Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Severe heart failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 2 / 266 2. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Botulism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myasthenia gravis 3 / 266 3. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 4 / 266 4. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Leprosy D. Tuberculosis 5 / 266 5. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 6 / 266 6. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 7 / 266 7. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Upper pons C. Lower pons D. Medulla 8 / 266 8. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. After epileptic seizure C. Tetanus D. Meningism 9 / 266 9. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Myotonia C. Manual labourers D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 10 / 266 10. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 11 / 266 11. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 12 / 266 12. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 13 / 266 13. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Pituitary tumors 14 / 266 14. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cervical spondylosis 15 / 266 15. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Enteric fever C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 16 / 266 16. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 17 / 266 17. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Ventral pons C. Thalamus D. Cortex 18 / 266 18. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Emotional incontinence D. Masked facies 19 / 266 19. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Advanced pregnancy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 20 / 266 20. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Pseudoparkinsonism 21 / 266 21. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Ropinirole C. Tiagabine D. Pramipexole 22 / 266 22. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Coma C. Absent deep reflexes D. Hypertonia 24 / 266 24. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Deep coma C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hypokalemia 25 / 266 25. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Mania C. Polycythaemia vera D. Cluster headache 26 / 266 26. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Acute renal failure D. Oesophagitis 27 / 266 27. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Optic neuritis D. Convulsions 28 / 266 28. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Myopathy C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 29 / 266 29. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Optic nerv 30 / 266 30. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Negri bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Asteroid bodies 31 / 266 31. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe 32 / 266 32. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Fasciculations C. Clonus D. Spasticity 33 / 266 33. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Urinary incontinence C. Normal intellectual activity D. Ataxia 34 / 266 34. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Pseudoclonus C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Distal muscle weakness 35 / 266 35. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Deltoid C. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis major 36 / 266 36. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 37 / 266 37. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 38 / 266 38. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Animals C. Strangers D. High places 39 / 266 39. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Hysteria 40 / 266 40. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 41 / 266 41. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 42 / 266 42. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Meningism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 43 / 266 43. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Hereditary predisposition 44 / 266 44. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Diabetes mellitus 45 / 266 45. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 46 / 266 46. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 47 / 266 47. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Transverse sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Inferior sagittal sinus 48 / 266 48. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Dementia C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 49 / 266 49. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Infantile spasm 50 / 266 50. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 51 / 266 51. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Deep Jaundice 52 / 266 52. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Basal ganglia infarction 53 / 266 53. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocapnia D. Hypotension 54 / 266 54. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 55 / 266 55. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 56 / 266 56. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Interferon C. Immunoglobulin D. Corticosteroid 57 / 266 57. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Thiocyanates C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 58 / 266 58. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Pyramidal lesion C. Hiccups D. Horner's syndrome 59 / 266 59. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Hyperkinesia C. Normal reflexes D. Rigidity 60 / 266 60. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypercalcemia 61 / 266 61. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Two-point localisation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 62 / 266 62. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Ciliary ganglion C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 63 / 266 63. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Phobia 64 / 266 64. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tay-Sachs disease 65 / 266 65. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Tabes dorsalis 66 / 266 66. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Deafness 67 / 266 67. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Epilepsy C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 68 / 266 68. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 69 / 266 69. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Cerebral palsy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Leucodystrophy 70 / 266 70. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 71 / 266 71. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 72 / 266 72. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Emetine D. Lovastatin 73 / 266 73. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Quinsy D. Tetanus 74 / 266 74. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Choreoathetosis C. Mental retardation D. Retinitis pigmentosa 75 / 266 75. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Cervical rib C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 76 / 266 76. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 77 / 266 77. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Confabulation D. Associated with lacunar infarction 78 / 266 78. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 79 / 266 79. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Ataxia 80 / 266 80. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Poliomyelitis 81 / 266 81. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Dysphonia C. Aphasia D. Monotonous speech 82 / 266 82. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 83 / 266 83. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 84 / 266 84. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Small, spastic tongue C. Sudden onset D. Brisk jaw jerk 85 / 266 85. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Nasal regurgitation D. Spastic tongue 86 / 266 86. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Cataract 87 / 266 87. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Flexor spasm C. Mass reflex D. Increased tone in flexor groups 88 / 266 88. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Cortex 89 / 266 89. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Stereognosis 90 / 266 90. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 91 / 266 91. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Optic glioma 92 / 266 92. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sarcoidosis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 93 / 266 93. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 94 / 266 94. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Cerebellar infarction C. Epilepsy D. Multiple sclerosis 95 / 266 95. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Headache C. Convulsions D. Altered consciousness 96 / 266 96. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 97 / 266 97. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Brachycephaly C. Testicular atrophy D. Frontal baldness 98 / 266 98. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Enophthalmos C. Complete ptosis D. Constricted pupil 99 / 266 99. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 100 / 266 100. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Pinealomas C. Ependymoma D. Cerebral lymphoma 101 / 266 101. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myositis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 102 / 266 102. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Motor neuron disease 103 / 266 103. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Cluster headache C. Syringobulbia D. Bell's palsy 104 / 266 104. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Subdural hematoma C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Trypanosomiasis 105 / 266 105. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Seizures C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 106 / 266 106. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic 107 / 266 107. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Rheumatic fever C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Hyponatraemia 108 / 266 108. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Weber-Christian disease 109 / 266 109. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 110 / 266 110. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 111 / 266 111. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Horner's syndrome 112 / 266 112. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Olfactory groove C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Sylvian fissure 113 / 266 113. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 114 / 266 114. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Onycholysis 115 / 266 115. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 116 / 266 116. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Diazepam C. Topiramate D. Ethosuximide 117 / 266 117. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Ependymoma 118 / 266 118. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Botulism D. Horner's syndrome 119 / 266 119. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Kuru C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 120 / 266 120. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 121 / 266 121. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Seizures C. Diplopia D. Paraesthesia 122 / 266 122. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Cocaine C. Flumazenil D. Amphetamines 123 / 266 123. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 124 / 266 124. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1 125 / 266 125. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Pendular nystagmus C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Cerebellar syndrome 126 / 266 126. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 127 / 266 127. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myasthenia gravis 128 / 266 128. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 129 / 266 129. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Tuberous sclerosis C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 130 / 266 130. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Lathyrism C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 131 / 266 131. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myopathy C. Myelopathy D. Neuropathy 132 / 266 132. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 133 / 266 133. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C3, 4 C. C5, 6 D. C4, 5 134 / 266 134. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Anal reflex 135 / 266 135. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Parkinsonism C. Gross pedal oedema D. Tabes dorsalis 136 / 266 136. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Pontine glioma 137 / 266 137. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrigine D. Felbamate 138 / 266 138. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Myodonus D. Psychosis 139 / 266 139. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Inflammatory 140 / 266 140. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Looking in front C. Reading a book D. Looking to the roof 141 / 266 141. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Complex partial 142 / 266 142. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Pineal body C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 143 / 266 143. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 144 / 266 144. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypertonia 145 / 266 145. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Pick's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 146 / 266 146. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Corpus striatum 147 / 266 147. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 148 / 266 148. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Mania 149 / 266 149. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Retrograde amnesia C. Confabulation D. Loss of immediate recall 150 / 266 150. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Red nucleus D. Caudate nucleus 151 / 266 151. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Facial weakness 152 / 266 152. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Focal neuro deficit C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Blindness 153 / 266 153. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Autoimmunity 154 / 266 154. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Seizures 155 / 266 155. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Haloperidol C. Benzodiazepine D. Chlorpromazine 156 / 266 156. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Facial nerve 157 / 266 157. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Increased tone 158 / 266 158. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Phenytoin C. Verapamil D. Atenolol 159 / 266 159. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Ocular myopathy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 160 / 266 160. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Polyneuropathy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 161 / 266 161. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 162 / 266 162. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked recessive 163 / 266 163. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Hepatic precoma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Taboparesis 164 / 266 164. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Tunnel vision C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Bitemporal hemianopi 165 / 266 165. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 166 / 266 166. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Increased CSF pressure C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. High protein content 167 / 266 167. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Neurofibroma C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Subacute combined degeneration 168 / 266 168. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 169 / 266 169. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Lithium C. Haloperidol D. Clomipramine 170 / 266 170. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. IV frusemide C. Dexamethasone D. Oral glycerol 171 / 266 171. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 172 / 266 172. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Hemiballismus C. Dystonia D. Chorea 173 / 266 173. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 174 / 266 174. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 175 / 266 175. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer's disease 176 / 266 176. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 177 / 266 177. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 2 weeks C. 96 hours D. 24 hours 178 / 266 178. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 179 / 266 179. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Transverse myelitis C. Poliomyelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 180 / 266 180. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Fluoxetine C. Sertraline D. Paroxetine 181 / 266 181. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Weakness and spasticity D. Equivocal plantar response 182 / 266 182. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 183 / 266 183. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud's disease C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 184 / 266 184. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Quite often remits spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Seen in tall, thin people 185 / 266 185. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 186 / 266 186. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Ticlopidine 187 / 266 187. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Vth 188 / 266 188. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Cerebral embolism 189 / 266 189. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Brain tumor C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 190 / 266 190. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Retinal hemorrhage 191 / 266 191. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 192 / 266 192. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 193 / 266 193. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Deep reflexes are depressed 194 / 266 194. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Pompholyx C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Shagreen patch 195 / 266 195. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Brainstem 196 / 266 196. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 197 / 266 197. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Wilson's disease C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Haemochromatosis 198 / 266 198. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Diplopia 199 / 266 199. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 200 / 266 200. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Leukodystrophy 201 / 266 201. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Ataxia C. Areflexia D. External ophthalmoplegia 202 / 266 202. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Marathon runner 203 / 266 203. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 204 / 266 204. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T2 C. C8 D. T4 205 / 266 205. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 206 / 266 206. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Athetosis C. Chorea D. Tetany 207 / 266 207. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 208 / 266 208. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Bulbar palsy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 209 / 266 209. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 210 / 266 210. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 211 / 266 211. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Has a good prognosis in children 213 / 266 213. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 214 / 266 214. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Putamen C. Cerebellum D. Thalamus 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Ankle clonus C. Anemia D. Babinski's sign 216 / 266 216. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Refsum's disease D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 217 / 266 217. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Pin-point pupil C. Hypothermia D. Paralysis 218 / 266 218. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ocular myopathy C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Diabetes mellitus 219 / 266 219. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Sleep paralysis C. Cataplexy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 220 / 266 220. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 221 / 266 221. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Platybasia D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 222 / 266 222. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. E. coli D. H. influenzae 223 / 266 223. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Male dominance C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 224 / 266 224. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 225 / 266 225. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Infertility C. Acromegaly D. Alzheimer's disease 226 / 266 226. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. PET scan D. CT scan 227 / 266 227. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Parkinsonism 228 / 266 228. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Tuberculous meningitis 229 / 266 229. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 230 / 266 230. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 231 / 266 231. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Diminished auditory acuity 232 / 266 232. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 233 / 266 233. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Depression D. Visual hallucinations 234 / 266 234. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Macrolides 235 / 266 235. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Digitalis toxicity C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Aura phase of migraine 236 / 266 236. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Visual hallucinations C. Tremor D. Confabulation 237 / 266 237. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Hypoxia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 238 / 266 238. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 239 / 266 239. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 240 / 266 240. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Shy-Drager syndrome 241 / 266 241. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Heart valve abnormalities 242 / 266 242. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Parietal D. Occipital 243 / 266 243. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Cerebral atrophy C. Neurosyphilis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 244 / 266 244. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Leprosy D. Polymyositis 245 / 266 245. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. TOCP poisoning D. Amyloidosis 246 / 266 246. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 247 / 266 247. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Acromegaly C. Galactorrhoea D. Gynaecomastia 248 / 266 248. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Motor neuron disease 249 / 266 249. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Amiodarone C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 250 / 266 250. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. INH C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 251 / 266 251. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 252 / 266 252. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. Cerebellar functions D. EMG 253 / 266 253. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Wasting of muscles 254 / 266 254. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV mannitol C. Glucocorticoids D. IV quinine 255 / 266 255. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 256 / 266 256. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 257 / 266 257. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Autonomic response C. Motor response D. Verbal response 258 / 266 258. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Multiple sclerosis 259 / 266 259. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. AV malformations D. Systemic hypertension 260 / 266 260. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 261 / 266 261. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Papilloedema 262 / 266 262. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Immune disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 263 / 266 263. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Agnosia C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 264 / 266 264. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Ethambutol 265 / 266 265. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Reserpine C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 266 / 266 266. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Muscle biopsy D. Electromyography LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology