Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reactive arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Psoriatic arthritis 2 / 50 2. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Paget's disease D. Acromegaly 3 / 50 3. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Alcoholic cirrhosis 4 / 50 4. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Scleromalacia C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Anterior uveitis 5 / 50 5. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Leukaemia C. Gastrointestinal malignancy D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 6 / 50 6. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Cervical rib B. De Quervains' tenosynovitis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Dupuytren's contracture 7 / 50 7. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Probenecid C. Cochicine D. Allopurinol 8 / 50 8. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Post-renal transplant B. Sickle cell disease C. Cushing's syndrome D. Parachute diving 9 / 50 9. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Rheumatoid factor B. ASO titre C. Antinuclear antibodies D. CD4 lymphocyte count 10 / 50 10. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. High CH50 C. Exudative effusion D. Protein > 4 g/dl 11 / 50 11. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Upper respiratory tract B. Lower respiratory tract C. Cardiovascular system D. Kidney 12 / 50 12. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 35% cases B. 20% cases C. 50% cases D. 70% cases 13 / 50 13. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints D. Sacroiliitis 14 / 50 14. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Erythema nodosum B. Asthma C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. HBsAg positivity 15 / 50 15. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Pericarditis B. ulcerative colitis C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 16 / 50 16. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Amyloidosis B. Vasculitis C. Frostbite D. Leprosy 17 / 50 17. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Metacarpophalangeal joint B. Carpometacarpal joint C. Proximal interphalangeal joint D. Distal interphalangeal joint 18 / 50 18. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Scleroderma D. Myelofibrosis 19 / 50 19. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Age of onset 20-25 yrs B. Vasculitis C. Lymphadenopathy D. Thrombocytopenia 20 / 50 20. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Mesothelioma of pleura C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. COPD 21 / 50 21. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Reactive arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 22 / 50 22. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Heals with scarring C. Photosensitivity D. Telangiectasia 23 / 50 23. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B 27 B. DR4 C. B8 D. DR3 24 / 50 24. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Osteomyelitis B. Dactylitis C. Polyarthritis D. Avascular necrosis of bone 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Periungual erythema B. Erythema nodosum C. Bullous lesion D. Panniculitis 26 / 50 26. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Scleroderma C. Depression D. Myotonic dystrophy 27 / 50 27. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Diclofenac B. Acetaminophen C. Corticosteroids D. lbuprofen 28 / 50 28. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Salphasalazine C. Leflunomide D. Azathioprine 29 / 50 29. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Coronary artery aneurysm B. Hemiplegia C. Renal failure D. Pleural effusion 30 / 50 30. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Elevated muscle enzymes B. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip C. Very high ESR D. Early morning stiffness 31 / 50 31. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Azathioprine C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 32 / 50 32. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. SLE B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Sm B. Anti-RNP C. Anti-ssDNA D. Anti-Ro/La 34 / 50 34. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Excess of prostaglandin D2 B. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency C. Hypocomplementemia C2 D. Deficiency of leukotrienes 35 / 50 35. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Lupus nephritis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Dermatomyositis with lung disease D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 36 / 50 36. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Fibromyalgia B. Hemophilia C. Depression D. Myxoedema 37 / 50 37. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Low B. Very low C. Remains as normal D. High 38 / 50 38. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals 39 / 50 39. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Osteoarthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Polymyositis 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Aortic incompetence B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Acute pulmonary fibrosis D. Amyloidosis 41 / 50 41. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteomalacia B. Fluorosis C. Hodgkin's disease D. Osteopetrosis 42 / 50 42. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Carbamazepine B. Rifampicin C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptives 43 / 50 43. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Hyperglobulinaemia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Dysphagia D. Eosinophilia 44 / 50 44. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Edema B. Endomyocardia C. Esophageal Hypomotility D. Exophthalmos 45 / 50 45. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 46 / 50 46. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Dimethyl sulfoxide C. Methysergide D. Naftidrofuryl 47 / 50 47. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Haemophilic arthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 48 / 50 48. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Corticosteroid C. Amphotericin B D. Glutethimide 49 / 50 49. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium oxalate C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate D. Monosodium urate 50 / 50 50. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Retinoids B. Calcipotriol C. Sodium fluoride D. Alendronate LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz