Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Ankle oedema D. Fatty liver 2 / 266 2. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Cerebral atrophy C. Lacunar infarction D. Neurosyphilis 3 / 266 3. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Disconjugate gaze B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Hypothermia 4 / 266 4. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Ciliary ganglion 5 / 266 5. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Motor neuron disease C. Cerebral diplegia D. Multiple sclerosis 6 / 266 6. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Brain tumor 7 / 266 7. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Selegiline D. Amantadine 8 / 266 8. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Diminished auditory acuity 9 / 266 9. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 10 / 266 10. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Equivocal plantar response C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Weakness and spasticity 11 / 266 11. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Duchenne myopathy 12 / 266 12. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 13 / 266 13. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. EMG C. Cerebellar functions D. Sensory functions 14 / 266 14. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 15 / 266 15. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Abducens palsy D. Paralysis of soft palate 16 / 266 16. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Pyramidal lesion C. Hiccups D. Ataxia 17 / 266 17. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Cocaine C. Carbamazepine D. Flumazenil 18 / 266 18. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypercalcemia 19 / 266 19. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Chloroquine C. Amiodarone D. Probenecid 20 / 266 20. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Ependymoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 21 / 266 21. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 22 / 266 22. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 23 / 266 23. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell's palsy C. Syringobulbia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 24 / 266 24. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Athetosis C. Myotonia D. Chorea 25 / 266 25. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Stokes-Adams syndrome 26 / 266 26. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrigine D. Felbamate 27 / 266 27. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Convulsions C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Optic neuritis 28 / 266 28. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Mania C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Schizophrenia 29 / 266 29. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Chorea C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 30 / 266 30. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Patchy arachnoiditis 31 / 266 31. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Sudden onset 32 / 266 32. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Infertility D. Acromegaly 33 / 266 33. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Taboparesis B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Hepatic precoma D. Subacute combined degeneration 34 / 266 34. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 35 / 266 35. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Zidovudine C. Emetine D. Febuxostat 36 / 266 36. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Pentoxifylline C. Ticlopidine D. Clopidogrel 37 / 266 37. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Waddling gait D. Argyll Robertson pupil 38 / 266 38. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Myxoedema D. Alcohol 39 / 266 39. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Tuberculosis 40 / 266 40. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Distal muscle weakness C. Pseudoclonus D. Exaggerated deep reflex 41 / 266 41. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Oesophagitis D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 42 / 266 42. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Cerebellar disorder 43 / 266 43. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 44 / 266 44. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Caudate nucleus C. Red nucleus D. Putamen 45 / 266 45. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 46 / 266 46. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cataract C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Multiple sclerosis 47 / 266 47. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Pons 48 / 266 48. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Temporal 49 / 266 49. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Pneumococcus C. Meningococcous D. H. influenzae 50 / 266 50. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Motor neuron disease D. Polymyositis 51 / 266 51. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe 52 / 266 52. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hypokalemia D. Deep coma 53 / 266 53. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 54 / 266 54. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. INH C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine 55 / 266 55. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Huntington's chorea C. Post-encephalitic D. Multi-infarct dementia 56 / 266 56. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. May be associated with malignancy 57 / 266 57. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Masked facies C. Extensor plantar response D. Emotional incontinence 58 / 266 58. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Polyneuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 59 / 266 59. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 60 / 266 60. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Pons D. Midbrain 61 / 266 61. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Encephalitis C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 62 / 266 62. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hyponatremia C. Hypoxia D. Hypocapnia 63 / 266 63. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Aortic incompetence D. Parkinsonism 64 / 266 64. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Shagreen patch D. Adenoma sebaceum 65 / 266 65. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Increased deep reflexes 66 / 266 66. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Multiple tics D. Dementia 67 / 266 67. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 68 / 266 68. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Lithium C. Clomipramine D. Haloperidol 69 / 266 69. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 70 / 266 70. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 71 / 266 71. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 72 / 266 72. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypervitaminosis D 73 / 266 73. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 74 / 266 74. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Hypertonia C. Coma D. Absent deep reflexes 75 / 266 75. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Convulsions D. Headache 76 / 266 76. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Hypothyroidism C. Thrombocytopenia D. Ataxia 77 / 266 77. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Sensory ataxia D. Increased tone 78 / 266 78. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Ventral pons 79 / 266 79. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Electroconvulsive therapy 80 / 266 80. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents vasospasm D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 81 / 266 81. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Absence of root pain C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Viral or post-vaccinal 82 / 266 82. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Snakebite C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 83 / 266 83. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 84 / 266 84. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Head injury D. Transient ischemic attack 85 / 266 85. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 86 / 266 86. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Testicular atrophy C. Frontal baldness D. Ptosis 87 / 266 87. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 88 / 266 88. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myopathy of Duchenne type C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 89 / 266 89. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Turner's syndrome 90 / 266 90. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 91 / 266 91. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 92 / 266 92. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Rheumatic fever C. Wilson's disease D. Hyponatraemia 93 / 266 93. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Duodenal stenosis 94 / 266 94. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Chorea C. Myodonus D. Migraine 95 / 266 95. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Carotid artery occlusion D. Basal ganglia infarction 96 / 266 96. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Emotional excitement C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. AV malformations 97 / 266 97. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Osteomalacia 98 / 266 98. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Venous thrombosis 99 / 266 99. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 100 / 266 100. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 101 / 266 101. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Dementia in AIDS 102 / 266 102. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Immune disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Metabolic disorder 103 / 266 103. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Deltoid B. Calf muscles C. Pectoralis major D. Infraspinatus 104 / 266 104. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Convulsions C. Focal neuro deficit D. Radioculomyelopathy 105 / 266 105. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Syphilis C. Ethambutol D. Leprosy 106 / 266 106. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 107 / 266 107. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Nasal regurgitation C. Spastic tongue D. Dysarthria 108 / 266 108. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Limb shortening C. Mental retardation D. Anencephaly 109 / 266 109. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cerebral palsy D. Tuberous sclerosis 110 / 266 110. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Dantrolene C. Halothane D. Methoxyflurane 111 / 266 111. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Leukodystrophy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 112 / 266 112. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hysteria 113 / 266 113. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. C8 C. T1 D. T2 114 / 266 114. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Poliomyelitis C. Restlessness D. Transverse myelitis 115 / 266 115. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Over visual cortex C. Olfactory groove D. Cerebello-pontine angle 116 / 266 116. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Snout reflex C. Anal reflex D. Sucking reflex 117 / 266 117. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Scoliosis C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 118 / 266 118. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 119 / 266 119. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Autoimmunity C. Toxin D. Bacteria 120 / 266 120. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 121 / 266 121. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Nystagmus C. Aphasia D. Papilloedema 122 / 266 122. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 123 / 266 123. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Viral meningitis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 124 / 266 124. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Onycholysis 125 / 266 125. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. Drop attacks D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 126 / 266 126. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 127 / 266 127. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebellar infarction 128 / 266 128. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 129 / 266 129. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Botulism 130 / 266 130. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 131 / 266 131. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Advanced pregnancy C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 132 / 266 132. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Cataplexy C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 133 / 266 133. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Loss of recent memory D. Confabulation 134 / 266 134. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Ocular myopathy 135 / 266 135. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Deep reflexes are depressed 136 / 266 136. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Trimipramine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 137 / 266 137. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pendular nystagmus C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pseudolymphoma 138 / 266 138. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Tetanus C. Hysteria D. After epileptic seizure 139 / 266 139. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Loss of immediate recall C. Confabulation D. Defect in learning 140 / 266 140. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Hyperkinesia C. Normal reflexes D. Rigidity 141 / 266 141. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Lathyrism D. Botulinus poisoning 142 / 266 142. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Periorbital pain C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 143 / 266 143. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Depression B. Phobia C. Paranoia D. Mania 144 / 266 144. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Medulloblastoma B. Meningioma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 145 / 266 145. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Meningism 146 / 266 146. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 147 / 266 147. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Diabetes mellitus 148 / 266 148. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Infantile spasm C. Petit mal D. Complex partial 149 / 266 149. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 150 / 266 150. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Apraxia D. Ataxia 151 / 266 151. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cortex 152 / 266 152. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 153 / 266 153. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Acalculia C. Agnosia D. Aphasia 154 / 266 154. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Pramipexole C. Rasagiline D. Tiagabine 155 / 266 155. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Cerebellar disorder C. Phenytoin toxicity D. Amblyopia 156 / 266 156. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Central scotoma D. Tunnel vision 157 / 266 157. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Punch-drunk syndrome 158 / 266 158. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Hypoxia C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 159 / 266 159. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 160 / 266 160. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Coma 161 / 266 161. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Albright's disease 162 / 266 162. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Lax abdominal wall 163 / 266 163. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Wasting of muscles 164 / 266 164. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hereditary spastic paraplegia C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 165 / 266 165. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cervical spondylosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Syringomyelia 166 / 266 166. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Vestibular lesion 167 / 266 167. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Corpus striatum D. Temporal lobe 168 / 266 168. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Horner's syndrome C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 169 / 266 169. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Constricted pupil C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 170 / 266 170. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Sarcoidosis 171 / 266 171. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Haemochromatosis C. Wilson's disease D. Myotonic dystrophy 172 / 266 172. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Pick's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 173 / 266 173. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 174 / 266 174. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Leprosy 175 / 266 175. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Proximal limb muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 176 / 266 176. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 177 / 266 177. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Myotonia C. Manual labourers D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 178 / 266 178. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 179 / 266 179. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Diplopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Right homonymous hemianopia 180 / 266 180. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Hyperpyrexia D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 181 / 266 181. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Bulbar palsy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 182 / 266 182. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 183 / 266 183. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Aura phase of migraine D. Digitalis toxicity 184 / 266 184. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Glossitis C. Ankle clonus D. Anemia 185 / 266 185. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 186 / 266 186. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Febrile C. Trauma D. Epilepsy 187 / 266 187. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Stereognosis 188 / 266 188. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Ataxia 189 / 266 189. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysarthria C. Aphasia D. Dysphonia 190 / 266 190. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 191 / 266 191. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Oral glycerol C. IV frusemide D. Dexamethasone 192 / 266 192. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Paraesthesia 193 / 266 193. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 194 / 266 194. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Polycystic kidney D. Takayasu's disease 195 / 266 195. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Papilledema 196 / 266 196. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Leprosy C. Refsum's disease D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 197 / 266 197. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 198 / 266 198. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Aminoglycosides C. Cephalosporins D. Macrolides 199 / 266 199. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumour C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Raised intracranial pressure 200 / 266 200. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Gonda sign D. Babinski's sign 201 / 266 201. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 202 / 266 202. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 203 / 266 203. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Dolichocephaly 204 / 266 204. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 205 / 266 205. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Trypanosomiasis D. Subdural hematoma 206 / 266 206. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 207 / 266 207. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 208 / 266 208. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Amyloidosis C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. TOCP poisoning 209 / 266 209. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 210 / 266 210. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral hemorrhage 211 / 266 211. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Astrocytoma 212 / 266 212. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 213 / 266 213. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 214 / 266 214. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Phenytoin C. Atenolol D. Verapamil 215 / 266 215. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking to the roof C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking in front 216 / 266 216. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Pinealomas C. Ependymoma D. Glioma 217 / 266 217. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 218 / 266 218. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 24 hours C. 96 hours D. 2 weeks 219 / 266 219. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 220 / 266 220. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. IV mannitol D. Glucocorticoids 221 / 266 221. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Tuberculous meningitis 222 / 266 222. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Mental retardation C. Seizures D. Phakomatosis 223 / 266 223. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Embolic C. Demyelinating D. Hemorrhagic 224 / 266 224. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Left ventricular aneurysm 225 / 266 225. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Lathyrism 226 / 266 226. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 227 / 266 227. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 228 / 266 228. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 229 / 266 229. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 230 / 266 230. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Eye opening C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 231 / 266 231. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Cyclophosphamide C. Corticosteroid D. Interferon 232 / 266 232. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Aflatoxin C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Thiocyanates 233 / 266 233. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 234 / 266 234. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Raynaud's disease C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Leprosy 235 / 266 235. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 236 / 266 236. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Fasciculations C. Clonus D. Spasticity 237 / 266 237. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. CT scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. MRI scan 238 / 266 238. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Vagus nerve 239 / 266 239. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Lower pons D. Midbrain 240 / 266 240. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 241 / 266 241. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Strangers C. Animals D. High places 242 / 266 242. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 243 / 266 243. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Gynaecomastia C. Acromegaly D. Galactorrhoea 244 / 266 244. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. May occur spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 245 / 266 245. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Confabulation C. Perspiration D. Visual hallucinations 246 / 266 246. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Mania C. SIADH D. Cluster headache 247 / 266 247. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Elapidae snake bite 248 / 266 248. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Gross pedal oedema C. Parkinsonism D. Myxoedema 249 / 266 249. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Trigeminal neuralgia 250 / 266 250. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Depression C. Visual hallucinations D. Early onset 251 / 266 251. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Friedreich's ataxia 252 / 266 252. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 253 / 266 253. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Optic nerv 254 / 266 254. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Electromyography B. Muscle enzyme study C. Muscle biopsy D. Nerve conduction study 255 / 266 255. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Hemicranial headache C. Common in women D. Common migraine has aura 256 / 266 256. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Friedreich's ataxia 257 / 266 257. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Thalamus D. Putamen 258 / 266 258. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Brainstem C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 259 / 266 259. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Fluoxetine 260 / 266 260. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Negri bodies 261 / 266 261. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Xanthochromia D. Increased CSF pressure 262 / 266 262. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1 263 / 266 263. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 264 / 266 264. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Pyramidal signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 265 / 266 265. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Choreoathetosis C. Mental retardation D. Retinitis pigmentosa 266 / 266 266. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Mass reflex C. Flexor plantar response D. Flexor spasm LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology