Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Associated with lacunar infarction B. Loss of recent memory C. Confabulation D. Presence of nystagmus 2 / 266 2. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Ventral pons B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Cortex 3 / 266 3. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Post-herpetic neuralgia 4 / 266 4. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Punch-drunk syndrome 5 / 266 5. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Marathon runner C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Electroconvulsive therapy 6 / 266 6. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Increased deep reflexes C. Flexor plantar response D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 7 / 266 7. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Aura phase of migraine C. Cerebellar infarction D. Digitalis toxicity 8 / 266 8. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Horner's syndrome C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 9 / 266 9. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Poliomyelitis D. Restlessness 10 / 266 10. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cluster headache C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Syringobulbia 11 / 266 11. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Polymyositis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 12 / 266 12. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Poliomyelitis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Snakebite 13 / 266 13. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Frontal D. Temporal 14 / 266 14. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 15 / 266 15. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high 16 / 266 16. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Cardiac tamponade 17 / 266 17. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Snout reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Sucking reflex 18 / 266 18. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myopathy 19 / 266 19. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Diarrhoea C. Hypothyroidism D. Onycholysis 20 / 266 20. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Ataxia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Urinary incontinence 21 / 266 21. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Lower pons 22 / 266 22. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Manual labourers D. Athletes 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Tremor B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Normal reflexes 24 / 266 24. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Cerebral atrophy C. Neurosyphilis D. Lacunar infarction 25 / 266 25. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Gonda sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Chaddock's sign 26 / 266 26. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. von Recklinghausen's disease 27 / 266 27. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Valproic acid C. Myxoedema D. Alcohol 28 / 266 28. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Pick's disease 29 / 266 29. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. IV frusemide C. Oral glycerol D. Dexamethasone 30 / 266 30. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Infantile spasm 31 / 266 31. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. IIIrd C. Xth D. Vth 32 / 266 32. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 33 / 266 33. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Galactorrhoea C. Acromegaly D. Parkinsonism 34 / 266 34. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Puerperal sepsis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Cerebral embolism 35 / 266 35. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 36 / 266 36. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure sensory stroke B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 37 / 266 37. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Klippel-Feil anomaly D. Platybasia 38 / 266 38. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Spasticity 39 / 266 39. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Perceptual rivalry C. Vibration sensation D. Two-point localisation 40 / 266 40. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 41 / 266 41. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Over visual cortex C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Sylvian fissure 42 / 266 42. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Refsum's disease 43 / 266 43. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Pentoxifylline D. Aspirin 44 / 266 44. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Cervical spondylosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia D. Multiple sclerosis 45 / 266 45. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 46 / 266 46. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Ankle oedema C. Fatty liver D. Livedo reticularis 47 / 266 47. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 48 / 266 48. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Turner's syndrome C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-13 49 / 266 49. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Pickwickian syndrome B. Trypanosomiasis C. Subdural hematoma D. Encephalitis lethargica 50 / 266 50. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 51 / 266 51. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 52 / 266 52. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Ependymoma C. Meningioma D. Phaeochromocytoma 53 / 266 53. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Ataxia D. Apraxia 54 / 266 54. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Flexor spasm C. Mass reflex D. Flexor plantar response 55 / 266 55. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Deafness 56 / 266 56. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Hyperthyroidism 57 / 266 57. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Horner's syndrome B. Application of mydriatic to one eye C. Oculomotor palsy D. Hutchinson's pupil 58 / 266 58. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Pyramidal signs C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 59 / 266 59. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Trimipramine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 60 / 266 60. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left ventricular aneurysm B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 61 / 266 61. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Immune disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Metabolic disorder 62 / 266 62. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Polycythaemia vera C. Mania D. Cluster headache 63 / 266 63. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 64 / 266 64. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Pain C. Animals D. Strangers 65 / 266 65. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Altered consciousness D. Non-projectile vomiting 66 / 266 66. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Brainstem D. Cervical spine 67 / 266 67. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Hypertonia D. Hypermetria 68 / 266 68. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Cerebral cortex D. Pons 69 / 266 69. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Myositis 70 / 266 70. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Schaumann bodies 71 / 266 71. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. X-linked dominant 72 / 266 72. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 73 / 266 73. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Meningioma D. Medulloblastoma 74 / 266 74. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmunity C. Virus D. Toxin 75 / 266 75. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Haemochromatosis C. Wilson's disease D. Myotonic dystrophy 76 / 266 76. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Eye opening C. Verbal response D. Autonomic response 77 / 266 77. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Facial weakness C. Coma D. Aphasia 78 / 266 78. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Quinolones D. Cephalosporins 79 / 266 79. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Diazepam C. Topiramate D. Valproate 80 / 266 80. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 81 / 266 81. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Ataxia C. Osteomalacia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 82 / 266 82. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Migraine C. Myodonus D. Chorea 83 / 266 83. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Levodopa C. Amantadine D. Trihexyphenidyl 84 / 266 84. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Corticosteroid D. Cyclophosphamide 85 / 266 85. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Wasting of muscles D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 86 / 266 86. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Optic neuritis B. SIADH C. Convulsions D. Pseudobulbar palsy 87 / 266 87. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Perspiration C. Confabulation D. Visual hallucinations 88 / 266 88. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Thalamus B. Midbrain C. Putamen D. Cerebellum 89 / 266 89. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 90 / 266 90. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 91 / 266 91. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Meningioma C. Astrocytoma D. Glioblastoma 92 / 266 92. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Dermatomyositis 93 / 266 93. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Steroid myopathy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 94 / 266 94. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Coma C. Absent deep reflexes D. Retention of urine 95 / 266 95. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Myopathy D. Sarcoidosis 96 / 266 96. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Petit mal epilepsy B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 97 / 266 97. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 98 / 266 98. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Shagreen patch D. Pompholyx 99 / 266 99. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypotension D. Hypocapnia 100 / 266 100. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 101 / 266 101. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Diplopia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Drop attacks 102 / 266 102. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 96 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 103 / 266 103. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 104 / 266 104. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Tuberculosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Mikulicz's syndrome 105 / 266 105. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Intact proprioception C. Sensory ataxia D. Increased tone 106 / 266 106. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe 107 / 266 107. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Ependymoma C. Glioma D. Pinealomas 108 / 266 108. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Seizures C. Mental retardation D. Adenoma sebaceum 109 / 266 109. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Poliomyelitis D. Neurofibromatosis 110 / 266 110. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Early Alzheimer's disease D. Duodenal stenosis 111 / 266 111. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 112 / 266 112. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. Diffusion-weighted MRI B. MRI scan C. PET scan D. CT scan 113 / 266 113. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Lathyrism 114 / 266 114. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Pineal body C. Basal ganglia D. Dura matter 115 / 266 115. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Hemorrhagic B. Demyelinating C. Inflammatory D. Embolic 116 / 266 116. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Aortic incompetence D. Drug-induced dyskinesia 117 / 266 117. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Dementia C. Relief by haloperidol D. Coprolalia 118 / 266 118. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Ataxia C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Thrombocytopenia 119 / 266 119. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Venous thrombosis B. Cerebral infarction C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 120 / 266 120. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 121 / 266 121. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Tuberculous meningitis 122 / 266 122. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Quite often remits spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. May occur spontaneously 123 / 266 123. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 124 / 266 124. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Carbamazepine C. Haloperidol D. Lithium 125 / 266 125. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Diabetes mellitus D. Multiple sclerosis 126 / 266 126. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 127 / 266 127. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Multiparous woman B. Obesity C. Hysteria D. Lax abdominal wall 128 / 266 128. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 129 / 266 129. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Frontal lobe C. Corpus striatum D. Temporal lobe 130 / 266 130. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Rheumatic fever C. Wilson's disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 131 / 266 131. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. AV malformations B. Systemic hypertension C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. Emotional excitement 132 / 266 132. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Fatal familial insomnia D. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease 133 / 266 133. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Flaccid dysarthria B. Extensor plantar response C. Emotional incontinence D. Masked facies 134 / 266 134. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Pituitary tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 135 / 266 135. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Periorbital pain C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 136 / 266 136. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 137 / 266 137. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Ocular myopathy 138 / 266 138. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Tetanus C. Quinsy D. Diphtheria 139 / 266 139. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Anemia C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 140 / 266 140. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 141 / 266 141. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Babinski's sign C. Brisk jaw jerk D. Sudden onset 142 / 266 142. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. H. influenzae B. Pneumococcus C. Meningococcous D. E. coli 143 / 266 143. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T2 D. T4 144 / 266 144. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 145 / 266 145. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 146 / 266 146. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Defect in learning C. Retrograde amnesia D. Loss of immediate recall 147 / 266 147. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Epilepsy D. Cerebellar infarction 148 / 266 148. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 149 / 266 149. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Homonymous hemianopia D. Tunnel vision 150 / 266 150. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents rebleeding C. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF D. Prevents vasospasm 151 / 266 151. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 152 / 266 152. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 153 / 266 153. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Focal neuro deficit C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Convulsions 154 / 266 154. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Myoclonus C. Dystonia D. Chorea 155 / 266 155. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Acute renal failure 156 / 266 156. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cord compression 157 / 266 157. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Arsenic C. Alcohol D. Vincristine 158 / 266 158. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Caudate nucleus C. Substantia nigra D. Putamen 159 / 266 159. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Thoracic inlet syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 160 / 266 160. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Deep Jaundice B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage D. Froin's loculation syndrome 161 / 266 161. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Advanced pregnancy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Huge ascites 162 / 266 162. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lamotrigine C. Lubeluzole D. Felbamate 163 / 266 163. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 164 / 266 164. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Peroneal muscular atrophy 165 / 266 165. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 166 / 266 166. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Sleep paralysis D. Epilepsy 167 / 266 167. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Methoxyflurane C. Halothane D. Dantrolene 168 / 266 168. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Oculomotor nerve 169 / 266 169. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine 170 / 266 170. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysphonia C. Aphasia D. Dysarthria 171 / 266 171. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C6, 7 C. C5, 6 D. C3, 4 172 / 266 172. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Tabes dorsalis 173 / 266 173. Migraine is not associated with: A. Diplopia B. Paraesthesia C. Seizures D. Dysphasia 174 / 266 174. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Gillespie's syndrome B. Da Costa's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 175 / 266 175. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 20-30 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 176 / 266 176. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Pindolol 177 / 266 177. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 178 / 266 178. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison's disease B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Hypoparathyroidism 179 / 266 179. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Deltoid C. Calf muscles D. Pectoralis major 180 / 266 180. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Loss of accommodation B. Abducens palsy C. Polyneuropathy D. Paralysis of soft palate 181 / 266 181. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Leukodystrophy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 182 / 266 182. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Absence of root pain C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Viral or post-vaccinal 183 / 266 183. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Leprosy D. Raynaud's disease 184 / 266 184. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Cerebellar disorder D. Amblyopia 185 / 266 185. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking to the roof B. Reading a book C. Looking in front D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 186 / 266 186. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Amiodarone B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Ethambutol 187 / 266 187. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 188 / 266 188. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Ocular myopathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Myasthenia Gravis 189 / 266 189. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 190 / 266 190. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. After epileptic seizure 191 / 266 191. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Febrile C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 192 / 266 192. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 193 / 266 193. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myelopathy C. Myopathy D. Neuropathy 194 / 266 194. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Carbamazepine C. Flumazenil D. Amphetamines 195 / 266 195. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Giant cell arteritis C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Trigeminal neuralgia 196 / 266 196. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 197 / 266 197. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Tiagabine C. Pramipexole D. Ropinirole 198 / 266 198. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cervical spondylosis D. Prolapsed intervertebral disc 199 / 266 199. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Mania C. Depression D. Phobia 200 / 266 200. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pendular nystagmus 201 / 266 201. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Myasthenia gravis 202 / 266 202. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Neurofibroma D. Subacute combined degeneration 203 / 266 203. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hyperkalemia B. Normokalaemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia 204 / 266 204. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve 205 / 266 205. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5 D. L5,S1 206 / 266 206. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 207 / 266 207. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Sugar content 40-80 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 208 / 266 208. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Scoliosis 209 / 266 209. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 210 / 266 210. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumour D. Gradenigo's syndrome 211 / 266 211. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic 212 / 266 212. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Alzheimer's disease D. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus 213 / 266 213. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Weil's disease B. Enteric fever C. Cerebral malaria D. Atypical pneumonia 214 / 266 214. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Pyramidal lesion C. Horner's syndrome D. Ataxia 215 / 266 215. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. EMG C. Cerebellar functions D. Sensory functions 216 / 266 216. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 217 / 266 217. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV quinine B. 5% dextrose C. IV mannitol D. Glucocorticoids 218 / 266 218. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Agraphia C. Acalculia D. Aphasia 219 / 266 219. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 220 / 266 220. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sarcoidosis 221 / 266 221. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Pinealomas D. Multiple sclerosis 222 / 266 222. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Deep coma C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 223 / 266 223. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Takayasu's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Polycystic kidney 224 / 266 224. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Infantile spasm C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 225 / 266 225. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Gross pedal oedema C. Myxoedema D. Tabes dorsalis 226 / 266 226. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysphagia B. Dysarthria C. Nasal regurgitation D. Spastic tongue 227 / 266 227. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Leucodystrophy D. Cerebral palsy 228 / 266 228. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Unequal pupil B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil 229 / 266 229. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Complete ptosis C. Anhidrosis D. Constricted pupil 230 / 266 230. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cataract 231 / 266 231. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 232 / 266 232. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Cerebral infarction B. Hysteria C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral haemorrhage 233 / 266 233. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Pons 234 / 266 234. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 235 / 266 235. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Waddling gait D. Sensory dysfunction 236 / 266 236. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Cerebral diplegia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Motor neuron disease 237 / 266 237. Fine tremor is found in: A. Alcoholism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Parkinsonism D. Wilson's disease 238 / 266 238. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Electromyography C. Muscle enzyme study D. Nerve conduction study 239 / 266 239. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hereditary predisposition B. Common in women C. Common migraine has aura D. Hemicranial headache 240 / 266 240. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Brainstem 241 / 266 241. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Temporal pallor of optic disc C. Nystagmus D. Aphasia 242 / 266 242. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Phenytoin C. Atenolol D. Verapamil 243 / 266 243. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 244 / 266 244. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Carotid artery occlusion D. Basilar artery thrombosis 245 / 266 245. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Pin-point pupil B. Paralysis C. Disconjugate gaze D. Hypothermia 246 / 266 246. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 247 / 266 247. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Huntington's chorea C. Post-encephalitic D. Multi-infarct dementia 248 / 266 248. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Albright's disease 249 / 266 249. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment 250 / 266 250. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome C. Kuru D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 251 / 266 251. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Tone and power C. Involuntary movements D. Nutrition of muscles 252 / 266 252. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 253 / 266 253. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Optic nerv D. Facial nerve 254 / 266 254. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syphilis D. Leprosy 255 / 266 255. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. May be associated with malignancy D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 256 / 266 256. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral hemorrhage 257 / 266 257. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Meningism 258 / 266 258. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Hypnotic poisoning D. Severe heart failure 259 / 266 259. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Chronic motor neuron disease 260 / 266 260. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. Diminished auditory acuity D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 261 / 266 261. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Choreoathetosis C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Mental retardation 262 / 266 262. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Limb shortening 263 / 266 263. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Malignant hypertension C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 264 / 266 264. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Athetosis D. Tetany 265 / 266 265. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Nitrofurantoin B. Methotrexate C. INH D. Vincristine 266 / 266 266. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Acalculia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology