Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Febrile C. Epilepsy D. Encephalitis 2 / 266 2. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 3 / 266 3. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Complex partial C. Petit mal D. Generalized tonic clonic 4 / 266 4. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Sensory functions D. Proprioception 5 / 266 5. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 6 / 266 6. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Viral or post-vaccinal 7 / 266 7. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 8 / 266 8. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Retrograde amnesia D. Defect in learning 9 / 266 9. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Pin-point pupil C. Paralysis D. Hypothermia 10 / 266 10. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic amyotrophy 11 / 266 11. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Cerebellar infarction C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Digitalis toxicity 12 / 266 12. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Lax abdominal wall C. Obesity D. Multiparous woman 13 / 266 13. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Multiple sclerosis 14 / 266 14. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Rabies C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 15 / 266 15. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Tonic seizures D. Absence seizures 16 / 266 16. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 17 / 266 17. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 18 / 266 18. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Weil's disease C. Cerebral malaria D. Enteric fever 19 / 266 19. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Dolichocephaly C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Platybasia 20 / 266 20. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. IV mannitol C. 5% dextrose D. Glucocorticoids 21 / 266 21. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Athetosis C. Myotonia D. Tetany 22 / 266 22. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ethambutol C. Syphilis D. Leprosy 23 / 266 23. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Blindness C. Convulsions D. Radioculomyelopathy 24 / 266 24. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Dementia 25 / 266 25. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Acute myocardial infarction 26 / 266 26. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyponatremia 27 / 266 27. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Facial weakness C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 28 / 266 28. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 29 / 266 29. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Brain tumor 30 / 266 30. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Lead D. Arsenic 31 / 266 31. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Dementia in AIDS C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Hysterical gait disorder 32 / 266 32. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Oculomotor palsy C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 33 / 266 33. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Advanced pregnancy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 34 / 266 34. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Neurofibroma D. Subacute combined degeneration 35 / 266 35. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 36 / 266 36. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Kuru 37 / 266 37. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 38 / 266 38. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Cocaine 39 / 266 39. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 40 / 266 40. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 41 / 266 41. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 42 / 266 42. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 43 / 266 43. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 44 / 266 44. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Lower pons D. Midbrain 45 / 266 45. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myelopathy D. Encephalitis 46 / 266 46. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 47 / 266 47. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Pyramidal lesion C. Ataxia D. Horner's syndrome 48 / 266 48. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Tetanus C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Quinsy 49 / 266 49. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Diplopia 50 / 266 50. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 51 / 266 51. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 52 / 266 52. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cord compression D. Lathyrism 53 / 266 53. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Inflammatory D. Hemorrhagic 54 / 266 54. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Marathon runner 55 / 266 55. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Dermatomyositis 56 / 266 56. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Choroid plexus C. Dura matter D. Pineal body 57 / 266 57. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Common migraine has aura D. Hereditary predisposition 58 / 266 58. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 59 / 266 59. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 60 / 266 60. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmunity C. Toxin D. Virus 61 / 266 61. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Pentoxifylline C. Aspirin D. Ticlopidine 62 / 266 62. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 63 / 266 63. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 64 / 266 64. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 65 / 266 65. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Transverse myelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 66 / 266 66. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Ataxia C. Osteomalacia D. Hyperglycaemia 67 / 266 67. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Schaumann bodies 68 / 266 68. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Seizures C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Mental retardation 69 / 266 69. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Aminoglycosides C. Macrolides D. Cephalosporins 70 / 266 70. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 71 / 266 71. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hypocapnia 72 / 266 72. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Alcoholism C. Wilson's disease D. Parkinsonism 73 / 266 73. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 74 / 266 74. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Early onset C. Visual hallucinations D. Depression 75 / 266 75. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Thalamus 76 / 266 76. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 77 / 266 77. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 78 / 266 78. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 79 / 266 79. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Thiocyanates 80 / 266 80. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Masked facies C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Extensor plantar response 81 / 266 81. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. After epileptic seizure C. Hysteria D. Tetanus 82 / 266 82. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Carotid artery occlusion D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 83 / 266 83. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Hypoparathyroidism 84 / 266 84. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. H. influenzae C. E. coli D. Pneumococcus 85 / 266 85. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Lathyrism 86 / 266 86. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Limb shortening 87 / 266 87. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Nerve conduction study C. Electromyography D. Muscle enzyme study 88 / 266 88. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Interferon C. Immunoglobulin D. Cyclophosphamide 89 / 266 89. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 90 / 266 90. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T2 D. T4 91 / 266 91. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 92 / 266 92. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Parietal 93 / 266 93. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Duodenal stenosis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Polymyositis 94 / 266 94. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 95 / 266 95. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Abducens nerve 96 / 266 96. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. Drop attacks C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 97 / 266 97. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Post-encephalitic 98 / 266 98. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Atenolol C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 99 / 266 99. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. AV malformations D. Systemic hypertension 100 / 266 100. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Ciliary ganglion C. Oculomotor nerve D. Sympathetic nervous system 101 / 266 101. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Leucodystrophy C. Cerebral palsy D. Tuberous sclerosis 102 / 266 102. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 103 / 266 103. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 104 / 266 104. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agnosia 105 / 266 105. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Reading a book 106 / 266 106. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 107 / 266 107. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Old age D. Myotonic pupil 108 / 266 108. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 109 / 266 109. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Tabes dorsalis 110 / 266 110. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Ependymoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 111 / 266 111. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Motor neuron disease D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 112 / 266 112. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Wasting of muscles C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 113 / 266 113. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 114 / 266 114. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Altered consciousness D. Non-projectile vomiting 115 / 266 115. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Galactorrhoea C. Acromegaly D. Gynaecomastia 116 / 266 116. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Ankle clonus C. Anemia D. Babinski's sign 117 / 266 117. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Cerebellar signs C. Pyramidal signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 118 / 266 118. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 119 / 266 119. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Poliomyelitis C. Neurofibromatosis D. Syringomyelia 120 / 266 120. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 121 / 266 121. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Pick's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 122 / 266 122. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 123 / 266 123. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Mania C. Cluster headache D. SIADH 124 / 266 124. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 125 / 266 125. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Equivocal plantar response C. Absent superficial reflex D. Weakness and spasticity 126 / 266 126. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Mass reflex D. Flexor spasm 127 / 266 127. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Hyperpyrexia 128 / 266 128. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Oesophagitis C. Acute renal failure D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 129 / 266 129. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. MRI scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. CT scan 130 / 266 130. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Immune disorder 131 / 266 131. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 132 / 266 132. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Deafness D. Retinitis pigmentosa 133 / 266 133. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C5, 6 C. C6, 7 D. C4, 5 134 / 266 134. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Myositis 135 / 266 135. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulism C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Myasthenia gravis 136 / 266 136. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Migraine C. Chorea D. Myodonus 137 / 266 137. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Amyloidosis D. TOCP poisoning 138 / 266 138. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis major C. Infraspinatus D. Calf muscles 139 / 266 139. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Ocular myopathy 140 / 266 140. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 141 / 266 141. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 142 / 266 142. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 143 / 266 143. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Two-point localisation D. Graphesthesia 144 / 266 144. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Pseudoclonus 145 / 266 145. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 146 / 266 146. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Hypoxia D. Malignant hypertension 147 / 266 147. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 148 / 266 148. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Stereognosis 149 / 266 149. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 150 / 266 150. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 151 / 266 151. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Apraxia 152 / 266 152. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Pindolol C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Reserpine 153 / 266 153. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 154 / 266 154. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 155 / 266 155. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 156 / 266 156. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Head injury 157 / 266 157. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Left atrial myxoma 158 / 266 158. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 159 / 266 159. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Leukodystrophy 160 / 266 160. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 161 / 266 161. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 162 / 266 162. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Babinski's sign C. Small, spastic tongue D. Sudden onset 163 / 266 163. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Apraxia D. Ataxia 164 / 266 164. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Weber-Christian disease 165 / 266 165. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Taboparesis C. Hepatic precoma D. Subacute combined degeneration 166 / 266 166. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Snout reflex C. Anal reflex D. Grasp reflex 167 / 266 167. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Amantadine D. Selegiline 168 / 266 168. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Increased deep reflexes D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 169 / 266 169. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Wilson's disease C. Rheumatic fever D. Thyrotoxicosis 170 / 266 170. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Xanthochromia C. Increased CSF pressure D. High protein content 171 / 266 171. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Optic nerv 172 / 266 172. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Benzodiazepine C. Trimipramine D. Chlorpromazine 173 / 266 173. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe 174 / 266 174. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 175 / 266 175. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 176 / 266 176. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Cerebral atrophy C. Lacunar infarction D. Chronic motor neuron disease 177 / 266 177. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Fluoxetine C. Paroxetine D. Sertraline 178 / 266 178. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Huntington's chorea C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Punch-drunk syndrome 179 / 266 179. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 180 / 266 180. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Astrocytoma 181 / 266 181. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 182 / 266 182. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Polycystic kidney 183 / 266 183. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 184 / 266 184. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypermetria C. Titubation D. Hypertonia 185 / 266 185. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Brachycephaly C. Ptosis D. Frontal baldness 186 / 266 186. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Shagreen patch D. Pompholyx 187 / 266 187. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Acalculia D. Agraphia 188 / 266 188. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Deep coma D. Hyperpyrexia 189 / 266 189. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Tremor C. Hyperkinesia D. Rigidity 190 / 266 190. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Mania 191 / 266 191. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Cerebellum C. Putamen D. Midbrain 192 / 266 192. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 193 / 266 193. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Thalamus 194 / 266 194. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Sarcoidosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 195 / 266 195. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 196 / 266 196. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 197 / 266 197. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 198 / 266 198. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 199 / 266 199. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Diminished auditory acuity 200 / 266 200. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Arrhythmia 201 / 266 201. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Lovastatin C. Zidovudine D. Emetine 202 / 266 202. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Syringobulbia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Bell's palsy 203 / 266 203. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pseudolymphoma 204 / 266 204. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Ataxia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hypothyroidism 205 / 266 205. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Spastic tongue D. Dysphagia 206 / 266 206. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Dantrolene C. Methoxyflurane D. Halothane 207 / 266 207. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Myoclonus 208 / 266 208. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 209 / 266 209. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1 210 / 266 210. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Clomipramine 211 / 266 211. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Myotonic dystrophy 212 / 266 212. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Pinealomas C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 213 / 266 213. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia 214 / 266 214. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 215 / 266 215. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Fatty liver C. Ankle oedema D. Livedo reticularis 216 / 266 216. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents vasospasm 217 / 266 217. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 218 / 266 218. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Tunnel vision C. Central scotoma D. Bitemporal hemianopi 219 / 266 219. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 3 weeks C. 24 hours D. 96 hours 220 / 266 220. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Convulsions C. Optic neuritis D. Pseudobulbar palsy 221 / 266 221. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 222 / 266 222. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Hypertonia C. Coma D. Retention of urine 223 / 266 223. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Red nucleus 224 / 266 224. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Strangers C. Animals D. High places 225 / 266 225. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-18 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-21 226 / 266 226. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Aortic incompetence C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Cerebellar disorder 227 / 266 227. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Myasthenia Gravis 228 / 266 228. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. May occur spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. Quite often remits spontaneously 229 / 266 229. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Athletes 230 / 266 230. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. Autonomic response 231 / 266 231. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Motor neuron disease C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy 232 / 266 232. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 233 / 266 233. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Cervical rib 234 / 266 234. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. May be associated with malignancy C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 235 / 266 235. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 236 / 266 236. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Froin's loculation syndrome 237 / 266 237. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 238 / 266 238. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 239 / 266 239. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Hypothyroidism C. Onycholysis D. Ataxia 240 / 266 240. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Monotonous speech C. Aphasia D. Dysarthria 241 / 266 241. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Lathyrism D. Elapidae group snake bite 242 / 266 242. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Periorbital pain C. Male dominance D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 243 / 266 243. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 244 / 266 244. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 245 / 266 245. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Gonda sign 246 / 266 246. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Meningism 247 / 266 247. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 248 / 266 248. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sarcoidosis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 249 / 266 249. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Vigabatrin C. Felbamate D. Lubeluzole 250 / 266 250. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Tremor C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 251 / 266 251. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Vincristine C. INH D. Methotrexate 252 / 266 252. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Cataplexy C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 253 / 266 253. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Sylvian fissure C. Over visual cortex D. Olfactory groove 254 / 266 254. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 255 / 266 255. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 256 / 266 256. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Xth C. Vllth D. Vth 257 / 266 257. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 258 / 266 258. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Increased tone C. Intact proprioception D. Sensory ataxia 259 / 266 259. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Botulism C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 260 / 266 260. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 261 / 266 261. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 262 / 266 262. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 263 / 266 263. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 264 / 266 264. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Brain tumour C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 265 / 266 265. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Ropinirole 266 / 266 266. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology