Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Protein-energy malnutrition B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Alcohol abuse D. Hyperthyroidism 2 / 50 2. The most reliable method of measuring steatorrhoea is: A. Fecal fat estimation B. Small intestinal mucosal biopsy C. Schilling test D. D-xylose absorption test 3 / 50 3. The most helpful differentiating histological feature between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease by rectal biopsy is: A. Crypt abscess B. Fibrosis C. Transmural involvement D. Granuloma 4 / 50 4. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels B. Related structurally to histamine C. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use D. May produce benign intracranial hypertension 5 / 50 5. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Intra-abdominal malignancy B. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery C. Filariasis D. Tuberculosis 6 / 50 6. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Liver biopsy B. Hepatic iron index >1.5 C. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl D. TIBC < 200 μg/dl 7 / 50 7. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Tetracycline B. Anabolic steroids C. Chloramphenicol D. Oral contraceptives 8 / 50 8. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Haemolytic anaemia B. Dermatitis herpetiformi C. Coeliac disease D. Sickle cell disease 9 / 50 9. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 7th day B. 2nd day C. 1st day D. 3rd day 10 / 50 10. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Pyogenic liver abscess B. Hepatic neoplasm C. Hemangioma of liver D. Acute viral hepatitis 11 / 50 11. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure B. Commonest cause of portal hypertension C. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example D. Blocked hepatic vein 12 / 50 12. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Pelvic abscess B. Renal failure C. Acute lung injury D. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis 13 / 50 13. Weil’s disease is associated with: A. Jaundice in all B. Absence of renal involvement C. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis D. Severe muscle pain 14 / 50 14. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Coeliac sprue B. Whipple's disease C. Pancreatic insufficiency D. Gastric retention 15 / 50 15. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Dysphagia starts with solid foods B. Odynophagia may be a symptom C. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease D. Commonest site of affection is lower third 16 / 50 16. Manometric study of the lower oesophagus is important in all except: A. Achalasia cardia B. Polymyositis C. Mallory-Weiss syndrome D. Diffuse oesophageal spasm 17 / 50 17. Which is true in familial polyposis coli? A. Polyps are present since birth B. X-linked recessive inheritance C. The patient may not have any symptoms until a carcinoma has developed D. The rectum is spared 18 / 50 18. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris B. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form C. Invariably requires surgery D. Usually a disease of teen age 19 / 50 19. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Nitroglycerines B. Somatostatin C. Terlipressin D. Propranolol 20 / 50 20. Secretory diarrhoea has no association with: A. Pancreatic insufficiency B. Villous adenoma of rectum C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid 21 / 50 21. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Anthraquinone laxative abuse B. Crohn's disease C. Hypereosinophilic enteritis D. Melanoma affecting colon 22 / 50 22. The commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Trauma B. Gallstones C. Infection D. Alcohol abuse 23 / 50 23. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Fulminant hepatocellular failure B. Renal failure C. Acute lung injury D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation 24 / 50 24. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction B. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching C. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously D. May produce melaena 25 / 50 25. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Liver biopsy B. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day C. Testing for red blood cell survival D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a recognized complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Bronchiectasis B. Sacroiliitis C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia 27 / 50 27. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Emphysema B. Lung abscess C. Fibrosis of the lung D. Pneumonia 28 / 50 28. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Monoglycerides B. Triglycerides C. Diglycerides D. Fatty acids 29 / 50 29. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. MRI of brain B. Evoked potential study C. Psychometric study D. EEG 30 / 50 30. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Gum is the principal site of affection B. May be complicated by angina pectoris C. Hiatus hernia may be associated with D. Superficial ulcers in mouth 31 / 50 31. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Chymotrypsin B. Carboxypeptidase C. Trypsin D. Elastase 32 / 50 32. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Menetrier's disease C. Chronic H. pylori infection D. Gastric malignancy 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Serum AST> 400 ID /L B. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl C. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L D. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 34 / 50 34. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Yellow fever D. Herpes zoster virus 35 / 50 35. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D 36 / 50 36. The Kayser-Fleischer (KF) ring is: A. The inferior pole of cornea is first affected B. Broader laterally and medially C. Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane D. Hampers vision 37 / 50 37. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Whipple's disease D. Cardnoid syndrome 38 / 50 38. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Gastric lymphoma B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Antral gastritis D. Non-ulcer dyspepsia 39 / 50 39. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Prothrombin time C. SGPT D. Serum bilirubin 40 / 50 40. Gardner’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Osteomas B. Fibromas C. Epidermoid cyst D. Astrocytoma 41 / 50 41. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Stomach biopsy B. Lymph node biopsy C. Rectal biopsy D. Liver biopsy 42 / 50 42. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland B. Melanoma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Hepatoma 43 / 50 43. Regarding ischaemic colitis, which one is true? A. Angiography is not helpful B. Affects young population C. Almost always an occlusive disease of mesenteric vessels D. Rectal bleeding is a rare complication 44 / 50 44. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Yersinia B. Campylobacter C. Rota virus D. Shigella 45 / 50 45. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Left atrial myxoma 46 / 50 46. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Loss of mucosal pattern B. Dilatation C. Segmentation and clumping D. Coarsening of mucosal folds 47 / 50 47. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Protein-losing enteropathy 48 / 50 48. All are characteristic features of Wilson’s disease except: A. Sensory loss B. Grimacing C. Slurred speech D. Chorea 49 / 50 49. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Ascites B. Hepatocellular failure C. Upper GI bleeding D. Hepatomegaly 50 / 50 50. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Bile or pancreatic cytology B. Biliary manometry C. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal D. Best visualisation of cystic duct LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology