Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Amyloidosis D. TOCP poisoning 2 / 266 2. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myelopathy C. Neuropathy D. Myopathy 3 / 266 3. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Diazepam D. Topiramate 4 / 266 4. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 5 / 266 5. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Complex partial D. Infantile spasm 6 / 266 6. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 7 / 266 7. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Wilson's disease 8 / 266 8. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Metastatic C. Glioblastoma D. Meningioma 9 / 266 9. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Sarcoidosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 10 / 266 10. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. C8 C. T1 D. T4 11 / 266 11. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Xth C. Vllth D. Vth 12 / 266 12. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones D. Cephalosporins 13 / 266 13. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 14 / 266 14. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Immune disorder 15 / 266 15. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe 16 / 266 16. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 17 / 266 17. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 18 / 266 18. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Oesophagitis D. Acute renal failure 19 / 266 19. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Sarcoidosis 20 / 266 20. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 21 / 266 21. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 22 / 266 22. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Ataxia D. Hyperglycaemia 23 / 266 23. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 24 / 266 24. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 25 / 266 25. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Cerebral cortex 26 / 266 26. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Midbrain 27 / 266 27. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Trypanosomiasis C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Pickwickian syndrome 28 / 266 28. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents rebleeding 29 / 266 29. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 30 / 266 30. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Meningioma 31 / 266 31. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Leprosy C. Raynaud's disease D. Tabes dorsalis 32 / 266 32. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Blindness C. Focal neuro deficit D. Radioculomyelopathy 33 / 266 33. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Central scotoma 34 / 266 34. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Intact proprioception D. Sensory ataxia 35 / 266 35. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Negri bodies D. Lewy bodies 36 / 266 36. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumor 37 / 266 37. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 38 / 266 38. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Bulbar palsy 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Dysarthria 40 / 266 40. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Oral glycerol C. Dexamethasone D. IV mannitol 41 / 266 41. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Pseudoclonus C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Distal muscle weakness 42 / 266 42. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. After epileptic seizure 43 / 266 43. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Convulsions C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. SIADH 44 / 266 44. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Lathyrism C. Botulinus poisoning D. Periodic paralysis 45 / 266 45. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumour D. Gradenigo's syndrome 46 / 266 46. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Albright's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 47 / 266 47. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Masked facies C. Emotional incontinence D. Flaccid dysarthria 48 / 266 48. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine D. Benzodiazepine 49 / 266 49. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Syringomyelia D. Tabes dorsalis 50 / 266 50. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Pramipexole C. Tiagabine D. Ropinirole 51 / 266 51. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Tonic seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Absence seizures 52 / 266 52. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. E. coli C. Pneumococcus D. H. influenzae 53 / 266 53. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Arrhythmia 54 / 266 54. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Advanced pregnancy C. Huge ascites D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 55 / 266 55. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Facial weakness 56 / 266 56. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Reading a book D. Looking to the roof 57 / 266 57. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Equivocal plantar response C. Weakness and spasticity D. Absent superficial reflex 58 / 266 58. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 59 / 266 59. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Babinski's sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 60 / 266 60. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1,S2 D. S1 61 / 266 61. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 62 / 266 62. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 63 / 266 63. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 64 / 266 64. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Duodenal stenosis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Patent ductus arteriosus 65 / 266 65. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Gross pedal oedema D. Tabes dorsalis 66 / 266 66. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 67 / 266 67. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Shy-Drager syndrome 68 / 266 68. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 69 / 266 69. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 70 / 266 70. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 71 / 266 71. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant 72 / 266 72. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 73 / 266 73. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 74 / 266 74. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Optic glioma 75 / 266 75. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 76 / 266 76. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 77 / 266 77. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Nystagmus D. Aphasia 78 / 266 78. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypotension D. Hypocapnia 79 / 266 79. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Pituitary tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 80 / 266 80. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Deafness C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Retinitis pigmentosa 81 / 266 81. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 82 / 266 82. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Atenolol C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 83 / 266 83. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 84 / 266 84. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Hypothyroidism 85 / 266 85. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syringomyelia 86 / 266 86. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Increased deep reflexes D. Flexor plantar response 87 / 266 87. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Hepatic precoma D. Subacute combined degeneration 88 / 266 88. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Selegiline 89 / 266 89. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Myositis 90 / 266 90. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Meningism C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 91 / 266 91. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 92 / 266 92. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Malignant hypertension D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 93 / 266 93. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Left atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 94 / 266 94. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Anemia C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 95 / 266 95. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 96 / 266 96. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. PET scan C. MRI scan D. CT scan 97 / 266 97. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Midbrain lesion 98 / 266 98. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 99 / 266 99. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basal ganglia infarction 100 / 266 100. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 101 / 266 101. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Putamen D. Thalamus 102 / 266 102. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 103 / 266 103. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 104 / 266 104. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 105 / 266 105. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Pyramidal lesion C. Ataxia D. Hiccups 106 / 266 106. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 107 / 266 107. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Stereognosis C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 108 / 266 108. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 109 / 266 109. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Ventral pons 110 / 266 110. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 111 / 266 111. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 112 / 266 112. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Myopathy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 113 / 266 113. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Facial nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Trochlear nerve 114 / 266 114. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Has a good prognosis in children 115 / 266 115. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Caudate nucleus C. Putamen D. Substantia nigra 116 / 266 116. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Sudden onset 117 / 266 117. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Sensory functions 118 / 266 118. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Loss of immediate recall 119 / 266 119. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Myotonia D. Tetany 120 / 266 120. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 121 / 266 121. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 122 / 266 122. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. High places C. Pain D. Strangers 123 / 266 123. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Clopidogrel 124 / 266 124. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Wasting of muscles C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 125 / 266 125. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Pin-point pupil C. Paralysis D. Hypothermia 126 / 266 126. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cervical spine 127 / 266 127. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Weber-Christian disease 128 / 266 128. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Immunoglobulin C. Interferon D. Corticosteroid 129 / 266 129. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Atypical pneumonia C. Cerebral malaria D. Weil's disease 130 / 266 130. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 131 / 266 131. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 132 / 266 132. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral haemorrhage 133 / 266 133. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 134 / 266 134. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 135 / 266 135. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Eye opening C. Motor response D. Verbal response 136 / 266 136. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Cerebellar disorder D. Pontine glioma 137 / 266 137. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Petit mal epilepsy 138 / 266 138. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Brachycephaly C. Testicular atrophy D. Ptosis 139 / 266 139. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 140 / 266 140. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Tuberculous meningitis 141 / 266 141. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Rabies 142 / 266 142. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Acute transverse myelitis 143 / 266 143. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Refsum's disease 144 / 266 144. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 145 / 266 145. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 146 / 266 146. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Urinary incontinence C. Dementia D. Normal intellectual activity 147 / 266 147. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Ataxia C. Apraxia D. Areflexia 148 / 266 148. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Marathon runner C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 149 / 266 149. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Cataplexy C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 150 / 266 150. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 151 / 266 151. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Arsenic C. Lead D. Alcohol 152 / 266 152. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Waddling gait C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Sensory dysfunction 153 / 266 153. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cord compression 154 / 266 154. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Coprolalia C. Dementia D. Multiple tics 155 / 266 155. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Spinal epidural abscess 156 / 266 156. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C4, 5 157 / 266 157. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 158 / 266 158. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Parkinsonism C. Motor neuron disease D. Multiple sclerosis 159 / 266 159. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Frontal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 160 / 266 160. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Sylvian fissure D. Over visual cortex 161 / 266 161. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Cerebral atrophy D. Neurosyphilis 162 / 266 162. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tay-Sachs disease 163 / 266 163. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 164 / 266 164. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Abducens palsy C. Polyneuropathy D. Paralysis of soft palate 165 / 266 165. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 166 / 266 166. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 167 / 266 167. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 168 / 266 168. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Paroxetine 169 / 266 169. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Upper pons C. Medulla D. Lower pons 170 / 266 170. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 171 / 266 171. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Limb shortening C. Anencephaly D. Heart valve abnormalities 172 / 266 172. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Zidovudine 173 / 266 173. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 174 / 266 174. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 175 / 266 175. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 176 / 266 176. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Convulsions D. Altered consciousness 177 / 266 177. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 178 / 266 178. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Aortic incompetence D. Parkinsonism 179 / 266 179. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Head injury C. Transient ischemic attack D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 180 / 266 180. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 181 / 266 181. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Kuru C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 182 / 266 182. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Felbamate C. Lubeluzole D. Lamotrigine 183 / 266 183. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Berry aneurysm rupture 184 / 266 184. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 185 / 266 185. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 186 / 266 186. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Coma C. Absent deep reflexes D. Hypertonia 187 / 266 187. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Chloroquine C. Probenecid D. Amiodarone 188 / 266 188. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Valproic acid C. Alcohol D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 189 / 266 189. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 190 / 266 190. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 3 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 24 hours 191 / 266 191. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 192 / 266 192. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 193 / 266 193. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Myoclonus 194 / 266 194. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Oculomotor nerve D. Ciliary ganglion 195 / 266 195. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Seizures C. Mental retardation D. Adenoma sebaceum 196 / 266 196. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. High protein content D. Increased CSF pressure 197 / 266 197. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. May be associated with malignancy 198 / 266 198. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alzheimer's disease 199 / 266 199. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 200 / 266 200. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Hereditary predisposition C. Common in women D. Common migraine has aura 201 / 266 201. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Reserpine D. Pindolol 202 / 266 202. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. IV mannitol C. Glucocorticoids D. 5% dextrose 203 / 266 203. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. Shagreen patch D. White spots over trunk and limbs 204 / 266 204. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 205 / 266 205. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Alzheimer's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 206 / 266 206. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 207 / 266 207. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 208 / 266 208. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Malignant exophthalmos 209 / 266 209. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Diplopia C. Paraesthesia D. Seizures 210 / 266 210. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Mania 211 / 266 211. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Haloperidol C. Lithium D. Carbamazepine 212 / 266 212. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Apraxia 213 / 266 213. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Steroid myopathy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 214 / 266 214. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 215 / 266 215. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Meningioma 216 / 266 216. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Titubation C. Hypermetria D. Hypertonia 217 / 266 217. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis major D. Infraspinatus 218 / 266 218. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Galactorrhoea C. Gynaecomastia D. Acromegaly 219 / 266 219. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Fourth ventricle 220 / 266 220. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 221 / 266 221. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 222 / 266 222. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Deep coma D. Hypokalemia 223 / 266 223. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 224 / 266 224. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Mass reflex D. Flexor spasm 225 / 266 225. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 226 / 266 226. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 227 / 266 227. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Epilepsy D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 228 / 266 228. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Lax abdominal wall C. Obesity D. Hysteria 229 / 266 229. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Inflammatory D. Embolic 230 / 266 230. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Fasciculations D. Spasticity 231 / 266 231. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 232 / 266 232. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 233 / 266 233. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myopathy 234 / 266 234. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Succinylcholine C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 235 / 266 235. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Cortex D. Midbrain 236 / 266 236. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Toxin C. Bacteria D. Autoimmunity 237 / 266 237. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 238 / 266 238. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Glioma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 239 / 266 239. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. INH C. Nitrofurantoin D. Methotrexate 240 / 266 240. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Cerebellar disorder 241 / 266 241. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 242 / 266 242. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Diplopia C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 243 / 266 243. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Hyperpyrexia C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Autonomic dysfunction 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 245 / 266 245. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cluster headache C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Syringobulbia 246 / 266 246. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Psychosis C. Myodonus D. Migraine 247 / 266 247. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 248 / 266 248. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Polycystic kidney 249 / 266 249. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Infertility C. Acromegaly D. Parkinsonism 250 / 266 250. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Diplopia 251 / 266 251. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Athletes C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 252 / 266 252. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 253 / 266 253. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Frontal D. Temporal 254 / 266 254. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agraphia 255 / 266 255. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Epilepsy 256 / 266 256. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Fatty liver C. Seizures D. Livedo reticularis 257 / 266 257. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Oculomotor palsy 258 / 266 258. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 259 / 266 259. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 260 / 266 260. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 261 / 266 261. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperthyroidism 262 / 266 262. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Thrombocytopenia C. Ataxia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 263 / 266 263. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Basal ganglia C. Dura matter D. Choroid plexus 264 / 266 264. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cerebral palsy C. Leucodystrophy D. Tuberous sclerosis 265 / 266 265. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Phobia C. Mania D. Depression 266 / 266 266. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Cerebellar infarction C. Digitalis toxicity D. Lesion in visual cortex LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology