Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 52 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Kidney B. Central nervous system C. Liver D. Lung 2 / 50 2. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate B. Monosodium urate C. Calcium oxalate D. Calcium phosphate 3 / 50 3. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Avascular necrosis of bone B. Osteomyelitis C. Dactylitis D. Polyarthritis 4 / 50 4. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Polymyositis 5 / 50 5. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Scleromalacia B. Anterior uveitis C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Episderitis 6 / 50 6. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Gout B. Hemochromatosis C. Hyperphosphatasia D. Ochronosis 7 / 50 7. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Spontaneous fracture B. Angioid streaks in retina C. High-output cardiac failure D. Coldness of the extremities 8 / 50 8. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Pachy dermoperiostitis B. Metastatic tumour of lung C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 9 / 50 9. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. High CH50 B. Protein > 4 g/dl C. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl D. Exudative effusion 10 / 50 10. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles B. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated C. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients D. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns 11 / 50 11. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 4 joints B. 3 joints C. 2 joints D. 1 joint 12 / 50 12. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Osteomalacia C. Osteoarthritis D. Rickets 13 / 50 13. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Azathioprine C. Etanercept D. Leflunomide 14 / 50 14. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Reactive arthritis 15 / 50 15. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Cysticercosis B. Dermatomyositis C. Rheumatic fever D. Leprosy 16 / 50 16. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome B. Drug-induced SLE C. Polymyositis D. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) 17 / 50 17. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Reactive arthritis 18 / 50 18. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Photosensitivity B. Heals with scarring C. Telangiectasia D. Raynaud's phenomenon 19 / 50 19. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Haemophilic arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Osteoarthritis 20 / 50 20. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Reactive arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 21 / 50 21. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Parachute diving B. Sickle cell disease C. Post-renal transplant D. Cushing's syndrome 22 / 50 22. Lyme arthritis is: A. Autoimmune disease B. Bacterial infection C. Viral infection D. Tick-borne spirochetal infection 23 / 50 23. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Upper respiratory tract B. Lower respiratory tract C. Kidney D. Cardiovascular system 24 / 50 24. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Intense headache B. May develop permanent blindness C. Jaw claudication D. Bell's palsy 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Aortic incompetence B. Amyloidosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Acute pulmonary fibrosis 26 / 50 26. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. High CPK B. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant C. Focal point tenderness D. Female preponderance 27 / 50 27. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. De Quervains' tenosynovitis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Dupuytren's contracture D. Cervical rib 28 / 50 28. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Keratoderma blenorrhagica B. Subungual hyperkeratosis C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Circinate balanitis 29 / 50 29. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Reactive arthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis 30 / 50 30. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Isoniazid B. Ketoconazole C. Phenytoin D. Glucocorticoids 31 / 50 31. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Scleroderma B. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Hyperparathyroidism 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Acute pulmonary fibrosis B. Pericarditis C. Mitral stenosis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 33 / 50 33. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. High alkaline phosphatase B. Hypercalcemia C. Bone pain D. Bone marrow failure 34 / 50 34. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Overlap syndrome B. Chronic renal failure C. Presence of lupus anticoagulant D. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody 35 / 50 35. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Osteoarthritis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Myasthenia gravis 36 / 50 36. Infliximab is directed against: A. Tumour necrosis factor-a B. Interleukin-6 C. Interleukin-2 D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Ro/La B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-RNP D. Anti-ssDNA 38 / 50 38. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 39 / 50 39. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Bronchial asthma C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. SLE 40 / 50 40. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Frostbite B. Vasculitis C. Leprosy D. Amyloidosis 41 / 50 41. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. Myelofibrosis C. Scleroderma D. Polymyositis 42 / 50 42. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Splenomegaly B. Lymphadenopathy C. Maculopapular rash D. Positive Rose-Waaler test 43 / 50 43. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. High B. Low C. Very low D. Remains as normal 44 / 50 44. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Myocarditis C. Pericarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 45 / 50 45. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Calcipotriol B. Retinoids C. Alendronate D. Sodium fluoride 46 / 50 46. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Childhood dermatomyositis B. CREST syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Scleroderma 47 / 50 47. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. Low complement CH50 B. High viscosity C. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 D. Cloudy in colour 48 / 50 48. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Iritis B. Sacroiliitis C. Enthesopathy D. Mononeuritis multiplex 49 / 50 49. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. SLE B. Gout C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 50 / 50 50. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Myxoedema B. Fibromyalgia C. 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