Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 26 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Myodonus C. Psychosis D. Migraine 2 / 266 2. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Dysarthria 3 / 266 3. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu’s disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Polycystic kidney D. Coarctation of aorta 4 / 266 4. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock’s sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski’s sign D. Rossolimo’s sign 5 / 266 5. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 6 / 266 6. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 7 / 266 7. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Malignant exophthalmos 8 / 266 8. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tay-Sachs disease 9 / 266 9. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Kuru D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 10 / 266 10. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington’s chorea B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 11 / 266 11. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 12 / 266 12. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Vestibular lesion 13 / 266 13. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Ataxia C. Diarrhoea D. Hypothyroidism 14 / 266 14. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 15 / 266 15. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 16 / 266 16. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Ticlopidine 18 / 266 18. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Myopathy 19 / 266 19. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 20 / 266 20. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 21 / 266 21. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 22 / 266 22. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Mental retardation D. Anencephaly 23 / 266 23. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 24 / 266 24. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron’s sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 25 / 266 25. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Cortex D. Midbrain 26 / 266 26. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 27 / 266 27. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Phaeochromocytoma 28 / 266 28. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Haloperidol 29 / 266 29. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Paroxetine C. Sertraline D. Fluvoxamine 30 / 266 30. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Dexamethasone C. IV mannitol D. Oral glycerol 31 / 266 31. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Arrhythmia 32 / 266 32. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Chloroquine C. Amiodarone D. Probenecid 33 / 266 33. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Apraxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 34 / 266 34. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 35 / 266 35. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-13 36 / 266 36. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Froin’s loculation syndrome 37 / 266 37. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Dementia D. Urinary incontinence 38 / 266 38. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Temporal 39 / 266 39. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Zidovudine 40 / 266 40. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan’s syndrome B. Down’s syndrome C. Klinefelter’s syndrome D. Turner’s syndrome 41 / 266 41. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Albright’s disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 42 / 266 42. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Absence of root pain D. Viral or post-vaccinal 43 / 266 43. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Muscle biopsy D. Electromyography 44 / 266 44. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner’s syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 45 / 266 45. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Optic glioma C. Scoliosis D. Meningioma 46 / 266 46. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Mania 47 / 266 47. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 48 / 266 48. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypotension D. Hypoxia 49 / 266 49. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Metastatic C. Glioblastoma D. Meningioma 50 / 266 50. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. Vth C. IIIrd D. Xth 51 / 266 51. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 52 / 266 52. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Papilledema D. Infarction of occipital lobe 53 / 266 53. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Reading a book 54 / 266 54. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 55 / 266 55. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Lacunar infarction C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Cerebral atrophy 56 / 266 56. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Pseudoclonus 57 / 266 57. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. McArdle’s disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 58 / 266 58. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Wernicke’s encephalopathy D. Pinealomas 59 / 266 59. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Diabetes mellitus C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Gradenigo’s syndrome 60 / 266 60. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5 61 / 266 61. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Arsenic D. Alcohol 62 / 266 62. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Altered consciousness C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Headache 63 / 266 63. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cataract 64 / 266 64. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 65 / 266 65. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Malignant hypertension D. Hypoxia 66 / 266 66. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Puerperal sepsis 67 / 266 67. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Hemiballismus C. Dystonia D. Chorea 68 / 266 68. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Brainstem 69 / 266 69. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Flexor spasm C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Mass reflex 70 / 266 70. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Early Alzheimer’s disease C. Duodenal stenosis D. Patent ductus arteriosus 71 / 266 71. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Huntington’s disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. ‘Normal-pressure’ hydrocephalus 72 / 266 72. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T4 C. C8 D. T2 73 / 266 73. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Noonan’s syndrome C. Klinefelter’s syndrome D. Down’s syndrome 74 / 266 74. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Athletes D. Myotonia 75 / 266 75. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. Meningism C. Hysteria D. After epileptic seizure 76 / 266 76. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypertonia 77 / 266 77. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Hysteria D. Duchenne myopathy 78 / 266 78. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 79 / 266 79. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Wallenberg’s syndrome C. Oesophagitis D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 80 / 266 80. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Calf muscles C. Infraspinatus D. Deltoid 81 / 266 81. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Pons D. Midbrain 82 / 266 82. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Amphetamines C. Carbamazepine D. Cocaine 83 / 266 83. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 84 / 266 84. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Gaucher’s disease D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 85 / 266 85. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Hyperpyrexia 86 / 266 86. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Huntington’s chorea C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 87 / 266 87. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Constricted pupil C. Anhidrosis D. Complete ptosis 88 / 266 88. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Rasagiline C. Tiagabine D. Ropinirole 89 / 266 89. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Putamen D. Caudate nucleus 90 / 266 90. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Methotrexate 91 / 266 91. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Systemic hypertension D. Emotional excitement 92 / 266 92. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 93 / 266 93. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Central scotoma C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Tunnel vision 94 / 266 94. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Sleep paralysis D. Cataplexy 95 / 266 95. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 96 / 266 96. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 97 / 266 97. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 98 / 266 98. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 99 / 266 99. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 100 / 266 100. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Thalamus C. Ventral pons D. Internal capsule 101 / 266 101. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 102 / 266 102. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 24 hours C. 96 hours D. 2 weeks 103 / 266 103. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Coma C. Facial weakness D. Hemiparesis 104 / 266 104. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Marathon runner C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 105 / 266 105. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 106 / 266 106. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 107 / 266 107. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Babinski’s sign 108 / 266 108. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Athetosis D. Tetany 109 / 266 109. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Drop attacks C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Diplopia 110 / 266 110. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Sylvian fissure D. Over visual cortex 111 / 266 111. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine D. Trimipramine 112 / 266 112. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison’s disease B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 113 / 266 113. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Choreoathetosis C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 114 / 266 114. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum’s disease D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 115 / 266 115. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil’s disease 116 / 266 116. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Lax abdominal wall C. Multiparous woman D. Obesity 117 / 266 117. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Raynaud’s disease 118 / 266 118. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Retention of urine C. Coma D. Hypertonia 119 / 266 119. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 120 / 266 120. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. von Recklinghausen’s disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Sturge-Weber disease 121 / 266 121. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Reserpine 122 / 266 122. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Presence of nystagmus C. Loss of recent memory D. Associated with lacunar infarction 123 / 266 123. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Petit mal epilepsy 124 / 266 124. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Xanthochromia C. Positive Queckenstedt’s test D. Increased CSF pressure 125 / 266 125. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 126 / 266 126. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Brain tumor 127 / 266 127. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Polymyositis D. Diabetic amyotrophy 128 / 266 128. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Trypanosomiasis C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 129 / 266 129. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Agnosia 130 / 266 130. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 131 / 266 131. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Vagus nerve 132 / 266 132. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 133 / 266 133. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Cerebellar infarction C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Digitalis toxicity 134 / 266 134. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Parkinsonism C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral diplegia 135 / 266 135. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 136 / 266 136. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 137 / 266 137. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Areflexia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 138 / 266 138. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson’s disease B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyponatraemia D. Rheumatic fever 139 / 266 139. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. Autonomic response 140 / 266 140. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Motor neuron disease C. Myopathy D. Myasthenia gravis 141 / 266 141. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Immunoglobulin C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 142 / 266 142. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner’s syndrome B. Hutchinson’s pupil C. Oculomotor palsy D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 143 / 266 143. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Elapidae snake bite 144 / 266 144. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Midbrain C. Upper pons D. Medulla 145 / 266 145. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing’s syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Bulbar palsy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 146 / 266 146. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 147 / 266 147. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hypokalemia 148 / 266 148. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Intact proprioception D. Sensory ataxia 149 / 266 149. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Severe heart failure D. Hepatocellular failure 150 / 266 150. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Medulloblastoma 151 / 266 151. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Leukodystrophy 152 / 266 152. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Thiocyanates C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 153 / 266 153. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Anal reflex 154 / 266 154. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Multiple tics 155 / 266 155. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Pontine glioma D. Phenytoin toxicity 156 / 266 156. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Complex partial C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Petit mal 157 / 266 157. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Hypothermia C. Paralysis D. Pin-point pupil 158 / 266 158. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents rebleeding 159 / 266 159. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Cord compression 160 / 266 160. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Oculomotor nerve C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Ciliary ganglion 161 / 266 161. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myxoedema C. Gross pedal oedema D. Parkinsonism 162 / 266 162. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 163 / 266 163. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Mania C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 164 / 266 164. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson’s disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Deep reflexes are depressed 166 / 266 166. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Agraphia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Acalculia 167 / 266 167. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 168 / 266 168. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Dysarthria C. Monotonous speech D. Aphasia 169 / 266 169. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Toxin C. Virus D. Autoimmunity 170 / 266 170. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 171 / 266 171. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Stereognosis C. Involuntary movements D. Nutrition of muscles 172 / 266 172. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. 5% dextrose 173 / 266 173. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Basal ganglia infarction 174 / 266 174. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Tuberculosis D. Mikulicz’s syndrome 175 / 266 175. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Facial nerve palsy 176 / 266 176. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Pituitary tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Multiple sclerosis 177 / 266 177. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Aphasia D. Papilloedema 178 / 266 178. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 179 / 266 179. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 180 / 266 180. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 181 / 266 181. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Gynaecomastia C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 182 / 266 182. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Unequal pupil 183 / 266 183. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Animals C. High places D. Strangers 184 / 266 184. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 185 / 266 185. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Brachycephaly C. Frontal baldness D. Testicular atrophy 186 / 266 186. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe 187 / 266 187. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrigine D. Lubeluzole 188 / 266 188. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hereditary predisposition C. Hemicranial headache D. Common in women 189 / 266 189. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Rheumatoid arthritis 190 / 266 190. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Quinsy D. Diphtheria 191 / 266 191. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Has a good prognosis in children 192 / 266 192. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Neuropathy D. Encephalitis 193 / 266 193. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 194 / 266 194. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Advanced pregnancy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 195 / 266 195. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 196 / 266 196. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich’s ataxia D. Syringomyelia 197 / 266 197. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Macrolides 198 / 266 198. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 199 / 266 199. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C5, 6 C. C3, 4 D. C4, 5 200 / 266 200. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Depression D. Visual hallucinations 201 / 266 201. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Biochemically cortical’ choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Microscopically ‘neurofibrillary tangles’ are found 202 / 266 202. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 203 / 266 203. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Absent superficial reflex 204 / 266 204. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Botulism 205 / 266 205. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Babinski’s sign C. Glossitis D. Anemia 206 / 266 206. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cluster headache C. Bell’s palsy D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 207 / 266 207. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Pick’s disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Alzheimer’s disease 208 / 266 208. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ocular myopathy 209 / 266 209. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 210 / 266 210. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Lathyrism 211 / 266 211. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 212 / 266 212. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Frontal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Temporal lobe 213 / 266 213. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Neurofibroma 214 / 266 214. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 215 / 266 215. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 216 / 266 216. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 217 / 266 217. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 218 / 266 218. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Facial nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 219 / 266 219. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Viral meningitis 220 / 266 220. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Trauma C. Epilepsy D. Encephalitis 221 / 266 221. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 222 / 266 222. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 223 / 266 223. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 224 / 266 224. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Loss of accommodation 225 / 266 225. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Selegiline C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 226 / 266 226. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Restlessness C. Poliomyelitis D. Transverse myelitis 227 / 266 227. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 228 / 266 228. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie’s syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Da Costa’s syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 229 / 266 229. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Extensor plantar response C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Masked facies 230 / 266 230. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 231 / 266 231. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. SIADH C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Optic neuritis 232 / 266 232. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Dantrolene C. Halothane D. Methoxyflurane 233 / 266 233. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Leucodystrophy D. Alzheimer’s disease 234 / 266 234. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. PET scan C. MRI scan D. CT scan 235 / 266 235. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Loss of immediate recall C. Retrograde amnesia D. Defect in learning 236 / 266 236. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 237 / 266 237. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypokalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hyperkalemia 238 / 266 238. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski’s sign D. Sudden onset 239 / 266 239. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 240 / 266 240. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Diplopia C. Paraesthesia D. Seizures 241 / 266 241. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 242 / 266 242. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Wilson’s disease 243 / 266 243. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 244 / 266 244. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Shagreen patch C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Pompholyx 245 / 266 245. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Dementia in AIDS C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 246 / 266 246. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Thrombocytopenia 247 / 266 247. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Glioma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 248 / 266 248. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure sensory stroke D. Pure motor hemiparesis 249 / 266 249. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Blindness D. Convulsions 250 / 266 250. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Polyneuropathy C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Tabes dorsalis 251 / 266 251. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Midbrain C. Cerebellum D. Thalamus 252 / 266 252. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin’s loculation syndrome B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Meningism 253 / 266 253. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Ataxia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 254 / 266 254. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Organophosphorus poisoning 255 / 266 255. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 256 / 266 256. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syphilis D. Ethambutol 257 / 266 257. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Periorbital pain D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 258 / 266 258. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Hepatic precoma C. Taboparesis D. Friedreich’ s ataxia 259 / 266 259. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypocalcemia 260 / 266 260. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Negri bodies D. Schaumann bodies 261 / 266 261. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Basal ganglia 262 / 266 262. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Horner’s syndrome C. Ataxia D. Hiccups 263 / 266 263. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 264 / 266 264. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich’s ataxia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 265 / 266 265. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Demyelinating C. Embolic D. Hemorrhagic 266 / 266 266. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Radial nerve palsy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Syringomyelia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Dr Abu-Ahmed Dr Abu Ahmed, an Internist & Graphic Designer, has brought this website to help Medical Students in the subject of Internal Medicine. Articles: 25 Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology
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