Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Central retinal artery occlusion 2 / 266 2. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Parietal 3 / 266 3. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Huge ascites C. Advanced pregnancy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 4 / 266 4. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Pinealomas D. Multiple sclerosis 5 / 266 5. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Gonda sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Babinski's sign 6 / 266 6. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Testicular atrophy 7 / 266 7. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Animals C. Pain D. High places 8 / 266 8. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Apraxia D. Areflexia 9 / 266 9. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 10 / 266 10. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Coarctation of aorta C. Takayasu's disease D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 11 / 266 11. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-18 D. Turner's syndrome 12 / 266 12. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Defect in learning C. Confabulation D. Retrograde amnesia 13 / 266 13. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Dysphasia C. Diplopia D. Seizures 14 / 266 14. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Dementia D. Ataxia 15 / 266 15. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 16 / 266 16. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 17 / 266 17. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pendular nystagmus C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pseudolymphoma 18 / 266 18. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 19 / 266 19. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Subdural hematoma 20 / 266 20. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. May be associated with malignancy 21 / 266 21. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 22 / 266 22. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. Xanthochromia 23 / 266 23. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 24 / 266 24. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 25 / 266 25. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 26 / 266 26. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Pyramidal signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 27 / 266 27. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 28 / 266 28. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 29 / 266 29. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Galactosaemia D. Haemochromatosis 30 / 266 30. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Masked facies C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Emotional incontinence 31 / 266 31. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 32 / 266 32. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 33 / 266 33. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Reserpine D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 34 / 266 34. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Hypothyroid myopathy 35 / 266 35. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hysteria 36 / 266 36. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Vincristine 37 / 266 37. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Myopathy C. Polymyositis D. Motor neuron disease 38 / 266 38. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Polycythaemia vera C. Cluster headache D. Mania 39 / 266 39. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Weber-Christian disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 40 / 266 40. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Malignant exophthalmos C. Ocular myopathy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 41 / 266 41. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. CT scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. MRI scan 42 / 266 42. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Epilepsy D. Multiple sclerosis 43 / 266 43. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Cerebellar disorder D. Pontine glioma 44 / 266 44. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 45 / 266 45. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 46 / 266 46. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Diarrhoea 47 / 266 47. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral hemorrhage 48 / 266 48. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 49 / 266 49. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Diazepam C. Topiramate D. Valproate 50 / 266 50. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Cervical rib C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Myopathy 51 / 266 51. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 52 / 266 52. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 53 / 266 53. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebral diplegia 54 / 266 54. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Leukodystrophy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 55 / 266 55. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myositis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 56 / 266 56. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Muscle biopsy C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 57 / 266 57. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral infarction C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 58 / 266 58. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor plantar response D. Mass reflex 59 / 266 59. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 60 / 266 60. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Loss of recent memory C. Presence of nystagmus D. Confabulation 61 / 266 61. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Unequal pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 62 / 266 62. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Myopathy 63 / 266 63. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Involuntary movements C. Stereognosis D. Nutrition of muscles 64 / 266 64. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Venous thrombosis 65 / 266 65. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Polyneuropathy C. Abducens palsy D. Loss of accommodation 66 / 266 66. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Neurofibroma 67 / 266 67. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 68 / 266 68. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 69 / 266 69. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 70 / 266 70. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Increased deep reflexes 71 / 266 71. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 72 / 266 72. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Neurosyphilis D. Lacunar infarction 73 / 266 73. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Ropinirole C. Rasagiline D. Pramipexole 74 / 266 74. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 75 / 266 75. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Alzheimer's disease C. Infertility D. Acromegaly 76 / 266 76. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 77 / 266 77. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 78 / 266 78. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Gillespie's syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 79 / 266 79. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Mania D. Schizophrenia 80 / 266 80. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Ataxia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 81 / 266 81. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Frontal lobe D. Corpus striatum 82 / 266 82. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 83 / 266 83. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age 84 / 266 84. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 85 / 266 85. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Gradenigo's syndrome 86 / 266 86. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 87 / 266 87. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Aura phase of migraine D. Cerebellar infarction 88 / 266 88. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 89 / 266 89. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Putamen 90 / 266 90. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Autonomic dysfunction 91 / 266 91. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Atenolol C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 92 / 266 92. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cervical spondylosis 93 / 266 93. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Ocular muscles 94 / 266 94. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Trigeminal neuralgia 95 / 266 95. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 96 / 266 96. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Convulsions C. Headache D. Altered consciousness 97 / 266 97. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyponatremia 98 / 266 98. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. TOCP poisoning 99 / 266 99. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Dantrolene C. Methoxyflurane D. Succinylcholine 100 / 266 100. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 101 / 266 101. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 102 / 266 102. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Midbrain 103 / 266 103. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Ocular myopathy C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Multiple sclerosis 104 / 266 104. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Amphetamines C. Cocaine D. Flumazenil 105 / 266 105. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Cluster headache D. Syringobulbia 106 / 266 106. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 107 / 266 107. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. E. coli C. H. influenzae D. Meningococcous 108 / 266 108. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Neuropathy 109 / 266 109. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common migraine has aura 110 / 266 110. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Cerebral cortex 111 / 266 111. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Hysteria C. Tetanus D. After epileptic seizure 112 / 266 112. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Coma 113 / 266 113. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Tuberculous meningitis 114 / 266 114. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 115 / 266 115. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Myoclonus D. Chorea 116 / 266 116. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Seizures C. Ankle oedema D. Livedo reticularis 117 / 266 117. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Drop attacks D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 118 / 266 118. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Limb shortening 119 / 266 119. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 120 / 266 120. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 121 / 266 121. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Pinealomas D. Ependymoma 122 / 266 122. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Donazepril is used in treatment 123 / 266 123. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 124 / 266 124. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 125 / 266 125. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 126 / 266 126. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. von Recklinghausen's disease 127 / 266 127. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Poliomyelitis D. Restlessness 128 / 266 128. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Trimipramine C. Benzodiazepine D. Chlorpromazine 129 / 266 129. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Hemorrhagic C. Inflammatory D. Demyelinating 130 / 266 130. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Tetanus C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Diphtheria 131 / 266 131. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Convulsions C. Optic neuritis D. SIADH 132 / 266 132. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Wilson's disease D. Hyponatraemia 133 / 266 133. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 134 / 266 134. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Transverse sinus D. Inferior sagittal sinus 135 / 266 135. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Midbrain 136 / 266 136. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Fluoxetine C. Paroxetine D. Sertraline 137 / 266 137. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking in front D. Reading a book 138 / 266 138. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 139 / 266 139. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Elapidae snake bite 140 / 266 140. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Febrile D. Trauma 141 / 266 141. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Autonomic response C. Verbal response D. Motor response 142 / 266 142. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Cataplexy C. Epilepsy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 143 / 266 143. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cerebral palsy D. Tuberous sclerosis 144 / 266 144. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Sensory ataxia C. Intact proprioception D. Increased tone 145 / 266 145. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 146 / 266 146. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 147 / 266 147. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Anal reflex D. Grasp reflex 148 / 266 148. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Mental retardation 149 / 266 149. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Deafness D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 150 / 266 150. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic neuropathy 151 / 266 151. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Valproic acid C. Alcohol D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 152 / 266 152. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cataract D. Cirrhosis of liver 153 / 266 153. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 154 / 266 154. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Pseudoclonus C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Distal muscle weakness 155 / 266 155. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. AV malformations D. Systemic hypertension 156 / 266 156. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 157 / 266 157. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Argyll Robertson pupil 158 / 266 158. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Facial nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trigeminal nerve 159 / 266 159. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Haloperidol C. Carbamazepine D. Lithium 160 / 266 160. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Lax abdominal wall D. Multiparous woman 161 / 266 161. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 162 / 266 162. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Titubation D. Hypertonia 163 / 266 163. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 164 / 266 164. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Retention of urine C. Hypertonia D. Absent deep reflexes 165 / 266 165. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Viral meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 166 / 266 166. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Levodopa C. Selegiline D. Amantadine 167 / 266 167. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Periodic paralysis 168 / 266 168. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Central scotoma C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Tunnel vision 169 / 266 169. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Polymyositis 170 / 266 170. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Botulism C. Horner's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 171 / 266 171. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Paranoia C. Phobia D. Depression 172 / 266 172. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 173 / 266 173. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 174 / 266 174. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 175 / 266 175. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Steroid myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 176 / 266 176. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Severe heart failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 177 / 266 177. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 178 / 266 178. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 179 / 266 179. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Complex partial D. Infantile spasm 180 / 266 180. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Aflatoxin C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 181 / 266 181. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Cerebral cortex C. Brainstem D. Thalamus 182 / 266 182. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C6, 7 C. C3, 4 D. C4, 5 183 / 266 183. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Tonic seizures D. Absence seizures 184 / 266 184. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Toxin 185 / 266 185. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Kuru 186 / 266 186. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Babinski's sign C. Small, spastic tongue D. Sudden onset 187 / 266 187. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Vigabatrin C. Lubeluzole D. Felbamate 188 / 266 188. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Hutchinson's pupil 189 / 266 189. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. C8 C. T1 D. T4 190 / 266 190. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cord compression 191 / 266 191. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Wilson's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Alcoholism 192 / 266 192. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Complete ptosis D. Enophthalmos 193 / 266 193. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Gross pedal oedema 194 / 266 194. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Wasting of muscles C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Absent tendon reflexes 195 / 266 195. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Brainstem C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 196 / 266 196. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Aphasia C. Agnosia D. Acalculia 197 / 266 197. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 198 / 266 198. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Alzheimer's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 199 / 266 199. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 200 / 266 200. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 201 / 266 201. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Sarcoidosis 202 / 266 202. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Meningism C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Froin's loculation syndrome 203 / 266 203. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Cardiac tamponade 204 / 266 204. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 205 / 266 205. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Early onset 206 / 266 206. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Syringomyelia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich's ataxia 207 / 266 207. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 208 / 266 208. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Multiple tics 209 / 266 209. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 210 / 266 210. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 211 / 266 211. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. May occur spontaneously D. Quite often remits spontaneously 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Glossitis C. Anemia D. Ankle clonus 213 / 266 213. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Seizures C. Mental retardation D. Adenoma sebaceum 214 / 266 214. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Periorbital pain 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 216 / 266 216. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysphonia C. Dysarthria D. Monotonous speech 217 / 266 217. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Hepatic precoma D. Friedreich' s ataxia 218 / 266 218. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. Proprioception C. EMG D. Sensory functions 219 / 266 219. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 220 / 266 220. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Transient ischemic attack C. Epilepsy D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 221 / 266 221. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Over visual cortex C. Olfactory groove D. Sylvian fissure 222 / 266 222. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Progressive muscular atrophy 223 / 266 223. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Fasciculations C. Spasticity D. Babinski's sign 224 / 266 224. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 225 / 266 225. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 226 / 266 226. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Aortic incompetence 227 / 266 227. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Medulla C. Lower pons D. Upper pons 228 / 266 228. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Polymyositis D. Patent ductus arteriosus 229 / 266 229. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Papilledema 230 / 266 230. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Motor neuron disease 231 / 266 231. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cervical spondylosis 232 / 266 232. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 233 / 266 233. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysphagia C. Spastic tongue D. Dysarthria 234 / 266 234. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Astrocytoma 235 / 266 235. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Absent superficial reflex 236 / 266 236. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 237 / 266 237. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Visual hallucinations C. Perspiration D. Tremor 238 / 266 238. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 239 / 266 239. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Chorea 240 / 266 240. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 241 / 266 241. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia 242 / 266 242. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Chloroquine C. Probenecid D. Amiodarone 243 / 266 243. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 244 / 266 244. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Acute renal failure 245 / 266 245. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 3 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 24 hours 246 / 266 246. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Myotonia D. Athletes 247 / 266 247. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Malignant hypertension D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 248 / 266 248. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulism D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 249 / 266 249. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 250 / 266 250. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Pompholyx 251 / 266 251. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Ataxia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Hypothyroidism 252 / 266 252. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 253 / 266 253. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 254 / 266 254. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Blindness C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Convulsions 255 / 266 255. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Xth C. Vllth D. IIIrd 256 / 266 256. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Pentoxifylline C. Aspirin D. Ticlopidine 257 / 266 257. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Deep coma C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hyperkalemia 258 / 266 258. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 259 / 266 259. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 260 / 266 260. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Negri bodies D. Asteroid bodies 261 / 266 261. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 262 / 266 262. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Infraspinatus C. Deltoid D. Calf muscles 263 / 266 263. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Alzheimer's disease 264 / 266 264. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 265 / 266 265. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. L5,S1 C. S1 D. S1,S2 266 / 266 266. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Syphilis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology