Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Tuberculosis 2 / 266 2. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Vincristine 3 / 266 3. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syphilis 4 / 266 4. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrigine D. Felbamate 5 / 266 5. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Hypoxia D. Malignant hypertension 6 / 266 6. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 7 / 266 7. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Levodopa C. Selegiline D. Amantadine 8 / 266 8. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 9 / 266 9. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Atenolol C. Sumatriptan D. Phenytoin 10 / 266 10. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Upper pons C. Lower pons D. Medulla 11 / 266 11. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Convulsions C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. SIADH 12 / 266 12. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Negri bodies D. Lewy bodies 13 / 266 13. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral diplegia 14 / 266 14. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 15 / 266 15. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Weber-Christian disease C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Sturge-Weber disease 16 / 266 16. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 17 / 266 17. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 18 / 266 18. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Diabetes mellitus D. Raised intracranial pressure 19 / 266 19. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Enteric fever 20 / 266 20. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pyogenic meningitis 21 / 266 21. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Mania C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Schizophrenia 22 / 266 22. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Cocaine D. Amphetamines 23 / 266 23. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Exaggerated deep reflex 24 / 266 24. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 25 / 266 25. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Ataxia C. Osteomalacia D. Hyperglycaemia 26 / 266 26. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 27 / 266 27. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 28 / 266 28. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Mania D. Paranoia 29 / 266 29. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Taboparesis 30 / 266 30. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Myopathy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Polymyositis 31 / 266 31. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Babinski's sign C. Fasciculations D. Clonus 32 / 266 32. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Myopathy 33 / 266 33. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Refsum's disease 34 / 266 34. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Pyramidal lesion C. Ataxia D. Hiccups 35 / 266 35. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Visual hallucinations C. Confabulation D. Perspiration 36 / 266 36. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Haemochromatosis C. Wilson's disease D. Galactosaemia 37 / 266 37. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Calf muscles C. Pectoralis major D. Infraspinatus 38 / 266 38. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Carbamazepine C. Haloperidol D. Lithium 39 / 266 39. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Metoclopramide-induced 40 / 266 40. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Hyponatraemia D. Rheumatic fever 41 / 266 41. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Dantrolene C. Succinylcholine D. Methoxyflurane 42 / 266 42. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Hysteria C. Multiple sclerosis D. Peripheral neuropathy 43 / 266 43. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 44 / 266 44. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 45 / 266 45. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia 46 / 266 46. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Progressive muscular atrophy 47 / 266 47. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 48 / 266 48. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Tunnel vision D. Homonymous hemianopia 49 / 266 49. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypoxia D. Hypotension 50 / 266 50. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetes mellitus 51 / 266 51. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Meningism 52 / 266 52. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 53 / 266 53. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Vincristine 54 / 266 54. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Male dominance 55 / 266 55. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 56 / 266 56. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 57 / 266 57. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Limb shortening 58 / 266 58. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 59 / 266 59. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. Shagreen patch C. Adenoma sebaceum D. White spots over trunk and limbs 60 / 266 60. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking to the roof C. Looking in front D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 61 / 266 61. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 62 / 266 62. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Blindness C. Focal neuro deficit D. Convulsions 63 / 266 63. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cataract 64 / 266 64. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Retinal hemorrhage 65 / 266 65. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Anemia C. Babinski's sign D. Ankle clonus 66 / 266 66. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Gynaecomastia D. Galactorrhoea 67 / 266 67. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 68 / 266 68. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Dysphonia C. Monotonous speech D. Aphasia 69 / 266 69. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Apraxia C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 70 / 266 70. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Reserpine D. Pindolol 71 / 266 71. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Hysterical gait disorder 72 / 266 72. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left atrial myxoma C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 73 / 266 73. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Alzheimer's disease 74 / 266 74. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 75 / 266 75. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure sensory stroke 76 / 266 76. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Aortic incompetence C. Cerebellar disorder D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 77 / 266 77. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Trauma C. Encephalitis D. Epilepsy 78 / 266 78. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Pons 79 / 266 79. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C5, 6 C. C4, 5 D. C6, 7 80 / 266 80. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Polycystic kidney C. Takayasu's disease D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 81 / 266 81. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Headache D. Altered consciousness 82 / 266 82. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Neurofibroma D. Patchy arachnoiditis 83 / 266 83. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Absent tendon reflexes 84 / 266 84. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 85 / 266 85. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysphagia C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysarthria 86 / 266 86. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Gaucher's disease 87 / 266 87. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. CT scan 88 / 266 88. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Pyramidal signs C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Facial nerve palsy 89 / 266 89. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Brachycephaly C. Ptosis D. Testicular atrophy 90 / 266 90. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 91 / 266 91. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Botulism D. Horner's syndrome 92 / 266 92. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 93 / 266 93. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 94 / 266 94. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Nutrition of muscles C. Tone and power D. Stereognosis 95 / 266 95. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 96 / 266 96. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 97 / 266 97. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV mannitol C. 5% dextrose D. IV quinine 98 / 266 98. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Trypanosomiasis C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Subdural hematoma 99 / 266 99. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Polyneuropathy 100 / 266 100. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 101 / 266 101. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Coma C. Retention of urine D. Absent deep reflexes 102 / 266 102. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Diazepam D. Topiramate 103 / 266 103. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 104 / 266 104. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 105 / 266 105. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Acute transverse myelitis 106 / 266 106. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Ependymoma C. Pinealomas D. Glioma 107 / 266 107. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Cervical spine D. Brainstem 108 / 266 108. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Horner's syndrome D. Hutchinson's pupil 109 / 266 109. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Cortex C. Pons D. Internal capsule 110 / 266 110. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Anhidrosis C. Complete ptosis D. Constricted pupil 111 / 266 111. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Scoliosis 112 / 266 112. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Bell's palsy 113 / 266 113. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 114 / 266 114. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 115 / 266 115. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cerebral palsy C. Leucodystrophy D. Tuberous sclerosis 116 / 266 116. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Motor neuron disease C. Cervical spondylosis D. Multiple sclerosis 117 / 266 117. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Basal ganglia C. Dura matter D. Pineal body 118 / 266 118. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 119 / 266 119. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Vestibular lesion 120 / 266 120. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Oculomotor nerve C. Ciliary ganglion D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 121 / 266 121. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 122 / 266 122. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Aura phase of migraine D. Cerebellar infarction 123 / 266 123. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 124 / 266 124. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Amyloidosis 125 / 266 125. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 126 / 266 126. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 127 / 266 127. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Thrombocytopenia 128 / 266 128. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Ataxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Areflexia 129 / 266 129. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Ataxia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 130 / 266 130. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Cervical spondylosis D. Duchenne myopathy 131 / 266 131. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Temporal 132 / 266 132. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Obesity 133 / 266 133. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 134 / 266 134. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Common migraine has aura D. Hemicranial headache 135 / 266 135. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Embolic C. Hemorrhagic D. Demyelinating 136 / 266 136. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 137 / 266 137. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Onycholysis D. Diarrhoea 138 / 266 138. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Poliomyelitis C. Restlessness D. Transverse myelitis 139 / 266 139. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Cerebellar disorder 140 / 266 140. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 141 / 266 141. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Papilloedema D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 142 / 266 142. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Ethambutol C. Chloroquine D. Amiodarone 143 / 266 143. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 144 / 266 144. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Hemiparesis C. Facial weakness D. Aphasia 145 / 266 145. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Xanthochromia C. Increased CSF pressure D. High protein content 146 / 266 146. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hypokalemia 147 / 266 147. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 148 / 266 148. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Autonomic response C. Motor response D. Eye opening 149 / 266 149. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ocular myopathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 150 / 266 150. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 151 / 266 151. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Shy-Drager syndrome 152 / 266 152. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Psychosis C. Myodonus D. Chorea 153 / 266 153. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 154 / 266 154. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Lathyrism 155 / 266 155. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe 156 / 266 156. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic 157 / 266 157. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Infantile spasm 158 / 266 158. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Acute renal failure C. Oesophagitis D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 159 / 266 159. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 160 / 266 160. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 161 / 266 161. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Cervical rib C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Myopathy 162 / 266 162. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Severe heart failure 163 / 266 163. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 164 / 266 164. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Myopathy 165 / 266 165. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 166 / 266 166. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Elapidae snake bite 167 / 266 167. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Rabies C. Poliomyelitis D. Snakebite 168 / 266 168. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Kuru 169 / 266 169. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 170 / 266 170. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 171 / 266 171. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 172 / 266 172. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Quinsy C. Diphtheria D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 173 / 266 173. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Weakness and spasticity 174 / 266 174. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Parkinsonism C. Myxoedema D. Gross pedal oedema 175 / 266 175. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Post-encephalitic 176 / 266 176. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Inferior sagittal sinus 177 / 266 177. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 178 / 266 178. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 179 / 266 179. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle enzyme study D. Muscle biopsy 180 / 266 180. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 181 / 266 181. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 182 / 266 182. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Poliomyelitis 183 / 266 183. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Loss of accommodation C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Polyneuropathy 184 / 266 184. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 185 / 266 185. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Tetanus C. Meningism D. Hysteria 186 / 266 186. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Petit mal C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Infantile spasm 187 / 266 187. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum 188 / 266 188. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Trigeminal neuralgia 189 / 266 189. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Arrhythmia 190 / 266 190. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Leprosy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Raynaud's disease 191 / 266 191. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Brain tumor 192 / 266 192. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Seizures C. Ankle oedema D. Livedo reticularis 193 / 266 193. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 194 / 266 194. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 195 / 266 195. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 196 / 266 196. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 197 / 266 197. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T4 C. T2 D. T1 198 / 266 198. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Ocular myopathy D. Malignant exophthalmos 199 / 266 199. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Steroid myopathy 200 / 266 200. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Drop attacks D. Diplopia 201 / 266 201. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 202 / 266 202. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 203 / 266 203. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Clopidogrel 204 / 266 204. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Increased tone C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 205 / 266 205. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Head injury 206 / 266 206. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Dexamethasone D. Oral glycerol 207 / 266 207. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked recessive 208 / 266 208. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 209 / 266 209. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Peripheral neuropathy 210 / 266 210. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Caudate nucleus C. Putamen D. Red nucleus 211 / 266 211. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Polymyositis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 212 / 266 212. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Ocular muscles 213 / 266 213. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Huge ascites C. Advanced pregnancy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 214 / 266 214. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. E. coli C. Pneumococcus D. Meningococcous 215 / 266 215. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 216 / 266 216. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Periodic paralysis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Myasthenia gravis 217 / 266 217. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5,S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5 218 / 266 218. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 219 / 266 219. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 220 / 266 220. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Diplopia 221 / 266 221. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Seizures C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Mental retardation 222 / 266 222. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. AV malformations C. Emotional excitement D. Berry aneurysm rupture 223 / 266 223. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Mass reflex C. Flexor spasm D. Flexor plantar response 224 / 266 224. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Parkinsonism C. Alzheimer's disease D. Acromegaly 225 / 266 225. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Multiple tics C. Dementia D. Coprolalia 226 / 266 226. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 227 / 266 227. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Hyperkinesia C. Normal reflexes D. Tremor 228 / 266 228. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pseudolymphoma C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pendular nystagmus 229 / 266 229. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 230 / 266 230. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 231 / 266 231. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 232 / 266 232. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 233 / 266 233. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Animals C. Strangers D. Pain 234 / 266 234. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 235 / 266 235. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Platybasia D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 236 / 266 236. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Babinski's sign D. Small, spastic tongue 237 / 266 237. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia 238 / 266 238. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Sensory dysfunction D. Waddling gait 239 / 266 239. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 240 / 266 240. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 241 / 266 241. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Mental retardation D. Choreoathetosis 242 / 266 242. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 243 / 266 243. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 244 / 266 244. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Organophosphorus poisoning 245 / 266 245. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Brain tumor 246 / 266 246. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Corpus striatum 247 / 266 247. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Hyperthyroidism 248 / 266 248. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Graphesthesia C. Vibration sensation D. Two-point localisation 249 / 266 249. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Chorea C. Tetany D. Athetosis 250 / 266 250. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluoxetine C. Sertraline D. Fluvoxamine 251 / 266 251. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Neurosyphilis D. Lacunar infarction 252 / 266 252. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-18 253 / 266 253. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 254 / 266 254. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 255 / 266 255. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Cerebellar functions C. EMG D. Sensory functions 256 / 266 256. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Over visual cortex C. Sylvian fissure D. Olfactory groove 257 / 266 257. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Epilepsy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Sleep paralysis 258 / 266 258. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 259 / 266 259. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 260 / 266 260. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Immune disorder D. Metabolic disorder 261 / 266 261. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Gonda sign D. Chaddock's sign 262 / 266 262. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Myotonia C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Manual labourers 263 / 266 263. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Old age D. Myotonic pupil 264 / 266 264. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Masked facies D. Emotional incontinence 265 / 266 265. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Poliomyelitis 266 / 266 266. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. Xth C. Vth D. IIIrd LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology