Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Pick's disease 2 / 266 2. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 3 / 266 3. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Hyperpyrexia 4 / 266 4. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents rebleeding D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 5 / 266 5. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Sensory dysfunction D. Waddling gait 6 / 266 6. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Dermatomyositis 7 / 266 7. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Oculomotor nerve D. Ciliary ganglion 8 / 266 8. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Aspirin C. Ticlopidine D. Pentoxifylline 9 / 266 9. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 10 / 266 10. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Rasagiline 11 / 266 11. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Brachycephaly D. Ptosis 12 / 266 12. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Tremor C. Normal reflexes D. Hyperkinesia 13 / 266 13. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 14 / 266 14. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 15 / 266 15. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 16 / 266 16. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Brain tumor 17 / 266 17. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ethambutol C. Leprosy D. Syphilis 18 / 266 18. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Apraxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 19 / 266 19. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Felbamate C. Lubeluzole D. Lamotrigine 20 / 266 20. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Tuberous sclerosis D. von Recklinghausen's disease 21 / 266 21. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis 22 / 266 22. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Nutrition of muscles C. Stereognosis D. Tone and power 24 / 266 24. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Depression C. Early onset D. Passivity feelings 25 / 266 25. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Oculomotor palsy D. Periodic paralysis 26 / 266 26. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Dementia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Urinary incontinence 27 / 266 27. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Myopathy D. Cervical rib 28 / 266 28. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Cerebellar infarction C. Digitalis toxicity D. Aura phase of migraine 29 / 266 29. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. High protein content C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 30 / 266 30. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 31 / 266 31. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 32 / 266 32. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. IIIrd C. Xth D. Vllth 33 / 266 33. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Brain tumour C. Diabetes mellitus D. Gradenigo's syndrome 34 / 266 34. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Mental retardation C. Anencephaly D. Heart valve abnormalities 35 / 266 35. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Huntington's disease 36 / 266 36. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 37 / 266 37. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. EMG D. Cerebellar functions 38 / 266 38. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 39 / 266 39. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 40 / 266 40. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 41 / 266 41. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 42 / 266 42. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Lathyrism D. Botulinus poisoning 43 / 266 43. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Reading a book 44 / 266 44. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Hypothyroidism C. Thrombocytopenia D. Ataxia 45 / 266 45. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Scoliosis 46 / 266 46. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Immunoglobulin D. Interferon 47 / 266 47. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 48 / 266 48. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 49 / 266 49. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Drop attacks D. Diplopia 50 / 266 50. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Deep coma D. Hyperpyrexia 51 / 266 51. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Complete ptosis C. Enophthalmos D. Constricted pupil 52 / 266 52. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Cerebral palsy D. Alzheimer's disease 53 / 266 53. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Wasting of muscles 54 / 266 54. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 55 / 266 55. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Bell's palsy D. Cluster headache 56 / 266 56. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Epilepsy C. Febrile D. Encephalitis 57 / 266 57. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 58 / 266 58. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Lower pons C. Midbrain D. Medulla 59 / 266 59. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 60 / 266 60. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 61 / 266 61. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive 62 / 266 62. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Putamen D. Caudate nucleus 63 / 266 63. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Abducens palsy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Polyneuropathy 64 / 266 64. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Puerperal sepsis D. Venous sinus thrombosis 65 / 266 65. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Negri bodies D. Asteroid bodies 66 / 266 66. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 67 / 266 67. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Radioculomyelopathy 68 / 266 68. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 69 / 266 69. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 70 / 266 70. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 71 / 266 71. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Hemiballismus C. Dystonia D. Chorea 72 / 266 72. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C6, 7 C. C3, 4 D. C4, 5 73 / 266 73. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cervical spondylosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syringomyelia 74 / 266 74. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Schizophrenia C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Alcohol withdrawal 75 / 266 75. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Diabetes mellitus 76 / 266 76. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 77 / 266 77. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 78 / 266 78. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cataract D. Cirrhosis of liver 79 / 266 79. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Rheumatic fever D. Thyrotoxicosis 80 / 266 80. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 81 / 266 81. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 82 / 266 82. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 83 / 266 83. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 84 / 266 84. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Equivocal plantar response 85 / 266 85. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Sylvian fissure D. Olfactory groove 86 / 266 86. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Bladder involvement is very late 87 / 266 87. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Meningism D. Froin's loculation syndrome 88 / 266 88. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myositis D. Polyneuropathy 89 / 266 89. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 90 / 266 90. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 91 / 266 91. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 92 / 266 92. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe 93 / 266 93. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Dysarthria C. Aphasia D. Monotonous speech 94 / 266 94. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 95 / 266 95. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Hypothyroidism D. Onycholysis 96 / 266 96. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Cataplexy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Sleep paralysis 97 / 266 97. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 98 / 266 98. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Chaddock's sign 99 / 266 99. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Headache C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Convulsions 100 / 266 100. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Raynaud's disease D. Leprosy 101 / 266 101. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 102 / 266 102. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. C8 C. T1 D. T4 103 / 266 103. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 104 / 266 104. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Dysarthria 105 / 266 105. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Infraspinatus C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 106 / 266 106. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Unequal pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 107 / 266 107. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Complex partial C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Petit mal 108 / 266 108. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 109 / 266 109. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 110 / 266 110. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Chronic motor neuron disease 111 / 266 111. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Disconjugate gaze C. Pin-point pupil D. Hypothermia 112 / 266 112. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5,S1 113 / 266 113. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Facial nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Vagus nerve 114 / 266 114. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 115 / 266 115. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Snakebite 116 / 266 116. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Myopathy 117 / 266 117. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetes mellitus 118 / 266 118. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Aortic incompetence 119 / 266 119. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Macrolides 120 / 266 120. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Tuberculosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 121 / 266 121. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Two-point localisation C. Vibration sensation D. Graphesthesia 122 / 266 122. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Putamen C. Cerebellum D. Midbrain 123 / 266 123. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Parietal 124 / 266 124. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 125 / 266 125. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocalcemia 126 / 266 126. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Retrograde amnesia C. Defect in learning D. Confabulation 127 / 266 127. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Leprosy C. Polymyositis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 128 / 266 128. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Selegiline D. Levodopa 129 / 266 129. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Presence of nystagmus C. Confabulation D. Associated with lacunar infarction 130 / 266 130. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 131 / 266 131. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 132 / 266 132. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Haloperidol C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 133 / 266 133. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Motor response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 134 / 266 134. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trochlear nerve D. Facial nerve 135 / 266 135. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 136 / 266 136. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Shy-Drager syndrome 137 / 266 137. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 138 / 266 138. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Has a good prognosis in children C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 139 / 266 139. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Ataxia 140 / 266 140. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Kuru D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 141 / 266 141. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Advanced pregnancy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Huge ascites 142 / 266 142. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Emetine C. Zidovudine D. Febuxostat 143 / 266 143. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Cocaine C. Flumazenil D. Amphetamines 144 / 266 144. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Petit mal epilepsy 145 / 266 145. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. SIADH C. Convulsions D. Pseudobulbar palsy 146 / 266 146. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 147 / 266 147. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 148 / 266 148. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Tetanus 149 / 266 149. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Coma C. Aphasia D. Facial weakness 150 / 266 150. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Multiparous woman C. Obesity D. Lax abdominal wall 151 / 266 151. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myopathy C. Myelopathy D. Neuropathy 152 / 266 152. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hyponatremia C. Hypoxia D. Hypocapnia 153 / 266 153. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Apraxia D. Agnosia 154 / 266 154. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. Hysteria 155 / 266 155. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Seen in tall, thin people 156 / 266 156. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 157 / 266 157. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 158 / 266 158. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Horner's syndrome C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Hutchinson's pupil 159 / 266 159. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 160 / 266 160. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Hemorrhagic D. Inflammatory 161 / 266 161. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Pindolol C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptive pills 162 / 266 162. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Ocular myopathy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 163 / 266 163. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Dura matter 164 / 266 164. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Choreoathetosis 165 / 266 165. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 166 / 266 166. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. May be associated with malignancy C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 167 / 266 167. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Apraxia C. Ataxia D. Areflexia 168 / 266 168. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Alzheimer's disease C. Infertility D. Parkinsonism 169 / 266 169. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Virus 170 / 266 170. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Diminished auditory acuity D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 171 / 266 171. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Pseudolymphoma C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Cerebellar syndrome 172 / 266 172. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebellar infarction C. Epilepsy D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 173 / 266 173. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Glossitis C. Anemia D. Babinski's sign 174 / 266 174. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Alcoholism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 175 / 266 175. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Anal reflex D. Snout reflex 176 / 266 176. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Deep Jaundice C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 177 / 266 177. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 178 / 266 178. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebral diplegia 179 / 266 179. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 180 / 266 180. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Duchenne myopathy D. Hysteria 181 / 266 181. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 182 / 266 182. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 183 / 266 183. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 184 / 266 184. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 185 / 266 185. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Acromegaly C. Gynaecomastia D. Parkinsonism 186 / 266 186. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Benzodiazepine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 187 / 266 187. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral infarction C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral haemorrhage 188 / 266 188. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Papilloedema D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 189 / 266 189. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor spasm C. Flexor plantar response D. Increased tone in flexor groups 190 / 266 190. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 191 / 266 191. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Polycythaemia vera C. Mania D. Cluster headache 192 / 266 192. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Tay-Sachs disease 193 / 266 193. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Head injury 194 / 266 194. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Old age C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Application of pilocarpine drops 195 / 266 195. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 196 / 266 196. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 197 / 266 197. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Chorea C. Tetany D. Athetosis 198 / 266 198. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Diplopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Right homonymous hemianopia 199 / 266 199. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Ataxia C. Horner's syndrome D. Pyramidal lesion 200 / 266 200. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 201 / 266 201. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 202 / 266 202. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine 203 / 266 203. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Ventral pons 204 / 266 204. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 205 / 266 205. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 206 / 266 206. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Diplopia C. Seizures D. Paraesthesia 207 / 266 207. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Psychosis C. Migraine D. Myodonus 208 / 266 208. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Glioma C. Ependymoma D. Cerebral lymphoma 209 / 266 209. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Hemicranial headache 210 / 266 210. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 211 / 266 211. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Flexor plantar response C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Increased deep reflexes 212 / 266 212. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 213 / 266 213. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Left atrial myxoma 214 / 266 214. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Meningococcous C. E. coli D. Pneumococcus 215 / 266 215. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Parkinsonism 216 / 266 216. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Small, spastic tongue C. Sudden onset D. Brisk jaw jerk 217 / 266 217. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 218 / 266 218. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Spasticity C. Babinski's sign D. Fasciculations 219 / 266 219. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Strangers C. Animals D. Pain 220 / 266 220. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Retention of urine C. Hypertonia D. Absent deep reflexes 221 / 266 221. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Amyloidosis C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pyridoxine deficiency 222 / 266 222. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Progressive muscular atrophy 223 / 266 223. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Dysrhythmokinesis 224 / 266 224. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Periorbital pain D. Male dominance 225 / 266 225. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 226 / 266 226. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Muscle enzyme study C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle biopsy 227 / 266 227. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Hepatocellular failure C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 228 / 266 228. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Acute renal failure 229 / 266 229. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hyperthyroidism 230 / 266 230. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 231 / 266 231. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 232 / 266 232. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 233 / 266 233. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Corpus striatum 234 / 266 234. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Takayasu's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 235 / 266 235. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. MRI scan D. CT scan 236 / 266 236. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 237 / 266 237. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Depression 238 / 266 238. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 239 / 266 239. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Nitrofurantoin D. Methotrexate 240 / 266 240. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cervical spine 241 / 266 241. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 242 / 266 242. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 243 / 266 243. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Central scotoma 244 / 266 244. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Dolichocephaly D. Platybasia 245 / 266 245. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Steroid myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 246 / 266 246. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Aphasia D. Agraphia 247 / 266 247. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 248 / 266 248. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 249 / 266 249. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 250 / 266 250. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 251 / 266 251. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 252 / 266 252. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Extensor plantar response C. Emotional incontinence D. Flaccid dysarthria 253 / 266 253. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 254 / 266 254. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Visual hallucinations C. Tremor D. Confabulation 255 / 266 255. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Aflatoxin C. Thiocyanates D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 256 / 266 256. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Duodenal stenosis 257 / 266 257. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Neurofibroma 258 / 266 258. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Weber-Christian disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 259 / 266 259. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Ependymoma C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 260 / 266 260. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Cord compression 261 / 266 261. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 262 / 266 262. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Hypoxia D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 263 / 266 263. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Weil's disease C. Enteric fever D. Atypical pneumonia 264 / 266 264. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 265 / 266 265. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 266 / 266 266. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Papilledema LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology