Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Cocaine C. Amphetamines D. Carbamazepine 2 / 266 2. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Leprosy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Raynaud's disease 3 / 266 3. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Polymyositis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy 4 / 266 4. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Neurofibromatosis 5 / 266 5. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Valproate C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam 6 / 266 6. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 7 / 266 7. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 8 / 266 8. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 9 / 266 9. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Argyll Robertson pupil 10 / 266 10. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Optic nerv 11 / 266 11. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Ocular muscles are commonly involved 12 / 266 12. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Seizures 13 / 266 13. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Intact proprioception C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Increased tone 14 / 266 14. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Pentoxifylline 15 / 266 15. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 16 / 266 16. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Syringomyelia C. Cervical spondylosis D. Multiple sclerosis 17 / 266 17. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Brain tumor 18 / 266 18. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 19 / 266 19. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 20 / 266 20. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Leprosy D. Polymyositis 21 / 266 21. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Alcohol C. Arsenic D. Lead 22 / 266 22. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 23 / 266 23. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Facial nerve palsy D. Cerebellar signs 24 / 266 24. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Electromyography C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle biopsy 25 / 266 25. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Ocular myopathy 26 / 266 26. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Midbrain lesion 27 / 266 27. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Huntington's chorea C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 28 / 266 28. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Ependymoma D. Glioma 29 / 266 29. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 30 / 266 30. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pinealomas 31 / 266 31. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Constricted pupil 32 / 266 32. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 33 / 266 33. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ethambutol D. Syphilis 34 / 266 34. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Anhidrosis + mydriasis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 35 / 266 35. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Cerebral diplegia 36 / 266 36. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Looking in front 37 / 266 37. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Succinylcholine C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 38 / 266 38. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Horner's syndrome C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Oculomotor palsy 39 / 266 39. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Da Costa's syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 40 / 266 40. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Meningioma C. Metastatic D. Glioblastoma 41 / 266 41. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Lower pons C. Medulla D. Midbrain 42 / 266 42. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Benzodiazepine 43 / 266 43. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Ataxia B. Apraxia C. Areflexia D. External ophthalmoplegia 44 / 266 44. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 45 / 266 45. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Pontine glioma B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Cerebellar disorder D. Amblyopia 46 / 266 46. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Diplopia 47 / 266 47. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Takayasu's disease C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 48 / 266 48. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Gonda sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 49 / 266 49. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Retrograde amnesia C. Defect in learning D. Confabulation 50 / 266 50. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Hemorrhagic C. Inflammatory D. Demyelinating 51 / 266 51. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Vincristine 52 / 266 52. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Sensory functions C. Cerebellar functions D. Proprioception 53 / 266 53. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 54 / 266 54. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T4 D. T2 55 / 266 55. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. IIIrd C. Vllth D. Vth 56 / 266 56. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 57 / 266 57. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Mass reflex B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor spasm D. Flexor plantar response 58 / 266 58. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 59 / 266 59. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Mamillary bodies C. Corpus striatum D. Frontal lobe 60 / 266 60. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Weber-Christian disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 61 / 266 61. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 62 / 266 62. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Motor neuron disease B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Peripheral neuropathy 63 / 266 63. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 64 / 266 64. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Ptosis B. Brachycephaly C. Testicular atrophy D. Frontal baldness 65 / 266 65. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Cerebral atrophy C. Neurosyphilis D. Lacunar infarction 66 / 266 66. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis 67 / 266 67. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Hepatocellular failure 68 / 266 68. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Acute renal failure C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 69 / 266 69. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hypothyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 70 / 266 70. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Distal muscle weakness 71 / 266 71. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 72 / 266 72. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Neurofibroma C. Patchy arachnoiditis D. Subacute combined degeneration 73 / 266 73. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Confabulation 74 / 266 74. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hemicranial headache C. Common in women D. Hereditary predisposition 75 / 266 75. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Hydrophidae group of snake bite C. Quinsy D. Diphtheria 76 / 266 76. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 77 / 266 77. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Ataxia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 78 / 266 78. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Retention of urine C. Coma D. Hypertonia 79 / 266 79. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Phobia 80 / 266 80. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Puerperal sepsis 81 / 266 81. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Herpes simplex virus meningitis D. Cryptococcal meningitis 82 / 266 82. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. lpsilateral hemiplegia C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Drop attacks 83 / 266 83. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 84 / 266 84. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Wilson's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 85 / 266 85. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Red nucleus C. Putamen D. Substantia nigra 86 / 266 86. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 30-40 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 87 / 266 87. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Refsum's disease C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Leprosy 88 / 266 88. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 89 / 266 89. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Reserpine C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Oral contraceptive pills 90 / 266 90. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 91 / 266 91. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Cerebellar infarction D. Multiple sclerosis 92 / 266 92. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Digitalis toxicity C. Aura phase of migraine D. Cerebellar infarction 93 / 266 93. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Apraxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 94 / 266 94. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Basal ganglia C. Dura matter D. Pineal body 95 / 266 95. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Parietal lobe 96 / 266 96. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 97 / 266 97. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Febuxostat B. Emetine C. Zidovudine D. Lovastatin 98 / 266 98. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 99 / 266 99. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Syringomyelia 100 / 266 100. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Ocular myopathy 101 / 266 101. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Fatty liver C. Livedo reticularis D. Ankle oedema 102 / 266 102. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 103 / 266 103. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Gynaecomastia D. Galactorrhoea 104 / 266 104. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Encephalitis C. Febrile D. Epilepsy 105 / 266 105. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 106 / 266 106. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 107 / 266 107. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 108 / 266 108. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 109 / 266 109. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Snakebite C. Myasthenia gravis D. Rabies 110 / 266 110. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Leucodystrophy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Cerebral palsy 111 / 266 111. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Dementia in AIDS D. Hysterical gait disorder 112 / 266 112. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 113 / 266 113. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Infectious mononucleosis 114 / 266 114. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Felbamate C. Lamotrigine D. Lubeluzole 115 / 266 115. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal dominant 116 / 266 116. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Encephalitis C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 117 / 266 117. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 118 / 266 118. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pyogenic meningitis 119 / 266 119. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 120 / 266 120. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Cluster headache C. Mania D. SIADH 121 / 266 121. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Sleep paralysis D. Cataplexy 122 / 266 122. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Addison's disease D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 123 / 266 123. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 124 / 266 124. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Absence of root pain C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Bladder involvement is very late 125 / 266 125. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Ventral pons D. Cortex 126 / 266 126. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. May be associated with malignancy D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 127 / 266 127. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Perspiration C. Tremor D. Confabulation 128 / 266 128. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV frusemide C. IV mannitol D. Dexamethasone 129 / 266 129. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Central scotoma D. Bitemporal hemianopi 130 / 266 130. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Botulism C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myasthenia gravis 131 / 266 131. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Meningioma C. Medulloblastoma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 132 / 266 132. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysphagia C. Dysarthria D. Nasal regurgitation 133 / 266 133. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Selegiline D. Amantadine 134 / 266 134. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Lathyrism D. Elapidae group snake bite 135 / 266 135. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Migraine C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 136 / 266 136. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 137 / 266 137. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Myopathy 138 / 266 138. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Flexor plantar response D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 139 / 266 139. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Deltoid C. Infraspinatus D. Calf muscles 140 / 266 140. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Chloroquine C. Ethambutol D. Amiodarone 141 / 266 141. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Trypanosomiasis 142 / 266 142. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Limb shortening 143 / 266 143. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Pramipexole C. Tiagabine D. Rasagiline 144 / 266 144. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Gross pedal oedema D. Parkinsonism 145 / 266 145. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Dementia D. Urinary incontinence 146 / 266 146. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. After epileptic seizure 147 / 266 147. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. CT scan C. PET scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 148 / 266 148. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Apraxia B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Agnosia 149 / 266 149. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Choreoathetosis B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Mental retardation 150 / 266 150. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Hepatic precoma C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 151 / 266 151. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Athletes C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Myotonia 152 / 266 152. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Mikulicz's syndrome C. Leprosy D. Tuberculosis 153 / 266 153. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Advanced pregnancy C. Huge ascites D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 154 / 266 154. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Schaumann bodies 155 / 266 155. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hypercalcemia 156 / 266 156. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Aortic incompetence 157 / 266 157. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cervical spondylosis 158 / 266 158. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Absence seizures 159 / 266 159. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Ciliary ganglion 160 / 266 160. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 3 weeks C. 96 hours D. 2 weeks 161 / 266 161. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cervical spine C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 162 / 266 162. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 163 / 266 163. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Pons D. Midbrain 164 / 266 164. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Syringobulbia C. Bell's palsy D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Periorbital pain D. Male dominance 166 / 266 166. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Pyramidal lesion C. Ataxia D. Horner's syndrome 167 / 266 167. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Alzheimer's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 168 / 266 168. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Myotonic dystrophy 169 / 266 169. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents rebleeding 170 / 266 170. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Nystagmus D. Papilloedema 171 / 266 171. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Facial nerve D. Vagus nerve 172 / 266 172. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 173 / 266 173. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 174 / 266 174. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Small, spastic tongue C. Babinski's sign D. Brisk jaw jerk 175 / 266 175. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Acromegaly D. Infertility 176 / 266 176. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Albright's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 177 / 266 177. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Nutrition of muscles B. Involuntary movements C. Tone and power D. Stereognosis 178 / 266 178. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Glossitis C. Ankle clonus D. Anemia 179 / 266 179. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 180 / 266 180. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Kuru C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 181 / 266 181. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Blindness D. Focal neuro deficit 182 / 266 182. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Multiparous woman C. Lax abdominal wall D. Hysteria 183 / 266 183. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Botulism D. Horner's syndrome 184 / 266 184. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Left ventricular aneurysm 185 / 266 185. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Cervical rib C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Myopathy 186 / 266 186. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Hemiballismus C. Myoclonus D. Chorea 187 / 266 187. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Xanthochromia C. Positive Queckenstedt's test D. High protein content 188 / 266 188. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 189 / 266 189. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Hyperpyrexia C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Autonomic dysfunction 190 / 266 190. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Phakomatosis D. Seizures 191 / 266 191. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Cyclophosphamide C. Corticosteroid D. Immunoglobulin 192 / 266 192. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Complex partial 193 / 266 193. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Animals C. Pain D. High places 194 / 266 194. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 195 / 266 195. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cirrhosis of liver 196 / 266 196. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Hemiparesis D. Coma 197 / 266 197. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Putamen 198 / 266 198. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Temporal C. Frontal D. Parietal 199 / 266 199. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Stokes-Adams syndrome D. Cardiac tamponade 200 / 266 200. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Haloperidol 201 / 266 201. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Malignant hypertension C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Hypoxia 202 / 266 202. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 203 / 266 203. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 204 / 266 204. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Restlessness C. Poliomyelitis D. Hung-up knee jerk 205 / 266 205. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5,S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5 206 / 266 206. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 207 / 266 207. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 208 / 266 208. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 209 / 266 209. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV quinine C. IV mannitol D. Glucocorticoids 210 / 266 210. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pituitary tumors 211 / 266 211. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 212 / 266 212. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Central retinal artery occlusion 213 / 266 213. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 214 / 266 214. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 215 / 266 215. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Depression C. Early onset D. Visual hallucinations 216 / 266 216. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 217 / 266 217. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Pseudolymphoma D. Pendular nystagmus 218 / 266 218. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Scoliosis 219 / 266 219. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 220 / 266 220. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Meningioma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Acoustic neuroma 221 / 266 221. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Brain tumour 222 / 266 222. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Chorea C. Athetosis D. Myotonia 223 / 266 223. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 224 / 266 224. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Atenolol C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 225 / 266 225. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Papilledema 226 / 266 226. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Sylvian fissure C. Olfactory groove D. Cerebello-pontine angle 227 / 266 227. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Immune disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Metabolic disorder 228 / 266 228. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 229 / 266 229. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Agraphia D. Acalculia 230 / 266 230. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Snout reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Anal reflex 231 / 266 231. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Alzheimer's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 232 / 266 232. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. TOCP poisoning C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Acute intermittent porphyria 233 / 266 233. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. von Recklinghausen's disease 234 / 266 234. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Multiple tics 235 / 266 235. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Fasciculations 236 / 266 236. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 237 / 266 237. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Pons 238 / 266 238. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Absent superficial reflex C. Weakness and spasticity D. Equivocal plantar response 239 / 266 239. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 240 / 266 240. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 241 / 266 241. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 242 / 266 242. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids B. Thiocyanates C. Aflatoxin D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 243 / 266 243. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Emotional incontinence D. Extensor plantar response 244 / 266 244. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Alcohol D. Myxoedema 245 / 266 245. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Abducens palsy C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Polyneuropathy 246 / 266 246. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 247 / 266 247. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. Systemic hypertension D. AV malformations 248 / 266 248. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 249 / 266 249. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Convulsions D. SIADH 250 / 266 250. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 251 / 266 251. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 252 / 266 252. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 253 / 266 253. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Oculomotor palsy 254 / 266 254. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Headache D. Altered consciousness 255 / 266 255. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 256 / 266 256. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C5, 6 B. C4, 5 C. C6, 7 D. C3, 4 257 / 266 257. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Subacute combined degeneration 258 / 266 258. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Hypothyroidism C. Onycholysis D. Ataxia 259 / 266 259. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Alzheimer's disease C. Post-encephalitic D. Multi-infarct dementia 260 / 266 260. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-18 D. Turner's syndrome 261 / 266 261. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 262 / 266 262. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia 263 / 266 263. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 264 / 266 264. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Leukodystrophy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 265 / 266 265. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Viral meningitis 266 / 266 266. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Dolichocephaly C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology