Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. SIADH C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 2 / 266 2. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Brain tumor C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 3 / 266 3. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 4 / 266 4. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Mamillary bodies 5 / 266 5. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Flexor plantar response 6 / 266 6. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Cerebellar infarction 7 / 266 7. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 8 / 266 8. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 9 / 266 9. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Puerperal sepsis 10 / 266 10. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Seizures C. Diplopia D. Paraesthesia 11 / 266 11. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Two-point localisation 12 / 266 12. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 13 / 266 13. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Neurofibroma 14 / 266 14. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Alcoholism C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 15 / 266 15. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Sudden onset D. Babinski's sign 16 / 266 16. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common in women C. Common migraine has aura D. Hereditary predisposition 18 / 266 18. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Clopidogrel C. Pentoxifylline D. Ticlopidine 19 / 266 19. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Albright's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 20 / 266 20. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Cerebral malaria C. Weil's disease D. Enteric fever 21 / 266 21. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Bacteria 22 / 266 22. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Headache D. Altered consciousness 23 / 266 23. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Thoracic inlet syndrome C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 24 / 266 24. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Encephalitis C. Myelopathy D. Myopathy 25 / 266 25. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 26 / 266 26. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Depression C. Early onset D. Passivity feelings 27 / 266 27. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Reading a book C. Looking to the roof D. Looking in front 28 / 266 28. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Acromegaly C. Alzheimer's disease D. Parkinsonism 29 / 266 29. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Convulsions D. Blindness 30 / 266 30. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 31 / 266 31. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Alcohol C. Vincristine D. Arsenic 32 / 266 32. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Pituitary tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Calcification within a lesion 33 / 266 33. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Cortex D. Pons 34 / 266 34. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 35 / 266 35. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Hepatocellular failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Severe heart failure 36 / 266 36. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Left atrial myxoma 37 / 266 37. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 38 / 266 38. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Niemann-Pick disease 39 / 266 39. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 40 / 266 40. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 41 / 266 41. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Leprosy C. Syphilis D. Ethambutol 42 / 266 42. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Thrombocytopenia 43 / 266 43. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Ptosis C. Brachycephaly D. Frontal baldness 44 / 266 44. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Hepatic precoma D. Subacute combined degeneration 45 / 266 45. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Trochlear nerve 46 / 266 46. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 47 / 266 47. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Thalamus 48 / 266 48. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Pinealomas D. Multiple sclerosis 49 / 266 49. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 50 / 266 50. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Dolichocephaly 51 / 266 51. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 52 / 266 52. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 53 / 266 53. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 54 / 266 54. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Constricted pupil C. Complete ptosis D. Anhidrosis 55 / 266 55. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Migraine C. Myodonus D. Psychosis 56 / 266 56. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 57 / 266 57. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Lax abdominal wall C. Hysteria D. Obesity 58 / 266 58. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Meningioma 59 / 266 59. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 60 / 266 60. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Alzheimer's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 61 / 266 61. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 62 / 266 62. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Lathyrism 63 / 266 63. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cervical spine 64 / 266 64. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 65 / 266 65. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 66 / 266 66. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 67 / 266 67. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Tetanus 68 / 266 68. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 69 / 266 69. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 70 / 266 70. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Athletes C. Manual labourers D. Myotonia 71 / 266 71. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 72 / 266 72. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 73 / 266 73. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Schizophrenia D. Mania 74 / 266 74. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Ataxia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Osteomalacia 75 / 266 75. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. AV malformations C. Systemic hypertension D. Berry aneurysm rupture 76 / 266 76. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Rasagiline D. Pramipexole 77 / 266 77. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T1 C. C8 D. T4 78 / 266 78. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Steroid myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 79 / 266 79. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 80 / 266 80. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Diplopia C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 81 / 266 81. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Cataplexy C. Epilepsy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 82 / 266 82. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syringomyelia 83 / 266 83. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Ventral pons C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 84 / 266 84. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetes mellitus 85 / 266 85. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Masked facies D. Emotional incontinence 86 / 266 86. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 87 / 266 87. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Aphasia 88 / 266 88. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Ocular myopathy 89 / 266 89. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 90 / 266 90. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 91 / 266 91. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Aphasia D. Dysphonia 92 / 266 92. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Cyclophosphamide C. Corticosteroid D. Immunoglobulin 93 / 266 93. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 94 / 266 94. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Myositis D. Tabes dorsalis 95 / 266 95. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Ependymoma C. Pinealomas D. Glioma 96 / 266 96. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Methotrexate 97 / 266 97. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Infraspinatus C. Calf muscles D. Pectoralis major 98 / 266 98. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Confabulation C. Perspiration D. Visual hallucinations 99 / 266 99. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 100 / 266 100. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Waddling gait C. Sensory dysfunction D. Argyll Robertson pupil 101 / 266 101. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 102 / 266 102. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Acoustic neuroma 103 / 266 103. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Acromegaly C. Galactorrhoea D. Gynaecomastia 104 / 266 104. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Paroxetine 105 / 266 105. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Occipital D. Temporal 106 / 266 106. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Hypoglycaemic coma 107 / 266 107. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Hyponatraemia C. Wilson's disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 108 / 266 108. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 109 / 266 109. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 110 / 266 110. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Subdural hematoma C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Encephalitis lethargica 111 / 266 111. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Meningococcous C. Pneumococcus D. H. influenzae 112 / 266 112. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 113 / 266 113. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Infantile spasm C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Complex partial 114 / 266 114. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Deafness B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 115 / 266 115. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Hypertonia C. Retention of urine D. Coma 116 / 266 116. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Apraxia 117 / 266 117. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Depression C. Mania D. Paranoia 118 / 266 118. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. Diminished auditory acuity C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 119 / 266 119. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 120 / 266 120. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 121 / 266 121. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Wasting of muscles D. Proximal muscle weakness 122 / 266 122. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypocapnia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypoxia 123 / 266 123. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 124 / 266 124. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Relief by haloperidol C. Coprolalia D. Dementia 125 / 266 125. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Lamotrigine C. Felbamate D. Vigabatrin 126 / 266 126. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Leukodystrophy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 127 / 266 127. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Amyloidosis D. TOCP poisoning 128 / 266 128. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Polycystic kidney D. Coarctation of aorta 129 / 266 129. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 130 / 266 130. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Hypothyroidism C. Diarrhoea D. Ataxia 131 / 266 131. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Glossitis D. Anemia 132 / 266 132. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 133 / 266 133. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Choreoathetosis C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Mental retardation 134 / 266 134. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5 D. S1 135 / 266 135. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Facial nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 136 / 266 136. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 137 / 266 137. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Ataxia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Urinary incontinence 138 / 266 138. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 139 / 266 139. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Diazepam C. Valproate D. Ethosuximide 140 / 266 140. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Cerebellar infarction C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 141 / 266 141. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 142 / 266 142. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 143 / 266 143. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Equivocal plantar response C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Absent superficial reflex 144 / 266 144. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Babinski's sign C. Gonda sign D. Rossolimo's sign 145 / 266 145. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 146 / 266 146. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Pindolol C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 147 / 266 147. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Ocular muscles 148 / 266 148. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 149 / 266 149. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Apraxia C. Areflexia D. External ophthalmoplegia 150 / 266 150. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Hemorrhagic C. Demyelinating D. Inflammatory 151 / 266 151. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 152 / 266 152. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 153 / 266 153. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 154 / 266 154. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 155 / 266 155. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Trauma C. Epilepsy D. Febrile 156 / 266 156. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 157 / 266 157. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Anencephaly C. Mental retardation D. Heart valve abnormalities 158 / 266 158. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 159 / 266 159. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cord compression D. Acute transverse myelitis 160 / 266 160. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 161 / 266 161. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-18 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-21 162 / 266 162. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Atenolol C. Sumatriptan D. Phenytoin 163 / 266 163. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV frusemide D. IV mannitol 164 / 266 164. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 165 / 266 165. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 166 / 266 166. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Hypoxia 167 / 266 167. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Facial weakness 168 / 266 168. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Tetanus C. Meningism D. Hysteria 169 / 266 169. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 170 / 266 170. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Thalamus 171 / 266 171. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 172 / 266 172. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Huge ascites C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 173 / 266 173. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 174 / 266 174. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 175 / 266 175. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Poliomyelitis 176 / 266 176. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Loss of immediate recall 177 / 266 177. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Dystonia C. Hemiballismus D. Myoclonus 178 / 266 178. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Acute renal failure C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 179 / 266 179. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Pyramidal signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 180 / 266 180. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 181 / 266 181. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud's disease C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 182 / 266 182. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Oculomotor nerve C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 183 / 266 183. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Bell's palsy C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 184 / 266 184. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Diabetes mellitus D. Raised intracranial pressure 185 / 266 185. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Viral or post-vaccinal 186 / 266 186. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 187 / 266 187. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 188 / 266 188. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Tunnel vision 189 / 266 189. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 190 / 266 190. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Xth 191 / 266 191. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alzheimer's disease 192 / 266 192. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pyogenic meningitis 193 / 266 193. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Negri bodies 194 / 266 194. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Nasal regurgitation D. Spastic tongue 195 / 266 195. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Upper pons C. Lower pons D. Medulla 196 / 266 196. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal dominant 197 / 266 197. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Papilledema 198 / 266 198. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. May be associated with malignancy D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 199 / 266 199. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Mass reflex C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor plantar response 200 / 266 200. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Chloroquine C. Probenecid D. Ethambutol 201 / 266 201. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. Proprioception C. Sensory functions D. EMG 202 / 266 202. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Carbamazepine 203 / 266 203. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Amphetamines C. Cocaine D. Carbamazepine 204 / 266 204. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Weber-Christian disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 205 / 266 205. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 206 / 266 206. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Botulism D. Periodic paralysis 207 / 266 207. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Haloperidol C. Trimipramine D. Benzodiazepine 208 / 266 208. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Loss of accommodation 209 / 266 209. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Adenoma sebaceum 210 / 266 210. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Myotonic dystrophy 211 / 266 211. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 212 / 266 212. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Parkinsonism 213 / 266 213. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 214 / 266 214. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C5, 6 C. C3, 4 D. C6, 7 215 / 266 215. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. CT scan D. PET scan 216 / 266 216. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Organophosphorus poisoning 217 / 266 217. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Confabulation C. Loss of recent memory D. Presence of nystagmus 218 / 266 218. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Leucodystrophy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cerebral palsy 219 / 266 219. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Drop attacks C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Diplopia 220 / 266 220. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Myasthenia Gravis 221 / 266 221. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Pain C. Strangers D. High places 222 / 266 222. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 223 / 266 223. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 224 / 266 224. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Tabes dorsalis 225 / 266 225. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 226 / 266 226. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Anal reflex D. Grasp reflex 227 / 266 227. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 228 / 266 228. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Succinylcholine 229 / 266 229. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Amblyopia D. Cerebellar disorder 230 / 266 230. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Scoliosis C. Optic glioma D. Acoustic neuroma 231 / 266 231. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Superior sagittal sinus 232 / 266 232. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Alzheimer's disease C. Pick's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 233 / 266 233. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 234 / 266 234. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 235 / 266 235. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 236 / 266 236. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. SIADH C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Optic neuritis 237 / 266 237. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Polymyositis D. Patent ductus arteriosus 238 / 266 238. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Seizures 239 / 266 239. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. Autonomic response 240 / 266 240. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Tonic seizures D. Absence seizures 241 / 266 241. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 96 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 242 / 266 242. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 243 / 266 243. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 244 / 266 244. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Putamen C. Caudate nucleus D. Red nucleus 245 / 266 245. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 246 / 266 246. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Post-encephalitic C. Huntington's chorea D. Alzheimer's disease 247 / 266 247. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Astrocytoma 248 / 266 248. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Babinski's sign 249 / 266 249. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 250 / 266 250. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Myotonic pupil C. Old age D. Organophosphorus poisoning 251 / 266 251. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Myxoedema D. Alcohol 252 / 266 252. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Myasthenia gravis 253 / 266 253. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Shy-Drager syndrome 254 / 266 254. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 255 / 266 255. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy D. Motor neuron disease 256 / 266 256. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. May occur spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 257 / 266 257. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 258 / 266 258. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Bulbar palsy 259 / 266 259. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Periodic paralysis 260 / 266 260. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. Glucocorticoids 261 / 266 261. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agraphia 262 / 266 262. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Over visual cortex C. Olfactory groove D. Sylvian fissure 263 / 266 263. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Cerebral diplegia 264 / 266 264. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 265 / 266 265. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Occipital lobe 266 / 266 266. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Pineal body C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology