Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Anal reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Sucking reflex 2 / 266 2. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. High protein content D. Xanthochromia 3 / 266 3. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Quinolones B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Aminoglycosides 4 / 266 4. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Coma C. Hypertonia D. Absent deep reflexes 5 / 266 5. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C6, 7 C. C4, 5 D. C5, 6 6 / 266 6. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 7 / 266 7. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Venous thrombosis D. Cerebral infarction 8 / 266 8. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Sturge-Weber disease 9 / 266 9. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Putamen D. Thalamus 10 / 266 10. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 11 / 266 11. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Polymyositis D. Myopathy 12 / 266 12. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Huntington's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 13 / 266 13. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 14 / 266 14. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. TOCP poisoning C. Amyloidosis D. Acute intermittent porphyria 15 / 266 15. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 16 / 266 16. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Ependymoma C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 17 / 266 17. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Dura matter C. Basal ganglia D. Choroid plexus 18 / 266 18. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 19 / 266 19. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Alzheimer's disease C. Infertility D. Parkinsonism 20 / 266 20. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Amblyopia D. Cerebellar disorder 21 / 266 21. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Lax abdominal wall 22 / 266 22. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 23 / 266 23. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 24 / 266 24. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Motor neuron disease C. Cervical spondylosis D. Multiple sclerosis 25 / 266 25. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Marathon runner 26 / 266 26. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 27 / 266 27. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Flexor plantar response 28 / 266 28. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Carbamazepine C. Clomipramine D. Lithium 29 / 266 29. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 30 / 266 30. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Horner's syndrome B. Hiccups C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 31 / 266 31. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Autonomic response B. Eye opening C. Motor response D. Verbal response 32 / 266 32. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Neurofibroma B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Spinal epidural abscess 33 / 266 33. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Aphasia D. Nystagmus 34 / 266 34. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pendular nystagmus D. Pseudolymphoma 35 / 266 35. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 36 / 266 36. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism 37 / 266 37. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 38 / 266 38. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trochlear nerve 39 / 266 39. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 40 / 266 40. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure sensory stroke 41 / 266 41. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Abducens nerve 42 / 266 42. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 43 / 266 43. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Galactorrhoea 44 / 266 44. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Ependymoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 45 / 266 45. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Mania C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 46 / 266 46. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Altered consciousness D. Convulsions 47 / 266 47. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 48 / 266 48. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Seizures C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 49 / 266 49. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 50 / 266 50. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 51 / 266 51. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 52 / 266 52. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5,S1 53 / 266 53. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Visual hallucinations C. Depression D. Early onset 54 / 266 54. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. PET scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. CT scan 55 / 266 55. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pyogenic meningitis 56 / 266 56. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myxoedema C. Gross pedal oedema D. Parkinsonism 57 / 266 57. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 58 / 266 58. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 59 / 266 59. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 60 / 266 60. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. Cerebellar functions C. EMG D. Proprioception 61 / 266 61. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Leprosy C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Tabes dorsalis 62 / 266 62. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 63 / 266 63. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. IV mannitol 64 / 266 64. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 65 / 266 65. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 66 / 266 66. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 67 / 266 67. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Parkinsonism C. Alcoholism D. Wilson's disease 68 / 266 68. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Pinealomas 69 / 266 69. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Froin's loculation syndrome 70 / 266 70. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Choreoathetosis C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Retinitis pigmentosa 71 / 266 71. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 72 / 266 72. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 73 / 266 73. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Dolichocephaly D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 74 / 266 74. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Weber-Christian disease 75 / 266 75. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 76 / 266 76. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Calcification within a lesion 77 / 266 77. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Flumazenil C. Amphetamines D. Carbamazepine 78 / 266 78. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Ataxia C. Areflexia D. External ophthalmoplegia 79 / 266 79. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 80 / 266 80. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Diazepam 81 / 266 81. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 82 / 266 82. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Cervical spine 83 / 266 83. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Hepatic precoma 84 / 266 84. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Mass reflex C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 85 / 266 85. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Succinylcholine C. Methoxyflurane D. Halothane 86 / 266 86. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Deep Jaundice C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 87 / 266 87. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 88 / 266 88. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 89 / 266 89. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Toxin C. Virus D. Bacteria 90 / 266 90. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 91 / 266 91. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Fatal familial insomnia 92 / 266 92. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Subdural hematoma C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Pickwickian syndrome 93 / 266 93. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Epilepsy C. Cataplexy D. Sleep paralysis 94 / 266 94. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Dementia 95 / 266 95. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 96 / 266 96. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Agraphia 97 / 266 97. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. Dexamethasone C. IV frusemide D. IV mannitol 98 / 266 98. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Deafness D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 99 / 266 99. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 100 / 266 100. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 101 / 266 101. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Unequal pupil 102 / 266 102. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Periodic paralysis 103 / 266 103. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. AV malformations C. Systemic hypertension D. Emotional excitement 104 / 266 104. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 105 / 266 105. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 106 / 266 106. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Equivocal plantar response C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Weakness and spasticity 107 / 266 107. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Acute renal failure D. Wallenberg's syndrome 108 / 266 108. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 109 / 266 109. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Ventral pons C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 110 / 266 110. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Pain C. High places D. Animals 111 / 266 111. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Rasagiline D. Ropinirole 112 / 266 112. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 113 / 266 113. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Infarction of occipital lobe 114 / 266 114. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 115 / 266 115. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Trauma C. Encephalitis D. Febrile 116 / 266 116. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Oculomotor palsy C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 117 / 266 117. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 118 / 266 118. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Ciliary ganglion D. Sympathetic nervous system 119 / 266 119. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 120 / 266 120. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Focal neuro deficit B. Convulsions C. Blindness D. Radioculomyelopathy 121 / 266 121. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Trimipramine C. Benzodiazepine D. Chlorpromazine 122 / 266 122. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. Vth D. IIIrd 123 / 266 123. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 124 / 266 124. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Amiodarone 125 / 266 125. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Brain tumor D. Hysteria 126 / 266 126. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 127 / 266 127. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Duodenal stenosis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Patent ductus arteriosus 128 / 266 128. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Reserpine D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 129 / 266 129. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. Xth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 130 / 266 130. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Verapamil D. Atenolol 131 / 266 131. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Bitemporal hemianopi 132 / 266 132. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Duchenne myopathy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Multiple sclerosis 133 / 266 133. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Ocular myopathy 134 / 266 134. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Steroid myopathy 135 / 266 135. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Mamillary bodies 136 / 266 136. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Emotional incontinence C. Extensor plantar response D. Flaccid dysarthria 137 / 266 137. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Muscle biopsy D. Electromyography 138 / 266 138. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 139 / 266 139. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral hemorrhage 140 / 266 140. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. May be precipitated by drug toxicity B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 141 / 266 141. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Cerebellar infarction C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Aura phase of migraine 142 / 266 142. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Aortic incompetence D. Parkinsonism 143 / 266 143. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 144 / 266 144. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Alzheimer's disease 145 / 266 145. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Malignant exophthalmos 146 / 266 146. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 147 / 266 147. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Demyelinating C. Embolic D. Hemorrhagic 148 / 266 148. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's chorea 149 / 266 149. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Acalculia 150 / 266 150. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 151 / 266 151. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 152 / 266 152. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. E. coli C. Pneumococcus D. H. influenzae 153 / 266 153. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Botulism D. Progressive muscular atrophy 154 / 266 154. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Wilson's disease C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 155 / 266 155. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 156 / 266 156. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 157 / 266 157. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Anemia C. Ankle clonus D. Glossitis 158 / 266 158. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 159 / 266 159. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Poliomyelitis D. Radial nerve palsy 160 / 266 160. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Loss of accommodation 161 / 266 161. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Optic neuritis C. SIADH D. Convulsions 162 / 266 162. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Methotrexate 163 / 266 163. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 164 / 266 164. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Snakebite 165 / 266 165. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 166 / 266 166. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Central retinal artery occlusion 167 / 266 167. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Immune disorder 168 / 266 168. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Scoliosis D. Optic glioma 169 / 266 169. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 170 / 266 170. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Tetany C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 171 / 266 171. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Complete ptosis C. Constricted pupil D. Anhidrosis 172 / 266 172. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Has a good prognosis in children 173 / 266 173. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Frontal baldness C. Brachycephaly D. Testicular atrophy 174 / 266 174. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Diplopia 175 / 266 175. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Paroxetine D. Sertraline 176 / 266 176. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Calf muscles C. Infraspinatus D. Deltoid 177 / 266 177. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Rheumatic fever C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Wilson's disease 178 / 266 178. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 179 / 266 179. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Olfactory groove C. Sylvian fissure D. Over visual cortex 180 / 266 180. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Bell's palsy C. Cluster headache D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 181 / 266 181. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Gonda sign D. Babinski's sign 182 / 266 182. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Psychosis C. Migraine D. Chorea 183 / 266 183. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 184 / 266 184. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Apraxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 185 / 266 185. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Thalamus 186 / 266 186. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Dysphasia C. Diplopia D. Seizures 187 / 266 187. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Ataxia 188 / 266 188. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Multiple tics 189 / 266 189. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebral diplegia D. Multiple sclerosis 190 / 266 190. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Organophosphorus poisoning 191 / 266 191. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Male dominance C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Periorbital pain 192 / 266 192. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic C. Glioblastoma D. Astrocytoma 193 / 266 193. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Corticosteroid D. Cyclophosphamide 194 / 266 194. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Diarrhoea 195 / 266 195. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Leprosy 196 / 266 196. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 197 / 266 197. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Disconjugate gaze C. Paralysis D. Pin-point pupil 198 / 266 198. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Lower pons C. Midbrain D. Medulla 199 / 266 199. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Leprosy C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 200 / 266 200. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Malignant hypertension D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 201 / 266 201. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 202 / 266 202. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Fasciculations C. Spasticity D. Clonus 203 / 266 203. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Tone and power C. Nutrition of muscles D. Involuntary movements 205 / 266 205. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Puerperal sepsis D. Venous sinus thrombosis 206 / 266 206. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T2 C. T4 D. T1 207 / 266 207. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Confabulation C. Loss of immediate recall D. Retrograde amnesia 208 / 266 208. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cataract 209 / 266 209. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Parietal C. Frontal D. Occipital 210 / 266 210. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Myoclonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Tonic seizures 211 / 266 211. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebellar infarction C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Epilepsy 212 / 266 212. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 213 / 266 213. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 214 / 266 214. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 215 / 266 215. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Emetine C. Zidovudine D. Febuxostat 216 / 266 216. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Reading a book C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking to the roof 217 / 266 217. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 218 / 266 218. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Hyperpyrexia D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 219 / 266 219. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Myositis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Tabes dorsalis 220 / 266 220. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-13 D. Trisomy-18 221 / 266 221. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Occipital lobe 222 / 266 222. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 223 / 266 223. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Brisk jaw jerk 224 / 266 224. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Aphasia C. Coma D. Hemiparesis 225 / 266 225. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 226 / 266 226. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Old age C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Myotonic pupil 227 / 266 227. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Rigidity C. Normal reflexes D. Tremor 228 / 266 228. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Shagreen patch D. Adenoma sebaceum 229 / 266 229. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Meningioma 230 / 266 230. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Increased tone 231 / 266 231. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Tetanus C. Hysteria D. Meningism 232 / 266 232. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Cerebral atrophy D. Neurosyphilis 233 / 266 233. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 234 / 266 234. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myelopathy D. Myopathy 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Aspirin 236 / 266 236. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Arrhythmia 237 / 266 237. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypotension C. Hypoxia D. Hyponatremia 238 / 266 238. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 239 / 266 239. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Leukodystrophy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 240 / 266 240. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 241 / 266 241. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Brain tumour 242 / 266 242. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 243 / 266 243. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Polycystic kidney C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Nasal regurgitation C. Spastic tongue D. Dysphagia 245 / 266 245. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Enteric fever C. Cerebral malaria D. Atypical pneumonia 246 / 266 246. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Seizures C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 247 / 266 247. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Midbrain lesion 248 / 266 248. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia 249 / 266 249. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Head injury 250 / 266 250. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 251 / 266 251. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Selegiline C. Amantadine D. Levodopa 252 / 266 252. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 253 / 266 253. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Tetanus D. Quinsy 254 / 266 254. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 3 weeks C. 24 hours D. 2 weeks 255 / 266 255. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Thiocyanates D. Aflatoxin 256 / 266 256. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Botulinus poisoning C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 257 / 266 257. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Giant cell arteritis 258 / 266 258. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 259 / 266 259. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common migraine has aura 260 / 266 260. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Limb shortening B. Mental retardation C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Anencephaly 261 / 266 261. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Felbamate C. Lamotrigine D. Vigabatrin 262 / 266 262. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Drop attacks 263 / 266 263. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Mania C. Depression D. Phobia 264 / 266 264. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Tremor C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 265 / 266 265. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Wasting of muscles D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 266 / 266 266. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Multiple neurofibromatosis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology