Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Pinealomas 2 / 266 2. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1 C. L5 D. S1,S2 3 / 266 3. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Ropinirole C. Pramipexole D. Rasagiline 4 / 266 4. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Aphasia C. Agraphia D. Acalculia 5 / 266 5. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure sensory stroke D. Pure motor hemiparesis 6 / 266 6. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Paralysis D. Disconjugate gaze 7 / 266 7. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Small, spastic tongue D. Sudden onset 8 / 266 8. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 9 / 266 9. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 10 / 266 10. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 11 / 266 11. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Tremor C. Perspiration D. Confabulation 12 / 266 12. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 13 / 266 13. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Onycholysis C. Ataxia D. Diarrhoea 14 / 266 14. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. May occur spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 15 / 266 15. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 16 / 266 16. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 17 / 266 17. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Haloperidol C. Trimipramine D. Chlorpromazine 18 / 266 18. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 19 / 266 19. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Ocular myopathy D. Malignant exophthalmos 20 / 266 20. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 21 / 266 21. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 22 / 266 22. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Takayasu's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 23 / 266 23. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Deep Jaundice C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Froin's loculation syndrome 24 / 266 24. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 25 / 266 25. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 26 / 266 26. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Viral meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 27 / 266 27. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Carbamazepine 28 / 266 28. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pendular nystagmus C. Pseudolymphoma D. Cerebellar syndrome 29 / 266 29. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Mass reflex C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 30 / 266 30. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Red nucleus D. Caudate nucleus 31 / 266 31. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Ependymoma 32 / 266 32. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Absent deep reflexes C. Coma D. Hypertonia 33 / 266 33. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Vincristine C. Nitrofurantoin D. INH 34 / 266 34. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 35 / 266 35. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 36 / 266 36. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syphilis C. Ethambutol D. Leprosy 37 / 266 37. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Cortex C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 38 / 266 38. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 39 / 266 39. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Dolichocephaly C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Platybasia 40 / 266 40. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 41 / 266 41. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Mania 42 / 266 42. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Normokalaemia 43 / 266 43. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 44 / 266 44. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 45 / 266 45. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. Proprioception C. Cerebellar functions D. EMG 46 / 266 46. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Trypanosomiasis C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Encephalitis lethargica 47 / 266 47. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Myotonia D. Athletes 48 / 266 48. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Tunnel vision C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Central scotoma 49 / 266 49. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 50 / 266 50. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 51 / 266 51. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Paraesthesia C. Diplopia D. Dysphasia 52 / 266 52. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 53 / 266 53. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Enophthalmos C. Anhidrosis D. Constricted pupil 54 / 266 54. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Huge ascites 55 / 266 55. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Shy-Drager syndrome 56 / 266 56. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Thoracic inlet syndrome C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 57 / 266 57. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 58 / 266 58. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 59 / 266 59. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Increased tone C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Intact proprioception 60 / 266 60. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cerebral palsy D. Leucodystrophy 61 / 266 61. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Meningism 62 / 266 62. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Cataract 63 / 266 63. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Acoustic neuroma 64 / 266 64. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 65 / 266 65. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 66 / 266 66. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Hypothyroidism D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 67 / 266 67. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. 5% dextrose C. IV quinine D. IV mannitol 68 / 266 68. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Selegiline 69 / 266 69. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 70 / 266 70. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 71 / 266 71. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebellar infarction D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 72 / 266 72. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Ocular myopathy D. Diabetes mellitus 73 / 266 73. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Tabes dorsalis C. Syringomyelia D. Diabetes mellitus 74 / 266 74. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Sensory dysfunction D. Argyll Robertson pupil 75 / 266 75. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 76 / 266 76. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 77 / 266 77. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Prevents rebleeding D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 78 / 266 78. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 79 / 266 79. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Myoclonic seizures D. Tonic seizures 80 / 266 80. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 81 / 266 81. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Coprolalia C. Multiple tics D. Relief by haloperidol 82 / 266 82. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 83 / 266 83. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. AV malformations C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. Systemic hypertension 84 / 266 84. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Hepatic precoma D. Taboparesis 85 / 266 85. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Cataplexy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Sleep paralysis 86 / 266 86. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Wasting of muscles D. Proximal muscle weakness 87 / 266 87. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Pontine glioma 88 / 266 88. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Ankle clonus C. Glossitis D. Anemia 89 / 266 89. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Rubella panencephalitis 90 / 266 90. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Alcoholism C. Wilson's disease D. Cerebellar disorder 91 / 266 91. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Increased CSF pressure C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 92 / 266 92. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 93 / 266 93. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Head injury D. Transient ischemic attack 94 / 266 94. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Choreoathetosis 95 / 266 95. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Paroxetine C. Sertraline D. Fluoxetine 96 / 266 96. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Vincristine 97 / 266 97. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Deafness 98 / 266 98. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 99 / 266 99. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Acute myocardial infarction 100 / 266 100. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 101 / 266 101. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Diplopia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 102 / 266 102. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Duodenal stenosis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Polymyositis 103 / 266 103. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Lacunar infarction D. Cerebral atrophy 104 / 266 104. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 105 / 266 105. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 106 / 266 106. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Complex partial C. Generalized tonic clonic D. Petit mal 107 / 266 107. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Scoliosis C. Meningioma D. Acoustic neuroma 108 / 266 108. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Nerve conduction study 109 / 266 109. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Olfactory groove C. Sylvian fissure D. Cerebello-pontine angle 110 / 266 110. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 111 / 266 111. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Abducens palsy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Loss of accommodation 112 / 266 112. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Arrhythmia C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Tight aortic stenosis 113 / 266 113. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 114 / 266 114. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 115 / 266 115. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Midbrain 116 / 266 116. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Cocaine 117 / 266 117. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 118 / 266 118. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Tabes dorsalis 119 / 266 119. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 120 / 266 120. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Polymyositis C. Myopathy D. Myasthenia gravis 121 / 266 121. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vllth C. Xth D. Vth 122 / 266 122. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Flexor plantar response C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Increased deep reflexes 123 / 266 123. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 124 / 266 124. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Giant cell arteritis D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 125 / 266 125. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myelopathy C. Myopathy D. Encephalitis 126 / 266 126. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Mania 127 / 266 127. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Limb shortening 128 / 266 128. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Ataxia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Hyperglycaemia 129 / 266 129. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Cord compression D. Acute transverse myelitis 130 / 266 130. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's disease 131 / 266 131. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 132 / 266 132. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Froin's loculation syndrome 133 / 266 133. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Cerebral embolism 134 / 266 134. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Convulsions C. SIADH D. Optic neuritis 135 / 266 135. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Amiodarone 136 / 266 136. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Unequal pupil 137 / 266 137. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Quinolones C. Cephalosporins D. Aminoglycosides 138 / 266 138. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 139 / 266 139. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Refsum's disease C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 140 / 266 140. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Midbrain C. Lower pons D. Upper pons 141 / 266 141. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Chorea C. Migraine D. Psychosis 142 / 266 142. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 143 / 266 143. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 144 / 266 144. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Nasal regurgitation 145 / 266 145. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Steroid myopathy 146 / 266 146. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Parkinsonism C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral diplegia 147 / 266 147. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 148 / 266 148. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 149 / 266 149. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 150 / 266 150. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Acalculia 151 / 266 151. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 152 / 266 152. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Neurofibroma D. Patchy arachnoiditis 153 / 266 153. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Papilledema C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Retinal hemorrhage 154 / 266 154. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Apraxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 155 / 266 155. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Wilson's disease 156 / 266 156. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 157 / 266 157. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Ataxia D. Pyramidal lesion 158 / 266 158. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Epilepsy C. Trauma D. Febrile 159 / 266 159. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Defect in learning C. Confabulation D. Retrograde amnesia 160 / 266 160. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 161 / 266 161. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 162 / 266 162. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Normal intellectual activity C. Ataxia D. Dementia 163 / 266 163. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Addison's disease 164 / 266 164. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve 165 / 266 165. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Mania C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 166 / 266 166. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Alzheimer's disease 167 / 266 167. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 168 / 266 168. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Multiple sclerosis 169 / 266 169. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 170 / 266 170. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis major C. Calf muscles D. Infraspinatus 171 / 266 171. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 172 / 266 172. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Spasticity D. Fasciculations 173 / 266 173. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Hutchinson's pupil 174 / 266 174. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Reserpine C. Pindolol D. Oral contraceptive pills 175 / 266 175. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Blindness D. Convulsions 176 / 266 176. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe 177 / 266 177. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Tuberculosis 178 / 266 178. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysphonia C. Dysarthria D. Aphasia 179 / 266 179. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 180 / 266 180. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. T1 C. C8 D. T2 181 / 266 181. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Pneumococcus C. E. coli D. Meningococcous 182 / 266 182. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 183 / 266 183. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 184 / 266 184. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Weakness and spasticity D. Equivocal plantar response 185 / 266 185. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 186 / 266 186. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Lubeluzole C. Vigabatrin D. Felbamate 187 / 266 187. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Embolic C. Inflammatory D. Demyelinating 188 / 266 188. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Acromegaly 189 / 266 189. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 96 hours C. 24 hours D. 2 weeks 190 / 266 190. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Old age C. Myotonic pupil D. Organophosphorus poisoning 191 / 266 191. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV frusemide D. IV mannitol 192 / 266 192. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Cerebral cortex C. Pons D. Internal capsule 193 / 266 193. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Reading a book 194 / 266 194. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 195 / 266 195. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Mental retardation 196 / 266 196. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 197 / 266 197. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 198 / 266 198. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 199 / 266 199. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Restlessness C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 200 / 266 200. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Thalamus C. Cerebellum D. Putamen 201 / 266 201. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Wilson's disease C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 202 / 266 202. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 203 / 266 203. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Visual hallucinations C. Passivity feelings D. Early onset 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Normal reflexes 205 / 266 205. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Extensor plantar response C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Emotional incontinence 206 / 266 206. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 207 / 266 207. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Bell's palsy C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 208 / 266 208. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Myopathy D. Cervical rib 209 / 266 209. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Aflatoxin D. Thiocyanates 210 / 266 210. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Poliomyelitis 211 / 266 211. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocalcemia 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Tone and power C. Nutrition of muscles D. Involuntary movements 213 / 266 213. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Nystagmus 214 / 266 214. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Gross pedal oedema 215 / 266 215. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 216 / 266 216. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Strangers C. Animals D. High places 217 / 266 217. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 218 / 266 218. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 219 / 266 219. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Aura phase of migraine D. Digitalis toxicity 220 / 266 220. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 221 / 266 221. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Thalamus 222 / 266 222. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. PET scan C. CT scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 223 / 266 223. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Areflexia D. Ataxia 224 / 266 224. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-13 D. Trisomy-21 225 / 266 225. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Immune disorder 226 / 266 226. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Pentoxifylline C. Aspirin D. Clopidogrel 227 / 266 227. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Lathyrism 228 / 266 228. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Coma D. Hemiparesis 229 / 266 229. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Metastatic 230 / 266 230. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Parietal 231 / 266 231. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left atrial myxoma D. Left ventricular aneurysm 232 / 266 232. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Duchenne myopathy D. Hysteria 233 / 266 233. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Enteric fever C. Cerebral malaria D. Weil's disease 234 / 266 234. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral hemorrhage 235 / 266 235. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. May be associated with malignancy 236 / 266 236. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Distal muscle weakness B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Exaggerated deep reflex 237 / 266 237. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Pompholyx C. Adenoma sebaceum D. White spots over trunk and limbs 238 / 266 238. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 239 / 266 239. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumor 240 / 266 240. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Raynaud's disease D. Leprosy 241 / 266 241. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Emetine 242 / 266 242. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 243 / 266 243. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 244 / 266 244. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Motor response C. Verbal response D. Autonomic response 245 / 266 245. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 246 / 266 246. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Quinsy C. Diphtheria D. Tetanus 247 / 266 247. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Diabetic amyotrophy 248 / 266 248. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Brain tumour D. Gradenigo's syndrome 249 / 266 249. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 250 / 266 250. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Brain tumor 251 / 266 251. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Vestibular lesion 252 / 266 252. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Pseudoparkinsonism 253 / 266 253. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 254 / 266 254. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Oculomotor palsy 255 / 266 255. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Hereditary predisposition 256 / 266 256. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Testicular atrophy 257 / 266 257. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Athetosis C. Myotonia D. Tetany 258 / 266 258. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 259 / 266 259. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Acute renal failure C. Oesophagitis D. Wallenberg's syndrome 260 / 266 260. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Hypoxia D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 261 / 266 261. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 262 / 266 262. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Myopathy D. Sarcoidosis 263 / 266 263. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Pituitary tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 264 / 266 264. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Lax abdominal wall C. Hysteria D. Multiparous woman 265 / 266 265. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 266 / 266 266. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Fatty liver C. Seizures D. 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