Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Aphasia D. Dysphonia 2 / 266 2. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV mannitol C. IV frusemide D. Dexamethasone 3 / 266 3. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Extensor plantar response C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Masked facies 4 / 266 4. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Shagreen patch 5 / 266 5. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Poliomyelitis 6 / 266 6. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Periorbital pain D. Male dominance 7 / 266 7. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Calf muscles C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 8 / 266 8. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Neurosyphilis C. Lacunar infarction D. Cerebral atrophy 9 / 266 9. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 10 / 266 10. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. H. influenzae C. Pneumococcus D. E. coli 11 / 266 11. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Digitalis toxicity C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Cerebellar infarction 12 / 266 12. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 13 / 266 13. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 14 / 266 14. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Reading a book C. Looking to the roof D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 15 / 266 15. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Ciliary ganglion 16 / 266 16. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Testicular atrophy 17 / 266 17. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Corpus striatum 18 / 266 18. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. SIADH 19 / 266 19. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Blindness 20 / 266 20. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 21 / 266 21. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 22 / 266 22. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Nerve conduction study C. Electromyography D. Muscle enzyme study 23 / 266 23. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cataract D. Cirrhosis of liver 24 / 266 24. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Aphasia 25 / 266 25. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Acute renal failure C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Oesophagitis 26 / 266 26. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Mania C. Depression D. Phobia 27 / 266 27. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Distal muscle weakness D. Pseudoclonus 28 / 266 28. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C4, 5 C. C3, 4 D. C6, 7 29 / 266 29. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 30 / 266 30. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Electroconvulsive therapy 31 / 266 31. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Syringomyelia 32 / 266 32. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Carbamazepine C. Flumazenil D. Cocaine 33 / 266 33. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Rheumatoid arthritis 34 / 266 34. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 35 / 266 35. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 36 / 266 36. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 37 / 266 37. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Pineal body C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 38 / 266 38. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Ataxia C. Horner's syndrome D. Pyramidal lesion 39 / 266 39. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Epilepsy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 40 / 266 40. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Polycythaemia vera D. Mania 41 / 266 41. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Sudden onset D. Babinski's sign 42 / 266 42. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure sensory stroke D. Pure motor hemiparesis 43 / 266 43. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. Vth D. IIIrd 44 / 266 44. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Dementia in AIDS C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Hysterical gait disorder 45 / 266 45. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 46 / 266 46. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's disease 47 / 266 47. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 48 / 266 48. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Botulism D. Progressive muscular atrophy 49 / 266 49. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Abducens palsy 50 / 266 50. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Visual hallucinations 51 / 266 51. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 52 / 266 52. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Valproate C. Diazepam D. Ethosuximide 53 / 266 53. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 54 / 266 54. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 55 / 266 55. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Lathyrism D. Periodic paralysis 56 / 266 56. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. Meningism D. After epileptic seizure 57 / 266 57. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia C. Cervical spondylosis D. Multiple sclerosis 58 / 266 58. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 59 / 266 59. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hemicranial headache C. Common in women D. Hereditary predisposition 60 / 266 60. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypermetria C. Hypertonia D. Titubation 61 / 266 61. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Increased CSF pressure C. Xanthochromia D. High protein content 62 / 266 62. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peripheral neuropathy 63 / 266 63. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 64 / 266 64. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ethambutol D. Leprosy 65 / 266 65. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Emotional excitement C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. AV malformations 66 / 266 66. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 67 / 266 67. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 68 / 266 68. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral infarction C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral haemorrhage 69 / 266 69. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Retrograde amnesia C. Confabulation D. Loss of immediate recall 70 / 266 70. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 71 / 266 71. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Diabetic amyotrophy 72 / 266 72. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 73 / 266 73. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Deep coma 74 / 266 74. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basal ganglia infarction 75 / 266 75. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Disconjugate gaze C. Paralysis D. Pin-point pupil 76 / 266 76. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Spastic tongue C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysarthria 77 / 266 77. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Raynaud's disease 78 / 266 78. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 79 / 266 79. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 80 / 266 80. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 81 / 266 81. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 82 / 266 82. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Carbamazepine C. Haloperidol D. Clomipramine 83 / 266 83. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 84 / 266 84. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Altered consciousness C. Headache D. Non-projectile vomiting 85 / 266 85. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Immune disorder D. Metabolic disorder 86 / 266 86. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Sensory functions D. Proprioception 87 / 266 87. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 88 / 266 88. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cluster headache C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Bell's palsy 89 / 266 89. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 90 / 266 90. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 91 / 266 91. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 92 / 266 92. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 93 / 266 93. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 94 / 266 94. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 95 / 266 95. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumor 96 / 266 96. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 97 / 266 97. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Sertraline 98 / 266 98. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Complex partial C. Petit mal D. Generalized tonic clonic 99 / 266 99. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Weakness and spasticity C. Equivocal plantar response D. Brisk deep reflexes 100 / 266 100. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 101 / 266 101. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 102 / 266 102. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 103 / 266 103. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Cephalosporins 104 / 266 104. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Chorea C. Myodonus D. Migraine 105 / 266 105. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Encephalitis C. Neuropathy D. Myelopathy 106 / 266 106. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Duodenal stenosis C. Polymyositis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 107 / 266 107. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Normokalaemia 108 / 266 108. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Eye opening C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 109 / 266 109. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 110 / 266 110. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Ependymoma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Acoustic neuroma 111 / 266 111. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Ocular myopathy 112 / 266 112. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Putamen 113 / 266 113. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 114 / 266 114. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Pontine glioma D. Phenytoin toxicity 115 / 266 115. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Pons 116 / 266 116. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 117 / 266 117. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Confabulation C. Loss of recent memory D. Associated with lacunar infarction 118 / 266 118. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Abducens nerve 119 / 266 119. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Facial weakness 120 / 266 120. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Hyperpyrexia C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Pseudoparkinsonism 121 / 266 121. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Ocular myopathy D. Myasthenia Gravis 122 / 266 122. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Dolichocephaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 123 / 266 123. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 124 / 266 124. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Galactorrhoea C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 125 / 266 125. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Absent deep reflexes C. Coma D. Retention of urine 126 / 266 126. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 127 / 266 127. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Myotonia C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Manual labourers 128 / 266 128. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Intact proprioception C. Increased tone D. Brisk deep reflexes 129 / 266 129. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Benzodiazepine 130 / 266 130. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Rasagiline C. Ropinirole D. Pramipexole 131 / 266 131. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 132 / 266 132. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Myxoedema 133 / 266 133. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. MRI scan D. PET scan 134 / 266 134. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 135 / 266 135. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperthyroidism 136 / 266 136. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 137 / 266 137. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 138 / 266 138. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Myopathy C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 139 / 266 139. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Right homonymous hemianopia 140 / 266 140. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Corticosteroid C. Immunoglobulin D. Cyclophosphamide 141 / 266 141. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Lead C. Vincristine D. Alcohol 142 / 266 142. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Ataxia 143 / 266 143. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Tetanus C. Diphtheria D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 144 / 266 144. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 145 / 266 145. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Corticosteroid withdrawal B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Addison's disease 146 / 266 146. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 147 / 266 147. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 148 / 266 148. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Two-point localisation C. Vibration sensation D. Graphesthesia 149 / 266 149. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 150 / 266 150. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Poliomyelitis 151 / 266 151. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Deafness B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 152 / 266 152. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Toxin C. Bacteria D. Virus 153 / 266 153. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Wilson's disease 154 / 266 154. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Enophthalmos C. Anhidrosis D. Constricted pupil 155 / 266 155. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Clopidogrel C. Ticlopidine D. Aspirin 156 / 266 156. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 157 / 266 157. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 158 / 266 158. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Thalamus 159 / 266 159. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents rebleeding 160 / 266 160. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Agraphia 161 / 266 161. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Coprolalia C. Multiple tics D. Dementia 162 / 266 162. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Bitemporal hemianopi 163 / 266 163. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Sumatriptan 164 / 266 164. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Meningism D. Froin's loculation syndrome 165 / 266 165. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Epilepsy 166 / 266 166. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal 167 / 266 167. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebral diplegia 168 / 266 168. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Sturge-Weber disease 169 / 266 169. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Limb shortening C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Anencephaly 170 / 266 170. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Apraxia 171 / 266 171. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 172 / 266 172. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 173 / 266 173. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 174 / 266 174. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Viral meningitis 175 / 266 175. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 176 / 266 176. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 177 / 266 177. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cortex C. Cervical spine D. Internal capsule 178 / 266 178. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Elapidae snake bite 179 / 266 179. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. Drop attacks C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 180 / 266 180. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Spinal epidural abscess 181 / 266 181. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Parkinsonism 182 / 266 182. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Brain tumour 183 / 266 183. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Wasting of muscles C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Absent tendon reflexes 184 / 266 184. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Febrile 185 / 266 185. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Pick's disease 186 / 266 186. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Probenecid C. Amiodarone D. Ethambutol 187 / 266 187. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 188 / 266 188. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. L5,S1 C. S1,S2 D. S1 189 / 266 189. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Glioma D. Pinealomas 190 / 266 190. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Old age C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Myotonic pupil 191 / 266 191. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Malignant hypertension C. Hypoxia D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 192 / 266 192. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 193 / 266 193. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 194 / 266 194. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Schizophrenia D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 195 / 266 195. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypocapnia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypoxia 196 / 266 196. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 197 / 266 197. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral hemorrhage 198 / 266 198. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 199 / 266 199. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 200 / 266 200. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral infarction D. Venous thrombosis 201 / 266 201. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 202 / 266 202. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 203 / 266 203. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 204 / 266 204. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. High places C. Pain D. Strangers 205 / 266 205. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 206 / 266 206. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 207 / 266 207. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Haemochromatosis 208 / 266 208. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Scoliosis C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 209 / 266 209. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 210 / 266 210. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 211 / 266 211. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Rheumatic fever C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Hyponatraemia 212 / 266 212. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Multiple sclerosis 213 / 266 213. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Negri bodies D. Lewy bodies 214 / 266 214. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Advanced pregnancy D. Huge ascites 215 / 266 215. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 216 / 266 216. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 217 / 266 217. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Flexor plantar response D. Increased deep reflexes 218 / 266 218. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 219 / 266 219. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 220 / 266 220. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Anal reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Sucking reflex 221 / 266 221. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Venous sinus thrombosis 222 / 266 222. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Motor neuron disease D. Polymyositis 223 / 266 223. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Tremor C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 224 / 266 224. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Livedo reticularis C. Seizures D. Ankle oedema 225 / 266 225. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Felbamate C. Vigabatrin D. Lamotrigine 226 / 266 226. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Dysphasia C. Diplopia D. Paraesthesia 227 / 266 227. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Sylvian fissure C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Olfactory groove 228 / 266 228. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 229 / 266 229. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Onycholysis D. Hypothyroidism 230 / 266 230. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Putamen D. Caudate nucleus 231 / 266 231. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Midbrain C. Upper pons D. Medulla 232 / 266 232. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Vestibular lesion 233 / 266 233. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Obesity C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 234 / 266 234. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 235 / 266 235. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Valproic acid C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Alcohol 236 / 266 236. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Cerebellar signs C. Loss of corneal reflex D. Pyramidal signs 237 / 266 237. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Mental retardation C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Retinitis pigmentosa 238 / 266 238. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Fasciculations D. Spasticity 239 / 266 239. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Polyneuropathy 240 / 266 240. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trochlear nerve 241 / 266 241. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 242 / 266 242. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Stereognosis 243 / 266 243. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 244 / 266 244. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 245 / 266 245. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Myoclonic seizures 246 / 266 246. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Hemorrhagic C. Inflammatory D. Demyelinating 247 / 266 247. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Seizures D. Mental retardation 248 / 266 248. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 249 / 266 249. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Refsum's disease 250 / 266 250. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 251 / 266 251. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Astrocytoma D. Meningioma 252 / 266 252. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pendular nystagmus D. Megaloblastic anemia 253 / 266 253. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 96 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 254 / 266 254. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. T2 C. C8 D. T1 255 / 266 255. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV mannitol C. 5% dextrose D. IV quinine 256 / 266 256. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Bulbar palsy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 257 / 266 257. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Febuxostat C. Emetine D. Zidovudine 258 / 266 258. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Head injury C. Epilepsy D. Transient ischemic attack 259 / 266 259. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Apraxia C. Ataxia D. Areflexia 260 / 266 260. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Dementia C. Ataxia D. Urinary incontinence 261 / 266 261. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Metoclopramide-induced 262 / 266 262. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Methotrexate C. Nitrofurantoin D. INH 263 / 266 263. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 264 / 266 264. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Babinski's sign C. Ankle clonus D. Anemia 265 / 266 265. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 266 / 266 266. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Seen in tall, thin people D. May occur spontaneously LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology