Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Wilson's disease C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Galactosaemia 2 / 266 2. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Paranoia C. Phobia D. Mania 3 / 266 3. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 4 / 266 4. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Addison's disease C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypoparathyroidism 5 / 266 5. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Multiple tics C. Dementia D. Coprolalia 6 / 266 6. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 7 / 266 7. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Ocular muscles 8 / 266 8. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myositis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Polyneuropathy 9 / 266 9. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysarthria C. Monotonous speech D. Dysphonia 10 / 266 10. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Limb shortening 11 / 266 11. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 12 / 266 12. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Optic neuritis C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Convulsions 13 / 266 13. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Albright's disease D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 14 / 266 14. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Deep Jaundice C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 15 / 266 15. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tight aortic stenosis 16 / 266 16. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Paraesthesia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 17 / 266 17. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Motor response C. Autonomic response D. Verbal response 18 / 266 18. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Pain C. Animals D. High places 19 / 266 19. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Immune disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 20 / 266 20. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 21 / 266 21. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 22 / 266 22. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Facial weakness C. Aphasia D. Coma 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 24 / 266 24. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Paralysis 25 / 266 25. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. IV frusemide C. IV mannitol D. Oral glycerol 26 / 266 26. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Enteric fever C. Atypical pneumonia D. Cerebral malaria 27 / 266 27. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Vincristine C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 28 / 266 28. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Fasciculations C. Spasticity D. Clonus 29 / 266 29. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. High protein content C. Increased CSF pressure D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 30 / 266 30. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Infantile spasm 31 / 266 31. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Polycystic kidney D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 32 / 266 32. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Carbamazepine 33 / 266 33. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Old age 34 / 266 34. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Aflatoxin 35 / 266 35. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Cerebellar functions 36 / 266 36. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Pneumococcus C. Meningococcous D. H. influenzae 37 / 266 37. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Abducens palsy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Polyneuropathy 38 / 266 38. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 39 / 266 39. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Alcohol C. Lead D. Vincristine 40 / 266 40. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Infertility C. Acromegaly D. Alzheimer's disease 41 / 266 41. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 42 / 266 42. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 43 / 266 43. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. May occur spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. Quite often remits spontaneously 44 / 266 44. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 45 / 266 45. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Seizures 46 / 266 46. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Neurofibroma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Patchy arachnoiditis 47 / 266 47. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Leucodystrophy D. Tuberous sclerosis 48 / 266 48. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Sarcoidosis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 49 / 266 49. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Apraxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 50 / 266 50. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebellar infarction C. Epilepsy D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 51 / 266 51. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Vllth 52 / 266 52. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 53 / 266 53. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Flexor spasm C. Mass reflex D. Increased tone in flexor groups 54 / 266 54. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Gynaecomastia 55 / 266 55. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Taboparesis C. Hepatic precoma D. Friedreich' s ataxia 56 / 266 56. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Severe heart failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 57 / 266 57. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking in front C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking to the roof 58 / 266 58. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Mental retardation D. Choreoathetosis 59 / 266 59. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Increased deep reflexes D. Flexor plantar response 60 / 266 60. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Probenecid 61 / 266 61. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 62 / 266 62. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Giant cell arteritis D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 63 / 266 63. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Huntington's chorea C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Punch-drunk syndrome 64 / 266 64. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Babinski's sign C. Anemia D. Ankle clonus 65 / 266 65. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 66 / 266 66. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Meningism 67 / 266 67. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Hypoxia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 68 / 266 68. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Reserpine D. Pindolol 69 / 266 69. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 70 / 266 70. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Over visual cortex D. Olfactory groove 71 / 266 71. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hyperkalemia 72 / 266 72. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Viral meningitis 73 / 266 73. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Ocular myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis 74 / 266 74. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Hyponatraemia C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Wilson's disease 75 / 266 75. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Dystonia C. Myoclonus D. Chorea 76 / 266 76. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 77 / 266 77. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 78 / 266 78. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Temporal lobe D. Corpus striatum 79 / 266 79. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Bulbar palsy C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Chronic motor neuron disease 80 / 266 80. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C5, 6 C. C4, 5 D. C6, 7 81 / 266 81. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Amyloidosis C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pyridoxine deficiency 82 / 266 82. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 83 / 266 83. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 84 / 266 84. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 85 / 266 85. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Superior sagittal sinus 86 / 266 86. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Vigabatrin C. Lubeluzole D. Lamotrigine 87 / 266 87. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Frontal lobe 88 / 266 88. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Weber-Christian disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 89 / 266 89. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 90 / 266 90. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Lathyrism 91 / 266 91. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Carotid artery occlusion 92 / 266 92. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Convulsions C. Blindness D. Focal neuro deficit 93 / 266 93. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Passivity feelings C. Early onset D. Depression 94 / 266 94. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 95 / 266 95. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 96 / 266 96. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Tetanus C. Quinsy D. Diphtheria 97 / 266 97. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Hysteria 98 / 266 98. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cervical spondylosis D. Syringomyelia 99 / 266 99. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Brisk deep reflexes 100 / 266 100. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Drop attacks C. Diplopia D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 101 / 266 101. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Trypanosomiasis 102 / 266 102. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 103 / 266 103. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Parkinsonism C. Motor neuron disease D. Cerebral diplegia 104 / 266 104. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 105 / 266 105. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Glioblastoma 106 / 266 106. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Acute renal failure D. Oesophagitis 107 / 266 107. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Distal muscle weakness C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Pseudoclonus 108 / 266 108. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Sudden onset C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Babinski's sign 109 / 266 109. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 110 / 266 110. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Glioma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 111 / 266 111. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Ataxia C. Areflexia D. Apraxia 112 / 266 112. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Myotonia C. Chorea D. Athetosis 113 / 266 113. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Defect in learning C. Loss of immediate recall D. Confabulation 114 / 266 114. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypotension D. Hypoxia 115 / 266 115. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Dementia 116 / 266 116. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 117 / 266 117. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Polymyositis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy 118 / 266 118. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myopathy C. Myelopathy D. Neuropathy 119 / 266 119. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Pyramidal signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Cerebellar signs 120 / 266 120. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Dysarthria C. Spastic tongue D. Nasal regurgitation 121 / 266 121. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Hemorrhagic D. Inflammatory 122 / 266 122. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Clopidogrel C. Ticlopidine D. Aspirin 123 / 266 123. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Central scotoma C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Homonymous hemianopia 124 / 266 124. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Agraphia D. Acalculia 125 / 266 125. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Radial nerve palsy C. Syringomyelia D. Poliomyelitis 126 / 266 126. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Tremor C. Confabulation D. Perspiration 127 / 266 127. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Aortic incompetence C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Cerebellar disorder 128 / 266 128. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 129 / 266 129. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 130 / 266 130. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. Shagreen patch C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Adenoma sebaceum 131 / 266 131. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 132 / 266 132. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 133 / 266 133. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 134 / 266 134. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Complete ptosis 135 / 266 135. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Neurosyphilis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Lacunar infarction 136 / 266 136. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. S1 C. L5 D. L5,S1 137 / 266 137. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Polycythaemia vera C. Mania D. Cluster headache 138 / 266 138. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Athletes C. Manual labourers D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 139 / 266 139. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 140 / 266 140. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 141 / 266 141. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Migraine 142 / 266 142. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle biopsy C. Muscle enzyme study D. Electromyography 143 / 266 143. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 144 / 266 144. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 145 / 266 145. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 146 / 266 146. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Emotional incontinence D. Extensor plantar response 147 / 266 147. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 148 / 266 148. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 149 / 266 149. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Huntington's chorea C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi-infarct dementia 150 / 266 150. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 151 / 266 151. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Scoliosis C. Meningioma D. Optic glioma 152 / 266 152. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Alcohol withdrawal 153 / 266 153. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Medulla C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 154 / 266 154. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Sleep paralysis C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Cataplexy 155 / 266 155. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 156 / 266 156. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Pyramidal lesion C. Ataxia D. Horner's syndrome 157 / 266 157. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 158 / 266 158. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Syringomyelia D. Tabes dorsalis 159 / 266 159. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Lewy bodies 160 / 266 160. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Hysteria C. Tetanus D. After epileptic seizure 161 / 266 161. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Cataract 162 / 266 162. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 163 / 266 163. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked dominant 164 / 266 164. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 165 / 266 165. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Frontal baldness C. Testicular atrophy D. Ptosis 166 / 266 166. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 167 / 266 167. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cord compression D. Acute transverse myelitis 168 / 266 168. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Dantrolene C. Halothane D. Methoxyflurane 169 / 266 169. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Hypothyroidism D. Onycholysis 170 / 266 170. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 171 / 266 171. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Cerebellar disorder D. Alcoholism 172 / 266 172. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Calcification within a lesion C. Multiple sclerosis D. Posterior fossa tumors 173 / 266 173. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Aura phase of migraine D. Cerebellar infarction 174 / 266 174. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 175 / 266 175. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Hyperpyrexia 176 / 266 176. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Haloperidol C. Trimipramine D. Chlorpromazine 177 / 266 177. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 178 / 266 178. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Equivocal plantar response C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Absent superficial reflex 179 / 266 179. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 180 / 266 180. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 181 / 266 181. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 182 / 266 182. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Alcohol D. Valproic acid 183 / 266 183. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Pendular nystagmus C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Cerebellar syndrome 184 / 266 184. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 185 / 266 185. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Viral meningitis 186 / 266 186. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Febrile D. Trauma 187 / 266 187. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Waddling gait C. Sensory dysfunction D. Argyll Robertson pupil 188 / 266 188. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 189 / 266 189. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Pineal body C. Dura matter D. Basal ganglia 190 / 266 190. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Convulsions C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Headache 191 / 266 191. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 192 / 266 192. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Retention of urine C. Hypertonia D. Absent deep reflexes 193 / 266 193. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Ocular myopathy 194 / 266 194. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Cyclophosphamide C. Immunoglobulin D. Corticosteroid 195 / 266 195. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 196 / 266 196. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Topiramate C. Diazepam D. Ethosuximide 197 / 266 197. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 198 / 266 198. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Leukodystrophy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 199 / 266 199. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Myasthenia gravis 200 / 266 200. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Raynaud's disease D. Diabetic neuropathy 201 / 266 201. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 202 / 266 202. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Aminoglycosides C. Cephalosporins D. Quinolones 203 / 266 203. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. MRI scan C. PET scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 205 / 266 205. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Infarction of occipital lobe 206 / 266 206. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Marathon runner 207 / 266 207. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Myopathy D. Sarcoidosis 208 / 266 208. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Oculomotor nerve C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 209 / 266 209. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 210 / 266 210. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Deep coma C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hyperkalemia 211 / 266 211. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 212 / 266 212. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Two-point localisation C. Graphesthesia D. Vibration sensation 213 / 266 213. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Leprosy C. Sarcoidosis D. Tuberculosis 214 / 266 214. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypermetria C. Titubation D. Hypertonia 215 / 266 215. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 216 / 266 216. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Left atrial myxoma 217 / 266 217. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 218 / 266 218. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 219 / 266 219. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Midbrain 220 / 266 220. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Phakomatosis 221 / 266 221. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia 222 / 266 222. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Periodic paralysis 223 / 266 223. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Cerebral cortex C. Pons D. Internal capsule 224 / 266 224. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Emotional excitement D. Systemic hypertension 225 / 266 225. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Osteomalacia D. Ataxia 226 / 266 226. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Myasthenia gravis 227 / 266 227. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Selegiline D. Levodopa 228 / 266 228. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Refsum's disease C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 229 / 266 229. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 230 / 266 230. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 231 / 266 231. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Huntington's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 232 / 266 232. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 233 / 266 233. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myxoedema D. Parkinsonism 234 / 266 234. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Stereognosis C. Nutrition of muscles D. Tone and power 235 / 266 235. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Steroid myopathy 236 / 266 236. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common in women C. Common migraine has aura D. Hereditary predisposition 237 / 266 237. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Verapamil C. Sumatriptan D. Phenytoin 238 / 266 238. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 239 / 266 239. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Cervical spondylosis D. Duchenne myopathy 240 / 266 240. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Anal reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Snout reflex 241 / 266 241. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 3 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 96 hours 242 / 266 242. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 243 / 266 243. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Cerebral cortex 244 / 266 244. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Advanced pregnancy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Huge ascites 245 / 266 245. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Polymyositis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Diabetic amyotrophy 246 / 266 246. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 247 / 266 247. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Pontine glioma D. Amblyopia 248 / 266 248. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. T2 C. C8 D. T1 249 / 266 249. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 250 / 266 250. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Facial nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 251 / 266 251. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Duodenal stenosis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Polymyositis 252 / 266 252. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumor D. Tuberculous meningitis 253 / 266 253. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Hysteria 254 / 266 254. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peripheral neuropathy 255 / 266 255. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic carcinoma 256 / 266 256. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Right homonymous hemianopia 257 / 266 257. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal 258 / 266 258. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Normal reflexes C. Hyperkinesia D. Rigidity 259 / 266 259. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ethambutol D. Syphilis 260 / 266 260. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 261 / 266 261. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 262 / 266 262. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Flumazenil C. Cocaine D. Carbamazepine 263 / 266 263. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Diabetes mellitus D. Raised intracranial pressure 264 / 266 264. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Gonda sign D. Chaddock's sign 265 / 266 265. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Sturge-Weber disease C. von Recklinghausen's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 266 / 266 266. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Midbrain lesion LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology