Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Gynaecomastia 2 / 266 2. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 3 / 266 3. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Presence of nystagmus C. Loss of recent memory D. Associated with lacunar infarction 4 / 266 4. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Pineal body 5 / 266 5. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 6 / 266 6. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Normokalaemia 7 / 266 7. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Over visual cortex C. Olfactory groove D. Sylvian fissure 8 / 266 8. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Radioculomyelopathy 9 / 266 9. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Internal capsule 10 / 266 10. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Diplopia 11 / 266 11. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebral diplegia D. Motor neuron disease 12 / 266 12. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Cerebellar infarction D. Digitalis toxicity 13 / 266 13. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Nitrofurantoin 14 / 266 14. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Constricted pupil C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 15 / 266 15. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 16 / 266 16. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Astrocytoma 17 / 266 17. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Parkinsonism D. Myxoedema 18 / 266 18. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 19 / 266 19. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Autonomic dysfunction 20 / 266 20. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 21 / 266 21. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. SIADH D. Convulsions 22 / 266 22. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 23 / 266 23. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Loss of immediate recall C. Retrograde amnesia D. Defect in learning 24 / 266 24. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 25 / 266 25. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve 26 / 266 26. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 27 / 266 27. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 28 / 266 28. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Obesity C. Hysteria D. Multiparous woman 29 / 266 29. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 30 / 266 30. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral thrombosis 31 / 266 31. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trigeminal nerve 32 / 266 32. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Mental retardation C. Seizures D. Phakomatosis 33 / 266 33. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 34 / 266 34. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Perspiration C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 35 / 266 35. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Amyloidosis D. Acute intermittent porphyria 36 / 266 36. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 37 / 266 37. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. C8 C. T1 D. T2 38 / 266 38. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Oculomotor palsy C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Hutchinson's pupil 39 / 266 39. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 40 / 266 40. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 41 / 266 41. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Cervical spondylosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 42 / 266 42. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 43 / 266 43. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Agnosia D. Acalculia 44 / 266 44. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Platybasia C. Dolichocephaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 45 / 266 45. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Thiocyanates 46 / 266 46. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Leprosy 47 / 266 47. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Alzheimer's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Huntington's disease 48 / 266 48. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Syphilis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 49 / 266 49. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. CT scan D. PET scan 50 / 266 50. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Ocular muscles 51 / 266 51. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 52 / 266 52. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Radial nerve palsy C. Syringomyelia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 53 / 266 53. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 54 / 266 54. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Diplopia 55 / 266 55. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 56 / 266 56. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Meningioma 57 / 266 57. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Friedreich's ataxia 58 / 266 58. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Negri bodies 59 / 266 59. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Neurosyphilis 60 / 266 60. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 61 / 266 61. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 62 / 266 62. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Gonda sign 63 / 266 63. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Haloperidol C. Benzodiazepine D. Chlorpromazine 64 / 266 64. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Galactosaemia D. Haemochromatosis 65 / 266 65. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Reading a book C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking to the roof 66 / 266 66. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Syringomyelia D. Tabes dorsalis 67 / 266 67. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 68 / 266 68. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Lubeluzole C. Felbamate D. Vigabatrin 69 / 266 69. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Meningism 70 / 266 70. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Deep reflexes are depressed 71 / 266 71. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Hyponatraemia C. Wilson's disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 72 / 266 72. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 73 / 266 73. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Ocular myopathy D. Diabetes mellitus 74 / 266 74. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. 5% dextrose 75 / 266 75. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 76 / 266 76. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 77 / 266 77. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Leucodystrophy D. Cerebral palsy 78 / 266 78. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 79 / 266 79. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Strangers C. Pain D. High places 80 / 266 80. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Alcohol C. Myxoedema D. Valproic acid 81 / 266 81. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 82 / 266 82. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Sudden onset C. Babinski's sign D. Small, spastic tongue 83 / 266 83. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Malignant hypertension C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 84 / 266 84. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Tay-Sachs disease 85 / 266 85. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Alzheimer's disease C. Post-encephalitic D. Huntington's chorea 86 / 266 86. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Trigeminal neuralgia 87 / 266 87. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Ptosis C. Testicular atrophy D. Brachycephaly 88 / 266 88. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Infantile spasm 89 / 266 89. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Depression D. Visual hallucinations 90 / 266 90. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 91 / 266 91. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 92 / 266 92. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Refsum's disease D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 93 / 266 93. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Calcification within a lesion 94 / 266 94. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Horner's syndrome C. Ataxia D. Hiccups 95 / 266 95. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 96 / 266 96. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Myopathy D. Cervical rib 97 / 266 97. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 98 / 266 98. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Loss of accommodation D. Abducens palsy 99 / 266 99. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 100 / 266 100. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 101 / 266 101. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 102 / 266 102. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Myotonic pupil C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Application of pilocarpine drops 103 / 266 103. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 104 / 266 104. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1,S2 D. S1 105 / 266 105. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. E. coli C. Meningococcous D. Pneumococcus 106 / 266 106. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Male dominance C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Periorbital pain 107 / 266 107. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 108 / 266 108. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Aortic incompetence 109 / 266 109. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Carbamazepine C. Lithium D. Haloperidol 110 / 266 110. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 111 / 266 111. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Central scotoma 112 / 266 112. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Interferon 113 / 266 113. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Multiple tics C. Relief by haloperidol D. Coprolalia 114 / 266 114. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Hypoglycaemic coma 115 / 266 115. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 116 / 266 116. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 117 / 266 117. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Amantadine C. Selegiline D. Levodopa 118 / 266 118. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Pons D. Midbrain 119 / 266 119. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 120 / 266 120. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 121 / 266 121. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 122 / 266 122. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 123 / 266 123. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 124 / 266 124. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 125 / 266 125. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Weakness and spasticity D. Equivocal plantar response 126 / 266 126. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. von Recklinghausen's disease 127 / 266 127. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Patchy arachnoiditis 128 / 266 128. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Chorea C. Myoclonus D. Dystonia 129 / 266 129. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 130 / 266 130. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 131 / 266 131. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Involuntary movements C. Stereognosis D. Nutrition of muscles 132 / 266 132. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic neuropathy 133 / 266 133. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 134 / 266 134. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Ocular myopathy 135 / 266 135. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 136 / 266 136. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Pinealomas C. Ependymoma D. Cerebral lymphoma 137 / 266 137. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Tuberculosis D. Leprosy 138 / 266 138. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 139 / 266 139. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 140 / 266 140. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked dominant 141 / 266 141. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 142 / 266 142. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 143 / 266 143. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Bulbar palsy C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Chronic motor neuron disease 144 / 266 144. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Manual labourers C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 145 / 266 145. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Hypothermia C. Pin-point pupil D. Paralysis 146 / 266 146. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Temporal C. Frontal D. Occipital 147 / 266 147. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Botulinus poisoning C. Periodic paralysis D. Lathyrism 148 / 266 148. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 149 / 266 149. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Ticlopidine C. Clopidogrel D. Aspirin 150 / 266 150. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 151 / 266 151. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Organophosphorus poisoning 152 / 266 152. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Inflammatory D. Embolic 153 / 266 153. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Cerebellar signs D. Pyramidal signs 154 / 266 154. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Myopathy 155 / 266 155. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Dysarthria C. Aphasia D. Monotonous speech 156 / 266 156. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 157 / 266 157. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Phobia C. Depression D. Mania 158 / 266 158. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 159 / 266 159. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Brain tumor C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 160 / 266 160. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 161 / 266 161. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Electromyography C. Muscle enzyme study D. Nerve conduction study 162 / 266 162. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Anemia C. Ankle clonus D. Glossitis 163 / 266 163. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 164 / 266 164. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Immune disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 165 / 266 165. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Corpus striatum 166 / 266 166. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 167 / 266 167. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Putamen D. Caudate nucleus 168 / 266 168. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 169 / 266 169. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Livedo reticularis 170 / 266 170. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Motor neuron disease C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy 171 / 266 171. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hysteria C. Multiple sclerosis D. Duchenne myopathy 172 / 266 172. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Oculomotor nerve C. Ciliary ganglion D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 173 / 266 173. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Midbrain 174 / 266 174. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 175 / 266 175. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 176 / 266 176. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Anencephaly C. Mental retardation D. Heart valve abnormalities 177 / 266 177. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 178 / 266 178. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Sleep paralysis C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 179 / 266 179. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 180 / 266 180. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Brainstem D. Cerebral cortex 181 / 266 181. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Increased deep reflexes D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 182 / 266 182. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Infertility C. Alzheimer's disease D. Parkinsonism 183 / 266 183. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Diazepam C. Topiramate D. Ethosuximide 184 / 266 184. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 185 / 266 185. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 186 / 266 186. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Cocaine C. Carbamazepine D. Flumazenil 187 / 266 187. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 188 / 266 188. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Apraxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 189 / 266 189. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Graphesthesia C. Two-point localisation D. Perceptual rivalry 190 / 266 190. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Myotonia D. Tetany 191 / 266 191. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents vasospasm 192 / 266 192. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 193 / 266 193. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 194 / 266 194. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Shagreen patch D. White spots over trunk and limbs 195 / 266 195. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Absence of root pain 196 / 266 196. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysphagia C. Spastic tongue D. Dysarthria 197 / 266 197. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Dementia in AIDS 198 / 266 198. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 199 / 266 199. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 200 / 266 200. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Transverse myelitis D. Restlessness 201 / 266 201. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alzheimer's disease 202 / 266 202. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Encephalitis C. Epilepsy D. Febrile 203 / 266 203. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Succinylcholine C. Methoxyflurane D. Halothane 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 205 / 266 205. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Hysteria 206 / 266 206. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 207 / 266 207. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Syringobulbia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Cluster headache 208 / 266 208. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Acute renal failure C. Oesophagitis D. Wallenberg's syndrome 209 / 266 209. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 210 / 266 210. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Head injury 211 / 266 211. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hyperthyroidism 212 / 266 212. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Meningioma 213 / 266 213. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Onycholysis C. Diarrhoea D. Hypothyroidism 214 / 266 214. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Clonus C. Fasciculations D. Spasticity 215 / 266 215. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. Xth C. IIIrd D. Vth 216 / 266 216. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 217 / 266 217. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. Mania C. SIADH D. Polycythaemia vera 218 / 266 218. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Cerebral malaria D. Atypical pneumonia 219 / 266 219. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Infraspinatus C. Calf muscles D. Pectoralis major 220 / 266 220. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Agraphia 221 / 266 221. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Brain tumour D. Diabetes mellitus 222 / 266 222. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 223 / 266 223. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Medulla C. Lower pons D. Midbrain 224 / 266 224. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hyperkaliemia 225 / 266 225. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Extensor plantar response D. Masked facies 226 / 266 226. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 227 / 266 227. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Duodenal stenosis D. Polymyositis 228 / 266 228. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 229 / 266 229. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Paroxetine C. Sertraline D. Fluoxetine 230 / 266 230. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 231 / 266 231. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Hypertonia C. Coma D. Retention of urine 232 / 266 232. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Autonomic response C. Verbal response D. Motor response 233 / 266 233. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Snout reflex C. Anal reflex D. Grasp reflex 234 / 266 234. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Polyneuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 235 / 266 235. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 236 / 266 236. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Advanced pregnancy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 237 / 266 237. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Diphtheria D. Quinsy 238 / 266 238. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Deep coma 239 / 266 239. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 240 / 266 240. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Alcoholism 241 / 266 241. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Sensory functions D. Proprioception 242 / 266 242. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 243 / 266 243. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Headache D. Altered consciousness 244 / 266 244. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 245 / 266 245. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Motor neuron disease C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peripheral neuropathy 246 / 266 246. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 247 / 266 247. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Apraxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 248 / 266 248. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 249 / 266 249. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 250 / 266 250. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Petit mal C. Infantile spasm D. Generalized tonic clonic 251 / 266 251. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Myopathy 252 / 266 252. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Ropinirole C. Rasagiline D. Pramipexole 253 / 266 253. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 254 / 266 254. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 255 / 266 255. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 256 / 266 256. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 257 / 266 257. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Cerebellar infarction C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 258 / 266 258. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Snakebite C. Poliomyelitis D. Myasthenia gravis 259 / 266 259. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 260 / 266 260. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Systemic hypertension C. Emotional excitement D. Berry aneurysm rupture 261 / 266 261. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Trypanosomiasis C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Encephalitis lethargica 262 / 266 262. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Facial weakness 263 / 266 263. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 264 / 266 264. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 265 / 266 265. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Sumatriptan C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 266 / 266 266. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Coarctation of aorta C. Takayasu's disease D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology