Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluoxetine C. Paroxetine D. Fluvoxamine 2 / 266 2. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Calcification within a lesion C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 3 / 266 3. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 4 / 266 4. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 5 / 266 5. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Cyclophosphamide C. Immunoglobulin D. Interferon 6 / 266 6. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 7 / 266 7. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Ciliary ganglion 8 / 266 8. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Brainstem 9 / 266 9. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Alzheimer's disease 10 / 266 10. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Huntington's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 11 / 266 11. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Amphetamines C. Carbamazepine D. Cocaine 12 / 266 12. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 13 / 266 13. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 14 / 266 14. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Thalamus D. Cerebral cortex 15 / 266 15. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure motor hemiparesis 16 / 266 16. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypoxia D. Hypotension 17 / 266 17. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Alzheimer's disease 18 / 266 18. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Papilledema 19 / 266 19. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Myotonia D. Athletes 20 / 266 20. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 21 / 266 21. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Diplopia 22 / 266 22. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. C8 C. T1 D. T4 23 / 266 23. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Occipital 24 / 266 24. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Aphasia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Acalculia 25 / 266 25. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 26 / 266 26. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Febuxostat C. Zidovudine D. Lovastatin 27 / 266 27. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkalemia 28 / 266 28. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Periorbital pain 29 / 266 29. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Chronic motor neuron disease 30 / 266 30. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 31 / 266 31. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 32 / 266 32. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 33 / 266 33. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. IV mannitol C. Glucocorticoids D. 5% dextrose 34 / 266 34. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Apraxia D. Ataxia 35 / 266 35. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Raynaud's disease D. Leprosy 36 / 266 36. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Apraxia 37 / 266 37. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Elapidae snake bite C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 38 / 266 38. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cataract D. Cirrhosis of liver 39 / 266 39. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lubeluzole C. Lamotrigine D. Vigabatrin 40 / 266 40. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Emotional incontinence C. Masked facies D. Flaccid dysarthria 41 / 266 41. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Mental retardation D. Anencephaly 42 / 266 42. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Dementia C. Urinary incontinence D. Normal intellectual activity 43 / 266 43. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Meningioma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 44 / 266 44. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Confabulation C. Loss of immediate recall D. Retrograde amnesia 45 / 266 45. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 46 / 266 46. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 47 / 266 47. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 48 / 266 48. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral diplegia D. Parkinsonism 49 / 266 49. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Ocular myopathy 50 / 266 50. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis major D. Infraspinatus 51 / 266 51. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. SIADH D. Convulsions 52 / 266 52. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 53 / 266 53. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Choreoathetosis 54 / 266 54. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Spasticity D. Fasciculations 55 / 266 55. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Complex partial C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Infantile spasm 56 / 266 56. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Sturge-Weber disease 57 / 266 57. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Hiccups C. Ataxia D. Horner's syndrome 58 / 266 58. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Scoliosis 59 / 266 59. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 60 / 266 60. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Meningococcous C. E. coli D. Pneumococcus 61 / 266 61. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Venous sinus thrombosis 62 / 266 62. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 63 / 266 63. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Hypothermia C. Paralysis D. Disconjugate gaze 64 / 266 64. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Visual hallucinations C. Early onset D. Passivity feelings 65 / 266 65. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 66 / 266 66. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Equivocal plantar response C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Weakness and spasticity 67 / 266 67. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypervitaminosis D 68 / 266 68. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 69 / 266 69. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Duodenal stenosis D. Polymyositis 70 / 266 70. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe 71 / 266 71. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 72 / 266 72. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 73 / 266 73. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Leprosy C. Syphilis D. Multiple sclerosis 74 / 266 74. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Takayasu's disease D. Polycystic kidney 75 / 266 75. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Motor neuron disease C. Cervical spondylosis D. Multiple sclerosis 76 / 266 76. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. High protein content C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. Increased CSF pressure 77 / 266 77. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 78 / 266 78. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 79 / 266 79. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Facial nerve palsy 80 / 266 80. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Polymyositis D. Myopathy 81 / 266 81. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. After epileptic seizure C. Meningism D. Tetanus 82 / 266 82. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Macrolides 83 / 266 83. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Abducens palsy C. Loss of accommodation D. Polyneuropathy 84 / 266 84. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Nystagmus C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 85 / 266 85. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 86 / 266 86. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myositis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Polyneuropathy 87 / 266 87. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Ataxia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 88 / 266 88. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Hemicranial headache 89 / 266 89. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Presence of nystagmus D. Associated with lacunar infarction 90 / 266 90. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Lathyrism D. Botulinus poisoning 91 / 266 91. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 92 / 266 92. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 93 / 266 93. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 94 / 266 94. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Distal muscle weakness C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 95 / 266 95. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypermetria D. Hypertonia 96 / 266 96. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Two-point localisation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 97 / 266 97. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 98 / 266 98. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 99 / 266 99. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Toxin 100 / 266 100. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents rebleeding 101 / 266 101. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 102 / 266 102. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Encephalitis C. Epilepsy D. Trauma 103 / 266 103. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1 D. S1,S2 104 / 266 104. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Oesophagitis 105 / 266 105. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 106 / 266 106. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 107 / 266 107. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Tremor C. Rigidity D. Normal reflexes 108 / 266 108. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Myodonus C. Psychosis D. Migraine 109 / 266 109. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Chorea C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 110 / 266 110. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 111 / 266 111. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Babinski's sign C. Gonda sign D. Rossolimo's sign 112 / 266 112. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Constricted pupil 113 / 266 113. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 114 / 266 114. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 115 / 266 115. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Thrombocytopenia 116 / 266 116. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Mass reflex C. Flexor spasm D. Flexor plantar response 117 / 266 117. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Stereognosis 118 / 266 118. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 119 / 266 119. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 120 / 266 120. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 121 / 266 121. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Tetanus 122 / 266 122. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Hypertonia C. Absent deep reflexes D. Retention of urine 123 / 266 123. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 124 / 266 124. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Galactosaemia C. Haemochromatosis D. Myotonic dystrophy 125 / 266 125. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Aflatoxin D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 126 / 266 126. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hyperkaliemia 127 / 266 127. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Emotional excitement C. Systemic hypertension D. Berry aneurysm rupture 128 / 266 128. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 129 / 266 129. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Hypothyroidism 130 / 266 130. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 131 / 266 131. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 132 / 266 132. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 133 / 266 133. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 134 / 266 134. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Benzodiazepine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 135 / 266 135. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 136 / 266 136. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Wilson's disease 137 / 266 137. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Pseudolymphoma 138 / 266 138. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Mania 139 / 266 139. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 140 / 266 140. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C6, 7 C. C3, 4 D. C5, 6 141 / 266 141. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Steroid myopathy 142 / 266 142. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Refsum's disease D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 143 / 266 143. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 144 / 266 144. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Brain tumour D. Raised intracranial pressure 145 / 266 145. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 146 / 266 146. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 147 / 266 147. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Myoclonic seizures 148 / 266 148. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 149 / 266 149. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 150 / 266 150. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Seizures C. Livedo reticularis D. Ankle oedema 151 / 266 151. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Cerebellar disorder C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 152 / 266 152. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Animals C. Strangers D. High places 153 / 266 153. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 154 / 266 154. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 155 / 266 155. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Mania C. Depression D. Paranoia 156 / 266 156. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Midbrain 157 / 266 157. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Central scotoma D. Homonymous hemianopia 158 / 266 158. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Snout reflex 159 / 266 159. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Seizures D. Phakomatosis 160 / 266 160. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Brachycephaly D. Ptosis 161 / 266 161. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Hyponatraemia C. Wilson's disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 162 / 266 162. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 163 / 266 163. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Lacunar infarction C. Cerebral atrophy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 164 / 266 164. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 165 / 266 165. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Increased deep reflexes C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Flexor plantar response 166 / 266 166. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 167 / 266 167. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Sensory ataxia C. Intact proprioception D. Brisk deep reflexes 168 / 266 168. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. PET scan C. CT scan D. MRI scan 169 / 266 169. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Duchenne myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Peripheral neuropathy 170 / 266 170. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 171 / 266 171. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Ocular myopathy 172 / 266 172. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Waddling gait C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Argyll Robertson pupil 173 / 266 173. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Lower pons C. Midbrain D. Upper pons 174 / 266 174. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Inflammatory D. Hemorrhagic 175 / 266 175. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Pons 176 / 266 176. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Brain tumor C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 177 / 266 177. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 178 / 266 178. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cerebral palsy D. Tuberous sclerosis 179 / 266 179. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Ependymoma 180 / 266 180. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 181 / 266 181. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 182 / 266 182. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Taboparesis C. Hepatic precoma D. Friedreich' s ataxia 183 / 266 183. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Caudate nucleus C. Red nucleus D. Putamen 184 / 266 184. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Coma D. Aphasia 185 / 266 185. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 186 / 266 186. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Diplopia 187 / 266 187. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 188 / 266 188. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Dysarthria C. Nasal regurgitation D. Spastic tongue 189 / 266 189. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Drop attacks C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Diplopia 190 / 266 190. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Leukodystrophy 191 / 266 191. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 192 / 266 192. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 193 / 266 193. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Shagreen patch C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Pompholyx 194 / 266 194. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 195 / 266 195. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Headache 196 / 266 196. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Dolichocephaly C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Platybasia 197 / 266 197. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Babinski's sign D. Sudden onset 198 / 266 198. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Over visual cortex C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Sylvian fissure 199 / 266 199. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Ropinirole C. Rasagiline D. Pramipexole 200 / 266 200. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 201 / 266 201. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Venous thrombosis 202 / 266 202. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Cerebellar functions C. EMG D. Sensory functions 203 / 266 203. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Valproic acid C. Alcohol D. Myxoedema 204 / 266 204. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 205 / 266 205. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Froin's loculation syndrome 206 / 266 206. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Looking in front C. Reading a book D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 207 / 266 207. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine 208 / 266 208. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 209 / 266 209. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 96 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 210 / 266 210. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Hyperpyrexia C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Pseudoparkinsonism 211 / 266 211. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Cerebral malaria C. Enteric fever D. Atypical pneumonia 212 / 266 212. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Retinitis pigmentosa 213 / 266 213. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 214 / 266 214. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Ethosuximide 215 / 266 215. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Blindness 216 / 266 216. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Trypanosomiasis C. Subdural hematoma D. Encephalitis lethargica 217 / 266 217. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 218 / 266 218. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Acalculia 219 / 266 219. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Alcohol C. Lead D. Vincristine 220 / 266 220. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerv 221 / 266 221. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Bell's palsy C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 222 / 266 222. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Ankle clonus C. Anemia D. Glossitis 223 / 266 223. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Myopathy C. Encephalitis D. Neuropathy 224 / 266 224. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Dantrolene C. Halothane D. Succinylcholine 225 / 266 225. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Dysphonia C. Monotonous speech D. Aphasia 226 / 266 226. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Pinealomas 227 / 266 227. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Cord compression 228 / 266 228. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Sarcoidosis 229 / 266 229. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Muscle biopsy C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle enzyme study 230 / 266 230. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Negri bodies 231 / 266 231. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 232 / 266 232. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Marathon runner 233 / 266 233. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Wasting of muscles 234 / 266 234. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Glioblastoma 235 / 266 235. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Cerebellar infarction 236 / 266 236. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Polycythaemia vera C. Cluster headache D. Mania 237 / 266 237. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Albright's disease D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 238 / 266 238. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Obesity D. Hysteria 239 / 266 239. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Glioma 240 / 266 240. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 241 / 266 241. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Myoclonus C. Dystonia D. Chorea 242 / 266 242. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Multiple sclerosis D. Epilepsy 243 / 266 243. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Gynaecomastia 244 / 266 244. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich's ataxia 245 / 266 245. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 246 / 266 246. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Deep coma C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 247 / 266 247. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Relief by haloperidol C. Coprolalia D. Dementia 248 / 266 248. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Cataplexy D. Epilepsy 249 / 266 249. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 250 / 266 250. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Arrhythmia D. Cardiac tamponade 251 / 266 251. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 252 / 266 252. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 253 / 266 253. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Amyloidosis D. TOCP poisoning 254 / 266 254. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 255 / 266 255. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Verapamil D. Atenolol 256 / 266 256. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Hypoxia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Malignant hypertension 257 / 266 257. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Eye opening C. Verbal response D. Autonomic response 258 / 266 258. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Patchy arachnoiditis 259 / 266 259. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 260 / 266 260. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 261 / 266 261. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 262 / 266 262. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Periodic paralysis 263 / 266 263. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Pentoxifylline C. Ticlopidine D. Clopidogrel 264 / 266 264. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Parkinsonism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myxoedema 265 / 266 265. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Tuberculosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology