Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Emotional excitement C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. AV malformations 2 / 266 2. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Central retinal artery occlusion 3 / 266 3. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Blindness D. Convulsions 4 / 266 4. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 5 / 266 5. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 6 / 266 6. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Electromyography C. Muscle enzyme study D. Muscle biopsy 7 / 266 7. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Carbamazepine 8 / 266 8. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 9 / 266 9. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 10 / 266 10. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Absent superficial reflex D. Brisk deep reflexes 11 / 266 11. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 12 / 266 12. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 13 / 266 13. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 14 / 266 14. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syringomyelia 15 / 266 15. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 16 / 266 16. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 17 / 266 17. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 18 / 266 18. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Relief by haloperidol 19 / 266 19. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Addison's disease C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 20 / 266 20. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 21 / 266 21. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Ventral pons 22 / 266 22. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. von Recklinghausen's disease 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Perceptual rivalry C. Two-point localisation D. Vibration sensation 24 / 266 24. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Cardiac tamponade 25 / 266 25. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Neurosyphilis C. Cerebral atrophy D. Lacunar infarction 26 / 266 26. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Mania D. Schizophrenia 27 / 266 27. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Bladder involvement is very late 28 / 266 28. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Hyperthyroidism C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Chronic motor neuron disease 29 / 266 29. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Phenytoin C. Atenolol D. Sumatriptan 30 / 266 30. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 31 / 266 31. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 32 / 266 32. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 33 / 266 33. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Chorea D. Myoclonus 34 / 266 34. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Alzheimer's disease 35 / 266 35. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Leukodystrophy 36 / 266 36. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Duodenal stenosis D. Polymyositis 37 / 266 37. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 38 / 266 38. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 39 / 266 39. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Trauma C. Febrile D. Encephalitis 40 / 266 40. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Oesophagitis C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 41 / 266 41. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 42 / 266 42. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 43 / 266 43. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Hepatic precoma 44 / 266 44. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 45 / 266 45. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 46 / 266 46. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Abducens palsy 47 / 266 47. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Myotonic pupil 48 / 266 48. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Brain tumor C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 49 / 266 49. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 50 / 266 50. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Deafness B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 51 / 266 51. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 52 / 266 52. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Viral meningitis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 53 / 266 53. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Cyclophosphamide D. Interferon 54 / 266 54. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 55 / 266 55. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 56 / 266 56. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Inflammatory C. Demyelinating D. Embolic 57 / 266 57. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Periodic paralysis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 58 / 266 58. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 59 / 266 59. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. Sensory functions C. EMG D. Proprioception 60 / 266 60. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 61 / 266 61. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. C8 C. T2 D. T4 62 / 266 62. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Takayasu's disease 63 / 266 63. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Oral glycerol C. Dexamethasone D. IV mannitol 64 / 266 64. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypocapnia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypoxia 65 / 266 65. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Gonda sign D. Rossolimo's sign 66 / 266 66. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 67 / 266 67. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Meningism 68 / 266 68. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Diplopia D. Drop attacks 69 / 266 69. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Eye opening 70 / 266 70. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Pneumococcus C. E. coli D. Meningococcous 71 / 266 71. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 72 / 266 72. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 73 / 266 73. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 74 / 266 74. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Ciliary ganglion D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 75 / 266 75. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 76 / 266 76. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Flumazenil C. Amphetamines D. Cocaine 77 / 266 77. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Cataplexy 78 / 266 78. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Steroid myopathy 79 / 266 79. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Mental retardation D. Anencephaly 80 / 266 80. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Mania 81 / 266 81. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Nasal regurgitation C. Spastic tongue D. Dysarthria 82 / 266 82. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 83 / 266 83. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5 84 / 266 84. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peripheral neuropathy 85 / 266 85. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 86 / 266 86. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 87 / 266 87. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 88 / 266 88. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Hemiparesis D. Coma 89 / 266 89. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 90 / 266 90. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Corpus striatum D. Temporal lobe 91 / 266 91. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Aspirin C. Clopidogrel D. Ticlopidine 92 / 266 92. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 93 / 266 93. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 94 / 266 94. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Epilepsy D. Transient ischemic attack 95 / 266 95. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Poliomyelitis D. Neurofibromatosis 96 / 266 96. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Midbrain lesion 97 / 266 97. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 98 / 266 98. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Chorea C. Migraine D. Myodonus 99 / 266 99. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Brachycephaly C. Ptosis D. Testicular atrophy 100 / 266 100. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Pineal body C. Choroid plexus D. Dura matter 101 / 266 101. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Motor neuron disease 102 / 266 102. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Areflexia C. Apraxia D. Ataxia 103 / 266 103. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Thalamus C. Cerebellum D. Putamen 104 / 266 104. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Ethambutol 105 / 266 105. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Emotional incontinence D. Masked facies 106 / 266 106. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 107 / 266 107. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Acromegaly 108 / 266 108. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Complete ptosis 109 / 266 109. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Cerebral palsy 110 / 266 110. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Complex partial 111 / 266 111. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Neurofibroma D. Patchy arachnoiditis 112 / 266 112. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Over visual cortex C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Sylvian fissure 113 / 266 113. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Quinsy D. Diphtheria 114 / 266 114. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Wasting of muscles 115 / 266 115. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Waddling gait C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Loss of ankle jerk 116 / 266 116. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myxoedema C. Gross pedal oedema D. Parkinsonism 117 / 266 117. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 118 / 266 118. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypercalcemia 119 / 266 119. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. High places C. Strangers D. Animals 120 / 266 120. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 121 / 266 121. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Alzheimer's disease 122 / 266 122. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich's ataxia 123 / 266 123. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 124 / 266 124. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Urinary incontinence C. Normal intellectual activity D. Ataxia 125 / 266 125. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Lathyrism C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae group snake bite 126 / 266 126. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Caudate nucleus C. Red nucleus D. Putamen 127 / 266 127. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Convulsions C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 128 / 266 128. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 129 / 266 129. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 130 / 266 130. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Aortic incompetence D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 131 / 266 131. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic carcinoma 132 / 266 132. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. TOCP poisoning C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Acute intermittent porphyria 133 / 266 133. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Myotonia C. Manual labourers D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 134 / 266 134. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Tremor C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 135 / 266 135. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 136 / 266 136. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Hysteria C. Meningism D. Tetanus 137 / 266 137. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Hiccups C. Ataxia D. Pyramidal lesion 138 / 266 138. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Pseudoclonus 139 / 266 139. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Hyperpyrexia D. Pseudoparkinsonism 140 / 266 140. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Agnosia D. Apraxia 141 / 266 141. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Brain tumor D. Hysteria 142 / 266 142. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Fourth ventricle 143 / 266 143. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 144 / 266 144. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Depression C. Visual hallucinations D. Early onset 145 / 266 145. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Apraxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 146 / 266 146. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Leprosy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Raynaud's disease 147 / 266 147. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Mental retardation C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Choreoathetosis 148 / 266 148. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Cluster headache D. Syringobulbia 149 / 266 149. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerve 150 / 266 150. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 151 / 266 151. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Cerebral embolism 152 / 266 152. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Metastatic C. Glioblastoma D. Meningioma 153 / 266 153. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 154 / 266 154. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 155 / 266 155. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 3 weeks C. 96 hours D. 2 weeks 156 / 266 156. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 157 / 266 157. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. PET scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. MRI scan 158 / 266 158. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Mental retardation C. Seizures D. Phakomatosis 159 / 266 159. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 160 / 266 160. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Flexor plantar response 161 / 266 161. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Ataxia D. Osteomalacia 162 / 266 162. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Viral meningitis 163 / 266 163. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Anal reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Sucking reflex 164 / 266 164. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe 165 / 266 165. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 166 / 266 166. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Hyperkinesia C. Rigidity D. Normal reflexes 167 / 266 167. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Wilson's disease D. Hyponatraemia 168 / 266 168. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Retention of urine C. Coma D. Hypertonia 169 / 266 169. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Seizures C. Paraesthesia D. Diplopia 170 / 266 170. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Levodopa C. Amantadine D. Selegiline 171 / 266 171. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 172 / 266 172. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 173 / 266 173. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Negri bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Asteroid bodies 174 / 266 174. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Deep Jaundice C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 175 / 266 175. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 176 / 266 176. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 177 / 266 177. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Ethosuximide C. Valproate D. Topiramate 178 / 266 178. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Gillespie's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 179 / 266 179. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 180 / 266 180. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Lamotrigine C. Vigabatrin D. Felbamate 181 / 266 181. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Intact proprioception D. Sensory ataxia 182 / 266 182. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Aflatoxin C. Thiocyanates D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 183 / 266 183. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Venous thrombosis D. Acute myocardial infarction 184 / 266 184. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Tuberculosis 185 / 266 185. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Tonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 186 / 266 186. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 187 / 266 187. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ocular myopathy 188 / 266 188. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Horner's syndrome 189 / 266 189. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 190 / 266 190. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Facial nerve palsy C. Cerebellar signs D. Pyramidal signs 191 / 266 191. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Scoliosis C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 192 / 266 192. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 193 / 266 193. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Multiple sclerosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Peripheral neuropathy 194 / 266 194. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Platybasia 195 / 266 195. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 196 / 266 196. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington's chorea 197 / 266 197. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Myopathy 198 / 266 198. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 199 / 266 199. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hereditary predisposition C. Hemicranial headache D. Common in women 200 / 266 200. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Flexor spasm C. Mass reflex D. Increased tone in flexor groups 201 / 266 201. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 202 / 266 202. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 203 / 266 203. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Reading a book D. Looking to the roof 204 / 266 204. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 205 / 266 205. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Thalamus 206 / 266 206. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine 207 / 266 207. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Ankle clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Anemia 208 / 266 208. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Acalculia C. Agraphia D. Aphasia 209 / 266 209. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Pindolol C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptive pills 210 / 266 210. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Macrolides C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 211 / 266 211. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 212 / 266 212. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Convulsions C. SIADH D. Pseudobulbar palsy 213 / 266 213. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 214 / 266 214. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Onycholysis C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 215 / 266 215. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 216 / 266 216. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Babinski's sign C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 217 / 266 217. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Huntington's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 218 / 266 218. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Obesity 219 / 266 219. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 220 / 266 220. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Aphasia D. Papilloedema 221 / 266 221. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Ethambutol C. Amiodarone D. Chloroquine 222 / 266 222. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Chorea C. Myotonia D. Athetosis 223 / 266 223. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 224 / 266 224. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 225 / 266 225. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 226 / 266 226. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Oculomotor palsy C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 227 / 266 227. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Digitalis toxicity C. Cerebellar infarction D. Aura phase of migraine 228 / 266 228. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 229 / 266 229. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 230 / 266 230. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 231 / 266 231. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Enteric fever D. Weil's disease 232 / 266 232. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Facial nerve 233 / 266 233. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Occipital 234 / 266 234. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 235 / 266 235. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 236 / 266 236. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pseudolymphoma D. Megaloblastic anemia 237 / 266 237. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Papilledema D. Infarction of occipital lobe 238 / 266 238. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 239 / 266 239. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trochlear nerve 240 / 266 240. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Pontine glioma D. Amblyopia 241 / 266 241. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Malignant hypertension C. Hypoxia D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 242 / 266 242. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 243 / 266 243. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Benzodiazepine 244 / 266 244. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 245 / 266 245. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. Shagreen patch C. Adenoma sebaceum D. White spots over trunk and limbs 246 / 266 246. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Stereognosis C. Nutrition of muscles D. Tone and power 247 / 266 247. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Wilson's disease C. Haemochromatosis D. Myotonic dystrophy 248 / 266 248. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypothyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 249 / 266 249. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Diabetes mellitus 250 / 266 250. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 251 / 266 251. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Wilson's disease 252 / 266 252. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 253 / 266 253. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. INH C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 254 / 266 254. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Immune disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 255 / 266 255. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 256 / 266 256. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Huntington's chorea C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 257 / 266 257. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Lead C. Vincristine D. Arsenic 258 / 266 258. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Xth 259 / 266 259. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Meningioma D. Ependymoma 260 / 266 260. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 261 / 266 261. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 262 / 266 262. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Rasagiline C. Tiagabine D. Ropinirole 263 / 266 263. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 264 / 266 264. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Brisk jaw jerk 265 / 266 265. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Lower pons C. Upper pons D. Medulla 266 / 266 266. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Tunnel vision C. Central scotoma D. 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