Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Huge ascites C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Advanced pregnancy 2 / 266 2. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Cyclophosphamide C. Corticosteroid D. Immunoglobulin 3 / 266 3. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 4 / 266 4. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 5 / 266 5. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 6 / 266 6. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Deep Jaundice 7 / 266 7. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 8 / 266 8. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Poliomyelitis C. Rabies D. Snakebite 9 / 266 9. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Poliomyelitis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 10 / 266 10. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hysteria 11 / 266 11. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 12 / 266 12. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Mamillary bodies D. Temporal lobe 13 / 266 13. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Patchy arachnoiditis 14 / 266 14. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Perspiration C. Visual hallucinations D. Tremor 15 / 266 15. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 16 / 266 16. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Hyponatraemia 17 / 266 17. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basilar artery thrombosis 18 / 266 18. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 19 / 266 19. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Headache 20 / 266 20. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypercalcemia 21 / 266 21. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Negri bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Asteroid bodies 22 / 266 22. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Dysphagia D. Spastic tongue 23 / 266 23. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. 5% dextrose 24 / 266 24. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Presence of nystagmus D. Loss of recent memory 25 / 266 25. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 26 / 266 26. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 27 / 266 27. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Acalculia D. Apraxia 28 / 266 28. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Botulism C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 29 / 266 29. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 30 / 266 30. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Trigeminal neuralgia 31 / 266 31. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 32 / 266 32. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cataract C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Multiple sclerosis 33 / 266 33. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Intact proprioception D. Increased tone 34 / 266 34. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 35 / 266 35. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 36 / 266 36. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Dantrolene C. Succinylcholine D. Methoxyflurane 37 / 266 37. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Athetosis C. Myotonia D. Tetany 38 / 266 38. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Subacute combined degeneration 39 / 266 39. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. PET scan C. CT scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 40 / 266 40. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell's palsy C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Syringobulbia 41 / 266 41. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 42 / 266 42. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Malignant hypertension C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 43 / 266 43. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Loss of accommodation C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Abducens palsy 44 / 266 44. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 45 / 266 45. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Botulinus poisoning C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae group snake bite 46 / 266 46. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 47 / 266 47. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Lower pons C. Upper pons D. Midbrain 48 / 266 48. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 49 / 266 49. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Refsum's disease D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 50 / 266 50. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Mental retardation 51 / 266 51. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Myodonus C. Chorea D. Migraine 52 / 266 52. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. High protein content D. Xanthochromia 53 / 266 53. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Convulsions D. Focal neuro deficit 54 / 266 54. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. High places C. Strangers D. Pain 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Normal reflexes C. Rigidity D. Tremor 56 / 266 56. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Dementia 57 / 266 57. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 58 / 266 58. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Tetanus D. Quinsy 59 / 266 59. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peripheral neuropathy 60 / 266 60. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Tabes dorsalis 61 / 266 61. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 62 / 266 62. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Over visual cortex C. Sylvian fissure D. Cerebello-pontine angle 63 / 266 63. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 64 / 266 64. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Sudden onset C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Small, spastic tongue 65 / 266 65. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 66 / 266 66. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Vagus nerve 67 / 266 67. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Selegiline 68 / 266 68. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Aortic incompetence D. Cerebellar disorder 69 / 266 69. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Putamen 70 / 266 70. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Glioma C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral lymphoma 71 / 266 71. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 72 / 266 72. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Muscle enzyme study C. Muscle biopsy D. Nerve conduction study 73 / 266 73. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 74 / 266 74. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Cerebral palsy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Leucodystrophy 75 / 266 75. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Toxin 76 / 266 76. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased deep reflexes D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 77 / 266 77. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Aflatoxin D. Thiocyanates 78 / 266 78. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 79 / 266 79. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. After epileptic seizure C. Meningism D. Tetanus 80 / 266 80. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Wasting of muscles D. Proximal muscle weakness 81 / 266 81. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ocular myopathy C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Diabetes mellitus 82 / 266 82. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Parkinsonism C. Gynaecomastia D. Acromegaly 83 / 266 83. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 84 / 266 84. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 85 / 266 85. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cortex C. Cervical spine D. Internal capsule 86 / 266 86. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Deafness B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 87 / 266 87. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-13 88 / 266 88. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Eye opening C. Verbal response D. Motor response 89 / 266 89. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Peripheral neuropathy 90 / 266 90. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. SIADH C. Convulsions D. Optic neuritis 91 / 266 91. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Paralysis C. Hypothermia D. Pin-point pupil 92 / 266 92. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Parkinsonism 93 / 266 93. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 94 / 266 94. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Coma C. Facial weakness D. Aphasia 95 / 266 95. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Midbrain lesion 96 / 266 96. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Central scotoma 97 / 266 97. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Mass reflex C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 98 / 266 98. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 99 / 266 99. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vth C. Vllth D. Xth 100 / 266 100. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Meningioma D. Ependymoma 101 / 266 101. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Pramipexole C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 102 / 266 102. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Cerebellar disorder C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 103 / 266 103. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Onycholysis C. Ataxia D. Diarrhoea 104 / 266 104. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. May be associated with malignancy D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 105 / 266 105. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluvoxamine C. Paroxetine D. Fluoxetine 106 / 266 106. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Topiramate C. Diazepam D. Ethosuximide 107 / 266 107. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Vincristine 108 / 266 108. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 109 / 266 109. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Meningism D. Acoustic neurofibroma 110 / 266 110. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Leprosy C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 111 / 266 111. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Dysarthria C. Monotonous speech D. Aphasia 112 / 266 112. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Masked facies C. Extensor plantar response D. Emotional incontinence 113 / 266 113. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 114 / 266 114. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Apraxia D. Areflexia 115 / 266 115. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Cerebellar functions C. EMG D. Sensory functions 116 / 266 116. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Schizophrenia C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Mania 117 / 266 117. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Ocular myopathy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 118 / 266 118. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Fasciculations C. Clonus D. Spasticity 119 / 266 119. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic C. Astrocytoma D. Glioblastoma 120 / 266 120. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Benzodiazepine D. Trimipramine 121 / 266 121. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. C8 C. T4 D. T2 122 / 266 122. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Absence seizures D. Tonic seizures 123 / 266 123. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 124 / 266 124. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Reserpine D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 125 / 266 125. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Loss of immediate recall C. Confabulation D. Defect in learning 126 / 266 126. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Oculomotor nerve 127 / 266 127. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Common migraine has aura D. Hereditary predisposition 128 / 266 128. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 129 / 266 129. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 130 / 266 130. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Lead D. Arsenic 131 / 266 131. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Calcification within a lesion C. Multiple sclerosis D. Posterior fossa tumors 132 / 266 132. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 133 / 266 133. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hypothyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 134 / 266 134. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hyponatremia 135 / 266 135. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Hyperpyrexia D. Pseudoparkinsonism 136 / 266 136. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Myopathy D. Sarcoidosis 137 / 266 137. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 138 / 266 138. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 139 / 266 139. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 140 / 266 140. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Retention of urine C. Coma D. Absent deep reflexes 141 / 266 141. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 142 / 266 142. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV mannitol C. IV frusemide D. Dexamethasone 143 / 266 143. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 144 / 266 144. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C5, 6 C. C3, 4 D. C4, 5 145 / 266 145. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 146 / 266 146. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 147 / 266 147. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Acute renal failure C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Oesophagitis 148 / 266 148. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Dysphasia C. Seizures D. Paraesthesia 149 / 266 149. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 150 / 266 150. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 151 / 266 151. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 152 / 266 152. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 153 / 266 153. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Neuropathy D. Encephalitis 154 / 266 154. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Arrhythmia 155 / 266 155. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 156 / 266 156. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Sensory dysfunction C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Loss of ankle jerk 157 / 266 157. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 158 / 266 158. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Tone and power C. Nutrition of muscles D. Involuntary movements 159 / 266 159. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 160 / 266 160. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Acromegaly C. Infertility D. Parkinsonism 161 / 266 161. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 162 / 266 162. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Cerebral embolism 163 / 266 163. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Febrile 164 / 266 164. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Taboparesis C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Hepatic precoma 165 / 266 165. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 166 / 266 166. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Complex partial 167 / 266 167. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 168 / 266 168. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Ethambutol C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 169 / 266 169. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Felbamate C. Lamotrigine D. Lubeluzole 170 / 266 170. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Gradenigo's syndrome 171 / 266 171. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 172 / 266 172. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Polycystic kidney 173 / 266 173. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 174 / 266 174. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Punch-drunk syndrome 175 / 266 175. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 176 / 266 176. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Meningioma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 177 / 266 177. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Frontal 178 / 266 178. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Thrombocytopenia 179 / 266 179. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Systemic hypertension C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. AV malformations 180 / 266 180. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 181 / 266 181. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Subdural hematoma C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Pickwickian syndrome 182 / 266 182. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Nystagmus C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Aphasia 183 / 266 183. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Graphesthesia C. Two-point localisation D. Perceptual rivalry 184 / 266 184. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypertonia 185 / 266 185. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Osteomalacia 186 / 266 186. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 187 / 266 187. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Chorea C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 188 / 266 188. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Choroid plexus C. Pineal body D. Basal ganglia 189 / 266 189. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumor C. Multiple sclerosis D. Tuberculous meningitis 190 / 266 190. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Polymyositis 191 / 266 191. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Lacunar infarction D. Cerebral atrophy 192 / 266 192. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cervical spondylosis 193 / 266 193. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Anemia C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 194 / 266 194. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Epilepsy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 195 / 266 195. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Immune disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 196 / 266 196. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Myotonia C. Athletes D. Manual labourers 197 / 266 197. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetes mellitus 198 / 266 198. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 199 / 266 199. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Botulism D. Horner's syndrome 200 / 266 200. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 201 / 266 201. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Cocaine C. Amphetamines D. Carbamazepine 202 / 266 202. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Pectoralis major C. Deltoid D. Infraspinatus 203 / 266 203. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Pyramidal signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Cerebellar signs 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 205 / 266 205. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 206 / 266 206. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral thrombosis 207 / 266 207. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Seizures 208 / 266 208. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 209 / 266 209. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Epilepsy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebellar infarction 210 / 266 210. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 211 / 266 211. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Reading a book D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 212 / 266 212. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Mania D. Paranoia 213 / 266 213. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Anencephaly D. Mental retardation 214 / 266 214. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Pseudolymphoma C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Megaloblastic anemia 215 / 266 215. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Myotonic pupil C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Application of pilocarpine drops 216 / 266 216. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Weber-Christian disease C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Tuberous sclerosis 217 / 266 217. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Has a good prognosis in children 218 / 266 218. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Viral meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 219 / 266 219. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Anal reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Snout reflex 220 / 266 220. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Periorbital pain D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 221 / 266 221. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 222 / 266 222. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Multiple sclerosis C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Pinealomas 223 / 266 223. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 224 / 266 224. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 225 / 266 225. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 226 / 266 226. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy D. Motor neuron disease 227 / 266 227. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Niemann-Pick disease 228 / 266 228. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. TOCP poisoning 229 / 266 229. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Sumatriptan 230 / 266 230. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia 231 / 266 231. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 232 / 266 232. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Polycythaemia vera D. Mania 233 / 266 233. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 234 / 266 234. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 235 / 266 235. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Steroid myopathy 236 / 266 236. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Mental retardation 237 / 266 237. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Wilson's disease 238 / 266 238. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Demyelinating 239 / 266 239. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive 240 / 266 240. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Agraphia 241 / 266 241. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 96 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 242 / 266 242. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1 C. L5,S1 D. S1,S2 243 / 266 243. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Pompholyx C. Shagreen patch D. Adenoma sebaceum 244 / 266 244. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 245 / 266 245. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Head injury C. Epilepsy D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 246 / 266 246. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Aura phase of migraine C. Digitalis toxicity D. Lesion in visual cortex 247 / 266 247. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Diplopia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 248 / 266 248. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Enophthalmos C. Constricted pupil D. Complete ptosis 249 / 266 249. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents rebleeding 250 / 266 250. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 251 / 266 251. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 252 / 266 252. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Polymyositis D. Patent ductus arteriosus 253 / 266 253. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Depression C. Passivity feelings D. Visual hallucinations 254 / 266 254. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 255 / 266 255. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Oculomotor palsy D. Hutchinson's pupil 256 / 266 256. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 257 / 266 257. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Ticlopidine C. Clopidogrel D. Pentoxifylline 258 / 266 258. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Gonda sign D. Babinski's sign 259 / 266 259. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 260 / 266 260. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Ventral pons C. Cortex D. Thalamus 261 / 266 261. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 262 / 266 262. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. Pneumococcus 263 / 266 263. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Weakness and spasticity 264 / 266 264. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Cerebral cortex 265 / 266 265. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Urinary incontinence C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 266 / 266 266. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. 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