Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tay-Sachs disease 2 / 266 2. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Aortic incompetence C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 3 / 266 3. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Steroid myopathy 4 / 266 4. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Diabetes mellitus 5 / 266 5. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 6 / 266 6. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Duodenal stenosis D. Patent ductus arteriosus 7 / 266 7. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 8 / 266 8. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Meningioma 9 / 266 9. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 10 / 266 10. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Pick's disease 11 / 266 11. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Corpus striatum D. Frontal lobe 12 / 266 12. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Malignant hypertension D. Hypoxia 13 / 266 13. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Phobia 14 / 266 14. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Tight aortic stenosis 15 / 266 15. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Occipital 16 / 266 16. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Duchenne myopathy D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 18 / 266 18. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Ataxia C. Areflexia D. Apraxia 19 / 266 19. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 20 / 266 20. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine 21 / 266 21. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Hypertonia C. Retention of urine D. Coma 22 / 266 22. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 23 / 266 23. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. Meningism D. After epileptic seizure 24 / 266 24. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Lead D. Arsenic 25 / 266 25. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 26 / 266 26. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Babinski's sign D. Small, spastic tongue 27 / 266 27. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Deep coma 28 / 266 28. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Nerve conduction study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 29 / 266 29. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. AV malformations C. Emotional excitement D. Systemic hypertension 30 / 266 30. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Aminoglycosides C. Macrolides D. Quinolones 31 / 266 31. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Ptosis C. Testicular atrophy D. Frontal baldness 32 / 266 32. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Choroid plexus C. Basal ganglia D. Pineal body 33 / 266 33. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1 34 / 266 34. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Confabulation C. Presence of nystagmus D. Loss of recent memory 35 / 266 35. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Ropinirole C. Rasagiline D. Tiagabine 36 / 266 36. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Huge ascites C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Advanced pregnancy 37 / 266 37. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 38 / 266 38. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Hyperkinesia C. Rigidity D. Normal reflexes 40 / 266 40. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Polymyositis 41 / 266 41. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 42 / 266 42. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Focal neuro deficit C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Blindness 43 / 266 43. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Parkinsonism C. Motor neuron disease D. Cerebral diplegia 44 / 266 44. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Cocaine D. Amphetamines 45 / 266 45. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syringomyelia D. Cervical spondylosis 46 / 266 46. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Athetosis C. Tetany D. Myotonia 47 / 266 47. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 48 / 266 48. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Facial weakness C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 49 / 266 49. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 50 / 266 50. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Ciliary ganglion 51 / 266 51. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 52 / 266 52. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Atenolol D. Verapamil 53 / 266 53. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 54 / 266 54. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Aspirin C. Clopidogrel D. Ticlopidine 55 / 266 55. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 56 / 266 56. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 57 / 266 57. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 58 / 266 58. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 59 / 266 59. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 60 / 266 60. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 61 / 266 61. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 62 / 266 62. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T4 C. C8 D. T1 63 / 266 63. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Amyloidosis D. TOCP poisoning 64 / 266 64. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Takayasu's disease D. Polycystic kidney 65 / 266 65. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 66 / 266 66. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Ventral pons C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 67 / 266 67. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 68 / 266 68. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Constricted pupil C. Enophthalmos D. Anhidrosis 69 / 266 69. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Cerebral atrophy C. Lacunar infarction D. Chronic motor neuron disease 70 / 266 70. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Midbrain lesion 71 / 266 71. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Confabulation C. Tremor D. Visual hallucinations 72 / 266 72. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Depression D. Passivity feelings 73 / 266 73. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 74 / 266 74. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 75 / 266 75. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 76 / 266 76. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Toxin C. Bacteria D. Virus 77 / 266 77. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Mania C. Cluster headache D. SIADH 78 / 266 78. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Transient ischemic attack 79 / 266 79. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Facial nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trigeminal nerve 80 / 266 80. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 81 / 266 81. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Bladder involvement is very late 82 / 266 82. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. von Recklinghausen's disease 83 / 266 83. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 84 / 266 84. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 85 / 266 85. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 86 / 266 86. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 87 / 266 87. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 88 / 266 88. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 89 / 266 89. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Old age D. Myotonic pupil 90 / 266 90. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 91 / 266 91. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Trimipramine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 92 / 266 92. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 93 / 266 93. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Parkinsonism D. Myxoedema 94 / 266 94. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Myasthenia gravis 95 / 266 95. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 96 / 266 96. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 97 / 266 97. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Retrograde amnesia D. Defect in learning 98 / 266 98. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 99 / 266 99. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Hypothermia C. Disconjugate gaze D. Pin-point pupil 100 / 266 100. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-13 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-21 101 / 266 101. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Severe heart failure 102 / 266 102. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell's palsy C. Syringobulbia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 103 / 266 103. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral infarction 104 / 266 104. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 105 / 266 105. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pituitary tumors 106 / 266 106. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Pain C. Animals D. Strangers 107 / 266 107. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic 108 / 266 108. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 109 / 266 109. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Glossitis C. Anemia D. Babinski's sign 110 / 266 110. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 111 / 266 111. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 112 / 266 112. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Kuru C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 113 / 266 113. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 114 / 266 114. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Papilledema C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Retinal hemorrhage 115 / 266 115. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Cord compression D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 116 / 266 116. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Cerebellar infarction C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Digitalis toxicity 117 / 266 117. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myopathy C. Neuropathy D. Myelopathy 118 / 266 118. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 119 / 266 119. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Cortex 120 / 266 120. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 121 / 266 121. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Tetanus C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Diphtheria 122 / 266 122. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Diazepam C. Valproate D. Topiramate 123 / 266 123. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 124 / 266 124. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Pompholyx 125 / 266 125. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Myositis D. Tabes dorsalis 126 / 266 126. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Complex partial D. Infantile spasm 127 / 266 127. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypocapnia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypoxia 128 / 266 128. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 129 / 266 129. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Syringomyelia 130 / 266 130. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Diplopia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 131 / 266 131. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 132 / 266 132. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 133 / 266 133. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 134 / 266 134. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 135 / 266 135. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 136 / 266 136. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Ocular myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 137 / 266 137. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Hysteria 138 / 266 138. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Deltoid C. Calf muscles D. Infraspinatus 139 / 266 139. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Myopathy 140 / 266 140. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Looking in front C. Reading a book D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 141 / 266 141. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe 142 / 266 142. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 143 / 266 143. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Emetine D. Lovastatin 144 / 266 144. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Dolichocephaly D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 145 / 266 145. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Eye opening C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 146 / 266 146. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Hereditary predisposition C. Common migraine has aura D. Common in women 147 / 266 147. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Leukodystrophy 148 / 266 148. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 149 / 266 149. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Weber-Christian disease 150 / 266 150. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Clonus C. Fasciculations D. Spasticity 151 / 266 151. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Neurofibroma 152 / 266 152. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cataract D. Cirrhosis of liver 153 / 266 153. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 154 / 266 154. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Psychosis C. Chorea D. Migraine 155 / 266 155. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Dystonia C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 156 / 266 156. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Intact proprioception C. Increased tone D. Brisk deep reflexes 157 / 266 157. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Bitemporal hemianopi 158 / 266 158. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Red nucleus C. Substantia nigra D. Caudate nucleus 159 / 266 159. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 160 / 266 160. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Masked facies C. Emotional incontinence D. Flaccid dysarthria 161 / 266 161. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Gonda sign D. Chaddock's sign 162 / 266 162. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 163 / 266 163. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 164 / 266 164. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Restlessness C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Poliomyelitis 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysarthria C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysphagia 166 / 266 166. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. Glucocorticoids C. IV quinine D. IV mannitol 167 / 266 167. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Loss of accommodation C. Polyneuropathy D. Paralysis of soft palate 168 / 266 168. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Acromegaly C. Gynaecomastia D. Galactorrhoea 169 / 266 169. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Leprosy 170 / 266 170. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. PET scan C. CT scan D. MRI scan 171 / 266 171. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 172 / 266 172. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 173 / 266 173. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 174 / 266 174. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Olfactory groove D. Sylvian fissure 175 / 266 175. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Acute renal failure 176 / 266 176. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Cataplexy C. Sleep paralysis D. Hypnagogic hallucination 177 / 266 177. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Vincristine C. Nitrofurantoin D. INH 178 / 266 178. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Hepatic precoma C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 179 / 266 179. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Pneumococcus C. Meningococcous D. H. influenzae 180 / 266 180. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. IIIrd C. Xth D. Vllth 181 / 266 181. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 182 / 266 182. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Hiccups C. Horner's syndrome D. Pyramidal lesion 183 / 266 183. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Ocular myopathy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Malignant exophthalmos 184 / 266 184. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 185 / 266 185. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Cerebellar signs 186 / 266 186. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Livedo reticularis C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 187 / 266 187. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Tone and power C. Nutrition of muscles D. Involuntary movements 188 / 266 188. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Hysterical gait disorder 189 / 266 189. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Dysphasia C. Seizures D. Paraesthesia 190 / 266 190. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 191 / 266 191. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 192 / 266 192. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Electroconvulsive therapy 193 / 266 193. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Aphasia C. Dysarthria D. Monotonous speech 194 / 266 194. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Titubation C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypermetria 195 / 266 195. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Midbrain C. Upper pons D. Medulla 196 / 266 196. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Amantadine C. Selegiline D. Levodopa 197 / 266 197. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cerebral palsy D. Leucodystrophy 198 / 266 198. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Huntington's chorea D. Shy-Drager syndrome 199 / 266 199. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 200 / 266 200. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 201 / 266 201. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Mass reflex C. Flexor plantar response D. Flexor spasm 202 / 266 202. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Hyperthyroidism C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 203 / 266 203. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Pendular nystagmus C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Cerebellar syndrome 204 / 266 204. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 205 / 266 205. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Immune disorder D. Metabolic disorder 206 / 266 206. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Myasthenia gravis D. Polymyositis 207 / 266 207. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 208 / 266 208. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Ataxia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Hyperglycaemia 209 / 266 209. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Pontine glioma 210 / 266 210. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 211 / 266 211. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Multiple tics 212 / 266 212. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 213 / 266 213. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 214 / 266 214. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 215 / 266 215. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 216 / 266 216. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hyperkalemia 217 / 266 217. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Viral meningitis 218 / 266 218. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Putamen 219 / 266 219. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Has a good prognosis in children 220 / 266 220. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 221 / 266 221. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Anal reflex C. Snout reflex D. Sucking reflex 222 / 266 222. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Male dominance C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Periorbital pain 223 / 266 223. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hysteria D. Duchenne myopathy 224 / 266 224. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Absent superficial reflex C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 225 / 266 225. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 226 / 266 226. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C5, 6 C. C6, 7 D. C3, 4 227 / 266 227. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Galactosaemia C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Haemochromatosis 228 / 266 228. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 229 / 266 229. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Dementia 230 / 266 230. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 231 / 266 231. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Inflammatory C. Hemorrhagic D. Demyelinating 232 / 266 232. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Carbamazepine C. Lithium D. Clomipramine 233 / 266 233. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. High protein content D. Xanthochromia 234 / 266 234. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 235 / 266 235. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 236 / 266 236. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Optic neuritis C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Convulsions 237 / 266 237. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 238 / 266 238. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 239 / 266 239. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Athletes C. Manual labourers D. Myotonia 240 / 266 240. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Felbamate C. Lubeluzole D. Lamotrigine 241 / 266 241. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Corticosteroid D. Cyclophosphamide 242 / 266 242. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypercalcemia 243 / 266 243. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 244 / 266 244. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Agnosia 245 / 266 245. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebellar infarction C. Epilepsy D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 246 / 266 246. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 247 / 266 247. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Altered consciousness C. Headache D. Convulsions 248 / 266 248. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Oculomotor palsy 249 / 266 249. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 250 / 266 250. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Diarrhoea D. Onycholysis 251 / 266 251. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Hyponatraemia 252 / 266 252. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 253 / 266 253. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Subdural hematoma C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Trypanosomiasis 254 / 266 254. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 255 / 266 255. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Botulinus poisoning C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae group snake bite 256 / 266 256. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 257 / 266 257. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 258 / 266 258. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Wasting of muscles C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Proximal muscle weakness 259 / 266 259. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. EMG D. Cerebellar functions 260 / 266 260. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Hypoparathyroidism 261 / 266 261. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 262 / 266 262. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 263 / 266 263. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 264 / 266 264. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Leprosy C. Ethambutol D. Multiple sclerosis 265 / 266 265. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV mannitol 266 / 266 266. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Pseudoclonus C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Distal muscle weakness LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology