Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 2 / 266 2. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Pendular nystagmus D. Megaloblastic anemia 3 / 266 3. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Venous thrombosis 4 / 266 4. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 5 / 266 5. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Steroid myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 6 / 266 6. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 7 / 266 7. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. Ocular myopathy C. Malignant exophthalmos D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 8 / 266 8. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Convulsions C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Altered consciousness 9 / 266 9. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 10 / 266 10. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 11 / 266 11. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 12 / 266 12. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Coma D. Hemiparesis 13 / 266 13. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Pyramidal lesion D. Ataxia 14 / 266 14. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Dura matter C. Pineal body D. Choroid plexus 15 / 266 15. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Rheumatoid arthritis 16 / 266 16. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 17 / 266 17. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 18 / 266 18. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Thalamus 19 / 266 19. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Astrocytoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 20 / 266 20. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Electromyography C. Muscle enzyme study D. Nerve conduction study 21 / 266 21. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T1 C. C8 D. T4 22 / 266 22. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Bulbar palsy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 23 / 266 23. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Midbrain lesion 24 / 266 24. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 25 / 266 25. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking in front C. Looking to the roof D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 26 / 266 26. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Myxoedema C. Alcohol D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 27 / 266 27. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Tabes dorsalis 28 / 266 28. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. PET scan C. CT scan D. MRI scan 29 / 266 29. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Galactosaemia C. Haemochromatosis D. Myotonic dystrophy 30 / 266 30. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hypothyroidism 31 / 266 31. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 32 / 266 32. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Substantia nigra C. Red nucleus D. Putamen 33 / 266 33. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. High protein content C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. Xanthochromia 34 / 266 34. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Selegiline C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 35 / 266 35. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Epilepsy C. Febrile D. Encephalitis 36 / 266 36. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Pseudoparkinsonism C. Hyperpyrexia D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 37 / 266 37. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Cerebral cortex 38 / 266 38. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Manual labourers C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Myotonia 39 / 266 39. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 40 / 266 40. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hereditary predisposition C. Common migraine has aura D. Hemicranial headache 41 / 266 41. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Ethambutol C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 42 / 266 42. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Rasagiline 43 / 266 43. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. Emotional excitement D. AV malformations 44 / 266 44. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Anal reflex D. Snout reflex 45 / 266 45. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Vibration sensation C. Graphesthesia D. Two-point localisation 46 / 266 46. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Polyneuropathy D. Abducens palsy 47 / 266 47. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Right homonymous hemianopia 48 / 266 48. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Dandy-Walker syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 49 / 266 49. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 50 / 266 50. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 51 / 266 51. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Pentoxifylline C. Ticlopidine D. Clopidogrel 52 / 266 52. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Parkinsonism C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Cerebellar disorder 53 / 266 53. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 54 / 266 54. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Frontal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 55 / 266 55. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lubeluzole C. Vigabatrin D. Lamotrigine 56 / 266 56. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Apraxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 57 / 266 57. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 58 / 266 58. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Nasal regurgitation C. Dysarthria D. Dysphagia 59 / 266 59. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Immunoglobulin C. Interferon D. Corticosteroid 60 / 266 60. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 61 / 266 61. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cortex C. Cervical spine D. Internal capsule 62 / 266 62. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Old age D. Myotonic pupil 63 / 266 63. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Diminished auditory acuity D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 64 / 266 64. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Wilson's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 65 / 266 65. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Pindolol C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptive pills 66 / 266 66. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV mannitol C. IV quinine D. Glucocorticoids 67 / 266 67. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Distal muscle weakness C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Pseudoclonus 68 / 266 68. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 69 / 266 69. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Central scotoma D. Tunnel vision 70 / 266 70. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 71 / 266 71. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Diphtheria D. Tetanus 72 / 266 72. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Livedo reticularis C. Fatty liver D. Ankle oedema 73 / 266 73. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Tonic seizures 74 / 266 74. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Amblyopia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Phenytoin toxicity 75 / 266 75. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Facial nerve 76 / 266 76. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Duchenne myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 77 / 266 77. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 78 / 266 78. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Digitalis toxicity 79 / 266 79. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Sudden onset D. Babinski's sign 80 / 266 80. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Metoclopramide-induced 81 / 266 81. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Hysterical gait disorder 82 / 266 82. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Retinitis pigmentosa 83 / 266 83. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Post-encephalitic C. Huntington's chorea D. Alzheimer's disease 84 / 266 84. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Disconjugate gaze C. Paralysis D. Hypothermia 85 / 266 85. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 86 / 266 86. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Complete ptosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 87 / 266 87. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 88 / 266 88. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Botulinus poisoning D. Lathyrism 89 / 266 89. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 90 / 266 90. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Seen in tall, thin people D. Quite often remits spontaneously 91 / 266 91. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Rheumatic fever D. Thyrotoxicosis 92 / 266 92. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Haloperidol B. Lithium C. Clomipramine D. Carbamazepine 93 / 266 93. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Mania 94 / 266 94. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Huntington's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 95 / 266 95. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperpyrexia C. Hypokalemia D. Deep coma 96 / 266 96. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors 97 / 266 97. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Weil's disease D. Enteric fever 98 / 266 98. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 99 / 266 99. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 100 / 266 100. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 101 / 266 101. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Addison's disease 102 / 266 102. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 103 / 266 103. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-18 104 / 266 104. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vllth C. Xth D. Vth 105 / 266 105. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Tetany D. Myotonia 106 / 266 106. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Puerperal sepsis 107 / 266 107. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basal ganglia infarction 108 / 266 108. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Pick's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 109 / 266 109. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 110 / 266 110. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Ependymoma 111 / 266 111. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Ventral pons C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 112 / 266 112. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Drop attacks C. Diplopia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 113 / 266 113. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Transverse myelitis C. Restlessness D. Poliomyelitis 114 / 266 114. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Seizures C. Mental retardation D. Phakomatosis 115 / 266 115. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 116 / 266 116. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Parietal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Occipital lobe 117 / 266 117. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Myopathy 118 / 266 118. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Proximal muscle weakness 119 / 266 119. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Visual hallucinations D. Passivity feelings 120 / 266 120. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 121 / 266 121. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Aphasia B. Dysarthria C. Monotonous speech D. Dysphonia 122 / 266 122. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Viral meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 123 / 266 123. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Cervical spondylosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 124 / 266 124. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Duchenne myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 125 / 266 125. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Ataxia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 126 / 266 126. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Refsum's disease 127 / 266 127. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud's disease C. Leprosy D. Tabes dorsalis 128 / 266 128. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 129 / 266 129. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Parietal D. Occipital 130 / 266 130. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 131 / 266 131. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 132 / 266 132. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Central retinal artery occlusion 133 / 266 133. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 134 / 266 134. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Sleep paralysis C. Epilepsy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 135 / 266 135. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Diabetes mellitus D. Raised intracranial pressure 136 / 266 136. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Advanced pregnancy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Huge ascites 137 / 266 137. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Fluoxetine 138 / 266 138. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Arrhythmia C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Cardiac tamponade 139 / 266 139. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Oesophagitis C. Acute renal failure D. Wallenberg's syndrome 140 / 266 140. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Eye opening D. Verbal response 141 / 266 141. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 142 / 266 142. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Sylvian fissure B. Olfactory groove C. Over visual cortex D. Cerebello-pontine angle 143 / 266 143. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Polymyositis D. Duodenal stenosis 144 / 266 144. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Cerebral atrophy C. Neurosyphilis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 145 / 266 145. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Extensor plantar response D. Masked facies 146 / 266 146. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 147 / 266 147. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Dementia C. Urinary incontinence D. Normal intellectual activity 148 / 266 148. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Polymyositis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Diabetic amyotrophy 149 / 266 149. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Absence of root pain D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 150 / 266 150. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Pompholyx B. Shagreen patch C. Adenoma sebaceum D. White spots over trunk and limbs 151 / 266 151. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 152 / 266 152. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Takayasu's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 153 / 266 153. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 154 / 266 154. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 155 / 266 155. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Horner's syndrome C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Hutchinson's pupil 156 / 266 156. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Babinski's sign C. Glossitis D. Ankle clonus 157 / 266 157. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Flexor plantar response C. Flexor spasm D. Increased tone in flexor groups 158 / 266 158. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Botulism C. Periodic paralysis D. Myasthenia gravis 159 / 266 159. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Confabulation C. Perspiration D. Tremor 160 / 266 160. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 161 / 266 161. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 162 / 266 162. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Pons 163 / 266 163. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. SIADH C. Optic neuritis D. Convulsions 164 / 266 164. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Infertility 165 / 266 165. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 166 / 266 166. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Meningism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Froin's loculation syndrome 167 / 266 167. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Subdural hematoma C. Trypanosomiasis D. Pickwickian syndrome 168 / 266 168. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Lathyrism B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 169 / 266 169. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Ischemic optic neuropathy C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Papilledema 170 / 266 170. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Petit mal C. Infantile spasm D. Complex partial 171 / 266 171. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 172 / 266 172. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Neurofibroma 173 / 266 173. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Gynaecomastia 174 / 266 174. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Calcification within a lesion D. Pituitary tumors 175 / 266 175. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Parkinsonism C. Myxoedema D. Tabes dorsalis 176 / 266 176. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Quinolones 177 / 266 177. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Normokalaemia 178 / 266 178. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Fasciculations C. Clonus D. Spasticity 179 / 266 179. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 180 / 266 180. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Aphasia C. Apraxia D. Acalculia 181 / 266 181. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Neuroendocrine disorder 182 / 266 182. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia 183 / 266 183. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Benzodiazepine D. Trimipramine 184 / 266 184. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 185 / 266 185. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 186 / 266 186. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Male dominance D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 187 / 266 187. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Taboparesis 188 / 266 188. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Midbrain 189 / 266 189. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypermetria C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 190 / 266 190. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Anterior neck muscles 191 / 266 191. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Weber-Christian disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 192 / 266 192. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure motor hemiparesis 193 / 266 193. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Gaucher's disease B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 194 / 266 194. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 195 / 266 195. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Methotrexate C. Nitrofurantoin D. Vincristine 196 / 266 196. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cluster headache C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Bell's palsy 197 / 266 197. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Dystonia D. Hemiballismus 198 / 266 198. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Lovastatin C. Zidovudine D. Emetine 199 / 266 199. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Sensory ataxia C. Intact proprioception D. Brisk deep reflexes 200 / 266 200. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Albright's disease D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 201 / 266 201. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 202 / 266 202. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 10-20 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 203 / 266 203. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Fourth ventricle 204 / 266 204. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 205 / 266 205. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Hypothyroidism C. Ataxia D. Diarrhoea 206 / 266 206. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Hysteria D. Brain tumor 207 / 266 207. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Inflammatory C. Embolic D. Hemorrhagic 208 / 266 208. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 209 / 266 209. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Involuntary movements C. Nutrition of muscles D. Tone and power 210 / 266 210. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 211 / 266 211. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C3, 4 C. C6, 7 D. C5, 6 212 / 266 212. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Papilloedema 213 / 266 213. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 214 / 266 214. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Syringomyelia C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 215 / 266 215. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Electroconvulsive therapy 216 / 266 216. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 217 / 266 217. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Pain C. Animals D. High places 218 / 266 218. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Dysphasia C. Seizures D. Paraesthesia 219 / 266 219. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Brain tumor D. Multiple sclerosis 220 / 266 220. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. Proprioception C. Cerebellar functions D. EMG 221 / 266 221. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Unequal pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 222 / 266 222. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Blindness C. Convulsions D. Focal neuro deficit 223 / 266 223. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Asteroid bodies 224 / 266 224. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Viral meningitis 225 / 266 225. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Cocaine C. Carbamazepine D. Amphetamines 226 / 266 226. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 227 / 266 227. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 228 / 266 228. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. Mania C. Polycythaemia vera D. SIADH 229 / 266 229. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Tremor C. Rigidity D. Hyperkinesia 230 / 266 230. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Encephalitis C. Myelopathy D. Neuropathy 231 / 266 231. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Alzheimer's disease 232 / 266 232. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Poliomyelitis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Neurofibromatosis 233 / 266 233. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Platybasia D. Dolichocephaly 234 / 266 234. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Ependymoma C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Babinski's sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Gonda sign 236 / 266 236. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Transient ischemic attack C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Epilepsy 237 / 266 237. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Aphasia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 238 / 266 238. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Diazepam C. Ethosuximide D. Valproate 239 / 266 239. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 96 hours 240 / 266 240. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Autoimmunity D. Toxin 241 / 266 241. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Scoliosis 242 / 266 242. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 243 / 266 243. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Areflexia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Apraxia 244 / 266 244. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Has a good prognosis in children 245 / 266 245. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. L5 C. L5,S1 D. S1 246 / 266 246. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Mental retardation D. Limb shortening 247 / 266 247. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trochlear nerve D. Facial nerve 248 / 266 248. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Depression C. Phobia D. Paranoia 249 / 266 249. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Calf muscles C. Pectoralis major D. Deltoid 250 / 266 250. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 251 / 266 251. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 252 / 266 252. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. von Recklinghausen's disease 253 / 266 253. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Brachycephaly C. Testicular atrophy D. Ptosis 254 / 266 254. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Hypoxia C. Malignant hypertension D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 255 / 266 255. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 256 / 266 256. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Weakness and spasticity C. Absent superficial reflex D. Equivocal plantar response 257 / 266 257. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 258 / 266 258. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV frusemide C. Dexamethasone D. IV mannitol 259 / 266 259. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 260 / 266 260. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Dementia 261 / 266 261. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Coma B. Hypertonia C. Absent deep reflexes D. Retention of urine 262 / 266 262. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Leukodystrophy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 263 / 266 263. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 264 / 266 264. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Anhidrosis C. Enophthalmos D. Complete ptosis 265 / 266 265. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cerebral palsy 266 / 266 266. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Alcohol LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology