Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Deep reflexes are depressed 2 / 266 2. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Rasagiline C. Ropinirole D. Tiagabine 3 / 266 3. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Felbamate C. Lamotrigine D. Vigabatrin 4 / 266 4. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Multiple sclerosis 5 / 266 5. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysphagia C. Dysarthria D. Nasal regurgitation 6 / 266 6. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Aflatoxin C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Beta oxalyl amino alanine 7 / 266 7. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Tabes dorsalis 8 / 266 8. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 9 / 266 9. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Coma D. Hemiparesis 10 / 266 10. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Aspirin 11 / 266 11. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Millard-Gubler syndrome D. Petit mal epilepsy 12 / 266 12. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Meningioma C. Glioblastoma D. Astrocytoma 13 / 266 13. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Tunnel vision 14 / 266 14. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 15 / 266 15. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Weil's disease C. Enteric fever D. Atypical pneumonia 16 / 266 16. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Multiple sclerosis 17 / 266 17. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Hemiballismus 18 / 266 18. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Vincristine 19 / 266 19. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Anal reflex C. Snout reflex D. Grasp reflex 20 / 266 20. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 21 / 266 21. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Cerebellar signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Facial nerve palsy D. Pyramidal signs 22 / 266 22. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Niemann-Pick disease 23 / 266 23. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Infantile spasm 24 / 266 24. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Benzodiazepine D. Trimipramine 25 / 266 25. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pendular nystagmus D. Megaloblastic anemia 26 / 266 26. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 27 / 266 27. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Tremor C. Rigidity D. Hyperkinesia 28 / 266 28. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 29 / 266 29. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 30 / 266 30. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Pons D. Cerebral cortex 31 / 266 31. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Periodic paralysis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 32 / 266 32. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. May be associated with malignancy C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 33 / 266 33. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Hepatic precoma C. Friedreich' s ataxia D. Taboparesis 34 / 266 34. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Pain C. Animals D. Strangers 35 / 266 35. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Schizophrenia 36 / 266 36. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basilar artery thrombosis 37 / 266 37. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Cataplexy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Sleep paralysis 38 / 266 38. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Anemia C. Ankle clonus D. Babinski's sign 39 / 266 39. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 40 / 266 40. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Cerebellar infarction D. Aura phase of migraine 41 / 266 41. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 42 / 266 42. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pituitary tumors C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 43 / 266 43. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-18 B. Trisomy-21 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-13 44 / 266 44. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 45 / 266 45. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Levodopa C. Selegiline D. Trihexyphenidyl 46 / 266 46. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 47 / 266 47. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Choreoathetosis C. Mental retardation D. Retinitis pigmentosa 48 / 266 48. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Mania C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 49 / 266 49. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Tetany C. Chorea D. Myotonia 50 / 266 50. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluoxetine C. Fluvoxamine D. Sertraline 51 / 266 51. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 52 / 266 52. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 53 / 266 53. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 54 / 266 54. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 55 / 266 55. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 56 / 266 56. Amantadine does not produce: A. Livedo reticularis B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Seizures 57 / 266 57. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypoparathyroidism 58 / 266 58. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Head trauma in professional boxers B. Huntington's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 59 / 266 59. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Polyneuropathy C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Myositis 60 / 266 60. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Facial nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Optic nerv 61 / 266 61. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Pontine glioma C. Amblyopia D. Phenytoin toxicity 62 / 266 62. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T1 B. C8 C. T4 D. T2 63 / 266 63. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Tetanus C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Diphtheria 64 / 266 64. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Vth D. Xth 65 / 266 65. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 66 / 266 66. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Pinealomas C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 67 / 266 67. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 68 / 266 68. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Takayasu's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 69 / 266 69. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Periorbital pain C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 70 / 266 70. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C5, 6 C. C3, 4 D. C4, 5 71 / 266 71. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents rebleeding B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 72 / 266 72. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Dexamethasone C. Oral glycerol D. IV mannitol 73 / 266 73. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Internal capsule C. Cervical spine D. Brainstem 74 / 266 74. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Albright's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 75 / 266 75. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Masked facies C. Extensor plantar response D. Emotional incontinence 76 / 266 76. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 77 / 266 77. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Gonda sign C. Babinski's sign D. Chaddock's sign 78 / 266 78. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Absent superficial reflex 79 / 266 79. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 80 / 266 80. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 81 / 266 81. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Subdural hematoma 82 / 266 82. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 83 / 266 83. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 84 / 266 84. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Associated with lacunar infarction C. Confabulation D. Loss of recent memory 85 / 266 85. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Ocular myopathy D. Malignant exophthalmos 86 / 266 86. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Sensory dysfunction C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Argyll Robertson pupil 87 / 266 87. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Multiple sclerosis 88 / 266 88. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Epilepsy C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 89 / 266 89. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Epilepsy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Cerebellar infarction 90 / 266 90. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Increased deep reflexes D. Flexor plantar response 91 / 266 91. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Graphesthesia C. Perceptual rivalry D. Vibration sensation 92 / 266 92. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Ptosis C. Frontal baldness D. Testicular atrophy 93 / 266 93. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Absence of root pain C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 94 / 266 94. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Retinitis pigmentosa 95 / 266 95. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Succinylcholine C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 96 / 266 96. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 97 / 266 97. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 98 / 266 98. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hysteria D. Multiple sclerosis 99 / 266 99. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Exaggerated deep reflex D. Distal muscle weakness 100 / 266 100. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Head injury C. Epilepsy D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 101 / 266 101. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Olfactory groove C. Over visual cortex D. Sylvian fissure 102 / 266 102. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Reserpine D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 103 / 266 103. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Amyloidosis C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Acute intermittent porphyria 104 / 266 104. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Alcohol C. Valproic acid D. Myxoedema 105 / 266 105. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Athletes C. Myotonia D. Manual labourers 106 / 266 106. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae snake bite 107 / 266 107. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Small, spastic tongue C. Sudden onset D. Babinski's sign 108 / 266 108. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cervical spondylosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 109 / 266 109. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 110 / 266 110. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 111 / 266 111. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Areflexia C. Ataxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 112 / 266 112. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Kuru D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 113 / 266 113. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Optic glioma C. Meningioma D. Scoliosis 114 / 266 114. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Demyelinating C. Inflammatory D. Hemorrhagic 115 / 266 115. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Hiccups C. Pyramidal lesion D. Horner's syndrome 116 / 266 116. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Leucodystrophy C. Cerebral palsy D. Alzheimer's disease 117 / 266 117. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 118 / 266 118. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Raynaud's disease D. Leprosy 119 / 266 119. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Duodenal stenosis 120 / 266 120. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Red nucleus D. Substantia nigra 121 / 266 121. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 122 / 266 122. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Facial nerve 123 / 266 123. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Hereditary predisposition 124 / 266 124. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Midbrain lesion 125 / 266 125. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Ataxia 126 / 266 126. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Viral meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 127 / 266 127. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Oesophagitis 128 / 266 128. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Bell's palsy C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Syringobulbia 129 / 266 129. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Macrolides 130 / 266 130. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Wasting of muscles D. Absent tendon reflexes 131 / 266 131. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 132 / 266 132. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 133 / 266 133. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Ethambutol C. Syphilis D. Leprosy 134 / 266 134. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 135 / 266 135. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Mamillary bodies D. Corpus striatum 136 / 266 136. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Drop attacks C. Diplopia D. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness 137 / 266 137. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. AV malformations C. Emotional excitement D. Berry aneurysm rupture 138 / 266 138. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Negri bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Lewy bodies 139 / 266 139. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 140 / 266 140. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Syringomyelia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Friedreich's ataxia 141 / 266 141. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Immunoglobulin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Interferon 142 / 266 142. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 143 / 266 143. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Sugar content 40-80 mg% B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Chloride content 720-750 mg% 144 / 266 144. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 145 / 266 145. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Headache D. Convulsions 146 / 266 146. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 147 / 266 147. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Aphasia D. Acalculia 148 / 266 148. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Gynaecomastia C. Galactorrhoea D. Acromegaly 149 / 266 149. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 150 / 266 150. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Paralysis D. Disconjugate gaze 151 / 266 151. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Fasciculations D. Clonus 152 / 266 152. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 153 / 266 153. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Cocaine D. Amphetamines 154 / 266 154. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Ethosuximide C. Diazepam D. Topiramate 155 / 266 155. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Ocular myopathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 156 / 266 156. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 157 / 266 157. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Monotonous speech C. Dysarthria D. Aphasia 158 / 266 158. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Dementia in AIDS D. Hysterical gait disorder 159 / 266 159. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Phakomatosis C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Seizures 160 / 266 160. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Toxin 161 / 266 161. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Focal neuro deficit C. Blindness D. Convulsions 162 / 266 162. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. After epileptic seizure C. Hysteria D. Tetanus 163 / 266 163. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Wilson's disease C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 164 / 266 164. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Myoclonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Tonic seizures 165 / 266 165. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Perspiration C. Confabulation D. Visual hallucinations 166 / 266 166. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Poliomyelitis C. Restlessness D. Hung-up knee jerk 167 / 266 167. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Wilson's disease C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 168 / 266 168. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Electromyography C. Nerve conduction study D. Muscle enzyme study 169 / 266 169. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Cortex B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Midbrain 170 / 266 170. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hypothyroid myopathy 171 / 266 171. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Infraspinatus C. Deltoid D. Pectoralis major 172 / 266 172. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Neurofibroma D. Patchy arachnoiditis 173 / 266 173. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 174 / 266 174. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Emetine D. Lovastatin 175 / 266 175. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 176 / 266 176. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Multiple tics C. Coprolalia D. Relief by haloperidol 177 / 266 177. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Diarrhoea 178 / 266 178. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Ciliary ganglion C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Sympathetic nervous system 179 / 266 179. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. White spots over trunk and limbs C. Shagreen patch D. Pompholyx 180 / 266 180. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Hyperpyrexia C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 181 / 266 181. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Neurofibromatosis C. Poliomyelitis D. Friedreich's ataxia 182 / 266 182. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Lacunar infarction C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Cerebral atrophy 183 / 266 183. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism 184 / 266 184. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Weber-Christian disease 185 / 266 185. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Aortic incompetence 186 / 266 186. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Thalamus 187 / 266 187. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 188 / 266 188. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Motor response 189 / 266 189. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Rheumatic fever C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Hyponatraemia 190 / 266 190. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia 191 / 266 191. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Advanced pregnancy C. Huge ascites D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 192 / 266 192. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Obesity C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 193 / 266 193. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia 194 / 266 194. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Putamen C. Midbrain D. Thalamus 195 / 266 195. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. L5,S1 C. S1 D. S1,S2 196 / 266 196. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Occipital D. Temporal 197 / 266 197. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 198 / 266 198. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Depression C. Mania D. Paranoia 199 / 266 199. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Ependymoma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Meningioma 200 / 266 200. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Multiple sclerosis D. Parkinsonism 201 / 266 201. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Amiodarone C. Ethambutol D. Chloroquine 202 / 266 202. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 203 / 266 203. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Meningioma 204 / 266 204. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Meningism 205 / 266 205. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Cardiac tamponade D. Arrhythmia 206 / 266 206. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Multiple sclerosis 207 / 266 207. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Diabetes mellitus 208 / 266 208. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Seizures C. Paraesthesia D. Diplopia 209 / 266 209. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Haloperidol C. Lithium D. Carbamazepine 210 / 266 210. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Polyneuropathy C. Abducens palsy D. Paralysis of soft palate 211 / 266 211. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Ischemic optic neuropathy D. Infarction of occipital lobe 212 / 266 212. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Immune disorder 213 / 266 213. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Inferior sagittal sinus 214 / 266 214. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Radial nerve palsy 215 / 266 215. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Apraxia C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 216 / 266 216. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Refsum's disease B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 217 / 266 217. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 218 / 266 218. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 219 / 266 219. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Neuropathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalitis D. Myopathy 220 / 266 220. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Myxoedema C. Parkinsonism D. Tabes dorsalis 221 / 266 221. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. A component of mixed connective tissue disease B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Has a good prognosis in children 222 / 266 222. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Cerebral hemorrhage 223 / 266 223. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. 5% dextrose C. IV mannitol D. IV quinine 224 / 266 224. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 225 / 266 225. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Lathyrism C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Botulinus poisoning 226 / 266 226. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. H. influenzae C. Pneumococcus D. Meningococcous 227 / 266 227. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 228 / 266 228. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Frontal lobe 229 / 266 229. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Convulsions C. Optic neuritis D. Pseudobulbar palsy 230 / 266 230. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 231 / 266 231. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 232 / 266 232. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Oculomotor palsy 233 / 266 233. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 234 / 266 234. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal dominant 235 / 266 235. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking in front C. Looking sideways by the affected eye D. Looking to the roof 236 / 266 236. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 237 / 266 237. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Sarcoidosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 238 / 266 238. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Migraine C. Myodonus D. Psychosis 239 / 266 239. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Myasthenia gravis C. Snakebite D. Poliomyelitis 240 / 266 240. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Pick's disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Alzheimer's disease 241 / 266 241. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Brain tumour C. Gradenigo's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 242 / 266 242. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Aphasia D. Nystagmus 243 / 266 243. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 244 / 266 244. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Deep coma D. Hyperpyrexia 245 / 266 245. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Enophthalmos C. Anhidrosis D. Constricted pupil 246 / 266 246. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. PET scan C. MRI scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 247 / 266 247. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Myopathy D. Cervical rib 248 / 266 248. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Acromegaly B. Alzheimer's disease C. Infertility D. Parkinsonism 249 / 266 249. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor spasm D. Mass reflex 250 / 266 250. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 251 / 266 251. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 252 / 266 252. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Mental retardation D. Limb shortening 253 / 266 253. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. Xanthochromia C. Increased CSF pressure D. High protein content 254 / 266 254. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. Sensory functions C. Proprioception D. EMG 255 / 266 255. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Urinary incontinence C. Ataxia D. Dementia 256 / 266 256. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Midbrain B. Lower pons C. Upper pons D. Medulla 257 / 266 257. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Hypoxia C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 258 / 266 258. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Defect in learning C. Loss of immediate recall D. Confabulation 259 / 266 259. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Increased tone B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Sensory ataxia D. Intact proprioception 260 / 266 260. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 261 / 266 261. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 262 / 266 262. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 263 / 266 263. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Apraxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Cerebellar ataxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 264 / 266 264. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Coma C. Retention of urine D. Hypertonia 265 / 266 265. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 266 / 266 266. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myopathy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology