Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Viral meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 2 / 266 2. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 3 / 266 3. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Clomipramine C. Lithium D. Haloperidol 4 / 266 4. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Dolichocephaly C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 5 / 266 5. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Snout reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Grasp reflex 6 / 266 6. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Venous thrombosis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 7 / 266 7. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 8 / 266 8. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Complete ptosis 9 / 266 9. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Pyramidal lesion C. Horner's syndrome D. Hiccups 10 / 266 10. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Puerperal sepsis 11 / 266 11. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypotension C. Hypocapnia D. Hypoxia 12 / 266 12. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 13 / 266 13. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Abducens palsy C. Polyneuropathy D. Paralysis of soft palate 14 / 266 14. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Rheumatic fever C. Wilson's disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 15 / 266 15. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Quinsy D. Tetanus 16 / 266 16. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Polycythaemia vera C. SIADH D. Cluster headache 17 / 266 17. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Cephalosporins D. Quinolones 18 / 266 18. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Raynaud's disease 19 / 266 19. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Tremor C. Confabulation D. Visual hallucinations 20 / 266 20. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Infectious mononucleosis 21 / 266 21. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 22 / 266 22. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 23 / 266 23. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Papilloedema C. Aphasia D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 24 / 266 24. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 25 / 266 25. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Upper pons C. Medulla D. Midbrain 26 / 266 26. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Retinal hemorrhage 27 / 266 27. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 28 / 266 28. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Mamillary bodies 29 / 266 29. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 30 / 266 30. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 31 / 266 31. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Sensory ataxia C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Intact proprioception 32 / 266 32. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Thrombocytopenia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Ataxia 33 / 266 33. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C5, 6 C. C6, 7 D. C4, 5 34 / 266 34. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Bulbar palsy D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 35 / 266 35. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 36 / 266 36. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Wasting of muscles 37 / 266 37. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Myotonic pupil C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Old age 38 / 266 38. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Astrocytoma D. Meningioma 39 / 266 39. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Occipital C. Frontal D. Parietal 40 / 266 40. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Diplopia 41 / 266 41. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Negri bodies D. Lewy bodies 42 / 266 42. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Duchenne myopathy 43 / 266 43. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Meningism 44 / 266 44. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Myotonia C. Manual labourers D. Athletes 45 / 266 45. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Cyclophosphamide C. Corticosteroid D. Immunoglobulin 46 / 266 46. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Ataxia D. Osteomalacia 47 / 266 47. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Tunnel vision D. Central scotoma 48 / 266 48. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 49 / 266 49. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Lovastatin C. Emetine D. Febuxostat 50 / 266 50. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Malignant hypertension C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 51 / 266 51. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Parkinsonism 52 / 266 52. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Pinealomas D. Glioma 53 / 266 53. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Hypothyroidism D. Onycholysis 54 / 266 54. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Pineal body D. Choroid plexus 55 / 266 55. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 56 / 266 56. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 57 / 266 57. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Pseudoparkinsonism 58 / 266 58. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pseudolymphoma D. Megaloblastic anemia 59 / 266 59. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 60 / 266 60. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 61 / 266 61. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syphilis D. Ethambutol 62 / 266 62. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Kuru 63 / 266 63. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 64 / 266 64. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Fasciculations 65 / 266 65. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 66 / 266 66. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Facial nerve 67 / 266 67. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Head injury D. Epilepsy 68 / 266 68. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Putamen 69 / 266 69. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Alcohol D. Valproic acid 70 / 266 70. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 71 / 266 71. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 72 / 266 72. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Aflatoxin C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 73 / 266 73. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Internal capsule 74 / 266 74. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Cerebellar infarction C. Digitalis toxicity D. Lesion in visual cortex 75 / 266 75. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Ocular myopathy D. Malignant exophthalmos 76 / 266 76. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 77 / 266 77. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Duodenal stenosis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Polymyositis 78 / 266 78. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Coma C. Facial weakness D. Hemiparesis 79 / 266 79. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Atypical pneumonia C. Enteric fever D. Cerebral malaria 80 / 266 80. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 81 / 266 81. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 82 / 266 82. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Hepatocellular failure 83 / 266 83. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 84 / 266 84. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 85 / 266 85. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 86 / 266 86. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. High protein content C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 87 / 266 87. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Ropinirole C. Rasagiline D. Pramipexole 88 / 266 88. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Babinski's sign C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Small, spastic tongue 89 / 266 89. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 90 / 266 90. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Gross pedal oedema C. Myxoedema D. Parkinsonism 91 / 266 91. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. May occur spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 92 / 266 92. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 93 / 266 93. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Felbamate C. Lamotrigine D. Vigabatrin 94 / 266 94. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Diplopia C. Paraesthesia D. Dysphasia 95 / 266 95. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. High places C. Strangers D. Animals 96 / 266 96. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 97 / 266 97. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Tonic seizures D. Absence seizures 98 / 266 98. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 99 / 266 99. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Confabulation C. Retrograde amnesia D. Loss of immediate recall 100 / 266 100. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Presence of nystagmus C. Confabulation D. Associated with lacunar infarction 101 / 266 101. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 102 / 266 102. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Hypothermia C. Disconjugate gaze D. Pin-point pupil 103 / 266 103. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Dysrhythmokinesis 104 / 266 104. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Babinski's sign 105 / 266 105. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 106 / 266 106. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 107 / 266 107. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Poliomyelitis 108 / 266 108. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Leukodystrophy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 109 / 266 109. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Arrhythmia C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Tight aortic stenosis 110 / 266 110. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Meningioma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Medulloblastoma 111 / 266 111. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Motor neuron disease C. Myopathy D. Polymyositis 112 / 266 112. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Migraine C. Chorea D. Myodonus 113 / 266 113. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Poliomyelitis 114 / 266 114. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Pituitary tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 115 / 266 115. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Dystonia C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 116 / 266 116. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 117 / 266 117. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine 118 / 266 118. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-18 D. Turner's syndrome 119 / 266 119. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Inflammatory C. Embolic D. Hemorrhagic 120 / 266 120. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Equivocal plantar response C. Absent superficial reflex D. Brisk deep reflexes 121 / 266 121. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Depression 122 / 266 122. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Carbamazepine C. Cocaine D. Flumazenil 123 / 266 123. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. CT scan D. PET scan 124 / 266 124. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Sleep paralysis C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Epilepsy 125 / 266 125. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Poliomyelitis C. Snakebite D. Rabies 126 / 266 126. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Optic glioma D. Acoustic neuroma 127 / 266 127. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 128 / 266 128. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Mania 129 / 266 129. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Seizures C. Fatty liver D. Livedo reticularis 130 / 266 130. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 131 / 266 131. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Waddling gait C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Argyll Robertson pupil 132 / 266 132. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Petit mal epilepsy 133 / 266 133. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Extensor plantar response C. Emotional incontinence D. Flaccid dysarthria 134 / 266 134. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Two-point localisation C. Vibration sensation D. Perceptual rivalry 135 / 266 135. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 136 / 266 136. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 137 / 266 137. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Neurofibroma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Spinal epidural abscess 138 / 266 138. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. L5 C. S1 D. S1,S2 139 / 266 139. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 140 / 266 140. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 141 / 266 141. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 142 / 266 142. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 143 / 266 143. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Over visual cortex C. Sylvian fissure D. Olfactory groove 144 / 266 144. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Hepatic precoma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Taboparesis 145 / 266 145. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 146 / 266 146. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Putamen 147 / 266 147. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 148 / 266 148. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Lax abdominal wall D. Multiparous woman 149 / 266 149. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle enzyme study D. Muscle biopsy 150 / 266 150. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Ethosuximide C. Diazepam D. Valproate 151 / 266 151. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 152 / 266 152. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Ciliary ganglion C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Oculomotor nerve 153 / 266 153. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Cortex C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 154 / 266 154. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cervical spondylosis 155 / 266 155. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Dementia in AIDS C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 156 / 266 156. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Aphasia 157 / 266 157. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Eye opening C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 158 / 266 158. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Looking in front C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Reading a book 159 / 266 159. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hereditary predisposition C. Hemicranial headache D. Common in women 160 / 266 160. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 161 / 266 161. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Sturge-Weber disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 162 / 266 162. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Convulsions C. SIADH D. Optic neuritis 163 / 266 163. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Trypanosomiasis C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 164 / 266 164. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cluster headache C. Syringobulbia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 165 / 266 165. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Parkinsonism C. Gynaecomastia D. Acromegaly 166 / 266 166. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 167 / 266 167. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Drop attacks C. Diplopia D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 168 / 266 168. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Syringomyelia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich's ataxia 169 / 266 169. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 170 / 266 170. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 171 / 266 171. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 172 / 266 172. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Vincristine C. Arsenic D. Lead 173 / 266 173. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 174 / 266 174. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Polycystic kidney D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 175 / 266 175. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Cerebral atrophy D. Neurosyphilis 176 / 266 176. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 177 / 266 177. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 178 / 266 178. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Cerebral cortex C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 179 / 266 179. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Immune disorder 180 / 266 180. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 181 / 266 181. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 182 / 266 182. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 183 / 266 183. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 184 / 266 184. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Has a good prognosis in children 185 / 266 185. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Dysarthria C. Nasal regurgitation D. Spastic tongue 186 / 266 186. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Athetosis 187 / 266 187. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Cerebral cortex D. Pons 188 / 266 188. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Sturge-Weber disease 189 / 266 189. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 190 / 266 190. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 191 / 266 191. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 192 / 266 192. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Mania 193 / 266 193. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. TOCP poisoning C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Acute intermittent porphyria 194 / 266 194. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Stereognosis 195 / 266 195. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Phakomatosis C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Mental retardation 196 / 266 196. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Focal neuro deficit C. Blindness D. Radioculomyelopathy 197 / 266 197. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 198 / 266 198. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Cervical rib C. Myopathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 199 / 266 199. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Myotonic dystrophy 200 / 266 200. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 201 / 266 201. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Relief by haloperidol 202 / 266 202. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Refsum's disease 203 / 266 203. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 204 / 266 204. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Levodopa C. Amantadine D. Trihexyphenidyl 205 / 266 205. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Aortic incompetence D. Cerebellar disorder 206 / 266 206. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 207 / 266 207. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Haloperidol C. Trimipramine D. Chlorpromazine 208 / 266 208. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. E. coli C. H. influenzae D. Pneumococcus 209 / 266 209. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Frontal baldness 210 / 266 210. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Leprosy D. Polymyositis 211 / 266 211. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 212 / 266 212. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 213 / 266 213. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Horner's syndrome C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Oculomotor palsy 214 / 266 214. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Increased deep reflexes D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 215 / 266 215. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Leucodystrophy D. Tuberous sclerosis 216 / 266 216. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 217 / 266 217. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 218 / 266 218. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 219 / 266 219. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents rebleeding D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 220 / 266 220. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 221 / 266 221. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peripheral neuropathy 222 / 266 222. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Brain tumour C. Diabetes mellitus D. Gradenigo's syndrome 223 / 266 223. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 224 / 266 224. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 225 / 266 225. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Encephalitis C. Neuropathy D. Myopathy 226 / 266 226. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Febrile 227 / 266 227. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Agraphia C. Acalculia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 228 / 266 228. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Mental retardation 229 / 266 229. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Aphasia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysarthria 230 / 266 230. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Acute renal failure D. Oesophagitis 231 / 266 231. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Brain tumor 232 / 266 232. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 233 / 266 233. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 234 / 266 234. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Carotid artery occlusion D. Basal ganglia infarction 235 / 266 235. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Pyramidal signs 236 / 266 236. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 237 / 266 237. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Botulinus poisoning 238 / 266 238. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 239 / 266 239. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 240 / 266 240. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Atenolol C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 241 / 266 241. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Shagreen patch 242 / 266 242. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant 243 / 266 243. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Fluvoxamine 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Aspirin 245 / 266 245. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 246 / 266 246. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Pontine glioma C. Amblyopia D. Phenytoin toxicity 247 / 266 247. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Electroconvulsive therapy 248 / 266 248. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vth C. Xth D. Vllth 249 / 266 249. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 250 / 266 250. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 251 / 266 251. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Infertility 252 / 266 252. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypercalcemia 253 / 266 253. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Male dominance C. Periorbital pain D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 254 / 266 254. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 255 / 266 255. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T1 C. T4 D. C8 256 / 266 256. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Huntington's chorea C. Post-encephalitic D. Alzheimer's disease 257 / 266 257. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Cerebellar functions D. Proprioception 258 / 266 258. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Apraxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Areflexia 259 / 266 259. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 96 hours C. 2 weeks D. 24 hours 260 / 266 260. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Left atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 261 / 266 261. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multiple sclerosis 262 / 266 262. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. May be associated with malignancy D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 263 / 266 263. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Hypertonia C. Absent deep reflexes D. Retention of urine 264 / 266 264. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Petit mal C. Infantile spasm D. Complex partial 265 / 266 265. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Glossitis C. Anemia D. Ankle clonus 266 / 266 266. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor plantar response D. Mass reflex LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology