Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Dantrolene C. Halothane D. Succinylcholine 2 / 266 2. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Osteomalacia 3 / 266 3. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Ciliary ganglion C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Oculomotor nerve 4 / 266 4. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 5 / 266 5. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Choreoathetosis 6 / 266 6. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Frontal baldness 7 / 266 7. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV mannitol C. IV frusemide D. Dexamethasone 8 / 266 8. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Cerebellar syndrome 9 / 266 9. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 10 / 266 10. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Ethambutol C. Chloroquine D. Probenecid 11 / 266 11. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 12 / 266 12. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Duodenal stenosis D. Patent ductus arteriosus 13 / 266 13. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 14 / 266 14. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Multiple tics 15 / 266 15. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Hepatic precoma 16 / 266 16. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 17 / 266 17. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 18 / 266 18. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 19 / 266 19. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Pinealomas C. Ependymoma D. Glioma 20 / 266 20. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 21 / 266 21. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 22 / 266 22. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Raynaud's disease C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Leprosy 23 / 266 23. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumour C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Raised intracranial pressure 24 / 266 24. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Leucodystrophy 25 / 266 25. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 26 / 266 26. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Left ventricular aneurysm 27 / 266 27. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Thalamus C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 28 / 266 28. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Thrombocytopenia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 29 / 266 29. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Huntington's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Alzheimer's disease 30 / 266 30. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Aflatoxin D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 31 / 266 31. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Equivocal plantar response C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Weakness and spasticity 32 / 266 32. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Viral meningitis 33 / 266 33. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Froin's loculation syndrome 34 / 266 34. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Ropinirole C. Rasagiline D. Tiagabine 35 / 266 35. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 36 / 266 36. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Tetanus C. Diphtheria D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 37 / 266 37. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Leprosy 38 / 266 38. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 39 / 266 39. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 40 / 266 40. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Distal muscle weakness C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Pseudoclonus 41 / 266 41. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Athletes C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 42 / 266 42. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 43 / 266 43. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Autonomic response C. Eye opening D. Motor response 44 / 266 44. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 45 / 266 45. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 46 / 266 46. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Livedo reticularis 47 / 266 47. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypermetria C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypertonia 48 / 266 48. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Seizures C. Paraesthesia D. Diplopia 49 / 266 49. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Post-encephalitic C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 50 / 266 50. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia 51 / 266 51. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Basilar artery thrombosis 52 / 266 52. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Haloperidol C. Clomipramine D. Carbamazepine 53 / 266 53. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. IV mannitol 54 / 266 54. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Temporal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Frontal lobe 55 / 266 55. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. After epileptic seizure C. Meningism D. Hysteria 56 / 266 56. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyponatraemia D. Wilson's disease 57 / 266 57. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 58 / 266 58. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hyperkalemia C. Deep coma D. Hypokalemia 59 / 266 59. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Metoclopramide-induced 60 / 266 60. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Metastatic 61 / 266 61. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Central scotoma C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Tunnel vision 62 / 266 62. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 63 / 266 63. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trochlear nerve 64 / 266 64. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 65 / 266 65. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Diplopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Right homonymous hemianopia 66 / 266 66. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Spinal epidural abscess 67 / 266 67. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Poliomyelitis C. Transverse myelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 68 / 266 68. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Tonic seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Absence seizures 69 / 266 69. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Leukodystrophy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 70 / 266 70. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Marathon runner 71 / 266 71. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Cataplexy C. Epilepsy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 72 / 266 72. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Dystonia C. Myoclonus D. Hemiballismus 73 / 266 73. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Zidovudine 74 / 266 74. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Head injury C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Epilepsy 75 / 266 75. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 76 / 266 76. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Abducens palsy 77 / 266 77. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Reserpine D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 78 / 266 78. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Advanced pregnancy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 79 / 266 79. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Ataxia D. Apraxia 80 / 266 80. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Common migraine has aura D. Hereditary predisposition 81 / 266 81. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Trauma C. Epilepsy D. Febrile 82 / 266 82. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Rheumatoid arthritis 83 / 266 83. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Calcification within a lesion C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pituitary tumors 84 / 266 84. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Trihexyphenidyl D. Levodopa 85 / 266 85. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Animals C. Pain D. High places 86 / 266 86. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Mass reflex 87 / 266 87. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Confabulation C. Tremor D. Perspiration 88 / 266 88. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Ocular myopathy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Malignant exophthalmos 89 / 266 89. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Weber-Christian disease C. Sturge-Weber disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 90 / 266 90. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Mania C. Paranoia D. Depression 91 / 266 91. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Migraine 92 / 266 92. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 93 / 266 93. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Agnosia D. Acalculia 94 / 266 94. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 95 / 266 95. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Anhidrosis C. Complete ptosis D. Constricted pupil 96 / 266 96. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 97 / 266 97. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Sudden onset 98 / 266 98. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Fasciculations C. Spasticity D. Babinski's sign 99 / 266 99. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Convulsions C. Altered consciousness D. Non-projectile vomiting 100 / 266 100. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 101 / 266 101. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Hysteria C. Multiparous woman D. Lax abdominal wall 102 / 266 102. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Fluvoxamine 103 / 266 103. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Poliomyelitis 104 / 266 104. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Hysteria D. Cerebral infarction 105 / 266 105. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Asthenia in motor neuron disease D. Dementia in AIDS 106 / 266 106. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 107 / 266 107. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 108 / 266 108. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 109 / 266 109. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Amyloidosis C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. TOCP poisoning 110 / 266 110. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Normal intellectual activity C. Dementia D. Ataxia 111 / 266 111. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Wilson's disease 112 / 266 112. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 113 / 266 113. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. SIADH C. Convulsions D. Optic neuritis 114 / 266 114. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Cocaine 115 / 266 115. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Polymyositis C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 116 / 266 116. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Anemia C. Glossitis D. Ankle clonus 117 / 266 117. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syringomyelia C. Motor neuron disease D. Cervical spondylosis 118 / 266 118. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 119 / 266 119. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Schizophrenia C. Mania D. Alcohol withdrawal 120 / 266 120. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Enteric fever C. Cerebral malaria D. Weil's disease 121 / 266 121. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Papilloedema C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Nystagmus 122 / 266 122. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 123 / 266 123. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 124 / 266 124. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Cerebral cortex C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 125 / 266 125. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Emotional incontinence D. Extensor plantar response 126 / 266 126. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 127 / 266 127. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Epilepsy 128 / 266 128. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Unequal pupil 129 / 266 129. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Lathyrism 130 / 266 130. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Refsum's disease C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 131 / 266 131. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 132 / 266 132. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 133 / 266 133. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Blindness C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Focal neuro deficit 134 / 266 134. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 135 / 266 135. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Steroid myopathy 136 / 266 136. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 137 / 266 137. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Absence of root pain C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Bladder involvement is very late 138 / 266 138. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Waddling gait D. Sensory dysfunction 139 / 266 139. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Dermatomyositis 140 / 266 140. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 141 / 266 141. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Polymyositis D. Motor neuron disease 142 / 266 142. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 143 / 266 143. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Complex partial C. Petit mal D. Generalized tonic clonic 144 / 266 144. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. SIADH C. Polycythaemia vera D. Mania 145 / 266 145. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 146 / 266 146. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Felbamate C. Lamotrigine D. Lubeluzole 147 / 266 147. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Meningioma 148 / 266 148. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Cerebellar disorder D. Amblyopia 149 / 266 149. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 150 / 266 150. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Negri bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Asteroid bodies 151 / 266 151. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Malignant hypertension D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 152 / 266 152. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 153 / 266 153. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Facial weakness 154 / 266 154. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 155 / 266 155. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Botulism 156 / 266 156. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Horner's syndrome 157 / 266 157. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 158 / 266 158. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 159 / 266 159. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Motor neuron disease 160 / 266 160. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Absent deep reflexes C. Coma D. Hypertonia 161 / 266 161. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Pineal body 162 / 266 162. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Tabes dorsalis D. Polyneuropathy 163 / 266 163. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 164 / 266 164. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Immune disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 165 / 266 165. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 166 / 266 166. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe 167 / 266 167. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Digitalis toxicity 168 / 266 168. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Mental retardation D. Limb shortening 169 / 266 169. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 170 / 266 170. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Berry aneurysm rupture 171 / 266 171. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 172 / 266 172. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents rebleeding 173 / 266 173. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Wilson's disease D. Galactosaemia 174 / 266 174. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Galactorrhoea C. Gynaecomastia D. Acromegaly 175 / 266 175. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1 C. L5 D. S1,S2 176 / 266 176. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 177 / 266 177. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral hemorrhage 178 / 266 178. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 179 / 266 179. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 180 / 266 180. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Ataxia C. Hiccups D. Horner's syndrome 181 / 266 181. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Flexor plantar response C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 182 / 266 182. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. INH C. Nitrofurantoin D. Vincristine 183 / 266 183. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C6, 7 C. C3, 4 D. C4, 5 184 / 266 184. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 185 / 266 185. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 186 / 266 186. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 187 / 266 187. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Pin-point pupil C. Hypothermia D. Disconjugate gaze 188 / 266 188. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 189 / 266 189. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 190 / 266 190. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Quinolones 191 / 266 191. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 192 / 266 192. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 193 / 266 193. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 194 / 266 194. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Optic glioma D. Scoliosis 195 / 266 195. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 196 / 266 196. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Pick's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Alzheimer's disease 197 / 266 197. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 198 / 266 198. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Chorea 199 / 266 199. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 200 / 266 200. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tabes dorsalis 201 / 266 201. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Midbrain C. Upper pons D. Lower pons 202 / 266 202. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cirrhosis of liver 203 / 266 203. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Apraxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 204 / 266 204. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 205 / 266 205. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Snout reflex C. Anal reflex D. Grasp reflex 206 / 266 206. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ocular myopathy 207 / 266 207. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Stereognosis C. Tone and power D. Involuntary movements 208 / 266 208. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Clopidogrel C. Ticlopidine D. Aspirin 209 / 266 209. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. May occur spontaneously D. Quite often remits spontaneously 210 / 266 210. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Spastic tongue C. Dysarthria D. Dysphagia 211 / 266 211. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Demyelinating C. Embolic D. Inflammatory 212 / 266 212. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 3 weeks C. 96 hours D. 24 hours 213 / 266 213. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 214 / 266 214. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Depression 215 / 266 215. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 216 / 266 216. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Putamen C. Midbrain D. Thalamus 217 / 266 217. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 218 / 266 218. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Confabulation C. Loss of immediate recall D. Retrograde amnesia 219 / 266 219. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. E. coli D. Meningococcous 220 / 266 220. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 221 / 266 221. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 222 / 266 222. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. EMG C. Cerebellar functions D. Sensory functions 223 / 266 223. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 224 / 266 224. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-13 225 / 266 225. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 226 / 266 226. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Temporal C. Frontal D. Parietal 227 / 266 227. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 228 / 266 228. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Trypanosomiasis 229 / 266 229. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Hyperpyrexia 230 / 266 230. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Acute renal failure C. Oesophagitis D. Wallenberg's syndrome 231 / 266 231. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Takayasu's disease 232 / 266 232. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 233 / 266 233. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 234 / 266 234. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cerebral cortex 235 / 266 235. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Onycholysis C. Diarrhoea D. Ataxia 236 / 266 236. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Neuropathy 237 / 266 237. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Aphasia C. Dysarthria D. Monotonous speech 238 / 266 238. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hysteria 239 / 266 239. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Babinski's sign C. Gonda sign D. Chaddock's sign 240 / 266 240. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Virus C. Toxin D. Bacteria 241 / 266 241. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Hutchinson's pupil 242 / 266 242. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 243 / 266 243. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 244 / 266 244. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 245 / 266 245. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking to the roof C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking in front 246 / 266 246. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Proximal muscle weakness 247 / 266 247. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypotension C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocapnia 248 / 266 248. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 249 / 266 249. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 250 / 266 250. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Ethambutol 251 / 266 251. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 252 / 266 252. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 253 / 266 253. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Trimipramine C. Benzodiazepine D. Haloperidol 254 / 266 254. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Vllth C. Xth D. IIIrd 255 / 266 255. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Diplopia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 256 / 266 256. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. PET scan C. MRI scan D. CT scan 257 / 266 257. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 258 / 266 258. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Atenolol D. Verapamil 259 / 266 259. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Tabes dorsalis 260 / 266 260. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Syringobulbia D. Bell's palsy 261 / 266 261. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Red nucleus 262 / 266 262. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 263 / 266 263. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Sylvian fissure C. Over visual cortex D. Cerebello-pontine angle 264 / 266 264. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Brain tumor 265 / 266 265. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Lead C. Vincristine D. Alcohol 266 / 266 266. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Shagreen patch LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology