Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Mamillary bodies C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 2 / 266 2. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Polycystic kidney D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 3 / 266 3. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 4 / 266 4. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 5 / 266 5. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Medulloblastoma 6 / 266 6. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Dementia C. Ataxia D. Normal intellectual activity 7 / 266 7. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Huntington's chorea C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 8 / 266 8. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 9 / 266 9. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Proprioception C. Cerebellar functions D. Sensory functions 10 / 266 10. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. Pneumococcus 11 / 266 11. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Encephalitis C. Myelopathy D. Myopathy 12 / 266 12. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Increased tone C. Sensory ataxia D. Intact proprioception 13 / 266 13. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Optic nerv 14 / 266 14. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Glioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic 15 / 266 15. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Midbrain lesion 16 / 266 16. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 17 / 266 17. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 18 / 266 18. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Pseudolymphoma 19 / 266 19. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Brainstem 20 / 266 20. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 21 / 266 21. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 22 / 266 22. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 23 / 266 23. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 24 / 266 24. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Taboparesis 25 / 266 25. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 26 / 266 26. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Alzheimer's disease 27 / 266 27. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 28 / 266 28. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Gross pedal oedema D. Parkinsonism 29 / 266 29. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Exaggerated deep reflex 30 / 266 30. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Parietal 31 / 266 31. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Donazepril is used in treatment 32 / 266 32. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 33 / 266 33. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Xth C. Vllth D. Vth 34 / 266 34. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Acute renal failure C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Oesophagitis 35 / 266 35. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Fasciculations C. Babinski's sign D. Clonus 36 / 266 36. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 37 / 266 37. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Nitrofurantoin 38 / 266 38. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Periorbital pain D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 40 / 266 40. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cataract D. Cirrhosis of liver 41 / 266 41. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Platybasia C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Dolichocephaly 42 / 266 42. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Ependymoma C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 43 / 266 43. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Motor response D. Autonomic response 44 / 266 44. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 45 / 266 45. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Hysteria D. Tetanus 46 / 266 46. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 47 / 266 47. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 48 / 266 48. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Adenoma sebaceum 49 / 266 49. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Raynaud's disease C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetic neuropathy 50 / 266 50. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. 5% dextrose 51 / 266 51. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 52 / 266 52. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Malignant hypertension D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 53 / 266 53. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Mental retardation 54 / 266 54. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Radial nerve palsy D. Poliomyelitis 55 / 266 55. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Presence of nystagmus C. Confabulation D. Loss of recent memory 56 / 266 56. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Tonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Myoclonic seizures 57 / 266 57. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 58 / 266 58. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Head injury C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Transient ischemic attack 59 / 266 59. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 60 / 266 60. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T4 C. T1 D. T2 61 / 266 61. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Absent deep reflexes C. Retention of urine D. Coma 62 / 266 62. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Bulbar palsy 63 / 266 63. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Venous thrombosis 64 / 266 64. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hyperkalemia 65 / 266 65. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 66 / 266 66. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Quinsy 67 / 266 67. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Myoclonus 68 / 266 68. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents rebleeding 69 / 266 69. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 70 / 266 70. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Tuberculosis 71 / 266 71. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Xanthochromia C. High protein content D. Increased CSF pressure 72 / 266 72. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. May be associated with malignancy C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 73 / 266 73. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Trimipramine C. Benzodiazepine D. Haloperidol 74 / 266 74. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Facial weakness 75 / 266 75. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 76 / 266 76. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Anal reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Grasp reflex 77 / 266 77. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basal ganglia infarction 78 / 266 78. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 79 / 266 79. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tay-Sachs disease 80 / 266 80. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Leukodystrophy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 81 / 266 81. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Gonda sign 82 / 266 82. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Confabulation C. Tremor D. Visual hallucinations 83 / 266 83. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 84 / 266 84. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Pons 85 / 266 85. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypotension C. Hypocapnia D. Hyponatremia 86 / 266 86. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Coprolalia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Multiple tics 87 / 266 87. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Refsum's disease C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 88 / 266 88. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 89 / 266 89. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1 C. L5,S1 D. S1,S2 90 / 266 90. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Ataxia C. Horner's syndrome D. Hiccups 91 / 266 91. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Reading a book C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking in front 92 / 266 92. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumour D. Raised intracranial pressure 93 / 266 93. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Deep coma 94 / 266 94. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 95 / 266 95. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 96 / 266 96. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Dysrhythmokinesis 97 / 266 97. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Thalamus 98 / 266 98. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Convulsions C. Blindness D. Radioculomyelopathy 99 / 266 99. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Retrograde amnesia C. Loss of immediate recall D. Defect in learning 100 / 266 100. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Cerebellar infarction C. Aura phase of migraine D. Lesion in visual cortex 101 / 266 101. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 102 / 266 102. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 103 / 266 103. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Hemicranial headache 104 / 266 104. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral infarction C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 105 / 266 105. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Aphasia C. Papilloedema D. Nystagmus 106 / 266 106. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Hydrosis + miosis 107 / 266 107. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Depression 108 / 266 108. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Huntington's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 109 / 266 109. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Complex partial 110 / 266 110. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 111 / 266 111. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 112 / 266 112. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Athetosis C. Chorea D. Myotonia 113 / 266 113. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Post-encephalitic 114 / 266 114. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 115 / 266 115. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. IV frusemide C. Oral glycerol D. IV mannitol 116 / 266 116. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Syphilis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ethambutol 117 / 266 117. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Oculomotor palsy 118 / 266 118. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 119 / 266 119. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Hypothermia C. Disconjugate gaze D. Paralysis 120 / 266 120. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 121 / 266 121. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Lamotrigine C. Felbamate D. Vigabatrin 122 / 266 122. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Rasagiline D. Pramipexole 123 / 266 123. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 124 / 266 124. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum 125 / 266 125. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetes mellitus 126 / 266 126. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 127 / 266 127. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 128 / 266 128. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Nerve conduction study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 129 / 266 129. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Reserpine C. Pindolol D. Oral contraceptive pills 130 / 266 130. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 131 / 266 131. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Syringomyelia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 132 / 266 132. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Hypothyroidism C. Diarrhoea D. Ataxia 133 / 266 133. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Atenolol D. Verapamil 134 / 266 134. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 135 / 266 135. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-13 D. Trisomy-18 136 / 266 136. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Dysphagia D. Spastic tongue 137 / 266 137. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Putamen 138 / 266 138. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Amiodarone C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 139 / 266 139. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 140 / 266 140. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 141 / 266 141. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 142 / 266 142. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 143 / 266 143. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 144 / 266 144. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Frontal baldness 145 / 266 145. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Epilepsy D. Cerebellar infarction 146 / 266 146. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Trauma C. Febrile D. Encephalitis 147 / 266 147. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Sarcoidosis 148 / 266 148. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 149 / 266 149. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 150 / 266 150. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Tunnel vision C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Central scotoma 151 / 266 151. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Polymyositis 152 / 266 152. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Psychosis C. Migraine D. Chorea 153 / 266 153. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. Apraxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 154 / 266 154. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Restlessness C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Poliomyelitis 155 / 266 155. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Apraxia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 156 / 266 156. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis major D. Infraspinatus 157 / 266 157. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Headache D. Altered consciousness 158 / 266 158. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Arrhythmia 159 / 266 159. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Hyperkinesia C. Rigidity D. Normal reflexes 160 / 266 160. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Ankle oedema C. Livedo reticularis D. Fatty liver 161 / 266 161. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Oculomotor nerve D. Sympathetic nervous system 162 / 266 162. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Interferon C. Immunoglobulin D. Corticosteroid 163 / 266 163. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 164 / 266 164. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 165 / 266 165. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Demyelinating 166 / 266 166. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Dermatomyositis 167 / 266 167. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Hyponatraemia D. Thyrotoxicosis 168 / 266 168. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Macrolides 169 / 266 169. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Absent superficial reflex C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Equivocal plantar response 170 / 266 170. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Syringobulbia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Bell's palsy 171 / 266 171. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Hyperpyrexia C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Pseudoparkinsonism 172 / 266 172. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Cord compression C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 173 / 266 173. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 174 / 266 174. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 175 / 266 175. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Cerebral embolism 176 / 266 176. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 177 / 266 177. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 178 / 266 178. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Thrombocytopenia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Ataxia 179 / 266 179. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 180 / 266 180. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 181 / 266 181. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Phakomatosis C. Seizures D. Adenoma sebaceum 182 / 266 182. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Lathyrism D. Botulinus poisoning 183 / 266 183. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Pentoxifylline 184 / 266 184. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Schizophrenia C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Mania 185 / 266 185. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cervical spondylosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 186 / 266 186. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 187 / 266 187. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Schaumann bodies 188 / 266 188. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 189 / 266 189. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 190 / 266 190. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Myopathy 191 / 266 191. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 192 / 266 192. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysphonia C. Aphasia D. Dysarthria 193 / 266 193. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Brainstem 194 / 266 194. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Dysphasia C. Paraesthesia D. Seizures 195 / 266 195. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Choroid plexus C. Basal ganglia D. Pineal body 196 / 266 196. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 197 / 266 197. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Epilepsy C. Cataplexy D. Sleep paralysis 198 / 266 198. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Babinski's sign C. Sudden onset D. Brisk jaw jerk 199 / 266 199. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 200 / 266 200. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Galactosaemia D. Haemochromatosis 201 / 266 201. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Trypanosomiasis 202 / 266 202. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 203 / 266 203. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Mental retardation D. Limb shortening 204 / 266 204. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Polyneuropathy 205 / 266 205. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Electroconvulsive therapy 206 / 266 206. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Subacute combined degeneration 207 / 266 207. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 208 / 266 208. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Neurosyphilis 209 / 266 209. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 210 / 266 210. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Wasting of muscles C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Absent tendon reflexes 211 / 266 211. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 212 / 266 212. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Arsenic C. Lead D. Vincristine 213 / 266 213. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 214 / 266 214. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Poliomyelitis C. Rabies D. Myasthenia gravis 215 / 266 215. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Levodopa D. Amantadine 216 / 266 216. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 217 / 266 217. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 218 / 266 218. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 219 / 266 219. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral diplegia D. Motor neuron disease 220 / 266 220. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 221 / 266 221. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Lax abdominal wall C. Obesity D. Multiparous woman 222 / 266 222. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 223 / 266 223. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Dementia in AIDS C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Hysterical gait disorder 224 / 266 224. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. TOCP poisoning D. Amyloidosis 225 / 266 225. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 226 / 266 226. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Tabes dorsalis 227 / 266 227. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Aflatoxin C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 228 / 266 228. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Elapidae snake bite C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 229 / 266 229. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Olfactory groove C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Over visual cortex 230 / 266 230. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Haloperidol 231 / 266 231. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Pontine glioma C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Cerebellar disorder 232 / 266 232. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Lower pons D. Midbrain 233 / 266 233. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Athletes 234 / 266 234. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Ethosuximide C. Valproate D. Diazepam 235 / 266 235. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 236 / 266 236. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Addison's disease C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 237 / 266 237. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Diminished auditory acuity 238 / 266 238. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Nutrition of muscles C. Stereognosis D. Involuntary movements 239 / 266 239. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Duodenal stenosis C. Polymyositis D. Patent ductus arteriosus 240 / 266 240. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Constricted pupil C. Complete ptosis D. Enophthalmos 241 / 266 241. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Absence of root pain D. Bladder involvement is very late 242 / 266 242. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 243 / 266 243. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Ocular myopathy 244 / 266 244. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 245 / 266 245. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Drop attacks C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Diplopia 246 / 266 246. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Advanced pregnancy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 247 / 266 247. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Parietal lobe 248 / 266 248. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Optic neuritis C. SIADH D. Pseudobulbar palsy 249 / 266 249. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 250 / 266 250. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Apraxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 251 / 266 251. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. CT scan C. PET scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 252 / 266 252. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 253 / 266 253. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 254 / 266 254. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Visual hallucinations D. Passivity feelings 255 / 266 255. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 256 / 266 256. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 257 / 266 257. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Immune disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 258 / 266 258. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Myopathy 259 / 266 259. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 260 / 266 260. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C4, 5 261 / 266 261. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 262 / 266 262. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Sensory dysfunction D. Argyll Robertson pupil 263 / 266 263. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Glossitis 264 / 266 264. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Animals C. Strangers D. Pain 265 / 266 265. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Graphesthesia C. Two-point localisation D. Perceptual rivalry LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology