Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 2 / 266 2. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 3 / 266 3. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Ataxia C. Osteomalacia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 4 / 266 4. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Froin's loculation syndrome D. Deep Jaundice 5 / 266 5. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Apraxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 6 / 266 6. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Pentoxifylline 7 / 266 7. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Neurosyphilis B. Lacunar infarction C. Cerebral atrophy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 8 / 266 8. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. SIADH B. Pseudobulbar palsy C. Optic neuritis D. Convulsions 9 / 266 9. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Xanthochromia C. Increased CSF pressure D. Positive Queckenstedt's test 10 / 266 10. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Cluster headache D. Bell's palsy 11 / 266 11. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 12 / 266 12. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 13 / 266 13. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myelopathy D. Encephalitis 14 / 266 14. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Hemiparesis B. Facial weakness C. Coma D. Aphasia 15 / 266 15. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Ocular muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 16 / 266 16. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hysteria D. Duchenne myopathy 17 / 266 17. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 18 / 266 18. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Post-encephalitic D. Huntington's chorea 19 / 266 19. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Donazepril is used in treatment C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 20 / 266 20. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 21 / 266 21. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Parietal C. Frontal D. Temporal 22 / 266 22. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 23 / 266 23. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Defect in learning B. Loss of immediate recall C. Retrograde amnesia D. Confabulation 24 / 266 24. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Takayasu's disease 25 / 266 25. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Neurofibroma C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Subacute combined degeneration 26 / 266 26. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 27 / 266 27. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. Tetanus C. After epileptic seizure D. Hysteria 28 / 266 28. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Ataxia D. Thrombocytopenia 29 / 266 29. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Myotonic pupil D. Old age 30 / 266 30. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Mucopolysaccharidoses 31 / 266 31. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Toxin 32 / 266 32. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Sylvian fissure C. Olfactory groove D. Over visual cortex 33 / 266 33. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 34 / 266 34. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 35 / 266 35. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 36 / 266 36. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Fluoxetine 37 / 266 37. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebral diplegia D. Motor neuron disease 38 / 266 38. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Passivity feelings B. Early onset C. Depression D. Visual hallucinations 39 / 266 39. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Galactosaemia D. Haemochromatosis 40 / 266 40. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Sensory ataxia D. Increased tone 41 / 266 41. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Looking in front 42 / 266 42. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Dysrhythmokinesis C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 43 / 266 43. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Meningioma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 44 / 266 44. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Myxoedema D. Alcohol 45 / 266 45. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Absent superficial reflex C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 46 / 266 46. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Malignant hypertension C. Hypoxia D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 47 / 266 47. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Wernicke's encephalopathy B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pinealomas 48 / 266 48. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Facial nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 49 / 266 49. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 50 / 266 50. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Clomipramine C. Carbamazepine D. Haloperidol 51 / 266 51. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Psychosis C. Migraine D. Myodonus 52 / 266 52. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Immunoglobulin C. Interferon D. Corticosteroid 53 / 266 53. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Shy-Drager syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 54 / 266 54. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Giant cell arteritis D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 55 / 266 55. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Systemic hypertension C. AV malformations D. Emotional excitement 56 / 266 56. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Nystagmus C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Aphasia 57 / 266 57. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Acanthocytosis of RBC D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 58 / 266 58. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Poliomyelitis C. Restlessness D. Hung-up knee jerk 59 / 266 59. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 60 / 266 60. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Enophthalmos C. Anhidrosis D. Complete ptosis 61 / 266 61. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Millard-Gubler syndrome B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Metoclopramide-induced D. Petit mal epilepsy 62 / 266 62. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Duodenal stenosis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer's disease 63 / 266 63. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Headache C. Altered consciousness D. Convulsions 64 / 266 64. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Normal intellectual activity C. Ataxia D. Urinary incontinence 65 / 266 65. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Brainstem 66 / 266 66. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Frontal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Parietal lobe 67 / 266 67. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 68 / 266 68. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 69 / 266 69. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 70 / 266 70. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Infarction of occipital lobe C. Papilledema D. Retinal hemorrhage 71 / 266 71. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Lesion in visual cortex B. Aura phase of migraine C. Cerebellar infarction D. Digitalis toxicity 72 / 266 72. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Meningioma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Astrocytoma 73 / 266 73. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Rigidity B. Normal reflexes C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 74 / 266 74. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Vestibular lesion 75 / 266 75. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Pituitary tumors D. Multiple sclerosis 76 / 266 76. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Proprioception C. Sensory functions D. Cerebellar functions 77 / 266 77. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 78 / 266 78. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Chlorpromazine C. Haloperidol D. Trimipramine 79 / 266 79. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Dystonia B. Chorea C. Myoclonus D. Hemiballismus 80 / 266 80. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud's disease C. Tabes dorsalis D. Leprosy 81 / 266 81. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Polyneuropathy C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Tabes dorsalis 82 / 266 82. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Myopathy 83 / 266 83. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Deltoid C. Calf muscles D. Pectoralis major 84 / 266 84. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Horner's syndrome C. Ataxia D. Hiccups 85 / 266 85. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome C. Pure motor hemiparesis D. Pure sensory stroke 86 / 266 86. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 87 / 266 87. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Cerebellar disorder C. Pontine glioma D. Phenytoin toxicity 88 / 266 88. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Periodic paralysis 89 / 266 89. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C6, 7 C. C3, 4 D. C5, 6 90 / 266 90. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 91 / 266 91. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Acalculia 92 / 266 92. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Diazepam B. Topiramate C. Ethosuximide D. Valproate 93 / 266 93. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 94 / 266 94. Lithium is not used in: A. SIADH B. Polycythaemia vera C. Mania D. Cluster headache 95 / 266 95. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Agraphia D. Acalculia 96 / 266 96. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Botulism B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Tabes dorsalis 97 / 266 97. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Carotid artery occlusion B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Basal ganglia infarction 98 / 266 98. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo's syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Diabetes mellitus 99 / 266 99. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Parkinsonism B. Aortic incompetence C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Cerebellar disorder 100 / 266 100. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Alcoholism C. Wilson's disease D. Cerebellar disorder 101 / 266 101. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 102 / 266 102. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Trihexyphenidyl C. Selegiline D. Amantadine 103 / 266 103. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Hutchinson's pupil C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 104 / 266 104. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 105 / 266 105. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Multiple tics B. Dementia C. Coprolalia D. Relief by haloperidol 106 / 266 106. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia D. Cervical spondylosis 107 / 266 107. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Trypanosomiasis 108 / 266 108. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Schizophrenia D. Mania 109 / 266 109. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hemicranial headache C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common migraine has aura 110 / 266 110. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 111 / 266 111. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Ropinirole B. Pramipexole C. Tiagabine D. Rasagiline 112 / 266 112. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Rabies 113 / 266 113. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypotension 114 / 266 114. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Abducens palsy C. Polyneuropathy D. Loss of accommodation 115 / 266 115. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Malignant exophthalmos D. Ocular myopathy 116 / 266 116. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Sarcoidosis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 117 / 266 117. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Diaphragmatic pleurisy D. Acute renal failure 118 / 266 118. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 119 / 266 119. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Deep coma 120 / 266 120. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Snout reflex D. Grasp reflex 121 / 266 121. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Peripheral neuropathy 122 / 266 122. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. May be associated with malignancy C. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 123 / 266 123. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 124 / 266 124. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myopathy 125 / 266 125. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cirrhosis of liver 126 / 266 126. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Absence of root pain 127 / 266 127. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Myotonia C. Tetany D. Chorea 128 / 266 128. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Sensory dysfunction D. Loss of ankle jerk 129 / 266 129. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Acromegaly C. Alzheimer's disease D. Parkinsonism 130 / 266 130. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 131 / 266 131. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Hepatocellular failure C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 132 / 266 132. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. CT scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. PET scan 133 / 266 133. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Thiocyanates 134 / 266 134. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Babinski's sign C. Anemia D. Ankle clonus 135 / 266 135. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Corpus striatum 136 / 266 136. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T2 D. T4 137 / 266 137. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 138 / 266 138. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-13 D. Turner's syndrome 139 / 266 139. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Huntington's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 140 / 266 140. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Hyperthyroid myopathy D. Dermatomyositis 141 / 266 141. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Verapamil C. Sumatriptan D. Phenytoin 142 / 266 142. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Increased deep reflexes 143 / 266 143. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Lathyrism C. Periodic paralysis D. Botulinus poisoning 144 / 266 144. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Loss of recent memory C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Presence of nystagmus 145 / 266 145. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Steroid myopathy C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 146 / 266 146. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Epilepsy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Sleep paralysis 147 / 266 147. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Lovastatin C. Emetine D. Febuxostat 148 / 266 148. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Masked facies B. Emotional incontinence C. Extensor plantar response D. Flaccid dysarthria 149 / 266 149. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Facial nerve palsy B. Cerebellar signs C. Pyramidal signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 150 / 266 150. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Motor response D. Autonomic response 151 / 266 151. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Gonda sign C. Chaddock's sign D. Rossolimo's sign 152 / 266 152. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. Glucocorticoids C. IV mannitol D. IV quinine 153 / 266 153. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Hepatic precoma C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 154 / 266 154. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Vigabatrin C. Lubeluzole D. Felbamate 155 / 266 155. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Livedo reticularis C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 156 / 266 156. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Flexor spasm C. Flexor plantar response D. Mass reflex 157 / 266 157. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Tetanus C. Quinsy D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 158 / 266 158. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Sudden onset C. Babinski's sign D. Brisk jaw jerk 159 / 266 159. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Diplopia C. Seizures D. Dysphasia 160 / 266 160. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 161 / 266 161. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Perceptual rivalry C. Two-point localisation D. Vibration sensation 162 / 266 162. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Cervical spondylosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Duchenne myopathy 163 / 266 163. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Vth 164 / 266 164. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 165 / 266 165. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Scoliosis 166 / 266 166. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Ventral pons C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 167 / 266 167. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Pain C. High places D. Animals 168 / 266 168. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Meningococcal meningitis 169 / 266 169. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Lax abdominal wall C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 170 / 266 170. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Diabetic amyotrophy 171 / 266 171. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. Apraxia D. External ophthalmoplegia 172 / 266 172. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 173 / 266 173. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Syphilis 174 / 266 174. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 175 / 266 175. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Coma C. Absent deep reflexes D. Hypertonia 176 / 266 176. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 177 / 266 177. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Cervical rib D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 178 / 266 178. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Syringomyelia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tabes dorsalis 179 / 266 179. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. May occur spontaneously C. Seen in tall, thin people D. Quite often remits spontaneously 180 / 266 180. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1,S2 B. S1 C. L5,S1 D. L5 181 / 266 181. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 182 / 266 182. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Bulbar palsy D. Chronic motor neuron disease 183 / 266 183. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 184 / 266 184. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Lathyrism 185 / 266 185. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Mikulicz's syndrome 186 / 266 186. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Radioculomyelopathy B. Convulsions C. Blindness D. Focal neuro deficit 187 / 266 187. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Poliomyelitis D. Syringomyelia 188 / 266 188. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Refsum's disease C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome 189 / 266 189. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy B. Manual labourers C. Athletes D. Myotonia 190 / 266 190. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Advanced pregnancy C. Huge ascites D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 191 / 266 191. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Brain tumor D. Diabetes mellitus 192 / 266 192. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 193 / 266 193. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Brainstem 194 / 266 194. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Cerebral lymphoma B. Pinealomas C. Glioma D. Ependymoma 195 / 266 195. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Acute transverse myelitis B. Cord compression C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 196 / 266 196. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Bitemporal hemianopi C. Tunnel vision D. Central scotoma 197 / 266 197. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 198 / 266 198. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Left atrial myxoma 199 / 266 199. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. IV frusemide D. Oral glycerol 200 / 266 200. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Electromyography D. Nerve conduction study 201 / 266 201. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Pons D. Midbrain 202 / 266 202. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. Thalamus D. Putamen 203 / 266 203. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Metabolic disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Immune disorder 204 / 266 204. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Diplopia 205 / 266 205. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Limb shortening C. Mental retardation D. Heart valve abnormalities 206 / 266 206. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Gynaecomastia 207 / 266 207. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Wasting of muscles 208 / 266 208. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. Pick's disease 209 / 266 209. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Complex partial 210 / 266 210. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Probenecid B. Ethambutol C. Amiodarone D. Chloroquine 211 / 266 211. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Parkinsonism C. Myxoedema D. Tabes dorsalis 212 / 266 212. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Perspiration B. Visual hallucinations C. Tremor D. Confabulation 213 / 266 213. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Lower pons C. Upper pons D. Midbrain 214 / 266 214. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 215 / 266 215. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Lead C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 216 / 266 216. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Myoglobinuria may be associated with B. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic C. Has a good prognosis in children D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 217 / 266 217. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Myoclonic seizures C. Tonic seizures D. Absence seizures 218 / 266 218. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Lewy bodies 219 / 266 219. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Frontal baldness C. Testicular atrophy D. Ptosis 220 / 266 220. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysarthria C. Aphasia D. Dysphonia 221 / 266 221. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 222 / 266 222. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 223 / 266 223. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 224 / 266 224. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Distal muscle weakness C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Exaggerated deep reflex 225 / 266 225. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Macrolides 226 / 266 226. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Embolic C. Hemorrhagic D. Inflammatory 227 / 266 227. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Rubella panencephalitis D. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome 228 / 266 228. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 229 / 266 229. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 230 / 266 230. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Flumazenil 231 / 266 231. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked recessive 232 / 266 232. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Spastic tongue B. Dysarthria C. Nasal regurgitation D. Dysphagia 233 / 266 233. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. TOCP poisoning D. Pyridoxine deficiency 234 / 266 234. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Ependymoma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Meningioma 235 / 266 235. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. INH B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. Vincristine 236 / 266 236. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Febrile D. Trauma 237 / 266 237. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Becker muscular dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 238 / 266 238. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. von Recklinghausen's disease 239 / 266 239. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Hyperpyrexia D. Pseudoparkinsonism 240 / 266 240. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptive pills 241 / 266 241. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Oculomotor nerve C. Ciliary ganglion D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 242 / 266 242. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 2 weeks B. 96 hours C. 3 weeks D. 24 hours 243 / 266 243. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Addison's disease C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Hypoparathyroidism 244 / 266 244. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 245 / 266 245. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Mania C. Phobia D. Depression 246 / 266 246. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Cerebral palsy B. Leucodystrophy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 247 / 266 247. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority B. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 248 / 266 248. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Meningism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Froin's loculation syndrome 249 / 266 249. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa's syndrome 250 / 266 250. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Dolichocephaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 251 / 266 251. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pendular nystagmus C. Pseudolymphoma D. Megaloblastic anemia 252 / 266 252. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyponatremia 253 / 266 253. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypercalcemia 254 / 266 254. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Periorbital pain 255 / 266 255. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Pneumococcus C. Meningococcous D. H. influenzae 256 / 266 256. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Dementia in AIDS B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Muscle contraction in myotonia D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 257 / 266 257. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Accelerated atherosclerosis B. Venous sinus thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Puerperal sepsis 258 / 266 258. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Mental retardation B. Phakomatosis C. Seizures D. Adenoma sebaceum 259 / 266 259. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Horner's syndrome C. Botulism D. Oculomotor palsy 260 / 266 260. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Myasthenia gravis C. Oculomotor palsy D. Periodic paralysis 261 / 266 261. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 262 / 266 262. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Diarrhoea D. Onycholysis 263 / 266 263. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tight aortic stenosis 264 / 266 264. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Wilson's disease C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Rheumatic fever 265 / 266 265. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Optic nerv C. Trochlear nerve D. Facial nerve 266 / 266 266. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Putamen C. Caudate nucleus D. Red nucleus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology