Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 2 / 266 2. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Absent tendon reflexes 3 / 266 3. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Valproate C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam 4 / 266 4. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Cervical rib D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 5 / 266 5. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 6 / 266 6. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Phobia 7 / 266 7. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Huntington's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 8 / 266 8. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Parkinsonism D. Myxoedema 9 / 266 9. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Marathon runner D. Hypoglycaemic coma 10 / 266 10. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Nitrofurantoin C. Vincristine D. Methotrexate 11 / 266 11. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Seen in tall, thin people D. Quite often remits spontaneously 12 / 266 12. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 13 / 266 13. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Duchenne myopathy D. Hysteria 14 / 266 14. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Putamen C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 15 / 266 15. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Pineal body C. Choroid plexus D. Dura matter 16 / 266 16. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 17 / 266 17. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Cerebral diplegia 18 / 266 18. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 19 / 266 19. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 20 / 266 20. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cerebral palsy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 21 / 266 21. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Periodic paralysis 22 / 266 22. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Reserpine C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Oral contraceptive pills 23 / 266 23. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Immunoglobulin D. Interferon 24 / 266 24. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 25 / 266 25. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. Shagreen patch D. White spots over trunk and limbs 26 / 266 26. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 27 / 266 27. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Pituitary tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Calcification within a lesion 28 / 266 28. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 29 / 266 29. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Brain tumour D. Gradenigo's syndrome 30 / 266 30. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Ocular myopathy 31 / 266 31. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Alcohol withdrawal 32 / 266 32. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 33 / 266 33. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 34 / 266 34. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myopathy 35 / 266 35. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Myasthenia Gravis 36 / 266 36. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Extensor plantar response C. Emotional incontinence D. Masked facies 37 / 266 37. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 38 / 266 38. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 39 / 266 39. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tay-Sachs disease 40 / 266 40. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 41 / 266 41. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 24 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 42 / 266 42. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Optic neuritis C. SIADH D. Pseudobulbar palsy 43 / 266 43. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 44 / 266 44. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Amiodarone C. Ethambutol D. Chloroquine 45 / 266 45. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Atenolol C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 46 / 266 46. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Succinylcholine C. Halothane D. Dantrolene 47 / 266 47. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Cerebral cortex C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 48 / 266 48. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Visual hallucinations C. Passivity feelings D. Early onset 49 / 266 49. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Hysteria C. Tetanus D. Meningism 50 / 266 50. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 51 / 266 51. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tuberculous meningitis 52 / 266 52. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Increased tone 53 / 266 53. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 54 / 266 54. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Gonda sign D. Rossolimo's sign 55 / 266 55. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Trimipramine C. Chlorpromazine D. Benzodiazepine 56 / 266 56. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Paraesthesia 57 / 266 57. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Immune disorder 58 / 266 58. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 59 / 266 59. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich's ataxia 60 / 266 60. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myositis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 61 / 266 61. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Infantile spasm C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 62 / 266 62. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 63 / 266 63. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 64 / 266 64. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 65 / 266 65. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Cerebral cortex 66 / 266 66. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Deafness 67 / 266 67. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 68 / 266 68. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Ataxia C. Diarrhoea D. Hypothyroidism 69 / 266 69. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 70 / 266 70. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Mamillary bodies 71 / 266 71. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Acute renal failure C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Oesophagitis 72 / 266 72. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Mental retardation C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Choreoathetosis 73 / 266 73. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Loss of immediate recall C. Confabulation D. Retrograde amnesia 74 / 266 74. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 75 / 266 75. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 76 / 266 76. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. Sensory functions 77 / 266 77. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Deep coma C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 78 / 266 78. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Midbrain C. Upper pons D. Medulla 79 / 266 79. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Myoclonus C. Dystonia D. Chorea 80 / 266 80. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Huntington's chorea D. Shy-Drager syndrome 81 / 266 81. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 82 / 266 82. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Quinolones 83 / 266 83. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 84 / 266 84. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 85 / 266 85. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1,S2 86 / 266 86. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 87 / 266 87. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Arrhythmia 88 / 266 88. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 89 / 266 89. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Sudden onset C. Babinski's sign D. Small, spastic tongue 90 / 266 90. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Sylvian fissure C. Olfactory groove D. Over visual cortex 91 / 266 91. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Ankle clonus C. Glossitis D. Anemia 92 / 266 92. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Pectoralis major C. Deltoid D. Calf muscles 93 / 266 93. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 94 / 266 94. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Athetosis 95 / 266 95. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 96 / 266 96. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Botulism C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 97 / 266 97. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Pons 98 / 266 98. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Abducens palsy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 99 / 266 99. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 100 / 266 100. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Apraxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 101 / 266 101. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 102 / 266 102. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Gaucher's disease C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 103 / 266 103. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 104 / 266 104. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Convulsions C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Blindness 105 / 266 105. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Huntington's chorea C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Post-encephalitic 106 / 266 106. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Myotonia D. Manual labourers 107 / 266 107. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Head injury C. Transient ischemic attack D. Epilepsy 108 / 266 108. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Oculomotor nerve D. Ciliary ganglion 109 / 266 109. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Enophthalmos C. Complete ptosis D. Constricted pupil 110 / 266 110. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. von Recklinghausen's disease 111 / 266 111. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 112 / 266 112. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Xth D. Vth 113 / 266 113. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. IV mannitol C. 5% dextrose D. Glucocorticoids 114 / 266 114. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Occipital 115 / 266 115. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 116 / 266 116. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Hyperthyroidism 117 / 266 117. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Leprosy C. Ethambutol D. Multiple sclerosis 118 / 266 118. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 119 / 266 119. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 120 / 266 120. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Polymyositis 121 / 266 121. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 122 / 266 122. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrigine D. Lubeluzole 123 / 266 123. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Cervical spine C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 124 / 266 124. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Diphtheria C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Tetanus 125 / 266 125. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Mania C. Cluster headache D. SIADH 126 / 266 126. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Glioblastoma 127 / 266 127. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Presence of nystagmus D. Confabulation 128 / 266 128. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 129 / 266 129. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 130 / 266 130. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Pramipexole C. Rasagiline D. Tiagabine 131 / 266 131. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 132 / 266 132. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Multiple sclerosis 133 / 266 133. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Putamen D. Thalamus 134 / 266 134. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 135 / 266 135. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trochlear nerve D. Facial nerve 136 / 266 136. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 137 / 266 137. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Hypertonia C. Absent deep reflexes D. Coma 138 / 266 138. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Tuberculosis 139 / 266 139. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Myotonic pupil 140 / 266 140. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 141 / 266 141. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 142 / 266 142. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 143 / 266 143. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Ventral pons 144 / 266 144. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Graphesthesia C. Two-point localisation D. Perceptual rivalry 145 / 266 145. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Lacunar infarction 146 / 266 146. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 147 / 266 147. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Negri bodies D. Asteroid bodies 148 / 266 148. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Sarcoidosis 149 / 266 149. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Acute transverse myelitis 150 / 266 150. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 151 / 266 151. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic neuropathy 152 / 266 152. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 153 / 266 153. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 154 / 266 154. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Phakomatosis C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Seizures 155 / 266 155. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Hyponatraemia D. Thyrotoxicosis 156 / 266 156. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 157 / 266 157. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Friedreich's ataxia 158 / 266 158. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Cerebral infarction 159 / 266 159. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. May be associated with malignancy C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 160 / 266 160. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 161 / 266 161. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Aphasia C. Acalculia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 162 / 266 162. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Headache 163 / 266 163. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 164 / 266 164. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Aortic incompetence C. Cerebellar disorder D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 165 / 266 165. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Fatty liver C. Livedo reticularis D. Seizures 166 / 266 166. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. T2 C. C8 D. T1 167 / 266 167. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Clopidogrel D. Pentoxifylline 168 / 266 168. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypoxia 169 / 266 169. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Encephalitis C. Epilepsy D. Febrile 170 / 266 170. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 171 / 266 171. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Monotonous speech C. Dysarthria D. Dysphonia 172 / 266 172. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 173 / 266 173. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Periorbital pain C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Male dominance 174 / 266 174. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 175 / 266 175. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Diplopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 176 / 266 176. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Cluster headache D. Syringobulbia 177 / 266 177. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 178 / 266 178. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. CT scan C. PET scan D. MRI scan 179 / 266 179. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 180 / 266 180. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 181 / 266 181. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Galactosaemia D. Wilson's disease 182 / 266 182. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Meningioma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 183 / 266 183. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Areflexia C. Apraxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 184 / 266 184. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 185 / 266 185. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Left atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 186 / 266 186. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Venous thrombosis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 187 / 266 187. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 188 / 266 188. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 189 / 266 189. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Ependymoma C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral lymphoma 190 / 266 190. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Clonus C. Spasticity D. Babinski's sign 191 / 266 191. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Mental retardation C. Limb shortening D. Anencephaly 192 / 266 192. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 193 / 266 193. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Emetine C. Lovastatin D. Zidovudine 194 / 266 194. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral haemorrhage 195 / 266 195. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Thrombocytopenia 196 / 266 196. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Kuru C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 197 / 266 197. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Severe heart failure 198 / 266 198. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 199 / 266 199. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Motor response C. Eye opening D. Verbal response 200 / 266 200. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 201 / 266 201. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Giant cell arteritis C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 202 / 266 202. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Myodonus C. Chorea D. Migraine 203 / 266 203. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 204 / 266 204. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Cord compression 205 / 266 205. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Atypical pneumonia C. Enteric fever D. Cerebral malaria 206 / 266 206. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Deep reflexes are depressed 207 / 266 207. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Peripheral neuropathy 208 / 266 208. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 209 / 266 209. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 210 / 266 210. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 211 / 266 211. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 212 / 266 212. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Meningism 213 / 266 213. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 214 / 266 214. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pseudolymphoma D. Cerebellar syndrome 215 / 266 215. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased deep reflexes D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 216 / 266 216. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 217 / 266 217. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Digitalis toxicity D. Cerebellar infarction 218 / 266 218. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Toxin C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 219 / 266 219. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 220 / 266 220. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Dementia in AIDS D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 221 / 266 221. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Selegiline 222 / 266 222. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Thiocyanates C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 223 / 266 223. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 224 / 266 224. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Involuntary movements C. Tone and power D. Nutrition of muscles 225 / 266 225. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 226 / 266 226. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 227 / 266 227. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 228 / 266 228. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Nasal regurgitation C. Dysarthria D. Spastic tongue 229 / 266 229. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 230 / 266 230. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. High places C. Strangers D. Animals 231 / 266 231. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 232 / 266 232. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Ataxia C. Horner's syndrome D. Hiccups 233 / 266 233. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Embolic C. Inflammatory D. Hemorrhagic 234 / 266 234. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 235 / 266 235. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Hepatic precoma 236 / 266 236. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Subacute combined degeneration 237 / 266 237. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Waddling gait 238 / 266 238. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 239 / 266 239. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 240 / 266 240. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hyperkaliemia 241 / 266 241. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Tunnel vision D. Homonymous hemianopia 242 / 266 242. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Haloperidol C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 243 / 266 243. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Albright's disease 244 / 266 244. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C6, 7 C. C4, 5 D. C3, 4 245 / 266 245. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 246 / 266 246. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Arsenic D. Alcohol 247 / 266 247. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 248 / 266 248. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Subdural hematoma 249 / 266 249. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 250 / 266 250. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Diplopia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 251 / 266 251. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Malignant hypertension C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 252 / 266 252. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 253 / 266 253. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Myopathy C. Encephalitis D. Neuropathy 254 / 266 254. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Ataxia C. Osteomalacia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 255 / 266 255. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Chronic motor neuron disease 256 / 266 256. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Pick's disease 257 / 266 257. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Looking in front 258 / 266 258. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypervitaminosis D 259 / 266 259. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syringomyelia 260 / 266 260. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Rabies C. Myasthenia gravis D. Poliomyelitis 261 / 266 261. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 262 / 266 262. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 263 / 266 263. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 264 / 266 264. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Normal intellectual activity C. Ataxia D. Dementia 265 / 266 265. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Platybasia C. Dolichocephaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 266 / 266 266. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Takayasu's disease D. Polycystic kidney LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology