Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 54 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Depression C. Scleroderma D. Parkinsonism 2 / 50 2. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Livedo reticularis B. Pseudoclubbing C. Digital infarcts D. Sclerodactyly 3 / 50 3. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Behcet's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 4 / 50 4. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Corticosteroid B. Statins C. Glutethimide D. Amphotericin B 5 / 50 5. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 60% cases B. 80% cases C. 70% cases D. 95% cases 6 / 50 6. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Childhood dermatomyositis B. Scleroderma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. CREST syndrome 7 / 50 7. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Ochronosis B. Hemochromatosis C. Hyperphosphatasia D. Gout 8 / 50 8. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Erythema nodosum B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Asthma D. HBsAg positivity 9 / 50 9. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Osteoarthritis 10 / 50 10. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Angioid streaks in retina B. Coldness of the extremities C. Spontaneous fracture D. High-output cardiac failure 11 / 50 11. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Bell's palsy B. May develop permanent blindness C. Intense headache D. Jaw claudication 12 / 50 12. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Scleromalacia C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Anterior uveitis 13 / 50 13. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. SLE B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Pemphigus B. Wilson's disease C. Myasthenia gravis D. Nephrotic syndrome 15 / 50 15. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Diclofenac B. Acetaminophen C. lbuprofen D. Corticosteroids 16 / 50 16. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Acromegaly C. Hyperthyroidism D. Paget's disease 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Panniculitis B. Periungual erythema C. Erythema nodosum D. Bullous lesion 18 / 50 18. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Dermatomyositis with lung disease C. Lupus nephritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 19 / 50 19. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Pachy dermoperiostitis B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Metastatic tumour of lung D. Mesothelioma of pleura 20 / 50 20. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. ulcerative colitis D. Pericarditis 21 / 50 21. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 22 / 50 22. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Osteomyelitis B. Polyarthritis C. Dactylitis D. Avascular necrosis of bone 23 / 50 23. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Lymphadenopathy C. Age of onset 20-25 yrs D. Vasculitis 24 / 50 24. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) B. Polymyositis C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. Drug-induced SLE 25 / 50 25. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Azathioprine B. Salphasalazine C. Leflunomide D. Etanercept 26 / 50 26. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B8 B. DR4 C. DR3 D. B 27 27 / 50 27. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis B. Lyme arthritis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Reiter's syndrome 28 / 50 28. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Positive Rose-Waaler test C. Maculopapular rash D. Splenomegaly 29 / 50 29. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Overlap syndrome B. Presence of lupus anticoagulant C. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody D. Chronic renal failure 30 / 50 30. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium phosphate C. Calcium oxalate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 31 / 50 31. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Hemophilia B. Depression C. Myxoedema D. Fibromyalgia 32 / 50 32. Lyme arthritis is: A. Autoimmune disease B. Viral infection C. Tick-borne spirochetal infection D. Bacterial infection 33 / 50 33. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Cataract B. Maculopathy C. Corneal deposits D. Optic atrophy 34 / 50 34. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteopetrosis B. Fluorosis C. Osteomalacia D. Hodgkin's disease 35 / 50 35. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Reactive arthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 36 / 50 36. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Rheumatic fever B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Reiter's syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 37 / 50 37. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 38 / 50 38. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Shrinking lung syndrome B. Caplan's syndrome C. Pneumoconiosis D. Hidebound chest syndrome 39 / 50 39. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. COPD D. Mesothelioma of pleura 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Ro/La B. Anti-ssDNA C. Anti-Sm D. Anti-RNP 41 / 50 41. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Mineralocorticoids B. Tropical corticosteroid C. Diuretics D. Danazol 42 / 50 42. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Hypertension B. Gout C. Middle-aged females D. Diabetes mellitus 43 / 50 43. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Protein > 4 g/dl B. High CH50 C. Exudative effusion D. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl 44 / 50 44. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Wilson's disease 45 / 50 45. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Dupuytren's contracture B. Cervical rib C. De Quervains' tenosynovitis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity B. Common in non-smokers C. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population D. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis 47 / 50 47. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Low C3 B. High-titre rheumatoid factor C. Females D. Delayed age of onset 48 / 50 48. Infliximab is directed against: A. Tumour necrosis factor-a B. Interleukin-6 C. Interleukin-2 D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 49 / 50 49. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Liver B. Central nervous system C. Lung D. Kidney 50 / 50 50. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 45% cases B. 30% cases C. 70% cases D. 90% cases LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz