Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 2 / 266 2. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypoxia D. Hypotension 3 / 266 3. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Optic neuritis C. SIADH D. Pseudobulbar palsy 4 / 266 4. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Snakebite D. Rabies 5 / 266 5. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Vincristine 6 / 266 6. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 7 / 266 7. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal 8 / 266 8. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 9 / 266 9. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Hyperthyroidism 10 / 266 10. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Ethambutol C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 11 / 266 11. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Fasciculations C. Babinski's sign D. Spasticity 12 / 266 12. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. High protein content D. Xanthochromia 13 / 266 13. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Convulsions C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 14 / 266 14. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Cerebellar disorder 15 / 266 15. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 16 / 266 16. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. May be associated with malignancy C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Aspirin C. Pentoxifylline D. Ticlopidine 18 / 266 18. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Pons 19 / 266 19. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 20 / 266 20. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluoxetine C. Paroxetine D. Fluvoxamine 21 / 266 21. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe 22 / 266 22. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-13 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-18 23 / 266 23. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 24 / 266 24. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Oesophagitis C. Acute renal failure D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 25 / 266 25. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Lewy bodies 26 / 266 26. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Emetine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 27 / 266 27. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Osteomalacia D. Ataxia 28 / 266 28. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Taboparesis C. Hepatic precoma D. Friedreich' s ataxia 29 / 266 29. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Dura matter C. Pineal body D. Basal ganglia 30 / 266 30. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. May occur spontaneously D. Quite often remits spontaneously 31 / 266 31. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Leucodystrophy D. Cerebral palsy 32 / 266 32. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 33 / 266 33. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 34 / 266 34. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Encephalitis 35 / 266 35. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 36 / 266 36. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Platybasia D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 37 / 266 37. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 38 / 266 38. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 39 / 266 39. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Medulloblastoma 40 / 266 40. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Poliomyelitis D. Transverse myelitis 41 / 266 41. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. High places C. Animals D. Strangers 42 / 266 42. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 43 / 266 43. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 44 / 266 44. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Febrile 45 / 266 45. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Metoclopramide-induced 46 / 266 46. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 47 / 266 47. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents vasospasm 48 / 266 48. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Pinealomas C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 49 / 266 49. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 50 / 266 50. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Neurosyphilis C. Cerebral atrophy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 51 / 266 51. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 52 / 266 52. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pyogenic meningitis 53 / 266 53. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Venous thrombosis 54 / 266 54. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Hysteria C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 55 / 266 55. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lamotrigine C. Vigabatrin D. Lubeluzole 56 / 266 56. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 57 / 266 57. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Common migraine has aura C. Hemicranial headache D. Hereditary predisposition 58 / 266 58. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Chloroquine C. Probenecid D. Ethambutol 59 / 266 59. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 60 / 266 60. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 61 / 266 61. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 62 / 266 62. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Waddling gait C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Sensory dysfunction 63 / 266 63. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Refsum's disease C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 64 / 266 64. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. Apraxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 65 / 266 65. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ocular myopathy 66 / 266 66. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Agnosia C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 67 / 266 67. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 68 / 266 68. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 69 / 266 69. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Tuberculosis D. Sarcoidosis 70 / 266 70. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Rubella panencephalitis 71 / 266 71. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Exaggerated deep reflex 72 / 266 72. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 73 / 266 73. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 74 / 266 74. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Patchy arachnoiditis 75 / 266 75. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Pick's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 76 / 266 76. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Immunoglobulin 77 / 266 77. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Gross pedal oedema D. Tabes dorsalis 78 / 266 78. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 79 / 266 79. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Increased tone D. Brisk deep reflexes 80 / 266 80. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Polymyositis D. Duodenal stenosis 81 / 266 81. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 82 / 266 82. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Lathyrism D. Elapidae group snake bite 83 / 266 83. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Radial nerve palsy 84 / 266 84. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 85 / 266 85. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 86 / 266 86. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 87 / 266 87. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Coma D. Aphasia 88 / 266 88. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Aortic incompetence 89 / 266 89. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 90 / 266 90. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5 D. L5,S1 91 / 266 91. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Myopathy C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 92 / 266 92. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Coma C. Hypertonia D. Retention of urine 93 / 266 93. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Mental retardation C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Seizures 94 / 266 94. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 95 / 266 95. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure motor hemiparesis 96 / 266 96. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Deep Jaundice C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 97 / 266 97. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 98 / 266 98. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Glossitis C. Anemia D. Ankle clonus 99 / 266 99. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 100 / 266 100. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Petit mal 101 / 266 101. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Flexor plantar response C. Mass reflex D. Increased tone in flexor groups 102 / 266 102. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Gonda sign D. Babinski's sign 103 / 266 103. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocalcemia 104 / 266 104. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 105 / 266 105. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Visual hallucinations C. Depression D. Passivity feelings 106 / 266 106. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 107 / 266 107. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 108 / 266 108. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 109 / 266 109. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Ependymoma 110 / 266 110. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Lithium C. Haloperidol D. Clomipramine 111 / 266 111. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 112 / 266 112. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Reading a book 113 / 266 113. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 114 / 266 114. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 115 / 266 115. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Hypoxia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 116 / 266 116. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 117 / 266 117. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Takayasu's disease C. Polycystic kidney D. Coarctation of aorta 118 / 266 118. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Diphtheria C. Tetanus D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 119 / 266 119. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Nystagmus C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Aphasia 120 / 266 120. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Livedo reticularis C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 121 / 266 121. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Electromyography C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle enzyme study 122 / 266 122. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 123 / 266 123. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 124 / 266 124. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 125 / 266 125. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Valproic acid C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Alcohol 126 / 266 126. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 127 / 266 127. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 128 / 266 128. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 129 / 266 129. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 130 / 266 130. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Manual labourers D. Myotonia 131 / 266 131. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 132 / 266 132. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 133 / 266 133. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysphonia C. Aphasia D. Dysarthria 134 / 266 134. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Tetany D. Athetosis 135 / 266 135. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 136 / 266 136. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Pompholyx C. Shagreen patch D. Adenoma sebaceum 137 / 266 137. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Visual hallucinations C. Tremor D. Perspiration 138 / 266 138. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Scoliosis C. Meningioma D. Optic glioma 139 / 266 139. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Superior sagittal sinus 140 / 266 140. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 141 / 266 141. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 142 / 266 142. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Topiramate C. Ethosuximide D. Valproate 143 / 266 143. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 144 / 266 144. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Niemann-Pick disease 145 / 266 145. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Meningism D. Froin's loculation syndrome 146 / 266 146. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Polymyositis 147 / 266 147. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Oculomotor nerve D. Ciliary ganglion 148 / 266 148. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Deep coma 149 / 266 149. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Loss of immediate recall C. Defect in learning D. Confabulation 150 / 266 150. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Unequal pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 151 / 266 151. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Obesity D. Hysteria 152 / 266 152. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. IIIrd C. Vllth D. Xth 153 / 266 153. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 154 / 266 154. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 155 / 266 155. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Tone and power 156 / 266 156. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Multiple tics D. Dementia 157 / 266 157. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Infectious mononucleosis 158 / 266 158. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 159 / 266 159. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 160 / 266 160. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. MRI scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. CT scan 161 / 266 161. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 162 / 266 162. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Diabetes mellitus 163 / 266 163. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Confabulation D. Associated with lacunar infarction 164 / 266 164. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 165 / 266 165. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 166 / 266 166. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Onycholysis C. Diarrhoea D. Ataxia 167 / 266 167. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 168 / 266 168. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 169 / 266 169. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Infraspinatus C. Calf muscles D. Pectoralis major 170 / 266 170. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Galactorrhoea 171 / 266 171. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 172 / 266 172. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Olfactory groove C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Over visual cortex 173 / 266 173. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Extensor plantar response C. Emotional incontinence D. Flaccid dysarthria 174 / 266 174. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington's chorea 175 / 266 175. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Aflatoxin C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 176 / 266 176. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 177 / 266 177. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 178 / 266 178. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cataract 179 / 266 179. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 180 / 266 180. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 181 / 266 181. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Trypanosomiasis C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 182 / 266 182. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Schizophrenia D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 183 / 266 183. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Papilledema D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 184 / 266 184. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Ptosis C. Frontal baldness D. Testicular atrophy 185 / 266 185. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral diplegia D. Motor neuron disease 186 / 266 186. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. AV malformations D. Systemic hypertension 187 / 266 187. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 188 / 266 188. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 189 / 266 189. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Alzheimer's disease 190 / 266 190. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 191 / 266 191. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Inflammatory 192 / 266 192. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C5, 6 D. C6, 7 193 / 266 193. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T4 C. T1 D. C8 194 / 266 194. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 195 / 266 195. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Tonic seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Absence seizures 196 / 266 196. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Syringomyelia 197 / 266 197. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Male dominance D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 198 / 266 198. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Neurofibromatosis 199 / 266 199. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Brain tumour D. Diabetes mellitus 200 / 266 200. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 201 / 266 201. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Caudate nucleus C. Putamen D. Substantia nigra 202 / 266 202. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 203 / 266 203. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Convulsions C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Focal neuro deficit 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 205 / 266 205. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Absent superficial reflex C. Equivocal plantar response D. Brisk deep reflexes 206 / 266 206. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 207 / 266 207. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic C. Glioblastoma D. Astrocytoma 208 / 266 208. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 209 / 266 209. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 210 / 266 210. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 211 / 266 211. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Wilson's disease 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 213 / 266 213. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 214 / 266 214. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Digitalis toxicity C. Cerebellar infarction D. Aura phase of migraine 215 / 266 215. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Reserpine C. Pindolol D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 216 / 266 216. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cerebral cortex 217 / 266 217. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Thalamus 218 / 266 218. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 219 / 266 219. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 220 / 266 220. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Epilepsy C. Sleep paralysis D. Cataplexy 221 / 266 221. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 222 / 266 222. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Normal intellectual activity 223 / 266 223. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Arrhythmia C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Cardiac tamponade 224 / 266 224. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Central scotoma D. Tunnel vision 225 / 266 225. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Peripheral neuropathy 226 / 266 226. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Raynaud's disease C. Leprosy D. Diabetic neuropathy 227 / 266 227. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Vincristine 228 / 266 228. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 229 / 266 229. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 230 / 266 230. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Upper pons C. Medulla D. Midbrain 231 / 266 231. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 232 / 266 232. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Optic nerve D. Trochlear nerve 233 / 266 233. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Mania C. Polycythaemia vera D. Cluster headache 234 / 266 234. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Autonomic response C. Motor response D. Verbal response 235 / 266 235. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Ventral pons C. Cortex D. Thalamus 236 / 266 236. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Dementia in AIDS D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 237 / 266 237. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Horner's syndrome C. Pyramidal lesion D. Hiccups 238 / 266 238. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked dominant 239 / 266 239. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Bell's palsy C. Syringobulbia D. Cluster headache 240 / 266 240. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Cerebellar disorder D. Amblyopia 241 / 266 241. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Sturge-Weber disease D. von Recklinghausen's disease 242 / 266 242. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Pseudolymphoma C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Megaloblastic anemia 243 / 266 243. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Myodonus C. Psychosis D. Chorea 244 / 266 244. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypokalemia 245 / 266 245. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Mania C. Paranoia D. Phobia 246 / 266 246. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Flumazenil C. Carbamazepine D. Cocaine 247 / 266 247. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 248 / 266 248. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 249 / 266 249. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Dysphasia C. Paraesthesia D. Seizures 250 / 266 250. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Steroid myopathy 251 / 266 251. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Head injury D. Transient ischemic attack 252 / 266 252. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 253 / 266 253. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Ropinirole C. Pramipexole D. Tiagabine 254 / 266 254. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 255 / 266 255. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 256 / 266 256. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Pyramidal signs D. Facial nerve palsy 257 / 266 257. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Abducens palsy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Polyneuropathy 258 / 266 258. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 259 / 266 259. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 260 / 266 260. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 261 / 266 261. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Ocular myopathy D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 262 / 266 262. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. Proprioception C. Cerebellar functions D. EMG 263 / 266 263. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Carotid artery occlusion D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 264 / 266 264. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Hypoglycaemic coma 265 / 266 265. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Small, spastic tongue D. Sudden onset 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Spastic tongue D. Dysphagia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology