Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 8 votes, 0 avg 34 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Diarrhoea C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 2 / 266 2. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright’s disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 3 / 266 3. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Urinary incontinence C. Normal intellectual activity D. Ataxia 4 / 266 4. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Hypothyroidism D. Thrombocytopenia 5 / 266 5. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Hysterical gait disorder 6 / 266 6. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myositis D. Polyneuropathy 7 / 266 7. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Cardiac tamponade 8 / 266 8. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 3 weeks C. 96 hours D. 2 weeks 9 / 266 9. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Rossolimo’s sign C. Babinski’s sign D. Chaddock’s sign 10 / 266 10. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Huntington’s chorea 11 / 266 11. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Lubeluzole C. Vigabatrin D. Felbamate 12 / 266 12. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Putamen C. Cerebellum D. Thalamus 13 / 266 13. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 14 / 266 14. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hyperkalemia D. Deep coma 15 / 266 15. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Proprioception C. Cerebellar functions D. Sensory functions 16 / 266 16. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Advanced pregnancy 17 / 266 17. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Dermatomyositis 18 / 266 18. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Rabies C. Myasthenia gravis D. Poliomyelitis 19 / 266 19. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Frontal baldness C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 20 / 266 20. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Sensory dysfunction 21 / 266 21. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Early Alzheimer’s disease D. Polymyositis 22 / 266 22. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud’s disease C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Involuntary movements C. Stereognosis D. Tone and power 24 / 266 24. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Electromyography C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle biopsy 25 / 266 25. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan’s syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Turner’s syndrome D. Down’s syndrome 26 / 266 26. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Depression C. Paranoia D. Mania 27 / 266 27. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 28 / 266 28. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Spinal epidural abscess 29 / 266 29. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Emotional excitement D. Systemic hypertension 30 / 266 30. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Abducens palsy C. Polyneuropathy D. Paralysis of soft palate 31 / 266 31. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Kuru C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 32 / 266 32. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Nystagmus C. Aphasia D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 33 / 266 33. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 34 / 266 34. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 35 / 266 35. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 36 / 266 36. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Peripheral neuropathy 37 / 266 37. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 38 / 266 38. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Selegiline 39 / 266 39. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Huntington’s chorea 40 / 266 40. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 41 / 266 41. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical’ choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically ‘neurofibrillary tangles’ are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 42 / 266 42. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 43 / 266 43. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Macrolides C. Quinolones D. Aminoglycosides 44 / 266 44. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Convulsions C. Optic neuritis D. SIADH 45 / 266 45. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum’s disease 46 / 266 46. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Cerebral palsy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Alzheimer’s disease 47 / 266 47. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 48 / 266 48. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. May be associated with malignancy D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron’s sign 49 / 266 49. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Mental retardation D. Limb shortening 50 / 266 50. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Cataplexy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Sleep paralysis 51 / 266 51. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Snout reflex 52 / 266 52. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 53 / 266 53. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 54 / 266 54. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Mikulicz’s syndrome D. Tuberculosis 55 / 266 55. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 56 / 266 56. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Oculomotor nerve C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 57 / 266 57. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Benzodiazepine 58 / 266 58. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 59 / 266 59. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 60 / 266 60. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 61 / 266 61. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu’s disease B. Polycystic kidney C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 62 / 266 62. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Neurosarcoidosis 63 / 266 63. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Presence of nystagmus C. Loss of recent memory D. Confabulation 64 / 266 64. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Lovastatin C. Febuxostat D. Zidovudine 65 / 266 65. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Syphilis 66 / 266 66. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Rigidity C. Tremor D. Normal reflexes 67 / 266 67. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Tunnel vision D. Homonymous hemianopia 68 / 266 68. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Left ventricular aneurysm 69 / 266 69. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Flexor spasm C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Mass reflex 70 / 266 70. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Hypothermia C. Paralysis D. Pin-point pupil 71 / 266 71. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Tetanus C. Quinsy D. Diphtheria 72 / 266 72. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Seizures C. Diplopia D. Dysphasia 73 / 266 73. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Diplopia D. Drop attacks 74 / 266 74. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vth C. Vllth D. Xth 75 / 266 75. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 76 / 266 76. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 77 / 266 77. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hyponatremia 78 / 266 78. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Visual hallucinations C. Depression D. Passivity feelings 79 / 266 79. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Diminished auditory acuity 80 / 266 80. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Obesity 81 / 266 81. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Calcification within a lesion D. Posterior fossa tumors 82 / 266 82. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Froin’s loculation syndrome 83 / 266 83. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Botulism D. Tabes dorsalis 84 / 266 84. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 85 / 266 85. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Pons 86 / 266 86. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa’s syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Gillespie’s syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 87 / 266 87. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 88 / 266 88. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 89 / 266 89. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing’s syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Chronic motor neuron disease 90 / 266 90. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Turner’s syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 91 / 266 91. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 92 / 266 92. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Dysarthria C. Monotonous speech D. Aphasia 93 / 266 93. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 94 / 266 94. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Galactorrhoea 95 / 266 95. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptive pills 96 / 266 96. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Fasciculations C. Spasticity D. Babinski’s sign 97 / 266 97. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Thalamus 98 / 266 98. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison’s disease 99 / 266 99. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Old age D. Myotonic pupil 100 / 266 100. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Pentoxifylline C. Clopidogrel D. Ticlopidine 101 / 266 101. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Amiodarone 102 / 266 102. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 103 / 266 103. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner’s syndrome B. Hiccups C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 104 / 266 104. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Mania D. Cluster headache 105 / 266 105. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 106 / 266 106. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Gross pedal oedema D. Parkinsonism 107 / 266 107. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. High places C. Animals D. Pain 108 / 266 108. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypercalcemia 109 / 266 109. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Pick’s disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 110 / 266 110. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5 D. S1 111 / 266 111. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Wilson’s disease D. Haemochromatosis 112 / 266 112. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. Pneumococcus 113 / 266 113. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil’s disease C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 114 / 266 114. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Arsenic D. Lead 115 / 266 115. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myopathy 116 / 266 116. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke’s encephalopathy 117 / 266 117. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. C8 C. T4 D. T2 118 / 266 118. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Wilson’s disease C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 119 / 266 119. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Tuberculous meningitis 120 / 266 120. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 121 / 266 121. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Looking in front C. Reading a book D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 122 / 266 122. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Aortic incompetence C. Cerebellar disorder D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 123 / 266 123. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Hemorrhagic D. Inflammatory 124 / 266 124. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Horner’s syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 125 / 266 125. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Astrocytoma C. Glioblastoma D. Meningioma 126 / 266 126. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral thrombosis 127 / 266 127. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Duchenne myopathy 128 / 266 128. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Blindness D. Focal neuro deficit 129 / 266 129. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Unequal pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 130 / 266 130. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Frontal C. Occipital D. Parietal 131 / 266 131. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Multiple sclerosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Peripheral neuropathy 132 / 266 132. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Mental retardation D. Seizures 133 / 266 133. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Sudden onset D. Babinski’s sign 134 / 266 134. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Dantrolene C. Methoxyflurane D. Succinylcholine 135 / 266 135. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Loss of immediate recall C. Defect in learning D. Confabulation 136 / 266 136. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 137 / 266 137. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Viral meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 138 / 266 138. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Olfactory groove C. Sylvian fissure D. Over visual cortex 139 / 266 139. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Optic glioma C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 140 / 266 140. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Anhidrosis C. Constricted pupil D. Enophthalmos 141 / 266 141. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Hypertonia C. Coma D. Absent deep reflexes 142 / 266 142. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Male dominance C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Periorbital pain 143 / 266 143. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypermetria C. Hypertonia D. Titubation 144 / 266 144. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Athetosis 145 / 266 145. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 146 / 266 146. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Equivocal plantar response C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Weakness and spasticity 147 / 266 147. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 148 / 266 148. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Pure sensory stroke C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 149 / 266 149. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Positive Queckenstedt’s test C. High protein content D. Increased CSF pressure 150 / 266 150. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Aflatoxin C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 151 / 266 151. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerv 152 / 266 152. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysarthria C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysphagia 153 / 266 153. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Polymyositis 154 / 266 154. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Amblyopia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Phenytoin toxicity 155 / 266 155. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 156 / 266 156. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syringomyelia D. Cervical spondylosis 157 / 266 157. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe 158 / 266 158. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 159 / 266 159. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. After epileptic seizure C. Hysteria D. Meningism 160 / 266 160. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents rebleeding D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 161 / 266 161. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 162 / 266 162. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Infraspinatus C. Calf muscles D. Deltoid 163 / 266 163. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Apraxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 164 / 266 164. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Extensor plantar response D. Masked facies 165 / 266 165. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Dystonia C. Hemiballismus D. Myoclonus 166 / 266 166. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 167 / 266 167. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 168 / 266 168. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Megaloblastic anemia 169 / 266 169. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Radial nerve palsy 170 / 266 170. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Diplopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Right homonymous hemianopia 171 / 266 171. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 172 / 266 172. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Diabetes mellitus 173 / 266 173. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich’s ataxia B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 174 / 266 174. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Deafness 175 / 266 175. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Venous thrombosis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 176 / 266 176. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Two-point localisation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Graphesthesia 177 / 266 177. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Atenolol C. Sumatriptan D. Phenytoin 178 / 266 178. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 179 / 266 179. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Immune disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 180 / 266 180. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Relief by haloperidol 181 / 266 181. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Fatty liver C. Ankle oedema D. Livedo reticularis 182 / 266 182. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Ankle clonus C. Anemia D. Babinski’s sign 183 / 266 183. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Flumazenil C. Cocaine D. Carbamazepine 184 / 266 184. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 185 / 266 185. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 186 / 266 186. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Down’s syndrome D. Noonan’s syndrome 187 / 266 187. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Medulla C. Upper pons D. Midbrain 188 / 266 188. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. McArdle’s disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Steroid myopathy 189 / 266 189. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Cluster headache C. Syringobulbia D. Bell’s palsy 190 / 266 190. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 191 / 266 191. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Ependymoma 192 / 266 192. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Paroxetine 193 / 266 193. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C6, 7 C. C3, 4 D. C4, 5 194 / 266 194. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 195 / 266 195. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Papilledema D. Infarction of occipital lobe 196 / 266 196. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 197 / 266 197. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Hemiparesis C. Facial weakness D. Coma 198 / 266 198. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Cushing’s syndrome C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperthyroidism 199 / 266 199. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Ataxia D. Areflexia 200 / 266 200. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. CT scan D. PET scan 201 / 266 201. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Meningioma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 202 / 266 202. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Malignant hypertension 203 / 266 203. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Petit mal epilepsy 204 / 266 204. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Putamen D. Red nucleus 205 / 266 205. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 206 / 266 206. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Dolichocephaly C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Platybasia 207 / 266 207. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Pyramidal signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 208 / 266 208. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Cerebellar infarction C. Digitalis toxicity D. Aura phase of migraine 209 / 266 209. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 210 / 266 210. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV mannitol 211 / 266 211. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hereditary predisposition C. Common in women D. Hemicranial headache 213 / 266 213. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Parkinsonism 214 / 266 214. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 215 / 266 215. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Tremor C. Confabulation D. Visual hallucinations 216 / 266 216. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 217 / 266 217. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Wilson’s disease 218 / 266 218. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Hepatic precoma C. Friedreich’ s ataxia D. Subacute combined degeneration 219 / 266 219. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Increased deep reflexes 220 / 266 220. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Rasagiline 221 / 266 221. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Absent tendon reflexes 222 / 266 222. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Alzheimer’s disease 223 / 266 223. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Gradenigo’s syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumour 224 / 266 224. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 225 / 266 225. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Carotid artery occlusion 226 / 266 226. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 227 / 266 227. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Facial nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 228 / 266 228. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 229 / 266 229. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Athletes C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 230 / 266 230. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 231 / 266 231. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Hyperpyrexia 232 / 266 232. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 233 / 266 233. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Osteomalacia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Hyperglycaemia 234 / 266 234. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Transverse sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Inferior sagittal sinus 235 / 266 235. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Toxin C. Bacteria D. Autoimmunity 236 / 266 236. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Froin’s loculation syndrome D. Acoustic neurofibroma 237 / 266 237. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 238 / 266 238. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cerebral cortex 239 / 266 239. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Gaucher’s disease D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 240 / 266 240. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Trypanosomiasis C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Subdural hematoma 241 / 266 241. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 242 / 266 242. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Interferon C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 243 / 266 243. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Weber-Christian disease 244 / 266 244. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Lathyrism C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 245 / 266 245. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 246 / 266 246. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Alzheimer’s disease 247 / 266 247. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. ‘Normal-pressure’ hydrocephalus B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Huntington’s disease 248 / 266 248. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myelopathy D. Myopathy 249 / 266 249. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. von Recklinghausen’s disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Sturge-Weber disease 250 / 266 250. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Increased tone 251 / 266 251. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 252 / 266 252. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Oesophagitis C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Wallenberg’s syndrome 253 / 266 253. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Friedreich’s ataxia D. Tabes dorsalis 254 / 266 254. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Eye opening C. Motor response D. Autonomic response 255 / 266 255. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Myodonus C. Migraine D. Psychosis 256 / 266 256. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Agraphia 257 / 266 257. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Nitrofurantoin D. Methotrexate 258 / 266 258. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 259 / 266 259. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 260 / 266 260. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Cerebellar infarction C. Multiple sclerosis D. Epilepsy 261 / 266 261. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 262 / 266 262. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Ocular myopathy 263 / 266 263. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner’s syndrome B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Hutchinson’s pupil D. Oculomotor palsy 264 / 266 264. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Pseudoclonus 265 / 266 265. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Absence seizures D. Tonic seizures 266 / 266 266. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Dr Abu-Ahmed Dr Abu Ahmed, an Internist & Graphic Designer, has brought this website to help Medical Students in the subject of Internal Medicine. Articles: 25 Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology
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