Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Adhesions B. Volvulus C. Hernia D. Neoplasm 2 / 50 2. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Domperidone B. Tetracycline C. Metoclopramide D. Cisapride 3 / 50 3. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Stomach B. Ileum C. Jejunum D. Duodenum 4 / 50 4. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. TIBC < 200 μg/dl B. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl C. Liver biopsy D. Hepatic iron index >1.5 5 / 50 5. Gastric diverticula are: A. A premalignant condition B. Commonly seen C. Clinically not significant D. Need immediate upper GI endoscopy 6 / 50 6. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) may be produced by all except: A. Tetracycline B. Massive dose of estrogen C. Amiodarone D. Nifedipine 7 / 50 7. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Lye ingestion B. Chronic achalasia cardia C. Hypervitaminosis A D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome 8 / 50 8. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Mild, firm hepatomegaly B. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology C. Liver biopsy is diagnostic D. Jaundice 9 / 50 9. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Antral gastritis B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Gastric lymphoma D. Non-ulcer dyspepsia 10 / 50 10. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Duodenal ulcer B. Acute gastritis C. Mallory-Weiss syndrome D. Ruptured oesophageal varices 11 / 50 11. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Acute hepatic failure B. Steatosis C. Chronic hepatitis D. Cholestasis 12 / 50 12. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Metoclopramide B. Beta-adrenergic agonist C. Gastrin D. Protein meal 13 / 50 13. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Chronic pancreatitis C. Right-sided heart failure D. Acute myocardial infarction 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Streptococcus (Group A) C. Bacillus cereus D. Clostridium botulinum 15 / 50 15. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Fever B. Bloody diarrhoea C. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings D. Sinus tachycardia 16 / 50 16. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. E. coli B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Anaerobes D. Staphylococci 17 / 50 17. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Invariably requires surgery B. Usually a disease of teen age C. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form D. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris 18 / 50 18. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Coronary arteritis may be a feature B. Cranial nerve palsy may occur C. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly D. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible 19 / 50 19. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Ludwig's angina B. Streptococcal infection C. Diphtheria D. Infectious mononucleosis 20 / 50 20. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Villous adenoma of the colon D. Carcinoid syndrome 21 / 50 21. Hepatic amoebiasis is associated with all except: A. May lead to the development of an amoebic liver abscess B. Right lower intercostal tenderness C. Jaundice is present in majority D. Abscess commonly affects the right lobe 22 / 50 22. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Secondary carcinoma of liver B. Crigler-Najjar type II C. Pregnancy D. Oral contraceptives 23 / 50 23. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Upper GI bleeding B. Hepatomegaly C. Hepatocellular failure D. Ascites 24 / 50 24. Which of the following is not a recognized complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Bronchiectasis B. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia C. Sacroiliitis D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 25 / 50 25. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Alcoholism B. Oesophageal carcinoma C. Hiatal hernia D. Reflux oesophagitis 26 / 50 26. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Penicillamine B. Tetrathiomolybdate C. Colchicine D. Elemental zinc 27 / 50 27. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Lithocholic acid B. Chenodeoxycholic acid C. Cholic acid D. Deoxycholic acid 28 / 50 28. The commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Gallstones B. Infection C. Trauma D. Alcohol abuse 29 / 50 29. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Measles B. Propranolol C. Legionella pneumoniae D. Thiazides 30 / 50 30. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Small intestine B. Sigmoid colon C. Caecum D. Stomach 31 / 50 31. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common B. Easily treatable C. Most common GI disorder in practice D. Commonly affects middle-aged males 32 / 50 32. All of the following are true regarding right-sided colonic carcinoma except: A. Alteration of bowel habit B. Pain abdomen C. Anaemia D. Cachexia 33 / 50 33. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Males are commonly susceptible B. Splenomegaly C. Marked cholestasis D. Peripheral eosinophilia 34 / 50 34. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. HBeAg B. IgG anti-HBc C. DNA polymerase D. Anti-HBs 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Clarithromycin B. Tinidazole C. Pantoprazole D. Cefixime 36 / 50 36. All of the following are true regarding acute mesenteric vascular occlusion except: A. Severe periumbilical pain at the onset B. Barium study of the small intestine reveals 'thumbprinting' C. Abdominal distension with normal peristaltic sound, even with severe infarction D. Young women are the main victims 37 / 50 37. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Anthraquinone laxative abuse B. Hypereosinophilic enteritis C. Melanoma affecting colon D. Crohn's disease 38 / 50 38. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Malaria B. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome C. Hydatid cyst D. Thalassemia 39 / 50 39. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Cardia B. Antrum C. Lesser curvature D. Body 40 / 50 40. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin B. Lymphocytosis C. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema D. Malabsorption 41 / 50 41. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Iron deficiency B. Hemolysis C. Folic acid deficiency D. Vitamin B12 deficiency 42 / 50 42. Macroglossia is not found in: A. Myxoedema B. Hurler syndrome C. Primary amyloidosis D. Bulbar palsy 43 / 50 43. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hypochloraemic alkalosis B. Acidosis C. Hyperchloraemia D. Hyperkalaemia 44 / 50 44. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient B. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach C. Multiflagellated D. Gram-negative bacillus 45 / 50 45. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis E B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis C 46 / 50 46. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Ultraviolet B. Moonlight C. Fluorescent D. Sunlight 47 / 50 47. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus B. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold C. A consequence of achalasia cardia D. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients 48 / 50 48. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Superficial ulcers in mouth B. Hiatus hernia may be associated with C. May be complicated by angina pectoris D. Gum is the principal site of affection 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Burns B. Renal insufficiency C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pseudopancreatic cyst 50 / 50 50. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Three-quarter gastric resection B. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy C. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty D. Gastroenterostomy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology