Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV quinine C. IV mannitol D. 5% dextrose 2 / 266 2. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 3 / 266 3. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Epilepsy D. Cerebellar infarction 4 / 266 4. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 5 / 266 5. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Huntington's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 6 / 266 6. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hypothyroidism 7 / 266 7. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 8 / 266 8. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pyogenic meningitis 9 / 266 9. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 10 / 266 10. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Mass reflex C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 11 / 266 11. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Hemiparesis C. Aphasia D. Facial weakness 12 / 266 12. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T4 D. T2 13 / 266 13. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 14 / 266 14. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 15 / 266 15. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Parkinsonism C. Motor neuron disease D. Multiple sclerosis 16 / 266 16. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Hiccups C. Ataxia D. Horner's syndrome 17 / 266 17. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 18 / 266 18. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 19 / 266 19. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Babinski's sign D. Sudden onset 20 / 266 20. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Increased deep reflexes 21 / 266 21. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe 22 / 266 22. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Rabies C. Snakebite D. Myasthenia gravis 23 / 266 23. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Tunnel vision C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Central scotoma 24 / 266 24. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Cocaine C. Amphetamines D. Carbamazepine 25 / 266 25. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Huntington's chorea B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Punch-drunk syndrome 26 / 266 26. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Transverse sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 27 / 266 27. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Increased tone C. Sensory ataxia D. Intact proprioception 28 / 266 28. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 29 / 266 29. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Pseudoclonus C. Distal muscle weakness D. Exaggerated deep reflex 30 / 266 30. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 31 / 266 31. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Hypoxia C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Malignant hypertension 32 / 266 32. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Elapidae snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 33 / 266 33. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Gonda sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Babinski's sign 34 / 266 34. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 35 / 266 35. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 36 / 266 36. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Old age C. Myotonic pupil D. Application of pilocarpine drops 37 / 266 37. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Amiodarone 38 / 266 38. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Spastic tongue C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysarthria 40 / 266 40. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Extensor plantar response C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Emotional incontinence 41 / 266 41. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 42 / 266 42. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 43 / 266 43. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Progressive muscular atrophy 44 / 266 44. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral haemorrhage 45 / 266 45. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Refsum's disease C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 46 / 266 46. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Halothane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 47 / 266 47. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Arsenic C. Vincristine D. Lead 48 / 266 48. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Absence of root pain D. Bladder involvement is very late 49 / 266 49. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. CT scan D. MRI scan 50 / 266 50. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 51 / 266 51. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Dysphasia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 52 / 266 52. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Valproic acid D. Alcohol 53 / 266 53. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 54 / 266 54. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Myositis D. Tabes dorsalis 55 / 266 55. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Ocular myopathy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Malignant exophthalmos 56 / 266 56. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Lower pons C. Midbrain D. Upper pons 57 / 266 57. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Leprosy 58 / 266 58. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Tremor C. Confabulation D. Visual hallucinations 59 / 266 59. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 60 / 266 60. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 61 / 266 61. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 62 / 266 62. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Myoclonus C. Chorea D. Hemiballismus 63 / 266 63. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Tetanus B. Hysteria C. Meningism D. After epileptic seizure 64 / 266 64. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 65 / 266 65. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Infantile spasm 66 / 266 66. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Pneumococcus C. Meningococcous D. H. influenzae 67 / 266 67. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Viral meningitis 68 / 266 68. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 69 / 266 69. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Cluster headache C. Mania D. Polycythaemia vera 70 / 266 70. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 71 / 266 71. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Alcoholism C. Wilson's disease D. Cerebellar disorder 72 / 266 72. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 73 / 266 73. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Haloperidol C. Lithium D. Clomipramine 74 / 266 74. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 75 / 266 75. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 76 / 266 76. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Cardiac tamponade 77 / 266 77. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 78 / 266 78. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Inflammatory C. Embolic D. Demyelinating 79 / 266 79. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Male dominance C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 80 / 266 80. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Lovastatin D. Febuxostat 81 / 266 81. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Cerebral cortex C. Pons D. Internal capsule 82 / 266 82. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Acute myocardial infarction 83 / 266 83. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Selegiline C. Levodopa D. Amantadine 84 / 266 84. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 85 / 266 85. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Trypanosomiasis D. Subdural hematoma 86 / 266 86. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 87 / 266 87. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Leprosy D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 88 / 266 88. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 89 / 266 89. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Methotrexate C. Vincristine D. Nitrofurantoin 90 / 266 90. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Diazepam 91 / 266 91. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cord compression C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Lathyrism 92 / 266 92. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypotension B. Hypocapnia C. Hypoxia D. Hyponatremia 93 / 266 93. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysphonia C. Dysarthria D. Monotonous speech 94 / 266 94. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 95 / 266 95. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Diplopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 96 / 266 96. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Takayasu's disease C. Polycystic kidney D. Coarctation of aorta 97 / 266 97. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Parkinsonism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Gross pedal oedema 98 / 266 98. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 99 / 266 99. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Altered consciousness C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Convulsions 100 / 266 100. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 101 / 266 101. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Normal intellectual activity 102 / 266 102. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 103 / 266 103. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Autoimmunity D. Toxin 104 / 266 104. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Aflatoxin C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Thiocyanates 105 / 266 105. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Glioma C. Pinealomas D. Ependymoma 106 / 266 106. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Phakomatosis D. Adenoma sebaceum 107 / 266 107. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Hepatic precoma D. Taboparesis 108 / 266 108. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Hydrosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 109 / 266 109. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 110 / 266 110. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 111 / 266 111. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Pure sensory stroke C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure motor hemiparesis 112 / 266 112. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 113 / 266 113. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 114 / 266 114. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid C. Deafness D. Retinitis pigmentosa 115 / 266 115. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Quinsy C. Tetanus D. Diphtheria 116 / 266 116. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Loss of accommodation C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Polyneuropathy 117 / 266 117. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Pindolol D. Reserpine 118 / 266 118. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Syringobulbia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Cluster headache 119 / 266 119. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 120 / 266 120. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Convulsions C. Optic neuritis D. Pseudobulbar palsy 121 / 266 121. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Lax abdominal wall C. Hysteria D. Multiparous woman 122 / 266 122. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. Affects at 5-15 yrs age C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 123 / 266 123. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Psychosis C. Chorea D. Migraine 124 / 266 124. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 125 / 266 125. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypercalcemia 126 / 266 126. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Epilepsy C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 127 / 266 127. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Pentoxifylline C. Aspirin D. Ticlopidine 128 / 266 128. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine 129 / 266 129. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 130 / 266 130. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 131 / 266 131. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Rasagiline C. Tiagabine D. Pramipexole 132 / 266 132. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Diplopia C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 133 / 266 133. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Cortex 134 / 266 134. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 135 / 266 135. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Hutchinson's pupil 136 / 266 136. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Chorea C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 137 / 266 137. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Cerebral atrophy D. Neurosyphilis 138 / 266 138. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Carotid artery occlusion D. Basal ganglia infarction 139 / 266 139. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Increased CSF pressure C. Xanthochromia D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 140 / 266 140. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Depression C. Mania D. Phobia 141 / 266 141. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Acalculia C. Apraxia D. Agnosia 142 / 266 142. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Testicular atrophy C. Brachycephaly D. Frontal baldness 143 / 266 143. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 144 / 266 144. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Rheumatic fever C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Wilson's disease 145 / 266 145. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Severe heart failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 146 / 266 146. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 147 / 266 147. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. Sensory functions 148 / 266 148. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Deep coma C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hyperkalemia 149 / 266 149. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Constricted pupil 150 / 266 150. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common migraine has aura 151 / 266 151. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Coprolalia C. Dementia D. Relief by haloperidol 152 / 266 152. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Electromyography C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle biopsy 153 / 266 153. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Pseudoparkinsonism 154 / 266 154. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Hysterical gait disorder B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 155 / 266 155. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-13 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-21 156 / 266 156. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Lubeluzole C. Felbamate D. Vigabatrin 157 / 266 157. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Cerebral palsy D. Leucodystrophy 158 / 266 158. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Mania C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Schizophrenia 159 / 266 159. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Oculomotor nerve D. Sympathetic nervous system 160 / 266 160. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 161 / 266 161. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Midbrain 162 / 266 162. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Meningism D. Froin's loculation syndrome 163 / 266 163. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Myotonia C. Athletes D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 164 / 266 164. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 165 / 266 165. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright's disease 166 / 266 166. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Systemic hypertension C. Emotional excitement D. Berry aneurysm rupture 167 / 266 167. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Complex partial C. Petit mal D. Infantile spasm 168 / 266 168. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Confabulation C. Loss of immediate recall D. Defect in learning 169 / 266 169. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Looking to the roof C. Reading a book D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 170 / 266 170. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Acromegaly C. Gynaecomastia D. Galactorrhoea 171 / 266 171. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Confabulation D. Loss of recent memory 172 / 266 172. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy D. Polymyositis 173 / 266 173. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Epilepsy C. Febrile D. Encephalitis 174 / 266 174. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Alzheimer's disease 175 / 266 175. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Haemochromatosis B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Wilson's disease D. Galactosaemia 176 / 266 176. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Syringomyelia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 177 / 266 177. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 178 / 266 178. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 179 / 266 179. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 180 / 266 180. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Osteomalacia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 181 / 266 181. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Immunoglobulin C. Interferon D. Corticosteroid 182 / 266 182. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 183 / 266 183. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Pain B. Animals C. High places D. Strangers 184 / 266 184. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Neurofibroma 185 / 266 185. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Lathyrism D. Botulinus poisoning 186 / 266 186. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 187 / 266 187. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. May be associated with malignancy 188 / 266 188. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Digitalis toxicity C. Cerebellar infarction D. Lesion in visual cortex 189 / 266 189. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 190 / 266 190. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Botulism 191 / 266 191. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 192 / 266 192. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 193 / 266 193. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Marathon runner 194 / 266 194. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Shagreen patch C. Pompholyx D. Adenoma sebaceum 195 / 266 195. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 196 / 266 196. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Onycholysis 197 / 266 197. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetes mellitus 198 / 266 198. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Epilepsy C. Sleep paralysis D. Cataplexy 199 / 266 199. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 200 / 266 200. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1,S2 C. S1 D. L5 201 / 266 201. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Multiple sclerosis 202 / 266 202. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 203 / 266 203. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Dysrhythmokinesis 204 / 266 204. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Motor response C. Verbal response D. Autonomic response 205 / 266 205. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Scoliosis C. Optic glioma D. Acoustic neuroma 206 / 266 206. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Neurofibromatosis 207 / 266 207. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Facial nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Abducens nerve 208 / 266 208. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Papilloedema C. Aphasia D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 209 / 266 209. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 210 / 266 210. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pendular nystagmus D. Pseudolymphoma 211 / 266 211. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 212 / 266 212. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. Vth D. IIIrd 213 / 266 213. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Immune disorder 214 / 266 214. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Platybasia D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 215 / 266 215. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 216 / 266 216. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Cephalosporins 217 / 266 217. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV frusemide 218 / 266 218. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 219 / 266 219. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Apraxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 220 / 266 220. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hyperthyroidism 221 / 266 221. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Fatty liver C. Livedo reticularis D. Ankle oedema 222 / 266 222. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Blindness C. Focal neuro deficit D. Radioculomyelopathy 223 / 266 223. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Babinski's sign C. Anemia D. Glossitis 224 / 266 224. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 225 / 266 225. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Retinal hemorrhage 226 / 266 226. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Benzodiazepine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 227 / 266 227. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Normal reflexes C. Rigidity D. Tremor 228 / 266 228. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Frontal 229 / 266 229. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Clonus C. Spasticity D. Fasciculations 230 / 266 230. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 231 / 266 231. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Pick's disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Alzheimer's disease 232 / 266 232. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Horner's syndrome C. Botulism D. Oculomotor palsy 233 / 266 233. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 234 / 266 234. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Paralysis 235 / 266 235. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Caudate nucleus C. Putamen D. Red nucleus 236 / 266 236. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Over visual cortex D. Sylvian fissure 237 / 266 237. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Steroid myopathy C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 238 / 266 238. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Pyramidal signs 239 / 266 239. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Negri bodies D. Schaumann bodies 240 / 266 240. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Thalamus D. Cerebral cortex 241 / 266 241. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Encephalitis 242 / 266 242. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 243 / 266 243. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral thrombosis 244 / 266 244. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Leprosy C. Syphilis D. Multiple sclerosis 245 / 266 245. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 246 / 266 246. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Cataract 247 / 266 247. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Perceptual rivalry C. Two-point localisation D. Vibration sensation 248 / 266 248. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Hysteria B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Duchenne myopathy 249 / 266 249. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Areflexia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 250 / 266 250. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Stereognosis C. Nutrition of muscles D. Tone and power 251 / 266 251. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic amyotrophy 252 / 266 252. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Absent superficial reflex 253 / 266 253. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Sensory dysfunction C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Argyll Robertson pupil 254 / 266 254. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 255 / 266 255. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Optic nerv 256 / 266 256. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Amblyopia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Phenytoin toxicity 257 / 266 257. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Phenytoin B. Sumatriptan C. Atenolol D. Verapamil 258 / 266 258. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Diminished auditory acuity D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 259 / 266 259. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 260 / 266 260. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Central retinal artery occlusion B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Retinitis pigmentosa 261 / 266 261. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 262 / 266 262. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 263 / 266 263. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Acute renal failure D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 264 / 266 264. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Sucking reflex 265 / 266 265. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Coma C. Hypertonia D. Retention of urine 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology