Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 2 / 266 2. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 3 / 266 3. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. SIADH C. Polycythaemia vera D. Mania 4 / 266 4. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Hyperpyrexia C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Pseudoparkinsonism 5 / 266 5. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Polymyositis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 6 / 266 6. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Athetosis C. Tetany D. Chorea 7 / 266 7. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Myositis D. Polyneuropathy 8 / 266 8. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Gaucher's disease D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 9 / 266 9. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Flumazenil C. Cocaine D. Carbamazepine 10 / 266 10. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 11 / 266 11. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 12 / 266 12. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Cervical spine D. Brainstem 13 / 266 13. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Diplopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Right homonymous hemianopia 14 / 266 14. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Tone and power C. Nutrition of muscles D. Involuntary movements 15 / 266 15. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluvoxamine C. Paroxetine D. Fluoxetine 16 / 266 16. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 17 / 266 17. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Vincristine C. INH D. Nitrofurantoin 18 / 266 18. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 19 / 266 19. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Syringobulbia D. Cluster headache 20 / 266 20. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Hepatocellular failure 21 / 266 21. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 22 / 266 22. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Rasagiline 23 / 266 23. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Kuru C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Rubella panencephalitis 24 / 266 24. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Cerebral atrophy D. Neurosyphilis 25 / 266 25. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Distal muscle weakness C. Pseudoclonus D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 26 / 266 26. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. May be associated with malignancy D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 27 / 266 27. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Hysterical gait disorder 28 / 266 28. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Nasal regurgitation C. Spastic tongue D. Dysphagia 29 / 266 29. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 30 / 266 30. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 31 / 266 31. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Retinal hemorrhage 32 / 266 32. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulinus poisoning D. Elapidae group snake bite 33 / 266 33. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Amyloidosis D. Pyridoxine deficiency 34 / 266 34. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Tonic seizures 35 / 266 35. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Hypothermia D. Disconjugate gaze 36 / 266 36. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 37 / 266 37. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 38 / 266 38. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Horner's syndrome C. Hiccups D. Pyramidal lesion 39 / 266 39. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Vincristine C. Lead D. Arsenic 40 / 266 40. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 41 / 266 41. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Myxoedema 42 / 266 42. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 43 / 266 43. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Infectious mononucleosis 44 / 266 44. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 45 / 266 45. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Chorea C. Migraine D. Myodonus 46 / 266 46. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 47 / 266 47. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Hemiparesis C. Facial weakness D. Aphasia 48 / 266 48. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Frontal baldness C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 49 / 266 49. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 50 / 266 50. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. PET scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. MRI scan 51 / 266 51. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Coprolalia D. Multiple tics 52 / 266 52. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Steroid myopathy C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 53 / 266 53. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 54 / 266 54. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 55 / 266 55. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Cataract 56 / 266 56. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. C8 C. T4 D. T1 57 / 266 57. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 58 / 266 58. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Confabulation C. Visual hallucinations D. Tremor 59 / 266 59. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Depression 60 / 266 60. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Trimipramine C. Benzodiazepine D. Chlorpromazine 61 / 266 61. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Donazepril is used in treatment 62 / 266 62. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Nystagmus 63 / 266 63. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Advanced pregnancy 64 / 266 64. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Alcoholism C. Wilson's disease D. Cerebellar disorder 65 / 266 65. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Viral meningitis 66 / 266 66. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Radial nerve palsy C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 67 / 266 67. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 68 / 266 68. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Phenytoin 69 / 266 69. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Ankle clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Anemia 70 / 266 70. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 71 / 266 71. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Lax abdominal wall C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 72 / 266 72. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve 73 / 266 73. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. High places C. Pain D. Strangers 74 / 266 74. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Cervical rib D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 75 / 266 75. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Deafness 76 / 266 76. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Occipital 77 / 266 77. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. E. coli C. H. influenzae D. Pneumococcus 78 / 266 78. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 79 / 266 79. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Tuberculosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 80 / 266 80. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 81 / 266 81. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysphonia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysarthria 82 / 266 82. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Corticosteroid C. Immunoglobulin D. Cyclophosphamide 83 / 266 83. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypervitaminosis D 84 / 266 84. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hysteria D. Duchenne myopathy 85 / 266 85. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Poliomyelitis D. Neurofibromatosis 86 / 266 86. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 87 / 266 87. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Aspirin C. Pentoxifylline D. Ticlopidine 88 / 266 88. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 89 / 266 89. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Reserpine C. Pindolol D. Oral contraceptive pills 90 / 266 90. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 91 / 266 91. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Amantadine D. Selegiline 92 / 266 92. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Lithium 93 / 266 93. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Venous thrombosis 94 / 266 94. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 24 hours C. 3 weeks D. 96 hours 95 / 266 95. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Medulloblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 96 / 266 96. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Two-point localisation D. Graphesthesia 97 / 266 97. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Loss of recent memory C. Presence of nystagmus D. Confabulation 98 / 266 98. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Vigabatrin C. Lubeluzole D. Lamotrigine 99 / 266 99. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking in front D. Reading a book 100 / 266 100. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 101 / 266 101. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 102 / 266 102. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Meningism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 103 / 266 103. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Ocular myopathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 104 / 266 104. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Neurofibroma D. Spinal epidural abscess 105 / 266 105. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 106 / 266 106. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Huntington's chorea D. Shy-Drager syndrome 107 / 266 107. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypercalcemia 108 / 266 108. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Hepatic precoma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 109 / 266 109. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Raised intracranial pressure 110 / 266 110. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Optic nerve D. Trochlear nerve 111 / 266 111. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Alcohol withdrawal 112 / 266 112. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Arrhythmia D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 113 / 266 113. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Ankle oedema D. Fatty liver 114 / 266 114. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 115 / 266 115. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agnosia 116 / 266 116. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 117 / 266 117. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-18 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-13 118 / 266 118. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Puerperal sepsis 119 / 266 119. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Restlessness D. Transverse myelitis 120 / 266 120. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 121 / 266 121. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. Xanthochromia 122 / 266 122. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Dantrolene C. Succinylcholine D. Halothane 123 / 266 123. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Cerebral cortex C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 124 / 266 124. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Amiodarone 125 / 266 125. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Rigidity C. Normal reflexes D. Tremor 126 / 266 126. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Friedreich's ataxia 127 / 266 127. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle biopsy D. Muscle enzyme study 128 / 266 128. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 129 / 266 129. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 130 / 266 130. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C3, 4 C. C4, 5 D. C5, 6 131 / 266 131. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Horner's syndrome C. Botulism D. Oculomotor palsy 132 / 266 132. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 133 / 266 133. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pendular nystagmus C. Pseudolymphoma D. Cerebellar syndrome 134 / 266 134. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. Hysteria C. Meningism D. After epileptic seizure 135 / 266 135. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 136 / 266 136. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Epilepsy C. Trauma D. Encephalitis 137 / 266 137. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 138 / 266 138. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Sylvian fissure D. Olfactory groove 139 / 266 139. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Diarrhoea 140 / 266 140. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 141 / 266 141. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 142 / 266 142. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Cerebellar disorder C. Amblyopia D. Phenytoin toxicity 143 / 266 143. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Absent deep reflexes C. Retention of urine D. Coma 144 / 266 144. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 145 / 266 145. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Poliomyelitis C. Snakebite D. Rabies 146 / 266 146. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Neuropathy D. Encephalitis 147 / 266 147. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Malignant hypertension C. Hypoxia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 148 / 266 148. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 149 / 266 149. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Carotid artery occlusion 150 / 266 150. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Enteric fever 151 / 266 151. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Sleep paralysis 152 / 266 152. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Brain tumor C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tuberculous meningitis 153 / 266 153. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Areflexia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Apraxia 154 / 266 154. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 155 / 266 155. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 156 / 266 156. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Brain tumor D. Hysteria 157 / 266 157. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 158 / 266 158. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 159 / 266 159. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 160 / 266 160. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Ataxia D. Osteomalacia 161 / 266 161. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Cerebral cortex 162 / 266 162. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 163 / 266 163. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Inflammatory C. Hemorrhagic D. Demyelinating 164 / 266 164. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Hemiballismus C. Myoclonus D. Dystonia 165 / 266 165. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypothyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 166 / 266 166. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Agraphia C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 167 / 266 167. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Diazepam C. Ethosuximide D. Topiramate 168 / 266 168. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 169 / 266 169. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 170 / 266 170. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Hutchinson's pupil 171 / 266 171. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 172 / 266 172. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 173 / 266 173. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypokalemia 174 / 266 174. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Anal reflex D. Snout reflex 175 / 266 175. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Wasting of muscles D. Absent tendon reflexes 176 / 266 176. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myopathy 177 / 266 177. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 178 / 266 178. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 179 / 266 179. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Defect in learning C. Loss of immediate recall D. Confabulation 180 / 266 180. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 181 / 266 181. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Acute renal failure 182 / 266 182. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 183 / 266 183. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington's chorea 184 / 266 184. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Alzheimer's disease 185 / 266 185. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Myopathy 186 / 266 186. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Tay-Sachs disease 187 / 266 187. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common migraine has aura 188 / 266 188. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Leucodystrophy D. Alzheimer's disease 189 / 266 189. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Zidovudine C. Emetine D. Febuxostat 190 / 266 190. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Fasciculations C. Spasticity D. Babinski's sign 191 / 266 191. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Raynaud's disease C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 192 / 266 192. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Epilepsy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebellar infarction 193 / 266 193. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 194 / 266 194. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Parkinsonism D. Aortic incompetence 195 / 266 195. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Mental retardation 196 / 266 196. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 197 / 266 197. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 198 / 266 198. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Adenoma sebaceum C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Pompholyx 199 / 266 199. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Bacteria 200 / 266 200. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Titubation C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypermetria 201 / 266 201. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Metoclopramide-induced 202 / 266 202. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. SIADH 203 / 266 203. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Cerebellar infarction C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Aura phase of migraine 204 / 266 204. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Basal ganglia C. Dura matter D. Choroid plexus 205 / 266 205. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Infertility 206 / 266 206. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 207 / 266 207. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Immune disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 208 / 266 208. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 209 / 266 209. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1,S2 C. L5,S1 D. S1 210 / 266 210. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Trypanosomiasis 211 / 266 211. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 212 / 266 212. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Polyneuropathy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 213 / 266 213. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 214 / 266 214. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 215 / 266 215. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Oculomotor nerve 216 / 266 216. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Duodenal stenosis C. Polymyositis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 217 / 266 217. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Mania D. Paranoia 218 / 266 218. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 219 / 266 219. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Athletes C. Manual labourers D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 220 / 266 220. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 221 / 266 221. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Blindness D. Focal neuro deficit 222 / 266 222. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Viral meningitis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 223 / 266 223. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Ependymoma 224 / 266 224. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Central scotoma C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Tunnel vision 225 / 266 225. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 226 / 266 226. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 227 / 266 227. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 228 / 266 228. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Increased tone C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 229 / 266 229. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypoxia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypotension 230 / 266 230. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 231 / 266 231. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Astrocytoma C. Glioblastoma D. Metastatic 232 / 266 232. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Optic glioma C. Scoliosis D. Acoustic neuroma 233 / 266 233. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 234 / 266 234. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Wilson's disease 235 / 266 235. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 236 / 266 236. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 237 / 266 237. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Vllth C. Xth D. IIIrd 238 / 266 238. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hypokalemia D. Deep coma 239 / 266 239. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 240 / 266 240. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Glioma C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Ependymoma 241 / 266 241. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 242 / 266 242. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Motor response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 243 / 266 243. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 244 / 266 244. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 245 / 266 245. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 246 / 266 246. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cervical spondylosis 247 / 266 247. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Vestibular lesion 248 / 266 248. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Lower pons C. Medulla D. Upper pons 249 / 266 249. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Putamen C. Thalamus D. Cerebellum 250 / 266 250. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Head injury 251 / 266 251. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Altered consciousness C. Headache D. Non-projectile vomiting 252 / 266 252. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 253 / 266 253. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 254 / 266 254. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Asteroid bodies 255 / 266 255. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Complex partial 256 / 266 256. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 257 / 266 257. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. Glucocorticoids 258 / 266 258. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Enophthalmos C. Constricted pupil D. Complete ptosis 259 / 266 259. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Babinski's sign C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Small, spastic tongue 260 / 266 260. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Parkinsonism C. Gynaecomastia D. Acromegaly 261 / 266 261. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Mamillary bodies 262 / 266 262. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 263 / 266 263. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Flexor plantar response C. Mass reflex D. Increased tone in flexor groups 264 / 266 264. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 265 / 266 265. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Quinolones 266 / 266 266. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Urinary incontinence C. Normal intellectual activity D. Ataxia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology