Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Diminished auditory acuity D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 2 / 266 2. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Hypothyroidism C. Onycholysis D. Ataxia 3 / 266 3. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Ependymoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma 4 / 266 4. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Wasting of muscles C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 5 / 266 5. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. Cluster headache C. SIADH D. Polycythaemia vera 6 / 266 6. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Embolic C. Demyelinating D. Hemorrhagic 7 / 266 7. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 8 / 266 8. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Papilledema C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Infarction of occipital lobe 9 / 266 9. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Encephalitis C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 10 / 266 10. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebral diplegia D. Multiple sclerosis 11 / 266 11. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Unequal pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 12 / 266 12. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basal ganglia infarction 13 / 266 13. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 14 / 266 14. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Babinski's sign C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Sudden onset 15 / 266 15. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Pentoxifylline C. Aspirin D. Clopidogrel 16 / 266 16. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. May be associated with malignancy 17 / 266 17. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal 18 / 266 18. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Donazepril is used in treatment 19 / 266 19. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Depression C. Visual hallucinations D. Early onset 20 / 266 20. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Convulsions D. Blindness 21 / 266 21. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Diazepam 22 / 266 22. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 23 / 266 23. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Infantile spasm 24 / 266 24. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 25 / 266 25. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pseudolymphoma D. Pendular nystagmus 26 / 266 26. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 27 / 266 27. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Myopathy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 28 / 266 28. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 29 / 266 29. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Putamen C. Thalamus D. Cerebellum 30 / 266 30. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Schaumann bodies 31 / 266 31. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Fourth ventricle D. Transverse sinus 32 / 266 32. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lamotrigine C. Lubeluzole D. Vigabatrin 33 / 266 33. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 34 / 266 34. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Syringomyelia D. Tabes dorsalis 35 / 266 35. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Complete ptosis C. Constricted pupil D. Enophthalmos 36 / 266 36. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Polymyositis D. Duodenal stenosis 37 / 266 37. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Wilson's disease C. Hyponatraemia D. Thyrotoxicosis 38 / 266 38. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Cord compression D. Acute transverse myelitis 39 / 266 39. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Autoimmunity C. Toxin D. Bacteria 40 / 266 40. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Weber-Christian disease 41 / 266 41. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Polyneuropathy C. Myositis D. Subacute combined degeneration 42 / 266 42. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 43 / 266 43. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Parkinsonism B. Acromegaly C. Alzheimer's disease D. Infertility 44 / 266 44. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 45 / 266 45. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Leprosy C. Syphilis D. Multiple sclerosis 46 / 266 46. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 47 / 266 47. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Retention of urine C. Coma D. Absent deep reflexes 48 / 266 48. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Leukodystrophy D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 49 / 266 49. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Brain tumor C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Diabetes mellitus 50 / 266 50. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Reading a book C. Looking to the roof D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 51 / 266 51. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Schizophrenia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 52 / 266 52. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 53 / 266 53. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Cyclophosphamide C. Immunoglobulin D. Interferon 54 / 266 54. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 55 / 266 55. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Deafness D. Retinitis pigmentosa 56 / 266 56. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Meningioma 57 / 266 57. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 58 / 266 58. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Ocular myopathy D. Malignant exophthalmos 59 / 266 59. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 2 weeks C. 24 hours D. 3 weeks 60 / 266 60. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Anemia C. Babinski's sign D. Ankle clonus 61 / 266 61. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Acute myocardial infarction 62 / 266 62. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 63 / 266 63. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 64 / 266 64. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Periodic paralysis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Myasthenia gravis 65 / 266 65. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Emotional incontinence C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 66 / 266 66. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Metastatic 67 / 266 67. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 68 / 266 68. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Apraxia 69 / 266 69. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Aura phase of migraine C. Cerebellar infarction D. Lesion in visual cortex 70 / 266 70. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Periorbital pain D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 71 / 266 71. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common migraine has aura C. Hemicranial headache D. Common in women 72 / 266 72. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Diabetic amyotrophy 73 / 266 73. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 74 / 266 74. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Optic nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 75 / 266 75. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Hypoglycaemia B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 76 / 266 76. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Trauma D. Febrile 77 / 266 77. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Ropinirole C. Tiagabine D. Rasagiline 78 / 266 78. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 79 / 266 79. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Poliomyelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Transverse myelitis 80 / 266 80. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Thrombocytopenia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 81 / 266 81. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Taboparesis D. Friedreich' s ataxia 82 / 266 82. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 83 / 266 83. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Rabies D. Poliomyelitis 84 / 266 84. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Deep coma C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hypokalemia 85 / 266 85. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 86 / 266 86. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Chaddock's sign B. Rossolimo's sign C. Babinski's sign D. Gonda sign 87 / 266 87. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Verbal response D. Eye opening 88 / 266 88. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 89 / 266 89. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Tuberous sclerosis D. von Recklinghausen's disease 90 / 266 90. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Limb shortening C. Mental retardation D. Heart valve abnormalities 91 / 266 91. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 92 / 266 92. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Sleep paralysis C. Cataplexy D. Epilepsy 93 / 266 93. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Petit mal epilepsy 94 / 266 94. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Pons D. Cerebral cortex 95 / 266 95. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Animals C. Pain D. High places 96 / 266 96. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Anal reflex C. Sucking reflex D. Snout reflex 97 / 266 97. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Sensory ataxia 98 / 266 98. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Pindolol D. Oral contraceptive pills 99 / 266 99. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Cerebral malaria D. Atypical pneumonia 100 / 266 100. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 101 / 266 101. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Tremor C. Perspiration D. Visual hallucinations 102 / 266 102. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Lacunar infarction C. Cerebral atrophy D. Neurosyphilis 103 / 266 103. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Tetanus C. Diphtheria D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 104 / 266 104. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Immune disorder 105 / 266 105. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Pyramidal signs D. Cerebellar signs 106 / 266 106. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Elapidae snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 107 / 266 107. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Refsum's disease D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 108 / 266 108. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Carbamazepine C. Flumazenil D. Amphetamines 109 / 266 109. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Meningism 110 / 266 110. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Nystagmus B. Aphasia C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Papilloedema 111 / 266 111. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. CT scan 112 / 266 112. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Haloperidol C. Lithium D. Clomipramine 113 / 266 113. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 114 / 266 114. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Xanthochromia C. High protein content D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 115 / 266 115. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Infectious mononucleosis 116 / 266 116. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Facial nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Vagus nerve 117 / 266 117. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Tunnel vision D. Bitemporal hemianopi 118 / 266 118. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Disconjugate gaze D. Pin-point pupil 119 / 266 119. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 120 / 266 120. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 121 / 266 121. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Zidovudine 122 / 266 122. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Fasciculations D. Clonus 123 / 266 123. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Two-point localisation 124 / 266 124. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Lead C. Vincristine D. Alcohol 125 / 266 125. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Cervical spondylosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Multiple sclerosis 126 / 266 126. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Severe heart failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 127 / 266 127. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Meningioma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 128 / 266 128. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Ependymoma C. Pinealomas D. Cerebral lymphoma 129 / 266 129. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Albright's disease D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 130 / 266 130. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm D. Diplopia 131 / 266 131. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 132 / 266 132. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents rebleeding 133 / 266 133. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Seizures 134 / 266 134. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Ataxic-hemiparesis C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 135 / 266 135. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Tone and power C. Stereognosis D. Involuntary movements 136 / 266 136. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 137 / 266 137. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cerebral palsy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 138 / 266 138. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 139 / 266 139. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Chorea 140 / 266 140. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 141 / 266 141. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Aphasia 142 / 266 142. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. T4 C. C8 D. T2 143 / 266 143. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 144 / 266 144. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Abducens palsy D. Loss of accommodation 145 / 266 145. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Duchenne myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 146 / 266 146. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 147 / 266 147. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy D. Motor neuron disease 148 / 266 148. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe 149 / 266 149. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 150 / 266 150. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Syringobulbia C. Cluster headache D. Bell's palsy 151 / 266 151. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 152 / 266 152. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Cerebral embolism D. Venous sinus thrombosis 153 / 266 153. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Osteomalacia D. Hyperglycaemia 154 / 266 154. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Pseudoclonus C. Distal muscle weakness D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 155 / 266 155. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Alzheimer's disease D. Huntington's disease 156 / 266 156. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 157 / 266 157. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Neurofibroma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Spinal epidural abscess 158 / 266 158. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypotension C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocapnia 159 / 266 159. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis D. Sarcoidosis 160 / 266 160. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vllth C. Vth D. Xth 161 / 266 161. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Myotonic dystrophy 162 / 266 162. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Cervical rib C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Myopathy 163 / 266 163. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. Proprioception C. EMG D. Cerebellar functions 164 / 266 164. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Depression C. Mania D. Paranoia 165 / 266 165. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Myxoedema C. Alcohol D. Valproic acid 166 / 266 166. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors D. Flexor plantar response 167 / 266 167. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 168 / 266 168. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Hysteria C. Multiple sclerosis D. Peripheral neuropathy 169 / 266 169. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Labyrinthine lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Vestibular lesion 170 / 266 170. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Transient ischemic attack 171 / 266 171. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 172 / 266 172. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Cardiac tamponade D. Arrhythmia 173 / 266 173. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Cerebellar disorder 174 / 266 174. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Dementia C. Coprolalia D. Relief by haloperidol 175 / 266 175. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Organophosphorus poisoning 176 / 266 176. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Tonic seizures B. Infantile spasm C. Absence seizures D. Myoclonic seizures 177 / 266 177. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis major D. Calf muscles 178 / 266 178. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 179 / 266 179. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Diplopia 180 / 266 180. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Mass reflex C. Increased tone in flexor groups D. Flexor spasm 181 / 266 181. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Dementia 182 / 266 182. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 183 / 266 183. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 184 / 266 184. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Parkinsonism D. Gross pedal oedema 185 / 266 185. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Brachycephaly D. Ptosis 186 / 266 186. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 187 / 266 187. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Deep Jaundice 188 / 266 188. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 189 / 266 189. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Mamillary bodies C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 190 / 266 190. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. SIADH C. Optic neuritis D. Convulsions 191 / 266 191. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 192 / 266 192. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Agraphia D. Aphasia 193 / 266 193. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Pons 194 / 266 194. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Levodopa D. Selegiline 195 / 266 195. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 196 / 266 196. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Mental retardation D. Choreoathetosis 197 / 266 197. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Pick's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 198 / 266 198. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Oesophagitis D. Acute renal failure 199 / 266 199. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 200 / 266 200. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Myotonia D. Manual labourers 201 / 266 201. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 202 / 266 202. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Shagreen patch C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Pompholyx 203 / 266 203. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Tabes dorsalis 204 / 266 204. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 205 / 266 205. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Thiocyanates D. Aflatoxin 206 / 266 206. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 207 / 266 207. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Autonomic dysfunction D. Hyperpyrexia 208 / 266 208. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 209 / 266 209. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C6, 7 C. C4, 5 D. C3, 4 210 / 266 210. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Lax abdominal wall 211 / 266 211. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 212 / 266 212. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Paroxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Sertraline 213 / 266 213. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Chorea C. Hemiballismus D. Myoclonus 214 / 266 214. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Tremor C. Normal reflexes D. Hyperkinesia 216 / 266 216. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Headache C. Convulsions D. Altered consciousness 217 / 266 217. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Weakness and spasticity D. Absent superficial reflex 218 / 266 218. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Froin's loculation syndrome 219 / 266 219. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Pinealomas 220 / 266 220. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyponatremia 221 / 266 221. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 222 / 266 222. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 223 / 266 223. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 224 / 266 224. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Myasthenia Gravis 225 / 266 225. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 226 / 266 226. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Cerebello-pontine angle C. Olfactory groove D. Sylvian fissure 227 / 266 227. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Dysphagia D. Spastic tongue 228 / 266 228. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 229 / 266 229. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Increased tone D. Sensory ataxia 230 / 266 230. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Takayasu's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 231 / 266 231. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 232 / 266 232. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Has a good prognosis in children C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 233 / 266 233. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 234 / 266 234. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. IV mannitol C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 235 / 266 235. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Loss of immediate recall C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 236 / 266 236. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peripheral neuropathy 237 / 266 237. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Botulinus poisoning C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae group snake bite 238 / 266 238. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 239 / 266 239. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Phakomatosis C. Mental retardation D. Seizures 240 / 266 240. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Methoxyflurane B. Succinylcholine C. Halothane D. Dantrolene 241 / 266 241. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Hypoxia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Malignant hypertension 242 / 266 242. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Atlantoaxial dislocation B. Platybasia C. Dolichocephaly D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 243 / 266 243. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Coma C. Aphasia D. Hemiparesis 244 / 266 244. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Steroid myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 245 / 266 245. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Huge ascites 246 / 266 246. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Subdural hematoma C. Trypanosomiasis D. Pickwickian syndrome 247 / 266 247. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Pineal body C. Dura matter D. Choroid plexus 248 / 266 248. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Botulism 249 / 266 249. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Post-encephalitic D. Huntington's chorea 250 / 266 250. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 251 / 266 251. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Raised intracranial pressure C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumour 252 / 266 252. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1,S2 C. S1 D. L5,S1 253 / 266 253. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Ataxia C. Pyramidal lesion D. Horner's syndrome 254 / 266 254. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. May occur spontaneously D. Quite often remits spontaneously 255 / 266 255. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. INH C. Vincristine D. Nitrofurantoin 256 / 266 256. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Verapamil C. Sumatriptan D. Phenytoin 257 / 266 257. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Raynaud's disease C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetic neuropathy 258 / 266 258. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 259 / 266 259. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-13 260 / 266 260. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 261 / 266 261. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysphonia C. Aphasia D. Dysarthria 262 / 266 262. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 263 / 266 263. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 264 / 266 264. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Presence of nystagmus 265 / 266 265. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Hysteria D. Brain tumor 266 / 266 266. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Application of pilocarpine drops D. Old age LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology