Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Myopathy 2 / 266 2. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Onycholysis 3 / 266 3. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lubeluzole C. Lamotrigine D. Felbamate 4 / 266 4. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Rabies C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 5 / 266 5. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyponatremia 6 / 266 6. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Duodenal stenosis 7 / 266 7. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 8 / 266 8. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 9 / 266 9. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Depression C. Visual hallucinations D. Passivity feelings 10 / 266 10. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Infertility 11 / 266 11. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Embolic C. Inflammatory D. Demyelinating 12 / 266 12. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Tuberculosis 13 / 266 13. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Apraxia D. Agnosia 14 / 266 14. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Myoclonus D. Chorea 15 / 266 15. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 16 / 266 16. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Dermatomyositis 17 / 266 17. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. Autonomic response 18 / 266 18. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 19 / 266 19. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Testicular atrophy 20 / 266 20. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Arrhythmia 21 / 266 21. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Altered consciousness D. Convulsions 22 / 266 22. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 23 / 266 23. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Immune disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 24 / 266 24. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Athletes C. Manual labourers D. Myotonia 25 / 266 25. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Weber-Christian disease 26 / 266 26. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Shy-Drager syndrome 27 / 266 27. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Digitalis toxicity D. Cerebellar infarction 28 / 266 28. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypokalemia 29 / 266 29. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Brainstem 30 / 266 30. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 31 / 266 31. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Disconjugate gaze C. Pin-point pupil D. Paralysis 32 / 266 32. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 33 / 266 33. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Vincristine C. Nitrofurantoin D. INH 34 / 266 34. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Spinal epidural abscess 35 / 266 35. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 36 / 266 36. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 37 / 266 37. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Caudate nucleus C. Putamen D. Red nucleus 38 / 266 38. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Radial nerve palsy C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 39 / 266 39. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cervical spondylosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia 40 / 266 40. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 41 / 266 41. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Probenecid C. Ethambutol D. Amiodarone 42 / 266 42. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Dantrolene D. Succinylcholine 43 / 266 43. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Cataplexy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Epilepsy 44 / 266 44. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 45 / 266 45. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Cyclophosphamide D. Interferon 46 / 266 46. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Taboparesis D. Friedreich' s ataxia 47 / 266 47. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pyogenic meningitis 48 / 266 48. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's chorea 49 / 266 49. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Retinal hemorrhage 50 / 266 50. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 51 / 266 51. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Ataxia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hypothyroidism 52 / 266 52. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 53 / 266 53. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Bell's palsy C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 54 / 266 54. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Sylvian fissure C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Olfactory groove 55 / 266 55. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 56 / 266 56. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 57 / 266 57. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 58 / 266 58. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 59 / 266 59. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 60 / 266 60. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Myotonic pupil 61 / 266 61. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 62 / 266 62. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Fatty liver C. Livedo reticularis D. Ankle oedema 63 / 266 63. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Parietal 64 / 266 64. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Amphetamines C. Flumazenil D. Carbamazepine 65 / 266 65. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Retention of urine C. Absent deep reflexes D. Coma 66 / 266 66. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 67 / 266 67. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Hysteria 68 / 266 68. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Myopathy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Polymyositis 69 / 266 69. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Oculomotor palsy 70 / 266 70. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 71 / 266 71. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Abducens palsy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Loss of accommodation 72 / 266 72. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Mania D. Schizophrenia 73 / 266 73. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Osteomalacia D. Hyperglycaemia 74 / 266 74. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Gross pedal oedema C. Parkinsonism D. Myxoedema 75 / 266 75. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 76 / 266 76. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Malignant exophthalmos 77 / 266 77. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 78 / 266 78. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Parietal lobe 79 / 266 79. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 80 / 266 80. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Negri bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Schaumann bodies 81 / 266 81. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Anal reflex 82 / 266 82. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Mania C. Phobia D. Paranoia 83 / 266 83. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Deafness B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 84 / 266 84. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Parkinsonism C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Cerebellar disorder 85 / 266 85. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Babinski's sign C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Sudden onset 86 / 266 86. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve 87 / 266 87. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 88 / 266 88. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 89 / 266 89. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 90 / 266 90. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pseudolymphoma D. Pendular nystagmus 91 / 266 91. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Oesophagitis D. Wallenberg's syndrome 92 / 266 92. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor plantar response D. Flexor spasm 93 / 266 93. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. IIIrd C. Xth D. Vllth 94 / 266 94. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hyponatremia 95 / 266 95. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Botulinus poisoning C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae group snake bite 96 / 266 96. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Reserpine C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Pindolol 97 / 266 97. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 98 / 266 98. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysphagia C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysarthria 99 / 266 99. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-13 D. Trisomy-21 100 / 266 100. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Platybasia D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 101 / 266 101. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Encephalitis C. Epilepsy D. Trauma 102 / 266 102. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Hysteria C. Duchenne myopathy D. Peripheral neuropathy 103 / 266 103. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Hyperthyroidism 104 / 266 104. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 105 / 266 105. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 106 / 266 106. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 107 / 266 107. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cataract C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Multiple sclerosis 108 / 266 108. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Vibration sensation D. Graphesthesia 109 / 266 109. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 110 / 266 110. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Metastatic 111 / 266 111. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Blindness D. Convulsions 112 / 266 112. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Ventral pons 113 / 266 113. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Wilson's disease C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 114 / 266 114. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Ependymoma 115 / 266 115. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Thiocyanates 116 / 266 116. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 117 / 266 117. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 2 weeks C. 96 hours D. 3 weeks 118 / 266 118. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 119 / 266 119. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Raynaud's disease 120 / 266 120. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Macrolides C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 121 / 266 121. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 122 / 266 122. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 123 / 266 123. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. MRI scan C. PET scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 124 / 266 124. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 125 / 266 125. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Visual hallucinations C. Tremor D. Perspiration 126 / 266 126. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 127 / 266 127. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 128 / 266 128. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Diplopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 129 / 266 129. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 130 / 266 130. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. L5,S1 C. S1,S2 D. S1 131 / 266 131. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Aspirin C. Ticlopidine D. Clopidogrel 132 / 266 132. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Internal capsule 133 / 266 133. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Takayasu's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 134 / 266 134. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Metoclopramide-induced 135 / 266 135. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 136 / 266 136. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Head trauma in professional boxers 137 / 266 137. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Sarcoidosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Infectious mononucleosis 138 / 266 138. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Diminished auditory acuity 139 / 266 139. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cerebral cortex 140 / 266 140. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Medulla 141 / 266 141. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Pompholyx C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Shagreen patch 142 / 266 142. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 143 / 266 143. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Muscle biopsy C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle enzyme study 144 / 266 144. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 145 / 266 145. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Optic nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 146 / 266 146. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Rubella panencephalitis 147 / 266 147. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Poliomyelitis 148 / 266 148. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. 5% dextrose C. IV quinine D. Glucocorticoids 149 / 266 149. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 150 / 266 150. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Head injury C. Transient ischemic attack D. Epilepsy 151 / 266 151. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Weakness and spasticity 152 / 266 152. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Retrograde amnesia C. Loss of immediate recall D. Confabulation 153 / 266 153. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Leukodystrophy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 154 / 266 154. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Putamen 155 / 266 155. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Ataxia C. Hiccups D. Horner's syndrome 156 / 266 156. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 157 / 266 157. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Brain tumour C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 158 / 266 158. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 159 / 266 159. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 160 / 266 160. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 161 / 266 161. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 162 / 266 162. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 163 / 266 163. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 164 / 266 164. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 165 / 266 165. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Hysteria 166 / 266 166. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 167 / 266 167. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Babinski's sign 168 / 266 168. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Coma C. Facial weakness D. Aphasia 169 / 266 169. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 170 / 266 170. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Sumatriptan 171 / 266 171. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Elapidae snake bite 172 / 266 172. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking in front D. Reading a book 173 / 266 173. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Convulsions D. Optic neuritis 174 / 266 174. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Trypanosomiasis D. Subdural hematoma 175 / 266 175. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Tremor C. Normal reflexes D. Hyperkinesia 176 / 266 176. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Poliomyelitis C. Transverse myelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 177 / 266 177. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Ethambutol 178 / 266 178. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Rheumatic fever D. Thyrotoxicosis 179 / 266 179. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. May be associated with malignancy D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 180 / 266 180. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Presence of nystagmus 181 / 266 181. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Male dominance D. Periorbital pain 182 / 266 182. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Apraxia C. Ataxia D. Areflexia 183 / 266 183. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 184 / 266 184. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Myositis D. Tabes dorsalis 185 / 266 185. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Tuberculous meningitis 186 / 266 186. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Encephalitis 187 / 266 187. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 188 / 266 188. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cervical spondylosis 189 / 266 189. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Electroconvulsive therapy 190 / 266 190. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 191 / 266 191. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 192 / 266 192. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Syringomyelia 193 / 266 193. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 194 / 266 194. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 195 / 266 195. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Myxoedema C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Alcohol 196 / 266 196. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Calcification within a lesion D. Pituitary tumors 197 / 266 197. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Dementia D. Urinary incontinence 198 / 266 198. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. After epileptic seizure 199 / 266 199. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 200 / 266 200. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 201 / 266 201. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Babinski's sign C. Glossitis D. Ankle clonus 202 / 266 202. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Myodonus C. Migraine D. Chorea 203 / 266 203. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Huge ascites C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Advanced pregnancy 204 / 266 204. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 205 / 266 205. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Lovastatin C. Zidovudine D. Febuxostat 206 / 266 206. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 207 / 266 207. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Emotional incontinence C. Extensor plantar response D. Flaccid dysarthria 208 / 266 208. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 209 / 266 209. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 210 / 266 210. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 211 / 266 211. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Corpus striatum 212 / 266 212. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Refsum's disease 213 / 266 213. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Ethosuximide 214 / 266 214. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Ciliary ganglion C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 215 / 266 215. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Haemochromatosis C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Galactosaemia 216 / 266 216. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common migraine has aura C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common in women 217 / 266 217. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 218 / 266 218. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Berry aneurysm rupture 219 / 266 219. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 220 / 266 220. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Parkinsonism 221 / 266 221. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Fluvoxamine C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 222 / 266 222. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 223 / 266 223. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 224 / 266 224. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Absence seizures D. Myoclonic seizures 225 / 266 225. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 226 / 266 226. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Neurosarcoidosis 227 / 266 227. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebellar infarction D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 228 / 266 228. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. Polycythaemia vera C. SIADH D. Mania 229 / 266 229. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 230 / 266 230. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Weil's disease C. Enteric fever D. Cerebral malaria 231 / 266 231. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 232 / 266 232. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Polymyositis 233 / 266 233. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Glioma C. Ependymoma D. Cerebral lymphoma 234 / 266 234. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ocular myopathy 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Aphasia 236 / 266 236. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Diplopia D. Drop attacks 237 / 266 237. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Dementia 238 / 266 238. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Venous thrombosis 239 / 266 239. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 240 / 266 240. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Papilloedema C. Aphasia D. Nystagmus 241 / 266 241. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Constricted pupil 242 / 266 242. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 243 / 266 243. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Cerebral palsy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 244 / 266 244. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 245 / 266 245. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Tetanus D. Diphtheria 246 / 266 246. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Central scotoma C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Homonymous hemianopia 247 / 266 247. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Xanthochromia C. Increased CSF pressure D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 248 / 266 248. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Animals C. Pain D. Strangers 249 / 266 249. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Carbamazepine C. Lithium D. Haloperidol 250 / 266 250. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Sensory dysfunction 251 / 266 251. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 252 / 266 252. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cervical spine C. Cortex D. Brainstem 253 / 266 253. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 254 / 266 254. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 255 / 266 255. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV frusemide D. IV mannitol 256 / 266 256. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 257 / 266 257. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Virus C. Toxin D. Bacteria 258 / 266 258. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Tetany C. Chorea D. Athetosis 259 / 266 259. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Dysphasia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 260 / 266 260. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 261 / 266 261. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C4, 5 C. C3, 4 D. C6, 7 262 / 266 262. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 263 / 266 263. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Pick's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 264 / 266 264. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Malignant hypertension D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 265 / 266 265. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cord compression 266 / 266 266. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Scoliosis C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology