Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Perceptual rivalry C. Vibration sensation D. Two-point localisation 2 / 266 2. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 3 / 266 3. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Cerebellar infarction D. Digitalis toxicity 4 / 266 4. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Ciliary ganglion C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 5 / 266 5. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Absent deep reflexes C. Hypertonia D. Retention of urine 6 / 266 6. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. Optic neuritis C. SIADH D. Pseudobulbar palsy 7 / 266 7. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Pyramidal lesion C. Horner's syndrome D. Ataxia 8 / 266 8. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 9 / 266 9. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Acute renal failure C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Oesophagitis 10 / 266 10. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 11 / 266 11. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 12 / 266 12. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Meningioma 13 / 266 13. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's disease 14 / 266 14. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Coma D. Hemiparesis 15 / 266 15. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Mania 16 / 266 16. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell's palsy C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Syringobulbia 17 / 266 17. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Confabulation C. Tremor D. Visual hallucinations 18 / 266 18. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Animals C. Strangers D. Pain 19 / 266 19. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Absent superficial reflex D. Weakness and spasticity 20 / 266 20. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Acromegaly C. Gynaecomastia D. Parkinsonism 21 / 266 21. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Myoclonic seizures 22 / 266 22. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Motor neuron disease 23 / 266 23. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 24 / 266 24. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 25 / 266 25. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Shagreen patch C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Pompholyx 26 / 266 26. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 27 / 266 27. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 28 / 266 28. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Tuberculosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 29 / 266 29. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Pick's disease 30 / 266 30. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Cervical spine D. Brainstem 31 / 266 31. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 32 / 266 32. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pseudolymphoma D. Cerebellar syndrome 33 / 266 33. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C3, 4 C. C4, 5 D. C5, 6 34 / 266 34. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. EMG 35 / 266 35. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Abducens palsy 36 / 266 36. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Presence of nystagmus D. Associated with lacunar infarction 37 / 266 37. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Cerebral palsy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Alzheimer's disease 38 / 266 38. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 39 / 266 39. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hyperkalemia 40 / 266 40. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Ocular myopathy 41 / 266 41. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Puerperal sepsis 42 / 266 42. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 43 / 266 43. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Cocaine C. Amphetamines D. Carbamazepine 44 / 266 44. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Putamen C. Thalamus D. Cerebellum 45 / 266 45. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 46 / 266 46. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Aortic incompetence 47 / 266 47. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Deafness 48 / 266 48. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Sudden onset C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Small, spastic tongue 49 / 266 49. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Syringomyelia 50 / 266 50. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Dolichocephaly 51 / 266 51. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Disconjugate gaze C. Pin-point pupil D. Paralysis 52 / 266 52. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trigeminal nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Facial nerve 53 / 266 53. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 54 / 266 54. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Apraxia 56 / 266 56. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Muscle biopsy D. Electromyography 57 / 266 57. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Increased tone C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Sensory ataxia 58 / 266 58. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Mental retardation D. Choreoathetosis 59 / 266 59. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Hysteria C. Meningism D. Tetanus 60 / 266 60. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmunity C. Toxin D. Virus 61 / 266 61. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Horner's syndrome C. Myasthenia gravis D. Oculomotor palsy 62 / 266 62. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 63 / 266 63. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Carbamazepine C. Haloperidol D. Clomipramine 64 / 266 64. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Botulism C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Myasthenia gravis 65 / 266 65. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased deep reflexes C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 66 / 266 66. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Testicular atrophy B. Frontal baldness C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 67 / 266 67. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Alzheimer's disease 68 / 266 68. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Multiple sclerosis 69 / 266 69. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 70 / 266 70. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 71 / 266 71. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Phakomatosis 72 / 266 72. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Eye opening C. Verbal response D. Autonomic response 73 / 266 73. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. T4 D. C8 74 / 266 74. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Weber-Christian disease C. Sturge-Weber disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 75 / 266 75. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Olfactory groove D. Sylvian fissure 76 / 266 76. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 2 weeks C. 96 hours D. 3 weeks 77 / 266 77. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 78 / 266 78. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Constricted pupil C. Complete ptosis D. Anhidrosis 79 / 266 79. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Glioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Astrocytoma 80 / 266 80. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 81 / 266 81. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 82 / 266 82. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 83 / 266 83. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Malignant hypertension 84 / 266 84. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Syringomyelia C. Motor neuron disease D. Multiple sclerosis 85 / 266 85. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Myopathy 86 / 266 86. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral infarction C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 87 / 266 87. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 88 / 266 88. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral infarction C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral haemorrhage 89 / 266 89. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Alzheimer's disease C. Post-encephalitic D. Multi-infarct dementia 90 / 266 90. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Arrhythmia C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Cardiac tamponade 91 / 266 91. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 92 / 266 92. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 93 / 266 93. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Medulla C. Upper pons D. Lower pons 94 / 266 94. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Reserpine D. Pindolol 95 / 266 95. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Polymyositis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 96 / 266 96. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 97 / 266 97. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 98 / 266 98. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Poliomyelitis C. Transverse myelitis D. Restlessness 99 / 266 99. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 100 / 266 100. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 101 / 266 101. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 102 / 266 102. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 103 / 266 103. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 104 / 266 104. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Xth C. Vllth D. IIIrd 105 / 266 105. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Thiocyanates D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 106 / 266 106. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Papilledema 107 / 266 107. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Temporal C. Parietal D. Frontal 108 / 266 108. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypotension 109 / 266 109. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Limb shortening C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Anencephaly 110 / 266 110. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 111 / 266 111. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Psychosis C. Myodonus D. Chorea 112 / 266 112. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 113 / 266 113. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Frontal lobe 114 / 266 114. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Dementia in AIDS D. Hysterical gait disorder 115 / 266 115. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 116 / 266 116. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Gross pedal oedema C. Myxoedema D. Parkinsonism 117 / 266 117. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Drop attacks C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Diplopia 118 / 266 118. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 119 / 266 119. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Fluoxetine 120 / 266 120. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 121 / 266 121. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Epilepsy 122 / 266 122. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Hyperkinesia C. Normal reflexes D. Rigidity 123 / 266 123. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Passivity feelings C. Early onset D. Depression 124 / 266 124. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Ocular myopathy 125 / 266 125. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure motor hemiparesis 126 / 266 126. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Meningioma C. Ependymoma D. Acoustic neuroma 127 / 266 127. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 128 / 266 128. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cerebral cortex 129 / 266 129. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 130 / 266 130. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud's disease C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 131 / 266 131. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common migraine has aura C. Common in women D. Hemicranial headache 132 / 266 132. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Alcoholism 133 / 266 133. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Aphasia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysarthria 134 / 266 134. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 135 / 266 135. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 136 / 266 136. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 137 / 266 137. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Central scotoma D. Tunnel vision 138 / 266 138. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 139 / 266 139. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking in front C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking to the roof 140 / 266 140. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 141 / 266 141. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Cerebral malaria C. Enteric fever D. Weil's disease 142 / 266 142. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Absence of root pain D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 143 / 266 143. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Nasal regurgitation 144 / 266 144. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Dystonia 145 / 266 145. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Botulism D. Periodic paralysis 146 / 266 146. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Froin's loculation syndrome 147 / 266 147. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 148 / 266 148. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Spasticity C. Babinski's sign D. Fasciculations 149 / 266 149. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Marathon runner 150 / 266 150. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Epilepsy 151 / 266 151. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Wilson's disease D. Haemochromatosis 152 / 266 152. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 153 / 266 153. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents rebleeding 154 / 266 154. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Periodic paralysis 155 / 266 155. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 156 / 266 156. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 157 / 266 157. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 158 / 266 158. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 159 / 266 159. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Paraesthesia C. Seizures D. Dysphasia 160 / 266 160. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Lead C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 161 / 266 161. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Corpus striatum C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 162 / 266 162. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Carotid artery occlusion D. Basilar artery thrombosis 163 / 266 163. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5 C. L5,S1 D. S1,S2 164 / 266 164. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Benzodiazepine D. Trimipramine 165 / 266 165. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Neuropathy D. Encephalitis 166 / 266 166. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Subdural hematoma C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Encephalitis lethargica 167 / 266 167. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cervical spondylosis C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Duchenne myopathy 168 / 266 168. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Deep Jaundice 169 / 266 169. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Absent tendon reflexes 170 / 266 170. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Chloroquine D. Probenecid 171 / 266 171. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 172 / 266 172. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Red nucleus D. Caudate nucleus 173 / 266 173. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Anemia C. Ankle clonus D. Babinski's sign 174 / 266 174. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. PET scan D. CT scan 175 / 266 175. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Normokalaemia 176 / 266 176. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Refsum's disease D. Leprosy 177 / 266 177. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 178 / 266 178. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 179 / 266 179. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Focal neuro deficit C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Blindness 180 / 266 180. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Quinsy C. Tetanus D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 181 / 266 181. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Hypoparathyroidism 182 / 266 182. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Apraxia C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 183 / 266 183. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Aspirin C. Ticlopidine D. Pentoxifylline 184 / 266 184. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV mannitol C. Glucocorticoids D. IV quinine 185 / 266 185. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 186 / 266 186. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sarcoidosis D. Infectious mononucleosis 187 / 266 187. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperthyroidism 188 / 266 188. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 189 / 266 189. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Ataxia D. Osteomalacia 190 / 266 190. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 191 / 266 191. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. INH C. Nitrofurantoin D. Methotrexate 192 / 266 192. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Lathyrism 193 / 266 193. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Rheumatic fever C. Wilson's disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 194 / 266 194. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Cortex 195 / 266 195. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 196 / 266 196. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Aphasia D. Papilloedema 197 / 266 197. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Inflammatory 198 / 266 198. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Acute transverse myelitis 199 / 266 199. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Sensory dysfunction 200 / 266 200. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 201 / 266 201. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Xanthochromia C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. High protein content 202 / 266 202. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 203 / 266 203. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Infantile spasm C. Petit mal D. Complex partial 204 / 266 204. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Hysteria 205 / 266 205. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 206 / 266 206. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor spasm C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor plantar response 207 / 266 207. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Lacunar infarction C. Neurosyphilis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 208 / 266 208. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Dantrolene C. Succinylcholine D. Methoxyflurane 209 / 266 209. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Levodopa D. Amantadine 210 / 266 210. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Multiple sclerosis 211 / 266 211. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 212 / 266 212. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 213 / 266 213. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Scoliosis C. Optic glioma D. Meningioma 214 / 266 214. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Neurofibroma 215 / 266 215. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 216 / 266 216. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 217 / 266 217. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 218 / 266 218. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 219 / 266 219. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Niemann-Pick disease 220 / 266 220. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Choroid plexus C. Basal ganglia D. Pineal body 221 / 266 221. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Takayasu's disease C. Polycystic kidney D. Coarctation of aorta 222 / 266 222. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lubeluzole C. Lamotrigine D. Felbamate 223 / 266 223. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 224 / 266 224. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Apraxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 225 / 266 225. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 226 / 266 226. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Diabetes mellitus C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Gradenigo's syndrome 227 / 266 227. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Multiple sclerosis 228 / 266 228. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Stereognosis C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 229 / 266 229. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Babinski's sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 230 / 266 230. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Anal reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Snout reflex 231 / 266 231. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Unequal pupil 232 / 266 232. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Rasagiline D. Ropinirole 233 / 266 233. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 234 / 266 234. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Ethosuximide C. Diazepam D. Valproate 235 / 266 235. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 236 / 266 236. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Viral meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 237 / 266 237. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hysteria 238 / 266 238. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Organophosphorus poisoning 239 / 266 239. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Normal intellectual activity 240 / 266 240. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 241 / 266 241. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Athetosis C. Myotonia D. Chorea 242 / 266 242. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Seizures 243 / 266 243. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Myotonia D. Manual labourers 244 / 266 244. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Deltoid C. Calf muscles D. Pectoralis major 245 / 266 245. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Inferior sagittal sinus 246 / 266 246. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Punch-drunk syndrome 247 / 266 247. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Huge ascites D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 248 / 266 248. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Poliomyelitis 249 / 266 249. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Agraphia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 250 / 266 250. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Ethambutol 251 / 266 251. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 252 / 266 252. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 253 / 266 253. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Onycholysis C. Diarrhoea D. Ataxia 254 / 266 254. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Sleep paralysis C. Cataplexy D. Epilepsy 255 / 266 255. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Dementia C. Coprolalia D. Relief by haloperidol 256 / 266 256. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Oculomotor palsy 257 / 266 257. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 258 / 266 258. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Alcohol withdrawal 259 / 266 259. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 260 / 266 260. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Loss of immediate recall C. Defect in learning D. Confabulation 261 / 266 261. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Rabies C. Poliomyelitis D. Snakebite 262 / 266 262. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 263 / 266 263. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 264 / 266 264. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Convulsions D. Altered consciousness 265 / 266 265. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 266 / 266 266. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Masked facies C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Extensor plantar response LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology