. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 97 / 266 97. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Acromegaly 98 / 266 98. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Depression 99 / 266 99. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Infraspinatus C. Deltoid D. Calf muscles 100 / 266 100. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Ocular myopathy 101 / 266 101. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumor D. Multiple sclerosis 102 / 266 102. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypotension D. Hypoxia 103 / 266 103. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 104 / 266 104. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 105 / 266 105. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Obesity D. Hysteria 106 / 266 106. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 107 / 266 107. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 108 / 266 108. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 109 / 266 109. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Cerebral atrophy C. Neurosyphilis D. Lacunar infarction 110 / 266 110. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 111 / 266 111. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 112 / 266 112. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Encephalitis C. Myelopathy D. Neuropathy 113 / 266 113. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Enophthalmos C. Constricted pupil D. Complete ptosis 114 / 266 114. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 115 / 266 115. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Apraxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 116 / 266 116. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Relief by haloperidol 117 / 266 117. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Epilepsy C. Trauma D. Febrile 118 / 266 118. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Felbamate C. Vigabatrin D. Lamotrigine 119 / 266 119. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Spasticity C. Fasciculations D. Babinski's sign 120 / 266 120. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 121 / 266 121. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Chorea 122 / 266 122. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Negri bodies D. Asteroid bodies 123 / 266 123. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Seizures D. Mental retardation 124 / 266 124. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 125 / 266 125. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 126 / 266 126. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperthyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hypothyroidism 127 / 266 127. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 128 / 266 128. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 129 / 266 129. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 130 / 266 130. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Bulbar palsy 131 / 266 131. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 132 / 266 132. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Cerebral palsy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 133 / 266 133. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5 C. L5,S1 D. S1 134 / 266 134. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Blindness C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Convulsions 135 / 266 135. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Leukodystrophy 136 / 266 136. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Ependymoma C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 137 / 266 137. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 138 / 266 138. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. INH C. Nitrofurantoin D. Vincristine 139 / 266 139. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. PET scan C. CT scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 140 / 266 140. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 141 / 266 141. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Male dominance D. Periorbital pain 142 / 266 142. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe 143 / 266 143. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 96 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 144 / 266 144. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Livedo reticularis C. Seizures D. Ankle oedema 145 / 266 145. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Cervical spine C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 146 / 266 146. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Steroid myopathy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 147 / 266 147. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 148 / 266 148. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Xth C. Vth D. Vllth 149 / 266 149. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 150 / 266 150. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Epilepsy 151 / 266 151. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Diplopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 152 / 266 152. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Dementia in AIDS 153 / 266 153. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Inflammatory 154 / 266 154. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Motor neuron disease C. Cerebral diplegia D. Multiple sclerosis 155 / 266 155. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Metoclopramide-induced 156 / 266 156. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 157 / 266 157. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 158 / 266 158. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 159 / 266 159. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Cervical spondylosis D. Duchenne myopathy 160 / 266 160. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Pure sensory stroke C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure motor hemiparesis 161 / 266 161. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Proprioception C. Sensory functions D. Cerebellar functions 162 / 266 162. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 163 / 266 163. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysphagia C. Spastic tongue D. Dysarthria 164 / 266 164. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Raised intracranial pressure 165 / 266 165. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Medulloblastoma 166 / 266 166. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Chronic motor neuron disease 167 / 266 167. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Optic glioma 168 / 266 168. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Hemiballismus C. Myoclonus D. Dystonia 169 / 266 169. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Central scotoma 170 / 266 170. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Ptosis C. Testicular atrophy D. Brachycephaly 171 / 266 171. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae snake bite 172 / 266 172. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 173 / 266 173. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 174 / 266 174. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Vestibular lesion 175 / 266 175. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Botulism 176 / 266 176. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 177 / 266 177. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Alcohol C. Vincristine D. Arsenic 178 / 266 178. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Onycholysis 179 / 266 179. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 180 / 266 180. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Pons 181 / 266 181. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 182 / 266 182. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Huntington's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 183 / 266 183. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Normal intellectual activity C. Ataxia D. Dementia 184 / 266 184. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 185 / 266 185. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 186 / 266 186. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myopathy 187 / 266 187. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Cerebellar infarction 188 / 266 188. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Hypoglycaemic coma 189 / 266 189. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 190 / 266 190. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Gillespie's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 191 / 266 191. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic 192 / 266 192. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 193 / 266 193. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant 194 / 266 194. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 195 / 266 195. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. May occur spontaneously 196 / 266 196. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Tetanus D. Diphtheria 197 / 266 197. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syringomyelia 198 / 266 198. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 199 / 266 199. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pendular nystagmus 200 / 266 200. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Papilloedema C. Nystagmus D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 201 / 266 201. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 202 / 266 202. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Aortic incompetence C. Cerebellar disorder D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 203 / 266 203. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Anal reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Snout reflex 204 / 266 204. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Mania 205 / 266 205. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Interferon C. Cyclophosphamide D. Immunoglobulin 206 / 266 206. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 207 / 266 207. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 208 / 266 208. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 209 / 266 209. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 210 / 266 210. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 211 / 266 211. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 212 / 266 212. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Immune disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 213 / 266 213. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Migraine C. Myodonus D. Psychosis 214 / 266 214. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Mass reflex C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 215 / 266 215. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Levodopa C. Selegiline D. Amantadine 216 / 266 216. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 217 / 266 217. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 218 / 266 218. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Neurosarcoidosis 219 / 266 219. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Dolichocephaly C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Platybasia 220 / 266 220. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Coma C. Retention of urine D. Hypertonia 221 / 266 221. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Hepatic precoma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Taboparesis 222 / 266 222. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 223 / 266 223. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Cerebellar disorder 224 / 266 224. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Areflexia C. Apraxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 225 / 266 225. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 226 / 266 226. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Titubation C. Hypertonia D. Hypermetria 227 / 266 227. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Ciliary ganglion C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 228 / 266 228. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 229 / 266 229. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Papilledema 230 / 266 230. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Brainstem 231 / 266 231. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 232 / 266 232. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased deep reflexes C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 233 / 266 233. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Rigidity C. Normal reflexes D. Hyperkinesia 234 / 266 234. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Headache C. Convulsions D. Non-projectile vomiting 235 / 266 235. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Normokalaemia 236 / 266 236. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Petit mal C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Infantile spasm 237 / 266 237. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Confabulation D. Presence of nystagmus 238 / 266 238. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Haemochromatosis C. Wilson's disease D. Galactosaemia 239 / 266 239. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 240 / 266 240. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 241 / 266 241. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Amiodarone C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 242 / 266 242. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Aphasia 243 / 266 243. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Rasagiline C. Tiagabine D. Ropinirole 244 / 266 244. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Hiccups C. Horner's syndrome D. Pyramidal lesion 245 / 266 245. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Facial weakness 246 / 266 246. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Duodenal stenosis D. Polymyositis 247 / 266 247. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 248 / 266 248. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Cluster headache D. Bell's palsy 249 / 266 249. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Brain tumor D. Hysteria 250 / 266 250. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Haloperidol C. Clomipramine D. Carbamazepine 251 / 266 251. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Gross pedal oedema C. Parkinsonism D. Tabes dorsalis 252 / 266 252. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 253 / 266 253. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 254 / 266 254. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 255 / 266 255. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 256 / 266 256. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cord compression 257 / 266 257. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Refsum's disease 258 / 266 258. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 259 / 266 259. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Toxin C. Virus D. Bacteria 260 / 266 260. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Retrograde amnesia C. Loss of immediate recall D. Confabulation 261 / 266 261. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Snakebite C. Poliomyelitis D. Rabies 262 / 266 262. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Cluster headache C. SIADH D. Polycythaemia vera 263 / 266 263. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Tuberculosis 264 / 266 264. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 265 / 266 265. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. SIADH C. Optic neuritis D. Convulsions 266 / 266 266. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Tabes dorsalis D. Polyneuropathy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology