Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Leprosy C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 2 / 266 2. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Hemiparesis C. Facial weakness D. Aphasia 3 / 266 3. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Caudate nucleus C. Substantia nigra D. Putamen 4 / 266 4. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 5 / 266 5. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Dementia in AIDS D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 6 / 266 6. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 7 / 266 7. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 8 / 266 8. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Mental retardation D. Anencephaly 9 / 266 9. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Reading a book D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 10 / 266 10. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Sensory dysfunction D. Waddling gait 11 / 266 11. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 12 / 266 12. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Immune disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 13 / 266 13. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 14 / 266 14. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 15 / 266 15. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 16 / 266 16. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 17 / 266 17. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Diarrhoea 18 / 266 18. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 19 / 266 19. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Distal muscle weakness 20 / 266 20. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Brainstem 21 / 266 21. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 22 / 266 22. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Altered consciousness C. Convulsions D. Headache 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Two-point localisation C. Vibration sensation D. Perceptual rivalry 24 / 266 24. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 25 / 266 25. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Arsenic D. Lead 26 / 266 26. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1,S2 D. S1 27 / 266 27. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Meningism 28 / 266 28. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Huge ascites C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 29 / 266 29. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 30 / 266 30. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Shagreen patch 31 / 266 31. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocalcemia 32 / 266 32. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 33 / 266 33. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Papilledema 34 / 266 34. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Huntington's chorea C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Shy-Drager syndrome 35 / 266 35. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Acute renal failure 36 / 266 36. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Amyloidosis D. TOCP poisoning 37 / 266 37. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Quinolones D. Aminoglycosides 38 / 266 38. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Electromyography C. Muscle enzyme study D. Muscle biopsy 39 / 266 39. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism 40 / 266 40. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Normal reflexes C. Rigidity D. Hyperkinesia 41 / 266 41. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Steroid myopathy 42 / 266 42. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Perspiration C. Tremor D. Confabulation 43 / 266 43. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Reserpine C. Pindolol D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 44 / 266 44. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Athletes 45 / 266 45. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Phaeochromocytoma 46 / 266 46. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. MRI scan 47 / 266 47. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Over visual cortex C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Olfactory groove 48 / 266 48. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 49 / 266 49. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor spasm C. Flexor plantar response D. Increased tone in flexor groups 50 / 266 50. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Pineal body 51 / 266 51. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Convulsions D. Optic neuritis 52 / 266 52. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 53 / 266 53. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 54 / 266 54. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Encephalitis C. Myopathy D. Neuropathy 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Poliomyelitis C. Neurofibromatosis D. Syringomyelia 56 / 266 56. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 57 / 266 57. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 58 / 266 58. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 59 / 266 59. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Levodopa D. Selegiline 60 / 266 60. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Acalculia D. Agraphia 61 / 266 61. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Brain tumour 62 / 266 62. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. May occur spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 63 / 266 63. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 64 / 266 64. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumor D. Multiple sclerosis 65 / 266 65. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypervitaminosis D 66 / 266 66. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 67 / 266 67. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Loss of accommodation 68 / 266 68. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 69 / 266 69. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Post-encephalitic 70 / 266 70. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 71 / 266 71. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum 72 / 266 72. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 73 / 266 73. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Enophthalmos C. Complete ptosis D. Constricted pupil 74 / 266 74. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 75 / 266 75. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hysteria C. Duchenne myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 76 / 266 76. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 77 / 266 77. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Syringobulbia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Bell's palsy 78 / 266 78. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Snout reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Anal reflex 79 / 266 79. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Proprioception C. Cerebellar functions D. Sensory functions 80 / 266 80. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Bulbar palsy D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 81 / 266 81. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Absence seizures D. Tonic seizures 82 / 266 82. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 83 / 266 83. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Sleep paralysis C. Cataplexy D. Epilepsy 84 / 266 84. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Chorea D. Myoclonus 85 / 266 85. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Ocular myopathy D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 86 / 266 86. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Pneumococcus C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 87 / 266 87. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 88 / 266 88. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 89 / 266 89. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syphilis D. Ethambutol 90 / 266 90. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Hiccups C. Horner's syndrome D. Ataxia 91 / 266 91. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 92 / 266 92. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 93 / 266 93. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebellar infarction D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 94 / 266 94. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Pyramidal signs D. Facial nerve palsy 95 / 266 95. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 96 / 266 96. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 97 / 266 97. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 98 / 266 98. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Myasthenia gravis 99 / 266 99. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 100 / 266 100. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Hypothermia C. Disconjugate gaze D. Paralysis 101 / 266 101. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 102 / 266 102. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 103 / 266 103. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Febuxostat C. Emetine D. Zidovudine 104 / 266 104. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Sudden onset C. Small, spastic tongue D. Babinski's sign 105 / 266 105. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypoxia D. Hypotension 106 / 266 106. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine D. Trimipramine 107 / 266 107. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Masked facies C. Extensor plantar response D. Emotional incontinence 108 / 266 108. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 109 / 266 109. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Subacute combined degeneration 110 / 266 110. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Nasal regurgitation C. Dysarthria D. Spastic tongue 111 / 266 111. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 112 / 266 112. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 113 / 266 113. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 114 / 266 114. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Deltoid C. Calf muscles D. Pectoralis major 115 / 266 115. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased deep reflexes D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 116 / 266 116. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Hyperpyrexia 117 / 266 117. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 118 / 266 118. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 119 / 266 119. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 120 / 266 120. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Hepatic precoma 121 / 266 121. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Rheumatic fever 122 / 266 122. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Motor response C. Autonomic response D. Verbal response 123 / 266 123. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Enteric fever D. Weil's disease 124 / 266 124. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Periorbital pain C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Male dominance 125 / 266 125. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Retention of urine C. Absent deep reflexes D. Hypertonia 126 / 266 126. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Chorea 127 / 266 127. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Dexamethasone C. IV mannitol D. Oral glycerol 128 / 266 128. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Dysarthria C. Monotonous speech D. Aphasia 129 / 266 129. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Myositis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Subacute combined degeneration 130 / 266 130. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Choreoathetosis C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Mental retardation 131 / 266 131. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 132 / 266 132. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 133 / 266 133. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Vincristine C. Methotrexate D. INH 134 / 266 134. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Galactorrhoea C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 135 / 266 135. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Sensory ataxia C. Intact proprioception D. Increased tone 136 / 266 136. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Hydrosis + miosis 137 / 266 137. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe 138 / 266 138. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 139 / 266 139. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 140 / 266 140. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 141 / 266 141. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Rabies C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 142 / 266 142. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Myodonus C. Migraine D. Psychosis 143 / 266 143. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Visual hallucinations C. Early onset D. Depression 144 / 266 144. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left atrial myxoma D. Left ventricular aneurysm 145 / 266 145. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Lathyrism 146 / 266 146. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Alzheimer's disease 147 / 266 147. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 148 / 266 148. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Tunnel vision D. Homonymous hemianopia 149 / 266 149. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cataract C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cirrhosis of liver 150 / 266 150. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 151 / 266 151. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 152 / 266 152. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Nystagmus C. Papilloedema D. Aphasia 153 / 266 153. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 154 / 266 154. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pseudolymphoma C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pendular nystagmus 155 / 266 155. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Polymyositis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 156 / 266 156. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Polycystic kidney D. Takayasu's disease 157 / 266 157. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Leucodystrophy D. Alzheimer's disease 158 / 266 158. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Cluster headache C. SIADH D. Mania 159 / 266 159. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Epilepsy 160 / 266 160. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Nutrition of muscles C. Stereognosis D. Involuntary movements 161 / 266 161. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Ataxia D. Osteomalacia 162 / 266 162. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Tetanus C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Quinsy 163 / 266 163. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Amblyopia D. Cerebellar disorder 164 / 266 164. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Virus D. Autoimmunity 165 / 266 165. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Lax abdominal wall C. Multiparous woman D. Obesity 166 / 266 166. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Coprolalia C. Dementia D. Multiple tics 167 / 266 167. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 168 / 266 168. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Lacunar infarction D. Neurosyphilis 169 / 266 169. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Hepatocellular failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 170 / 266 170. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Equivocal plantar response C. Weakness and spasticity D. Brisk deep reflexes 171 / 266 171. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 172 / 266 172. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 96 hours 173 / 266 173. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia 174 / 266 174. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercalcemia 175 / 266 175. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Digitalis toxicity D. Cerebellar infarction 176 / 266 176. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 177 / 266 177. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. Drop attacks D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 178 / 266 178. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Blindness C. Convulsions D. Radioculomyelopathy 179 / 266 179. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Oculomotor nerve 180 / 266 180. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Apraxia C. Ataxia D. Areflexia 181 / 266 181. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 182 / 266 182. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 183 / 266 183. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Livedo reticularis C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 184 / 266 184. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Thiocyanates 185 / 266 185. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cervical spine D. Cortex 186 / 266 186. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Calcification within a lesion C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 187 / 266 187. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myasthenia gravis 188 / 266 188. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 189 / 266 189. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Systemic hypertension D. Emotional excitement 190 / 266 190. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 191 / 266 191. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Trypanosomiasis 192 / 266 192. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Cerebellar disorder 193 / 266 193. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Metastatic C. Glioblastoma D. Meningioma 194 / 266 194. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 195 / 266 195. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 196 / 266 196. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 197 / 266 197. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Ethambutol C. Chloroquine D. Probenecid 198 / 266 198. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Diabetic amyotrophy 199 / 266 199. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Petit mal epilepsy 200 / 266 200. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cervical spondylosis 201 / 266 201. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Pick's disease 202 / 266 202. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 203 / 266 203. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Dysrhythmokinesis 204 / 266 204. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 205 / 266 205. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 206 / 266 206. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 207 / 266 207. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 208 / 266 208. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Diabetes mellitus 209 / 266 209. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 210 / 266 210. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 211 / 266 211. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Botulism 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 213 / 266 213. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 214 / 266 214. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Transverse myelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 215 / 266 215. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Transverse sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 216 / 266 216. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cortex 217 / 266 217. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Corpus striatum 218 / 266 218. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Interferon C. Immunoglobulin D. Corticosteroid 219 / 266 219. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Meningism 220 / 266 220. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 221 / 266 221. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Clomipramine 222 / 266 222. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 223 / 266 223. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Midbrain lesion 224 / 266 224. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Facial nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Abducens nerve 225 / 266 225. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 226 / 266 226. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Glioma C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral lymphoma 227 / 266 227. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Carbamazepine D. Flumazenil 228 / 266 228. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Gross pedal oedema D. Myxoedema 229 / 266 229. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-18 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-21 230 / 266 230. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Dolichocephaly 231 / 266 231. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Frontal 232 / 266 232. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Embolic C. Inflammatory D. Demyelinating 233 / 266 233. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Diabetes mellitus 234 / 266 234. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Presence of nystagmus C. Loss of recent memory D. Confabulation 235 / 266 235. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 236 / 266 236. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Xanthochromia D. High protein content 237 / 266 237. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Cervical rib C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Myopathy 238 / 266 238. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Phakomatosis C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Mental retardation 239 / 266 239. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Electroconvulsive therapy 240 / 266 240. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Mania D. Paranoia 241 / 266 241. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Aortic incompetence C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 242 / 266 242. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Loss of immediate recall C. Retrograde amnesia D. Confabulation 243 / 266 243. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lubeluzole C. Vigabatrin D. Lamotrigine 244 / 266 244. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Cerebral embolism D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 245 / 266 245. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 246 / 266 246. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents rebleeding 247 / 266 247. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Rasagiline D. Pramipexole 248 / 266 248. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Organophosphorus poisoning 249 / 266 249. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Gonda sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Babinski's sign 250 / 266 250. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Diazepam C. Valproate D. Ethosuximide 251 / 266 251. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Clopidogrel C. Ticlopidine D. Pentoxifylline 252 / 266 252. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Infantile spasm C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Complex partial 253 / 266 253. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Brachycephaly C. Ptosis D. Frontal baldness 254 / 266 254. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 255 / 266 255. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T1 C. T4 D. C8 256 / 266 256. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. High places C. Strangers D. Animals 257 / 266 257. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 258 / 266 258. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 259 / 266 259. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive 260 / 266 260. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Scoliosis C. Optic glioma D. Meningioma 261 / 266 261. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Babinski's sign C. Anemia D. Ankle clonus 262 / 266 262. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Head injury D. Transient ischemic attack 263 / 266 263. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Paroxetine C. Sertraline D. Fluvoxamine 264 / 266 264. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Deep Jaundice C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 265 / 266 265. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV mannitol C. IV quinine D. 5% dextrose 266 / 266 266. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Dementia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology