Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cervical spondylosis 2 / 266 2. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 3 / 266 3. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Psychosis C. Migraine D. Chorea 4 / 266 4. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Coprolalia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Dementia 5 / 266 5. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Multiparous woman C. Obesity D. Lax abdominal wall 6 / 266 6. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Cortex D. Pons 7 / 266 7. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Addison's disease 8 / 266 8. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 9 / 266 9. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Rabies C. Myasthenia gravis D. Poliomyelitis 10 / 266 10. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Two-point localisation C. Vibration sensation D. Perceptual rivalry 11 / 266 11. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 12 / 266 12. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 13 / 266 13. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Friedreich's ataxia 14 / 266 14. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Oculomotor palsy 15 / 266 15. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Normal reflexes C. Rigidity D. Hyperkinesia 16 / 266 16. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Glioblastoma 17 / 266 17. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Central scotoma 18 / 266 18. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 19 / 266 19. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Hypoxia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 20 / 266 20. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 21 / 266 21. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Immune disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 22 / 266 22. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 23 / 266 23. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Meningism 24 / 266 24. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Pyramidal signs 25 / 266 25. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Cataplexy C. Epilepsy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 26 / 266 26. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 27 / 266 27. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Lovastatin C. Emetine D. Febuxostat 28 / 266 28. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 29 / 266 29. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Parietal 30 / 266 30. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. Glucocorticoids C. 5% dextrose D. IV mannitol 31 / 266 31. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Confabulation D. Presence of nystagmus 32 / 266 32. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 33 / 266 33. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 34 / 266 34. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Calcification within a lesion C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pituitary tumors 35 / 266 35. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Infraspinatus C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 36 / 266 36. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Huge ascites C. Advanced pregnancy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 37 / 266 37. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerve 38 / 266 38. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Alcoholism D. Wilson's disease 39 / 266 39. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 40 / 266 40. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypoxia C. Hypotension D. Hypocapnia 41 / 266 41. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Poliomyelitis C. Restlessness D. Transverse myelitis 42 / 266 42. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 43 / 266 43. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Blindness 44 / 266 44. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Venous thrombosis 45 / 266 45. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 46 / 266 46. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Leucodystrophy D. Tuberous sclerosis 47 / 266 47. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Horner's syndrome C. Hiccups D. Pyramidal lesion 48 / 266 48. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 49 / 266 49. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C3, 4 C. C5, 6 D. C4, 5 50 / 266 50. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Depression C. Passivity feelings D. Visual hallucinations 51 / 266 51. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 52 / 266 52. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 53 / 266 53. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 54 / 266 54. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 55 / 266 55. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 56 / 266 56. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Phakomatosis C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Seizures 57 / 266 57. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Amiodarone C. Ethambutol D. Chloroquine 58 / 266 58. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 59 / 266 59. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Transient ischemic attack 60 / 266 60. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Diazepam D. Topiramate 61 / 266 61. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basilar artery thrombosis 62 / 266 62. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Phenytoin D. Atenolol 63 / 266 63. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Right homonymous hemianopia 64 / 266 64. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Babinski's sign C. Sudden onset D. Brisk jaw jerk 65 / 266 65. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Amblyopia C. Pontine glioma D. Phenytoin toxicity 66 / 266 66. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 67 / 266 67. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 68 / 266 68. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 69 / 266 69. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 70 / 266 70. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 71 / 266 71. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Medulloblastoma 72 / 266 72. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysphagia 73 / 266 73. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Occipital lobe 74 / 266 74. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. Sensory functions 75 / 266 75. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-21 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-18 76 / 266 76. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Absent superficial reflex 77 / 266 77. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Cerebral infarction 78 / 266 78. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Chronic motor neuron disease 79 / 266 79. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 80 / 266 80. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 81 / 266 81. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Inflammatory 82 / 266 82. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Syringomyelia 83 / 266 83. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 84 / 266 84. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Myxoedema C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Alcohol 85 / 266 85. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Myopathy C. Encephalitis D. Neuropathy 86 / 266 86. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Myotonia C. Athletes D. Manual labourers 87 / 266 87. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Tetanus C. Quinsy D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 88 / 266 88. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Raynaud's disease C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Leprosy 89 / 266 89. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Pick's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 90 / 266 90. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Waddling gait C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Sensory dysfunction 91 / 266 91. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Hypothyroidism C. Thrombocytopenia D. Ataxia 92 / 266 92. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 93 / 266 93. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 94 / 266 94. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Wasting of muscles D. Proximal muscle weakness 95 / 266 95. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 96 / 266 96. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Myotonic dystrophy 97 / 266 97. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypothyroidism 98 / 266 98. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Pseudoparkinsonism 99 / 266 99. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Trypanosomiasis C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Encephalitis lethargica 100 / 266 100. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pendular nystagmus D. Pseudolymphoma 101 / 266 101. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Tremor C. Visual hallucinations D. Perspiration 102 / 266 102. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Paraesthesia C. Dysphasia D. Diplopia 103 / 266 103. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Takayasu's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 104 / 266 104. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 105 / 266 105. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Digitalis toxicity C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Cerebellar infarction 106 / 266 106. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Enteric fever C. Weil's disease D. Cerebral malaria 107 / 266 107. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Phobia C. Depression D. Paranoia 108 / 266 108. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Increased CSF pressure C. High protein content D. Xanthochromia 109 / 266 109. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Eye opening 110 / 266 110. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 111 / 266 111. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 112 / 266 112. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Acute renal failure D. Oesophagitis 113 / 266 113. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 114 / 266 114. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Absence of root pain C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Viral or post-vaccinal 115 / 266 115. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Kuru 116 / 266 116. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lamotrigine C. Lubeluzole D. Vigabatrin 117 / 266 117. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. IIIrd C. Vllth D. Vth 118 / 266 118. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Aspirin 119 / 266 119. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Papilloedema D. Aphasia 120 / 266 120. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Amphetamines C. Cocaine D. Carbamazepine 121 / 266 121. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Reading a book D. Looking to the roof 122 / 266 122. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Putamen C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum 123 / 266 123. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 124 / 266 124. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Venous sinus thrombosis 125 / 266 125. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Onycholysis C. Hypothyroidism D. Diarrhoea 126 / 266 126. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Cardiac tamponade 127 / 266 127. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 128 / 266 128. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Hutchinson's pupil 129 / 266 129. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Glossitis C. Ankle clonus D. Babinski's sign 130 / 266 130. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Optic glioma D. Scoliosis 131 / 266 131. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Cataract C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multiple sclerosis 132 / 266 132. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 133 / 266 133. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. S1 C. L5 D. L5,S1 134 / 266 134. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ocular myopathy 135 / 266 135. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 136 / 266 136. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Selegiline 137 / 266 137. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 138 / 266 138. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Hysteria C. Multiple sclerosis D. Peripheral neuropathy 139 / 266 139. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Sturge-Weber disease 140 / 266 140. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Lithium C. Haloperidol D. Clomipramine 141 / 266 141. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Increased deep reflexes D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 142 / 266 142. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Ptosis C. Frontal baldness D. Testicular atrophy 143 / 266 143. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Patchy arachnoiditis 144 / 266 144. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle biopsy C. Muscle enzyme study D. Electromyography 145 / 266 145. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. TOCP poisoning 146 / 266 146. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tuberculous meningitis 147 / 266 147. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Oral glycerol C. Dexamethasone D. IV mannitol 148 / 266 148. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T4 C. T2 D. T1 149 / 266 149. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Thalamus C. Ventral pons D. Internal capsule 150 / 266 150. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 151 / 266 151. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Elapidae snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 152 / 266 152. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 153 / 266 153. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 154 / 266 154. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. May be associated with malignancy C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 155 / 266 155. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 156 / 266 156. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 157 / 266 157. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Ependymoma 158 / 266 158. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Lower pons C. Upper pons D. Midbrain 159 / 266 159. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Lathyrism 160 / 266 160. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Mental retardation D. Limb shortening 161 / 266 161. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 162 / 266 162. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Niemann-Pick disease 163 / 266 163. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 164 / 266 164. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 165 / 266 165. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Botulism 166 / 266 166. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 167 / 266 167. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Distal muscle weakness C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 168 / 266 168. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Ependymoma C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 169 / 266 169. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Increased tone C. Intact proprioception D. Brisk deep reflexes 170 / 266 170. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 171 / 266 171. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Gross pedal oedema C. Myxoedema D. Parkinsonism 172 / 266 172. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 173 / 266 173. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 174 / 266 174. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 175 / 266 175. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 176 / 266 176. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 177 / 266 177. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 178 / 266 178. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Anal reflex 179 / 266 179. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Complete ptosis C. Constricted pupil D. Anhidrosis 180 / 266 180. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 181 / 266 181. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 182 / 266 182. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Normokalaemia 183 / 266 183. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Lewy bodies 184 / 266 184. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Spasticity C. Fasciculations D. Babinski's sign 185 / 266 185. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sarcoidosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Infectious mononucleosis 186 / 266 186. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral haemorrhage 187 / 266 187. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine 188 / 266 188. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Osteomalacia 189 / 266 189. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Chorea C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 190 / 266 190. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Headache 191 / 266 191. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Infantile spasm C. Petit mal D. Complex partial 192 / 266 192. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Hepatic precoma 193 / 266 193. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 194 / 266 194. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 195 / 266 195. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Electroconvulsive therapy 196 / 266 196. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Apraxia 197 / 266 197. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Acromegaly 198 / 266 198. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Adenoma sebaceum 199 / 266 199. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Deep Jaundice C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 200 / 266 200. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 201 / 266 201. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Diminished auditory acuity C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 202 / 266 202. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 203 / 266 203. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Myopathy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Polymyositis 204 / 266 204. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 205 / 266 205. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common migraine has aura C. Hemicranial headache D. Common in women 206 / 266 206. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 207 / 266 207. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 208 / 266 208. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 209 / 266 209. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Botulism 210 / 266 210. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Nutrition of muscles C. Stereognosis D. Tone and power 211 / 266 211. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 2 weeks C. 96 hours D. 24 hours 212 / 266 212. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Convulsions C. Optic neuritis D. SIADH 213 / 266 213. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 214 / 266 214. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 215 / 266 215. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Putamen 216 / 266 216. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Donazepril is used in treatment 217 / 266 217. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Mass reflex C. Flexor plantar response D. Increased tone in flexor groups 218 / 266 218. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Aphasia C. Facial weakness D. Hemiparesis 219 / 266 219. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Rheumatic fever C. Hyponatraemia D. Wilson's disease 220 / 266 220. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Severe heart failure 221 / 266 221. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Cephalosporins C. Quinolones D. Macrolides 222 / 266 222. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Benzodiazepine 223 / 266 223. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Ciliary ganglion C. Oculomotor nerve D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 224 / 266 224. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Rasagiline C. Pramipexole D. Tiagabine 225 / 266 225. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 226 / 266 226. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 227 / 266 227. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 228 / 266 228. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington's chorea 229 / 266 229. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluvoxamine C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 230 / 266 230. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. Pneumococcus 231 / 266 231. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Viral meningitis 232 / 266 232. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 233 / 266 233. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Pin-point pupil C. Paralysis D. Hypothermia 234 / 266 234. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 235 / 266 235. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Cerebellar infarction C. Epilepsy D. Multiple sclerosis 236 / 266 236. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. MRI scan 237 / 266 237. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Dysarthria C. Aphasia D. Monotonous speech 238 / 266 238. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. Hysteria C. Meningism D. After epileptic seizure 239 / 266 239. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Alcohol 240 / 266 240. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Duodenal stenosis 241 / 266 241. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Choreoathetosis C. Mental retardation D. Retinitis pigmentosa 242 / 266 242. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Gynaecomastia C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 243 / 266 243. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Aphasia 245 / 266 245. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 246 / 266 246. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 247 / 266 247. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 248 / 266 248. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Papilledema D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 249 / 266 249. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Sylvian fissure C. Olfactory groove D. Cerebello-pontine angle 250 / 266 250. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Aflatoxin C. Thiocyanates D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 251 / 266 251. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Tonic seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Absence seizures 252 / 266 252. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Sturge-Weber disease C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 253 / 266 253. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Corticosteroid D. Cyclophosphamide 254 / 266 254. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Diplopia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 255 / 266 255. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Epilepsy 256 / 266 256. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 257 / 266 257. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. SIADH C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 258 / 266 258. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 259 / 266 259. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Hypertonia C. Absent deep reflexes D. Retention of urine 260 / 266 260. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Areflexia C. Ataxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 261 / 266 261. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Neurosyphilis D. Lacunar infarction 262 / 266 262. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Myotonia C. Athetosis D. Chorea 263 / 266 263. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 264 / 266 264. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia 265 / 266 265. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Basal ganglia 266 / 266 266. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Strangers C. High places D. Animals LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology