Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypermetria C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 2 / 266 2. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Brain tumor C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 3 / 266 3. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Tetany D. Athetosis 4 / 266 4. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 5 / 266 5. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington's chorea 6 / 266 6. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Weakness and spasticity D. Absent superficial reflex 7 / 266 7. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 8 / 266 8. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 9 / 266 9. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Areflexia C. Ataxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 10 / 266 10. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 11 / 266 11. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Mania C. SIADH D. Cluster headache 12 / 266 12. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 13 / 266 13. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Rasagiline D. Ropinirole 14 / 266 14. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Vibration sensation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Two-point localisation 15 / 266 15. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Diminished auditory acuity 16 / 266 16. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Arrhythmia 17 / 266 17. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Migraine 18 / 266 18. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Patent ductus arteriosus 19 / 266 19. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Dolichocephaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 20 / 266 20. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 21 / 266 21. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Dystonia 22 / 266 22. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Botulism 23 / 266 23. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Myotonia C. Manual labourers D. Athletes 24 / 266 24. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Hepatic precoma 25 / 266 25. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Ataxia D. Pyramidal lesion 26 / 266 26. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Radial nerve palsy 27 / 266 27. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Nasal regurgitation C. Dysarthria D. Dysphagia 28 / 266 28. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Myositis D. Polyneuropathy 29 / 266 29. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tabes dorsalis 30 / 266 30. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Raynaud's disease D. Leprosy 31 / 266 31. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Refsum's disease C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 32 / 266 32. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia 33 / 266 33. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 34 / 266 34. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. PET scan C. MRI scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 35 / 266 35. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Sylvian fissure C. Over visual cortex D. Cerebello-pontine angle 36 / 266 36. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 37 / 266 37. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Loss of accommodation 38 / 266 38. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 39 / 266 39. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Rabies C. Myasthenia gravis D. Poliomyelitis 40 / 266 40. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Zidovudine C. Emetine D. Lovastatin 41 / 266 41. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 42 / 266 42. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Venous thrombosis 43 / 266 43. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 44 / 266 44. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 45 / 266 45. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 46 / 266 46. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypercalcemia 47 / 266 47. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Huntington's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 48 / 266 48. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 49 / 266 49. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 50 / 266 50. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluoxetine C. Paroxetine D. Fluvoxamine 51 / 266 51. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Cluster headache D. Syringobulbia 52 / 266 52. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Choreoathetosis C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Mental retardation 53 / 266 53. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Myopathy C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 54 / 266 54. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Spinal epidural abscess 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Seizures C. Mental retardation D. Adenoma sebaceum 56 / 266 56. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Petit mal epilepsy 57 / 266 57. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumor 58 / 266 58. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 59 / 266 59. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Calcification within a lesion D. Pituitary tumors 60 / 266 60. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 61 / 266 61. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Oesophagitis D. Wallenberg's syndrome 62 / 266 62. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Agraphia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 63 / 266 63. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Ciliary ganglion D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 64 / 266 64. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Topiramate C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam 65 / 266 65. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Tuberculosis 66 / 266 66. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Nerve conduction study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 67 / 266 67. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 68 / 266 68. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Obesity 69 / 266 69. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 70 / 266 70. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Phaeochromocytoma 71 / 266 71. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 72 / 266 72. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure sensory stroke 73 / 266 73. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 74 / 266 74. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Vestibular lesion 75 / 266 75. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 76 / 266 76. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 77 / 266 77. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 78 / 266 78. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Glioma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 79 / 266 79. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 80 / 266 80. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Polymyositis D. Motor neuron disease 81 / 266 81. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 82 / 266 82. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Diplopia C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 83 / 266 83. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Central scotoma D. Homonymous hemianopia 84 / 266 84. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 85 / 266 85. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 86 / 266 86. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked dominant 87 / 266 87. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 88 / 266 88. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Phenytoin D. Atenolol 89 / 266 89. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Deep coma C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 90 / 266 90. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Paralysis C. Hypothermia D. Pin-point pupil 91 / 266 91. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 92 / 266 92. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 93 / 266 93. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common migraine has aura C. Hemicranial headache D. Common in women 94 / 266 94. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Malignant hypertension 95 / 266 95. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Immune disorder 96 / 266 96. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 97 / 266 97. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones D. Cephalosporins 98 / 266 98. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Shagreen patch 99 / 266 99. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Vigabatrin C. Felbamate D. Lamotrigine 100 / 266 100. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 101 / 266 101. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Glossitis D. Anemia 102 / 266 102. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Parkinsonism C. Alzheimer's disease D. Acromegaly 103 / 266 103. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Head injury C. Transient ischemic attack D. Epilepsy 104 / 266 104. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Mass reflex C. Flexor plantar response D. Flexor spasm 105 / 266 105. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Syringomyelia D. Poliomyelitis 106 / 266 106. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Absence seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Tonic seizures 107 / 266 107. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Negri bodies 108 / 266 108. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Lacunar infarction D. Cerebral atrophy 109 / 266 109. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypoxia 110 / 266 110. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Thiocyanates C. Aflatoxin D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 111 / 266 111. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Severe heart failure 112 / 266 112. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Tuberous sclerosis 113 / 266 113. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 114 / 266 114. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Viral or post-vaccinal 115 / 266 115. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 116 / 266 116. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T4 C. C8 D. T2 117 / 266 117. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Reading a book C. Looking in front D. Looking to the roof 118 / 266 118. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Mania 119 / 266 119. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 120 / 266 120. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia 121 / 266 121. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Wasting of muscles C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 122 / 266 122. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 123 / 266 123. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 124 / 266 124. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased deep reflexes D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 125 / 266 125. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Cyclophosphamide C. Interferon D. Corticosteroid 126 / 266 126. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 127 / 266 127. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Corpus striatum D. Frontal lobe 128 / 266 128. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Pontine glioma C. Cerebellar disorder D. Phenytoin toxicity 129 / 266 129. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Cerebellar functions C. Sensory functions D. EMG 130 / 266 130. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 131 / 266 131. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 132 / 266 132. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C4, 5 C. C6, 7 D. C3, 4 133 / 266 133. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Midbrain D. Pons 134 / 266 134. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 135 / 266 135. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Hyperpyrexia D. Pseudoparkinsonism 136 / 266 136. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Headache C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Convulsions 137 / 266 137. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Meningioma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 138 / 266 138. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ocular myopathy 139 / 266 139. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 140 / 266 140. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Huntington's chorea C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Punch-drunk syndrome 141 / 266 141. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Periorbital pain C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 142 / 266 142. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cervical spine C. Brainstem D. Cortex 143 / 266 143. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysphonia 144 / 266 144. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 145 / 266 145. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Hyperkinesia C. Tremor D. Rigidity 146 / 266 146. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Gross pedal oedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Parkinsonism 147 / 266 147. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Clomipramine C. Carbamazepine D. Lithium 148 / 266 148. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 149 / 266 149. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. Meningism C. After epileptic seizure D. Hysteria 150 / 266 150. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 151 / 266 151. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Tone and power C. Stereognosis D. Nutrition of muscles 152 / 266 152. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Anal reflex D. Snout reflex 153 / 266 153. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 154 / 266 154. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 155 / 266 155. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Tetanus C. Diphtheria D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 156 / 266 156. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 157 / 266 157. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Pick's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 158 / 266 158. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 159 / 266 159. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 160 / 266 160. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Optic neuritis D. SIADH 161 / 266 161. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Vth 162 / 266 162. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 163 / 266 163. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Glioblastoma C. Astrocytoma D. Metastatic 164 / 266 164. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Livedo reticularis C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Aspirin C. Clopidogrel D. Ticlopidine 166 / 266 166. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 167 / 266 167. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 168 / 266 168. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Polymyositis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 169 / 266 169. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 170 / 266 170. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Digitalis toxicity C. Aura phase of migraine D. Cerebellar infarction 171 / 266 171. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Hysterical gait disorder 172 / 266 172. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 173 / 266 173. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Pyramidal signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 174 / 266 174. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Frontal baldness C. Testicular atrophy D. Ptosis 175 / 266 175. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Organophosphorus poisoning 176 / 266 176. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Hypertonia C. Absent deep reflexes D. Coma 177 / 266 177. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Sudden onset D. Small, spastic tongue 178 / 266 178. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pendular nystagmus 179 / 266 179. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Haemochromatosis C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Wilson's disease 180 / 266 180. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Cerebellar disorder D. Alcoholism 181 / 266 181. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Kuru 182 / 266 182. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Advanced pregnancy 183 / 266 183. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Convulsions D. Blindness 184 / 266 184. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Selegiline C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 185 / 266 185. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Depression D. Visual hallucinations 186 / 266 186. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Dexamethasone D. Oral glycerol 187 / 266 187. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Relief by haloperidol 188 / 266 188. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Perspiration C. Visual hallucinations D. Tremor 189 / 266 189. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 190 / 266 190. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Paraesthesia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 191 / 266 191. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Trimipramine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 192 / 266 192. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 193 / 266 193. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hysteria 194 / 266 194. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Cerebral embolism 195 / 266 195. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 196 / 266 196. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Cerebellum C. Putamen D. Midbrain 197 / 266 197. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Inflammatory C. Hemorrhagic D. Embolic 198 / 266 198. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 199 / 266 199. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Aortic incompetence D. Parkinsonism 200 / 266 200. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 201 / 266 201. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 202 / 266 202. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 203 / 266 203. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 204 / 266 204. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Neuropathy 205 / 266 205. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Atypical pneumonia C. Enteric fever D. Cerebral malaria 206 / 266 206. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 207 / 266 207. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Rheumatic fever C. Hyponatraemia D. Thyrotoxicosis 208 / 266 208. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 209 / 266 209. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Leucodystrophy C. Cerebral palsy D. Alzheimer's disease 210 / 266 210. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 211 / 266 211. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Ethambutol 212 / 266 212. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 213 / 266 213. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 214 / 266 214. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 215 / 266 215. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 216 / 266 216. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Hypothyroidism 217 / 266 217. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-21 218 / 266 218. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Trauma C. Encephalitis D. Febrile 219 / 266 219. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 220 / 266 220. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 221 / 266 221. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Gonda sign 222 / 266 222. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Subdural hematoma 223 / 266 223. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Cortex C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 224 / 266 224. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Marathon runner 225 / 266 225. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 226 / 266 226. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Fasciculations C. Clonus D. Spasticity 227 / 266 227. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Red nucleus D. Putamen 228 / 266 228. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 229 / 266 229. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Medulla C. Lower pons D. Midbrain 230 / 266 230. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 231 / 266 231. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Occipital 232 / 266 232. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pinealomas 233 / 266 233. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. TOCP poisoning C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Amyloidosis 234 / 266 234. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Myopathy 235 / 266 235. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 236 / 266 236. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral diplegia D. Motor neuron disease 237 / 266 237. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diarrhoea C. Ataxia D. Onycholysis 238 / 266 238. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Complete ptosis 239 / 266 239. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Ocular myopathy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 240 / 266 240. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1 D. S1,S2 241 / 266 241. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Addison's disease 242 / 266 242. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Pons 243 / 266 243. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Ataxia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Osteomalacia 244 / 266 244. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Ataxia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 245 / 266 245. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 246 / 266 246. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Strangers C. Animals D. High places 247 / 266 247. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Epilepsy C. Cerebellar infarction D. Multiple sclerosis 248 / 266 248. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Depression C. Phobia D. Mania 249 / 266 249. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Autoimmunity C. Toxin D. Bacteria 250 / 266 250. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. 5% dextrose 251 / 266 251. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 252 / 266 252. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Extensor plantar response C. Masked facies D. Emotional incontinence 253 / 266 253. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Sensory dysfunction C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Loss of ankle jerk 254 / 266 254. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Lead C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 255 / 266 255. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 256 / 266 256. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 257 / 266 257. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Confabulation C. Retrograde amnesia D. Loss of immediate recall 258 / 266 258. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Myotonic pupil D. Application of pilocarpine drops 259 / 266 259. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 260 / 266 260. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 96 hours C. 24 hours D. 2 weeks 261 / 266 261. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 262 / 266 262. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Reserpine D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 263 / 266 263. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 264 / 266 264. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Optic glioma D. Acoustic neuroma 265 / 266 265. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Myxoedema D. Alcohol 266 / 266 266. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology