Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C3, 4 C. C4, 5 D. C5, 6 2 / 266 2. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia 3 / 266 3. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma D. Medulloblastoma 4 / 266 4. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Male dominance D. Periorbital pain 5 / 266 5. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 6 / 266 6. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 7 / 266 7. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Ataxia C. Onycholysis D. Hypothyroidism 8 / 266 8. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Accelerated atherosclerosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Puerperal sepsis 9 / 266 9. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Leprosy C. Syphilis D. Multiple sclerosis 10 / 266 10. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic C. Meningioma D. Astrocytoma 11 / 266 11. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Midbrain 12 / 266 12. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 13 / 266 13. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 14 / 266 14. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. May be associated with malignancy 15 / 266 15. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Vincristine C. Lead D. Arsenic 16 / 266 16. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Optic glioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Scoliosis 17 / 266 17. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Facial nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 18 / 266 18. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Niemann-Pick disease 19 / 266 19. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Duchenne myopathy D. Hysteria 20 / 266 20. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alzheimer's disease 21 / 266 21. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Papilledema D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 22 / 266 22. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. VIIth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 23 / 266 23. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cerebral cortex 24 / 266 24. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 25 / 266 25. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral embolism 26 / 266 26. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5 C. L5,S1 D. S1,S2 27 / 266 27. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Wallenberg's syndrome B. Oesophagitis C. Acute renal failure D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 28 / 266 28. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Pramipexole C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 29 / 266 29. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 30 / 266 30. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Head trauma in professional boxers 31 / 266 31. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 32 / 266 32. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Polymyositis D. Early Alzheimer's disease 33 / 266 33. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Alzheimer's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Pick's disease 34 / 266 34. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Multiple sclerosis C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Pinealomas 35 / 266 35. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Advanced pregnancy D. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 36 / 266 36. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 37 / 266 37. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Neurofibromatosis 38 / 266 38. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. Marathon runner D. Electroconvulsive therapy 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Tone and power B. Nutrition of muscles C. Stereognosis D. Involuntary movements 40 / 266 40. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. High places C. Pain D. Animals 41 / 266 41. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Digitalis toxicity D. Aura phase of migraine 42 / 266 42. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Calf muscles C. Deltoid D. Infraspinatus 43 / 266 43. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 44 / 266 44. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. INH C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 45 / 266 45. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Altered consciousness B. Convulsions C. Non-projectile vomiting D. Headache 46 / 266 46. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Glossitis 47 / 266 47. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Livedo reticularis 48 / 266 48. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tabes dorsalis 49 / 266 49. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Cerebellar disorder D. Aortic incompetence 50 / 266 50. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Sertraline 51 / 266 51. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 52 / 266 52. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Convulsions D. Focal neuro deficit 53 / 266 53. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Albright's disease C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 54 / 266 54. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 55 / 266 55. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cerebral diplegia D. Motor neuron disease 56 / 266 56. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Cocaine 57 / 266 57. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV mannitol C. Glucocorticoids D. IV quinine 58 / 266 58. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 59 / 266 59. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Drop attacks D. Diplopia 60 / 266 60. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 61 / 266 61. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Retinitis pigmentosa 62 / 266 62. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Sucking reflex 63 / 266 63. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Babinski's sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Gonda sign 64 / 266 64. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Old age C. Myotonic pupil D. Organophosphorus poisoning 65 / 266 65. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Snakebite C. Poliomyelitis D. Myasthenia gravis 66 / 266 66. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 67 / 266 67. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked recessive 68 / 266 68. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Epilepsy C. Cerebellar infarction D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 69 / 266 69. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Lathyrism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 70 / 266 70. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Huntington's chorea C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Alzheimer's disease 71 / 266 71. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Multiple sclerosis 72 / 266 72. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Dysphasia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 73 / 266 73. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Benzodiazepine D. Trimipramine 74 / 266 74. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Absence of root pain C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 75 / 266 75. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 76 / 266 76. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-18 D. Turner's syndrome 77 / 266 77. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Proximal muscle weakness 78 / 266 78. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Mania D. Alcohol withdrawal 79 / 266 79. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Galactorrhoea C. Gynaecomastia D. Acromegaly 80 / 266 80. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Depression C. Phobia D. Mania 81 / 266 81. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Transient ischemic attack C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Epilepsy 82 / 266 82. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th 83 / 266 83. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Polyneuropathy C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Tabes dorsalis 84 / 266 84. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Normokalaemia 85 / 266 85. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 86 / 266 86. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia 87 / 266 87. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Motor response C. Verbal response D. Autonomic response 88 / 266 88. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Clopidogrel 89 / 266 89. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Pituitary tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 90 / 266 90. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Ocular myopathy 91 / 266 91. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Coprolalia C. Multiple tics D. Relief by haloperidol 92 / 266 92. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Rigidity C. Tremor D. Normal reflexes 93 / 266 93. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 94 / 266 94. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Internal capsule 95 / 266 95. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Cerebral atrophy C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Neurosyphilis 96 / 266 96. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 97 / 266 97. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 98 / 266 98. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Polymyositis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 99 / 266 99. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Myopathy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 100 / 266 100. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Pseudoclonus C. Distal muscle weakness D. Exaggerated deep reflex 101 / 266 101. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe 102 / 266 102. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Chorea C. Hemiballismus D. Myoclonus 103 / 266 103. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Muscle biopsy 104 / 266 104. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Disconjugate gaze C. Hypothermia D. Paralysis 105 / 266 105. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Neurofibroma D. Patchy arachnoiditis 106 / 266 106. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 107 / 266 107. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T4 B. C8 C. T2 D. T1 108 / 266 108. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 109 / 266 109. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Emetine C. Lovastatin D. Febuxostat 110 / 266 110. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Babinski's sign C. Fasciculations D. Clonus 111 / 266 111. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Perceptual rivalry B. Two-point localisation C. Graphesthesia D. Vibration sensation 112 / 266 112. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 113 / 266 113. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage 114 / 266 114. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Brainstem C. Cervical spine D. Cortex 115 / 266 115. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. EMG C. Proprioception D. Sensory functions 116 / 266 116. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Pendular nystagmus D. Pseudolymphoma 117 / 266 117. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 118 / 266 118. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basal ganglia infarction C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basilar artery thrombosis 119 / 266 119. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 120 / 266 120. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypotension C. Hypocapnia D. Hypoxia 121 / 266 121. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Convulsions C. SIADH D. Optic neuritis 122 / 266 122. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Leucodystrophy D. Alzheimer's disease 123 / 266 123. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Embolic C. Inflammatory D. Demyelinating 124 / 266 124. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Horner's syndrome 125 / 266 125. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Idiopathic parkinsonism 126 / 266 126. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 127 / 266 127. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 24 hours C. 2 weeks D. 96 hours 128 / 266 128. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 129 / 266 129. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 130 / 266 130. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. TOCP poisoning 131 / 266 131. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Leprosy D. Diabetic amyotrophy 132 / 266 132. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Raynaud's disease D. Tabes dorsalis 133 / 266 133. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Hypoxia D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 134 / 266 134. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 135 / 266 135. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Weakness and spasticity B. Absent superficial reflex C. Equivocal plantar response D. Brisk deep reflexes 136 / 266 136. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Leprosy D. Multiple sclerosis 137 / 266 137. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Ataxia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Osteomalacia 138 / 266 138. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Myelopathy 139 / 266 139. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Amblyopia C. Pontine glioma D. Cerebellar disorder 140 / 266 140. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Ocular myopathy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy 141 / 266 141. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Immunoglobulin 142 / 266 142. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Brain tumor C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tuberculous meningitis 143 / 266 143. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 144 / 266 144. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Petit mal C. Infantile spasm D. Generalized tonic clonic 145 / 266 145. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Coma C. Retention of urine D. Hypertonia 146 / 266 146. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract C. Increased deep reflexes D. Flexor plantar response 147 / 266 147. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 148 / 266 148. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents rebleeding 149 / 266 149. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Subdural hematoma C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Trypanosomiasis 150 / 266 150. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Confabulation C. Loss of immediate recall D. Defect in learning 151 / 266 151. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Putamen D. Caudate nucleus 152 / 266 152. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Deep coma C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperpyrexia 153 / 266 153. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 154 / 266 154. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 155 / 266 155. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Ependymoma 156 / 266 156. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Heart valve abnormalities B. Anencephaly C. Limb shortening D. Mental retardation 157 / 266 157. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 158 / 266 158. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Myxoedema B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Alcohol D. Valproic acid 159 / 266 159. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking in front C. Looking to the roof D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 160 / 266 160. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Ciliary ganglion C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Oculomotor nerve 161 / 266 161. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Sensory dysfunction B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Loss of ankle jerk D. Waddling gait 162 / 266 162. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 163 / 266 163. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Pyramidal lesion C. Horner's syndrome D. Hiccups 164 / 266 164. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Psychiatric disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Immune disorder 165 / 266 165. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Cerebellar signs D. Facial nerve palsy 166 / 266 166. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hereditary predisposition C. Hemicranial headache D. Common migraine has aura 167 / 266 167. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Sudden onset B. Babinski's sign C. Small, spastic tongue D. Brisk jaw jerk 168 / 266 168. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 169 / 266 169. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Aflatoxin 170 / 266 170. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Hepatocellular failure D. Severe heart failure 171 / 266 171. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 172 / 266 172. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Myotonia D. Manual labourers 173 / 266 173. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 174 / 266 174. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Amantadine D. Levodopa 175 / 266 175. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Obesity C. Lax abdominal wall D. Hysteria 176 / 266 176. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Atypical pneumonia C. Weil's disease D. Cerebral malaria 177 / 266 177. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Hysteria C. Tetanus D. After epileptic seizure 178 / 266 178. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. IIIrd B. Vllth C. Xth D. Vth 179 / 266 179. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 180 / 266 180. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 181 / 266 181. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 182 / 266 182. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypertonia D. Titubation 183 / 266 183. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 184 / 266 184. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Myotonia C. Chorea D. Athetosis 185 / 266 185. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Intact proprioception C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Increased tone 186 / 266 186. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Tunnel vision D. Homonymous hemianopia 187 / 266 187. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 188 / 266 188. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Medulla C. Upper pons D. Midbrain 189 / 266 189. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) B. Leukodystrophy C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 190 / 266 190. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Multiple sclerosis 191 / 266 191. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. CT scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. PET scan 192 / 266 192. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. IV frusemide 193 / 266 193. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. May occur spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 194 / 266 194. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Transverse myelitis D. Poliomyelitis 195 / 266 195. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Over visual cortex B. Sylvian fissure C. Olfactory groove D. Cerebello-pontine angle 196 / 266 196. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 197 / 266 197. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Chorea C. Psychosis D. Myodonus 198 / 266 198. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Urinary incontinence D. Dementia 199 / 266 199. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 200 / 266 200. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Confabulation C. Presence of nystagmus D. Loss of recent memory 201 / 266 201. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Muscle contraction in myotonia 202 / 266 202. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Vigabatrin C. Felbamate D. Lamotrigine 203 / 266 203. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 204 / 266 204. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Areflexia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Ataxia 205 / 266 205. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 206 / 266 206. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypoparathyroidism 207 / 266 207. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Meningism C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 208 / 266 208. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Sensory ataxia C. Apraxia D. Labyrinthine ataxia 209 / 266 209. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Anhidrosis + mydriasis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Partial ptosis + miosis 210 / 266 210. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Tabes dorsalis C. Parkinsonism D. Myxoedema 211 / 266 211. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Sarcoidosis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 212 / 266 212. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Haloperidol C. Clomipramine D. Carbamazepine 213 / 266 213. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Syringomyelia C. Radial nerve palsy D. Poliomyelitis 214 / 266 214. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Parietal D. Occipital 215 / 266 215. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 216 / 266 216. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure sensory stroke D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 217 / 266 217. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Hyponatraemia C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Rheumatic fever 218 / 266 218. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Diazepam C. Valproate D. Ethosuximide 219 / 266 219. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Pineal body C. Dura matter D. Basal ganglia 220 / 266 220. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Emotional incontinence C. Masked facies D. Flaccid dysarthria 221 / 266 221. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Diplopia 222 / 266 222. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve 223 / 266 223. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Tremor C. Visual hallucinations D. Confabulation 224 / 266 224. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Autonomic dysfunction B. Hyperpyrexia C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 225 / 266 225. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Sleep paralysis C. Epilepsy D. Hypnagogic hallucination 226 / 266 226. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Hemiparesis D. Coma 227 / 266 227. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Monotonous speech C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 228 / 266 228. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Viral meningitis 229 / 266 229. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Botulism C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 230 / 266 230. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Arrhythmia D. Tight aortic stenosis 231 / 266 231. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Pompholyx C. Shagreen patch D. White spots over trunk and limbs 232 / 266 232. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Lathyrism C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae group snake bite 233 / 266 233. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Meningococcous C. E. coli D. Pneumococcus 234 / 266 234. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral infarction C. Venous thrombosis D. Acute myocardial infarction 235 / 266 235. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Visual hallucinations C. Passivity feelings D. Early onset 236 / 266 236. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Tetanus 237 / 266 237. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Sumatriptan C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 238 / 266 238. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Oculomotor palsy C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Horner's syndrome 239 / 266 239. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Mass reflex D. Flexor plantar response 240 / 266 240. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Steroid myopathy 241 / 266 241. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. Emotional excitement C. AV malformations D. Berry aneurysm rupture 242 / 266 242. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 243 / 266 243. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Bell's palsy D. Cluster headache 244 / 266 244. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Protein content 20-40 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 245 / 266 245. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hyperthyroidism 246 / 266 246. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Inferior sagittal sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Fourth ventricle 247 / 266 247. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Nasal regurgitation D. Spastic tongue 248 / 266 248. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. High protein content D. Increased CSF pressure 249 / 266 249. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Loss of accommodation C. Paralysis of soft palate D. Abducens palsy 250 / 266 250. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 251 / 266 251. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 252 / 266 252. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Absence seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Tonic seizures 253 / 266 253. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Phakomatosis C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Seizures 254 / 266 254. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Aphasia C. Agraphia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 255 / 266 255. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Shy-Drager syndrome D. Huntington's chorea 256 / 266 256. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Refsum's disease C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 257 / 266 257. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Ependymoma 258 / 266 258. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 259 / 266 259. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia D. Gaucher's disease 260 / 266 260. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cortex 261 / 266 261. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 262 / 266 262. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Febrile C. Epilepsy D. Encephalitis 263 / 266 263. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Alcoholism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 264 / 266 264. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Temporal lobe B. Corpus striatum C. Frontal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 265 / 266 265. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Hypothyroidism D. Thrombocytopenia 266 / 266 266. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. 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