Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 2 / 266 2. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 3 / 266 3. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Retrograde amnesia C. Confabulation D. Defect in learning 4 / 266 4. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Ataxia C. Horner's syndrome D. Pyramidal lesion 5 / 266 5. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Mania 6 / 266 6. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 7 / 266 7. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 8 / 266 8. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Subacute combined degeneration 9 / 266 9. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 10 / 266 10. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 11 / 266 11. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Leprosy C. Polymyositis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 12 / 266 12. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Elapidae snake bite 13 / 266 13. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1 C. L5,S1 D. S1,S2 14 / 266 14. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 15 / 266 15. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Calcification within a lesion C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pituitary tumors 16 / 266 16. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Lithium C. Clomipramine D. Haloperidol 17 / 266 17. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 18 / 266 18. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 19 / 266 19. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Red nucleus C. Substantia nigra D. Caudate nucleus 20 / 266 20. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cervical spondylosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 21 / 266 21. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 22 / 266 22. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Convulsions C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Optic neuritis 23 / 266 23. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Putamen 24 / 266 24. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Malignant exophthalmos 25 / 266 25. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 26 / 266 26. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Hemorrhagic D. Inflammatory 27 / 266 27. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Pseudoclonus C. Distal muscle weakness D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 28 / 266 28. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Mania D. Cluster headache 29 / 266 29. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 30 / 266 30. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 31 / 266 31. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Brain tumor D. Hysteria 32 / 266 32. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Clonus C. Fasciculations D. Babinski's sign 33 / 266 33. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 34 / 266 34. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Optic nerv 35 / 266 35. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 36 / 266 36. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle biopsy D. Electromyography 37 / 266 37. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 38 / 266 38. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Gonda sign 39 / 266 39. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Facial nerve 40 / 266 40. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Reserpine C. Pindolol D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 41 / 266 41. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Coma C. Retention of urine D. Hypertonia 42 / 266 42. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Flexor spasm C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Mass reflex 43 / 266 43. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Papilledema 44 / 266 44. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Drop attacks 45 / 266 45. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Fluoxetine 46 / 266 46. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Alzheimer's disease 47 / 266 47. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Relief by haloperidol C. Coprolalia D. Dementia 48 / 266 48. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 49 / 266 49. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 50 / 266 50. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 51 / 266 51. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 52 / 266 52. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Dysphagia D. Spastic tongue 53 / 266 53. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Old age C. Myotonic pupil D. Application of pilocarpine drops 54 / 266 54. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cataract D. Alzheimer's disease 55 / 266 55. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Flumazenil C. Cocaine D. Carbamazepine 56 / 266 56. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Agraphia 57 / 266 57. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Altered consciousness D. Non-projectile vomiting 58 / 266 58. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 59 / 266 59. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Astrocytoma C. Glioblastoma D. Meningioma 60 / 266 60. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Central scotoma C. Tunnel vision D. Bitemporal hemianopi 61 / 266 61. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypercalcemia 62 / 266 62. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 63 / 266 63. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 64 / 266 64. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Bladder involvement is very late 65 / 266 65. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Shagreen patch D. Pompholyx 66 / 266 66. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common migraine has aura C. Common in women D. Hereditary predisposition 67 / 266 67. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Cerebellar infarction 68 / 266 68. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Babinski's sign C. Sudden onset D. Small, spastic tongue 69 / 266 69. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 70 / 266 70. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 71 / 266 71. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Lead C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 72 / 266 72. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Tetany D. Athetosis 73 / 266 73. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 74 / 266 74. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Weber-Christian disease 75 / 266 75. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Increased tone 76 / 266 76. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 77 / 266 77. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 78 / 266 78. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 79 / 266 79. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Dementia in AIDS C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Hysterical gait disorder 80 / 266 80. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Reading a book 81 / 266 81. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Hyperpyrexia C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 82 / 266 82. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lamotrigine C. Felbamate D. Lubeluzole 83 / 266 83. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Brain tumor 84 / 266 84. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Cerebral infarction 85 / 266 85. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 86 / 266 86. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Huntington's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 87 / 266 87. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basal ganglia infarction 88 / 266 88. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis major C. Infraspinatus D. Calf muscles 89 / 266 89. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 90 / 266 90. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Aspirin 91 / 266 91. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Frontal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Temporal lobe 92 / 266 92. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 93 / 266 93. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Limb shortening C. Anencephaly D. Heart valve abnormalities 94 / 266 94. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Immunoglobulin C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 95 / 266 95. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Oesophagitis C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 96 / 266 96. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Immune disorder 97 / 266 97. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Manual labourers C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Myotonia 98 / 266 98. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 99 / 266 99. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Mental retardation C. Seizures D. Phakomatosis 100 / 266 100. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C3, 4 C. C4, 5 D. C5, 6 101 / 266 101. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 102 / 266 102. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Neurosyphilis 103 / 266 103. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Subdural hematoma 104 / 266 104. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Acoustic neuroma 105 / 266 105. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Equivocal plantar response 106 / 266 106. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Thalamus 107 / 266 107. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Aura phase of migraine C. Digitalis toxicity D. Cerebellar infarction 108 / 266 108. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 109 / 266 109. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Medulla C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 110 / 266 110. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Lax abdominal wall 111 / 266 111. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Mental retardation D. Retinitis pigmentosa 112 / 266 112. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Coma C. Aphasia D. Facial weakness 113 / 266 113. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Syringomyelia 114 / 266 114. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 115 / 266 115. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Sensory dysfunction C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Waddling gait 116 / 266 116. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pseudolymphoma D. Megaloblastic anemia 117 / 266 117. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Tetanus 118 / 266 118. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. CT scan C. PET scan D. MRI scan 119 / 266 119. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 120 / 266 120. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Deafness 121 / 266 121. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Quinolones 122 / 266 122. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Pain C. Strangers D. High places 123 / 266 123. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 124 / 266 124. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Brain tumour 125 / 266 125. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 126 / 266 126. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Rabies C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 127 / 266 127. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Confabulation C. Perspiration D. Visual hallucinations 128 / 266 128. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 129 / 266 129. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 130 / 266 130. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Severe heart failure 131 / 266 131. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 132 / 266 132. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. Meningism C. After epileptic seizure D. Hysteria 133 / 266 133. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Haloperidol C. Benzodiazepine D. Chlorpromazine 134 / 266 134. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Diplopia 135 / 266 135. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 136 / 266 136. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 137 / 266 137. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Enophthalmos C. Complete ptosis D. Anhidrosis 138 / 266 138. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Vincristine C. INH D. Nitrofurantoin 139 / 266 139. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ocular myopathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 140 / 266 140. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Papilloedema D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 141 / 266 141. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Cervical spine C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 142 / 266 142. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 143 / 266 143. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Pons D. Midbrain 144 / 266 144. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypervitaminosis D 145 / 266 145. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Basal ganglia 146 / 266 146. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hypothyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 147 / 266 147. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 148 / 266 148. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Has a good prognosis in children D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 149 / 266 149. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Syphilis 150 / 266 150. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Occipital D. Temporal 151 / 266 151. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 152 / 266 152. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Graphesthesia D. Vibration sensation 153 / 266 153. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Motor neuron disease D. Polymyositis 154 / 266 154. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 155 / 266 155. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 156 / 266 156. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Dementia C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 157 / 266 157. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Rheumatoid arthritis 158 / 266 158. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 159 / 266 159. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Male dominance D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 160 / 266 160. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Sylvian fissure C. Over visual cortex D. Olfactory groove 161 / 266 161. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Galactosaemia C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Wilson's disease 162 / 266 162. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Diarrhoea 163 / 266 163. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 164 / 266 164. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 165 / 266 165. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Ethambutol 166 / 266 166. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Syringobulbia D. Bell's palsy 167 / 266 167. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left atrial myxoma 168 / 266 168. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Convulsions C. Focal neuro deficit D. Blindness 169 / 266 169. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Absence seizures D. Myoclonic seizures 170 / 266 170. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Aphasia C. Apraxia D. Acalculia 171 / 266 171. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Ataxia C. Apraxia D. Areflexia 172 / 266 172. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Alcoholism C. Parkinsonism D. Wilson's disease 173 / 266 173. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Pontine glioma 174 / 266 174. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Viral meningitis 175 / 266 175. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Apraxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 176 / 266 176. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 177 / 266 177. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 178 / 266 178. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Rasagiline C. Pramipexole D. Tiagabine 179 / 266 179. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 180 / 266 180. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. Cerebellar functions D. EMG 181 / 266 181. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Deep coma C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hyperkalemia 182 / 266 182. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Bacteria C. Toxin D. Virus 183 / 266 183. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Tone and power C. Stereognosis D. Involuntary movements 184 / 266 184. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Aflatoxin 185 / 266 185. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 186 / 266 186. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 187 / 266 187. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Diazepam C. Valproate D. Topiramate 188 / 266 188. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Systemic hypertension C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. AV malformations 189 / 266 189. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 190 / 266 190. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Hypertonia C. Titubation D. Dysrhythmokinesis 191 / 266 191. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 192 / 266 192. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Hyponatraemia D. Thyrotoxicosis 193 / 266 193. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Botulism C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 194 / 266 194. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 195 / 266 195. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 196 / 266 196. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 197 / 266 197. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 198 / 266 198. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 199 / 266 199. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Epilepsy 200 / 266 200. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Arrhythmia 201 / 266 201. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypercalcemia 202 / 266 202. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Bulbar palsy C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Chronic motor neuron disease 203 / 266 203. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Paraesthesia C. Diplopia D. Dysphasia 204 / 266 204. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 205 / 266 205. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-18 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-21 206 / 266 206. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Xanthochromia C. High protein content D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 207 / 266 207. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer's disease 208 / 266 208. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 209 / 266 209. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 210 / 266 210. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 211 / 266 211. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 212 / 266 212. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Chorea C. Myoclonus D. Hemiballismus 213 / 266 213. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Passivity feelings C. Depression D. Early onset 214 / 266 214. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 215 / 266 215. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 216 / 266 216. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 217 / 266 217. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 218 / 266 218. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Seen in tall, thin people C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. May occur spontaneously 219 / 266 219. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Polycystic kidney D. Takayasu's disease 220 / 266 220. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Osteomalacia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 221 / 266 221. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Parkinsonism 222 / 266 222. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 223 / 266 223. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. Xth C. IIIrd D. Vth 224 / 266 224. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Lathyrism D. Periodic paralysis 225 / 266 225. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Leucodystrophy 226 / 266 226. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Raynaud's disease 227 / 266 227. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 228 / 266 228. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents rebleeding 229 / 266 229. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 230 / 266 230. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Scoliosis 231 / 266 231. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 232 / 266 232. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T2 C. T4 D. T1 233 / 266 233. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Paralysis 234 / 266 234. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Electroconvulsive therapy 235 / 266 235. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Botulism 236 / 266 236. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 237 / 266 237. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Anal reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Snout reflex 238 / 266 238. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Superior sagittal sinus 239 / 266 239. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypoxia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypotension 240 / 266 240. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Pick's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 241 / 266 241. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV quinine 242 / 266 242. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 243 / 266 243. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 244 / 266 244. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 245 / 266 245. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Pyramidal signs 246 / 266 246. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Emetine C. Zidovudine D. Lovastatin 247 / 266 247. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 248 / 266 248. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Refsum's disease C. Leprosy D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 249 / 266 249. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 250 / 266 250. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 251 / 266 251. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 252 / 266 252. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 253 / 266 253. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Brachycephaly C. Frontal baldness D. Testicular atrophy 254 / 266 254. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 255 / 266 255. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Steroid myopathy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 256 / 266 256. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Abducens palsy C. Loss of accommodation D. Polyneuropathy 257 / 266 257. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Complex partial D. Infantile spasm 258 / 266 258. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Advanced pregnancy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 259 / 266 259. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Migraine C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 260 / 266 260. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Parietal lobe 261 / 266 261. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Multiple sclerosis 262 / 266 262. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 263 / 266 263. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Selegiline C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 264 / 266 264. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Cataplexy 265 / 266 265. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Lewy bodies 266 / 266 266. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. TOCP poisoning C. Amyloidosis D. Acute intermittent porphyria LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology