Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio B. Vitamin B12 malabsorption C. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea D. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers 2 / 50 2. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland B. Melanoma C. Hepatoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 3 / 50 3. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis B. Crescentic glomerulonephritis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 4 / 50 4. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. DNA polymerase B. HBeAg C. Anti-HBs D. IgG anti-HBc 5 / 50 5. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Acute monocytic leukaemia B. Carbamazepine therapy C. Scurvy D. Amlodipine therapy 6 / 50 6. Hyperdefaecation is found in all except: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Proctitis 7 / 50 7. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 30% B. 20% C. 60% D. 40% 8 / 50 8. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Hypochondriac personality B. Chronic anxiety states C. Pyloric stenosis D. Rapid eating habit 9 / 50 9. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. Herpes virus infection B. Pernicious anaemia C. H. pylori infection D. Alcohol 10 / 50 10. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Urine analysis B. Stool culture C. Agglutination test D. Dark-field examination 11 / 50 11. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Above downwards B. Away from the umbilicus C. Towards umbilicus D. Below upwards 12 / 50 12. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Anabolic steroids C. Tetracycline D. Chloramphenicol 13 / 50 13. Symptoms of carcinoma of the left colon include all except: A. Altered bowel habits B. Low back pain C. Cramps in the abdomen D. Melena 14 / 50 14. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. Means nothing to clinical course B. The disease process is improving C. A fluctuating clinical course D. A bad prognosis 15 / 50 15. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Tertiary peristaltic wave B. Secondary peristaltic wave C. Primary peristaltic wave D. Voluntary phase of deglutition 16 / 50 16. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Propranolol B. Nitroglycerines C. Terlipressin D. Somatostatin 17 / 50 17. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Dysphagia starts with solid foods B. Odynophagia may be a symptom C. Commonest site of affection is lower third D. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease 18 / 50 18. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Cryptosporidium B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare C. Microsporidia D. Isospora belli 19 / 50 19. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Protein-losing enteropathy B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Chronic pancreatitis 20 / 50 20. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Ascitic pH < blood pH B. Worsening jaundice C. Paralytic ileus D. Worsening ascites 21 / 50 21. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 22 / 50 22. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Congenital hepatic fibrosis D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 23 / 50 23. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients B. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level C. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen D. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status 24 / 50 24. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Rectovesical fistula B. Jejuno-colic fistula C. Perianal fistula D. Vesicovaginal fistula 25 / 50 25. Jejunal diverticula may be associated with: A. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion B. Hypochlorhydria C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Cirrhosis of liver 26 / 50 26. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland 27 / 50 27. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Water brash B. Heartburn C. Singultus D. Retching 28 / 50 28. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Measles B. Legionella pneumoniae C. Thiazides D. Propranolol 29 / 50 29. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Flaccid muscles B. Presence of ankle clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Night-time somnolence 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Steatorrhoea B. Pancreatic calcification C. Diabetes mellitus D. Abdominal pain 31 / 50 31. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Tetracycline B. Cisapride C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidone 32 / 50 32. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Tropical sprue D. Biliary dyspepsia 33 / 50 33. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Leishmaniasis B. Trypanosomiasis C. Trichinosis D. Schistosomiasis 34 / 50 34. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Coeliac sprue C. Whipple's disease D. Systemic mastocytosis 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Burns B. Renal insufficiency C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Pseudopancreatic cyst 36 / 50 36. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Carbohydrate metabolism B. Fat metabolism C. Protein metabolism D. Vitamins and minerals absorption 37 / 50 37. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Crigler-Najjar type II B. Oral contraceptives C. Secondary carcinoma of liver D. Pregnancy 38 / 50 38. Normally in health, the venous flow in abdominal superficial veins is: A. From below upwards B. Away from the umbilicus C. Towards the umbilicus D. From above downwards 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Diverticulosis D. Ulcerative colitis 40 / 50 40. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Small intestinal biopsy B. Type of anaemia C. D-xylose absorption test D. Response to treatment 41 / 50 41. The maximum absorption of fluid in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in: A. Jejunum B. Colon C. Stomach D. Ileum 42 / 50 42. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery B. Intra-abdominal malignancy C. Tuberculosis D. Filariasis 43 / 50 43. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Antrum B. Lesser curvature C. Cardia D. Body 44 / 50 44. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. Haemotochezia is common B. Left colon is commonly affected C. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin D. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it 45 / 50 45. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Increased bicarbonate level in serum B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen C. Hypophosphataemia D. Hypercalcaemia 46 / 50 46. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Hemangioma of liver C. Pyogenic liver abscess D. Hepatic neoplasm 47 / 50 47. Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are found in: A. Pseudomyxoma peritonei B. Diverticulosis of colon C. Malakoplakia of colon D. Pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis 48 / 50 48. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. More than 1 litre B. 100-250 ml C. 500-1000 ml D. 250-500 ml 49 / 50 49. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Hepatic flexure B. Caecum C. Splenic flexure D. Transverse colon 50 / 50 50. Tegaserod is used in: A. Coeliac disease B. Ulcerative colitis C. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease D. Irritable bowel syndrome LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology