Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Drop attacks D. Diplopia 2 / 266 2. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Botulism C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 3 / 266 3. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Poliomyelitis 4 / 266 4. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Leucodystrophy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Alzheimer's disease 5 / 266 5. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Refsum's disease D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 6 / 266 6. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Dura matter 7 / 266 7. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Valproate C. Ethosuximide D. Topiramate 8 / 266 8. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 9 / 266 9. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Hyperthyroidism C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 10 / 266 10. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Caudate nucleus C. Substantia nigra D. Red nucleus 11 / 266 11. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Mania 12 / 266 12. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Pinealomas C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 13 / 266 13. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Midbrain 14 / 266 14. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 15 / 266 15. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Retrograde amnesia D. Defect in learning 16 / 266 16. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pseudolymphoma 17 / 266 17. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Stereognosis C. Tone and power D. Nutrition of muscles 18 / 266 18. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Ventral pons 19 / 266 19. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 20 / 266 20. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. SIADH 21 / 266 21. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Myoclonic seizures D. Tonic seizures 22 / 266 22. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 23 / 266 23. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ocular myopathy C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Diabetes mellitus 24 / 266 24. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Sylvian fissure D. Over visual cortex 25 / 266 25. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Ataxia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 26 / 266 26. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Syringobulbia D. Cluster headache 27 / 266 27. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Nasal regurgitation C. Dysphagia D. Spastic tongue 28 / 266 28. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 29 / 266 29. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 30 / 266 30. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Hyperpyrexia 31 / 266 31. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syphilis 32 / 266 32. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Duodenal stenosis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Patent ductus arteriosus 33 / 266 33. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Tetanus C. Diphtheria D. Quinsy 34 / 266 34. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Wilson's disease C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Rheumatic fever 35 / 266 35. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Amyloidosis 36 / 266 36. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Viral meningitis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 37 / 266 37. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 38 / 266 38. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. High protein content D. Xanthochromia 39 / 266 39. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 40 / 266 40. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Graphesthesia D. Vibration sensation 41 / 266 41. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Malignant hypertension D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 42 / 266 42. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Enophthalmos C. Constricted pupil D. Complete ptosis 43 / 266 43. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Ocular myopathy D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 44 / 266 44. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Poliomyelitis 45 / 266 45. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Viral meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 46 / 266 46. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Cerebellar disorder D. Pontine glioma 47 / 266 47. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Horner's syndrome C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Oculomotor palsy 48 / 266 48. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Pompholyx D. Adenoma sebaceum 49 / 266 49. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Hemorrhagic C. Demyelinating D. Inflammatory 50 / 266 50. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Cerebral atrophy D. Lacunar infarction 51 / 266 51. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Focal neuro deficit D. Convulsions 52 / 266 52. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Neurofibroma 53 / 266 53. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 54 / 266 54. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Osteomalacia D. Ataxia 55 / 266 55. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Emotional excitement D. Systemic hypertension 56 / 266 56. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Myopathy D. Sarcoidosis 57 / 266 57. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 58 / 266 58. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Deltoid D. Pectoralis major 59 / 266 59. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Intact proprioception D. Sensory ataxia 60 / 266 60. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Aflatoxin 61 / 266 61. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Tuberous sclerosis 62 / 266 62. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Pituitary tumors 63 / 266 63. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Carotid artery occlusion 64 / 266 64. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 65 / 266 65. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Lathyrism 66 / 266 66. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 67 / 266 67. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia 68 / 266 68. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 69 / 266 69. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Toxin 70 / 266 70. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Vincristine D. Alcohol 71 / 266 71. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Carbamazepine C. Cocaine D. Flumazenil 72 / 266 72. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 73 / 266 73. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hyponatremia 74 / 266 74. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Strangers C. Pain D. Animals 75 / 266 75. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 76 / 266 76. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Dystonia 77 / 266 77. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 78 / 266 78. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumor D. Tuberculous meningitis 79 / 266 79. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 80 / 266 80. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Tremor 81 / 266 81. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Sarcoidosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Infectious mononucleosis 82 / 266 82. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Nystagmus C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 83 / 266 83. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 84 / 266 84. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 85 / 266 85. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Brain tumour 86 / 266 86. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluoxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Sertraline 87 / 266 87. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 88 / 266 88. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 24 hours C. 96 hours D. 2 weeks 89 / 266 89. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Reading a book 90 / 266 90. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Zidovudine C. Emetine D. Lovastatin 91 / 266 91. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulinus poisoning D. Lathyrism 92 / 266 92. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Ataxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Areflexia 93 / 266 93. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Brain tumor 94 / 266 94. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Peripheral neuropathy 95 / 266 95. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Mania C. Paranoia D. Phobia 96 / 266 96. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Chorea C. Myodonus D. Migraine 97 / 266 97. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Dementia in AIDS C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Hysterical gait disorder 98 / 266 98. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 99 / 266 99. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Loss of recent memory C. Confabulation D. Presence of nystagmus 100 / 266 100. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents rebleeding C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents vasospasm 101 / 266 101. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 102 / 266 102. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 103 / 266 103. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cataract C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Multiple sclerosis 104 / 266 104. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Ropinirole C. Rasagiline D. Pramipexole 105 / 266 105. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 106 / 266 106. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercalcemia 107 / 266 107. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Livedo reticularis C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 108 / 266 108. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Diabetes mellitus 109 / 266 109. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Anal reflex 110 / 266 110. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 111 / 266 111. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 112 / 266 112. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Albright's disease 113 / 266 113. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. May occur spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 114 / 266 114. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Central scotoma C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Bitemporal hemianopi 115 / 266 115. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Meningism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 116 / 266 116. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Hyperkinesia C. Tremor D. Rigidity 117 / 266 117. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 118 / 266 118. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 119 / 266 119. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Cerebellar signs C. Pyramidal signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 120 / 266 120. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5,S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5 121 / 266 121. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Pentoxifylline C. Aspirin D. Clopidogrel 122 / 266 122. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-18 D. Turner's syndrome 123 / 266 123. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Cerebellar infarction C. Multiple sclerosis D. Epilepsy 124 / 266 124. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Steroid myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 125 / 266 125. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. MRI scan C. PET scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 126 / 266 126. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 127 / 266 127. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 128 / 266 128. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Babinski's sign C. Sudden onset D. Brisk jaw jerk 129 / 266 129. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 130 / 266 130. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syringomyelia 131 / 266 131. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Parkinsonism D. Gross pedal oedema 132 / 266 132. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 133 / 266 133. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Obesity 134 / 266 134. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Acute renal failure 135 / 266 135. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Absence of root pain 136 / 266 136. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 137 / 266 137. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Optic glioma C. Scoliosis D. Acoustic neuroma 138 / 266 138. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 139 / 266 139. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Clomipramine C. Lithium D. Haloperidol 140 / 266 140. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Papilledema C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Infarction of occipital lobe 141 / 266 141. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Polycystic kidney C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 142 / 266 142. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 143 / 266 143. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Verapamil C. Sumatriptan D. Phenytoin 144 / 266 144. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Choreoathetosis D. Mental retardation 145 / 266 145. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 146 / 266 146. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 147 / 266 147. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Hydrosis + miosis 148 / 266 148. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lamotrigine C. Vigabatrin D. Lubeluzole 149 / 266 149. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Hypothermia D. Disconjugate gaze 150 / 266 150. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 151 / 266 151. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 152 / 266 152. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Facial weakness 153 / 266 153. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Hysteria D. Peripheral neuropathy 154 / 266 154. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Hiccups C. Horner's syndrome D. Pyramidal lesion 155 / 266 155. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Titubation D. Hypertonia 156 / 266 156. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 157 / 266 157. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 158 / 266 158. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 159 / 266 159. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diarrhoea C. Ataxia D. Onycholysis 160 / 266 160. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 161 / 266 161. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Hysteria D. Tetanus 162 / 266 162. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 163 / 266 163. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Weil's disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Enteric fever 164 / 266 164. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 165 / 266 165. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 166 / 266 166. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Occipital 167 / 266 167. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Gynaecomastia C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 168 / 266 168. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Coma C. Hypertonia D. Absent deep reflexes 169 / 266 169. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Oculomotor palsy 170 / 266 170. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Weber-Christian disease 171 / 266 171. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Complex partial C. Infantile spasm D. Petit mal 172 / 266 172. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vth C. Vllth D. IIIrd 173 / 266 173. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 174 / 266 174. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Oculomotor nerve 175 / 266 175. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV mannitol C. IV quinine D. Glucocorticoids 176 / 266 176. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Optic nerv 177 / 266 177. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Pure sensory stroke C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 178 / 266 178. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Pick's disease 179 / 266 179. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 180 / 266 180. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 181 / 266 181. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Ocular muscles 182 / 266 182. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 183 / 266 183. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 184 / 266 184. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Cervical rib C. Myopathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 185 / 266 185. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 186 / 266 186. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. C8 C. T1 D. T2 187 / 266 187. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 188 / 266 188. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Negri bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Lewy bodies 189 / 266 189. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 190 / 266 190. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Polycythaemia vera D. Mania 191 / 266 191. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Arrhythmia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 192 / 266 192. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Altered consciousness C. Convulsions D. Non-projectile vomiting 193 / 266 193. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Babinski's sign 194 / 266 194. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Depression C. Early onset D. Visual hallucinations 195 / 266 195. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Acute myocardial infarction 196 / 266 196. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Dysarthria 197 / 266 197. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Seizures C. Diplopia D. Paraesthesia 198 / 266 198. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 199 / 266 199. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Extensor plantar response D. Emotional incontinence 200 / 266 200. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral thrombosis 201 / 266 201. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Pindolol 202 / 266 202. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Apraxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 203 / 266 203. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Glossitis D. Anemia 205 / 266 205. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Trypanosomiasis C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Subdural hematoma 206 / 266 206. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. Pneumococcus C. E. coli D. H. influenzae 207 / 266 207. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 208 / 266 208. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Nerve conduction study C. Muscle enzyme study D. Electromyography 209 / 266 209. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 210 / 266 210. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 211 / 266 211. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 212 / 266 212. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Medulloblastoma 213 / 266 213. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Digitalis toxicity C. Aura phase of migraine D. Cerebellar infarction 214 / 266 214. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Increased deep reflexes 215 / 266 215. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Midbrain C. Upper pons D. Lower pons 216 / 266 216. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 217 / 266 217. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Absent superficial reflex C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Equivocal plantar response 218 / 266 218. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myopathy C. Encephalitis D. Myelopathy 219 / 266 219. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Wilson's disease C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Galactosaemia 220 / 266 220. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Head injury C. Transient ischemic attack D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 221 / 266 221. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV frusemide D. IV mannitol 222 / 266 222. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 223 / 266 223. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Putamen 224 / 266 224. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Post-encephalitic 225 / 266 225. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Rabies C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 226 / 266 226. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 227 / 266 227. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Corpus striatum D. Frontal lobe 228 / 266 228. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 229 / 266 229. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 230 / 266 230. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 231 / 266 231. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Brainstem 232 / 266 232. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Cyclophosphamide D. Interferon 233 / 266 233. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Deafness D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 234 / 266 234. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Alcoholism D. Wilson's disease 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hemicranial headache C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common in women 236 / 266 236. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 237 / 266 237. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Proximal muscle weakness 238 / 266 238. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Motor response C. Autonomic response D. Verbal response 239 / 266 239. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 240 / 266 240. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 241 / 266 241. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Multiple tics C. Relief by haloperidol D. Dementia 242 / 266 242. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 243 / 266 243. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 245 / 266 245. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Epilepsy D. Cataplexy 246 / 266 246. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 247 / 266 247. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 248 / 266 248. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Pons 249 / 266 249. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 250 / 266 250. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebral diplegia D. Motor neuron disease 251 / 266 251. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 252 / 266 252. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 253 / 266 253. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Acromegaly C. Alzheimer's disease D. Parkinsonism 254 / 266 254. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Vincristine C. INH D. Methotrexate 255 / 266 255. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Polyneuropathy D. Myositis 256 / 266 256. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Epilepsy C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 257 / 266 257. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Botulism D. Periodic paralysis 258 / 266 258. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Deep Jaundice C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 259 / 266 259. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 260 / 266 260. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 261 / 266 261. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Duchenne myopathy 262 / 266 262. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tay-Sachs disease 263 / 266 263. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 264 / 266 264. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud's disease C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 265 / 266 265. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Periorbital pain C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. 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