Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 55 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Drug-induced SLE 2 / 50 2. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Osteopetrosis 3 / 50 3. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Campylobacter B. Chlamydia C. Shigella D. Staphylococcus 4 / 50 4. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Angioid streaks in retina B. Spontaneous fracture C. Coldness of the extremities D. High-output cardiac failure 5 / 50 5. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Leukaemia C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 6 / 50 6. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders B. Anti-histone antibodies are present C. Nephritis is rare D. Central nervous system involvement is common 7 / 50 7. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Hypocomplementemia C2 B. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency C. Excess of prostaglandin D2 D. Deficiency of leukotrienes 8 / 50 8. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Interferon B. Cyclophosphamide C. Azathioprine D. Glucocorticoids 9 / 50 9. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. lgM C. lgG D. IgA 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Common in non-smokers B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 11 / 50 11. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Low C3 B. Delayed age of onset C. Females D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 12 / 50 12. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Carbamazepine B. Oral contraceptives C. Reserpine D. Rifampicin 13 / 50 13. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Early morning stiffness B. Very high ESR C. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip D. Elevated muscle enzymes 14 / 50 14. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Congenital syphilis C. Chondrocalcinosis D. Tabes dorsalis 15 / 50 15. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. SLE D. Gout 16 / 50 16. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Acetaminophen B. Diclofenac C. Corticosteroids D. lbuprofen 17 / 50 17. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Microscopic polyarteritis 18 / 50 18. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Bronchial asthma B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Vasculitis D. Hepatorenal syndrome 19 / 50 19. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Salmonella 20 / 50 20. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Asthma B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. HBsAg positivity D. Erythema nodosum 21 / 50 21. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals 22 / 50 22. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients B. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles C. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated D. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns 23 / 50 23. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Photosensitivity B. Telangiectasia C. Heals with scarring D. Raynaud's phenomenon 24 / 50 24. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Fluorosis B. Osteopetrosis C. Osteomalacia D. Hodgkin's disease 25 / 50 25. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Scleroderma B. SLE C. Melasma D. Lupus vulgaris 26 / 50 26. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type II B. Type III C. Type IV D. Type I 27 / 50 27. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Haemophilic arthritis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 28 / 50 28. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Cranial arteritis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Retinal vein thrombosis 29 / 50 29. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Calcium oxalate D. Calcium phosphate 30 / 50 30. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Pegloticase B. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra C. Benzbromarone D. Olmesartan 31 / 50 31. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-2 B. Tumour necrosis factor-a C. Interleukin-6 D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 32 / 50 32. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Amyloidosis B. Leprosy C. Vasculitis D. Frostbite 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-ssDNA B. Anti-Ro/La C. Anti-RNP D. Anti-Sm 34 / 50 34. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. CD4 lymphocyte count B. ASO titre C. Rheumatoid factor D. Antinuclear antibodies 35 / 50 35. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 35% cases B. 70% cases C. 50% cases D. 20% cases 36 / 50 36. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. De Quervains' tenosynovitis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Cervical rib D. Dupuytren's contracture 37 / 50 37. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 70% cases B. 80% cases C. 95% cases D. 60% cases 38 / 50 38. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Ochronosis B. Hemochromatosis C. Gout D. Hyperphosphatasia 39 / 50 39. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Lung B. Kidney C. Central nervous system D. Liver 40 / 50 40. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Leprosy B. Cysticercosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Dermatomyositis 41 / 50 41. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Coronary artery aneurysm B. Hemiplegia C. Renal failure D. Pleural effusion 42 / 50 42. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Allopurinol C. Benzbromarone D. Cochicine 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Wilson's disease C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Pemphigus 44 / 50 44. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone pain B. Bone marrow failure C. High alkaline phosphatase D. Hypercalcemia 45 / 50 45. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Scleromalacia C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Anterior uveitis 46 / 50 46. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Metatarsophalangeal joint B. Knee joint C. Spine D. Joints of hands 47 / 50 47. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Pregnancy B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Acromegaly D. Primary amyloidosis 48 / 50 48. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Leflunomide C. Azathioprine D. Etanercept 49 / 50 49. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Caplan's syndrome B. Shrinking lung syndrome C. Hidebound chest syndrome D. Pneumoconiosis 50 / 50 50. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Ergot ingestion C. Dermatomyositis D. Coarctation of aorta LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz