Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 55 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Low C3 C. Females D. Delayed age of onset 2 / 50 2. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. B 27 C. DR3 D. B8 3 / 50 3. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Metacarpophalangeal joint B. Distal interphalangeal joint C. Proximal interphalangeal joint D. Carpometacarpal joint 4 / 50 4. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Eosinophilia B. Hyperglobulinaemia C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Dysphagia 5 / 50 5. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Myelofibrosis B. Scleroderma C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Polymyositis 6 / 50 6. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Early morning stiffness B. Elevated muscle enzymes C. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip D. Very high ESR 7 / 50 7. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Salmonella B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci 8 / 50 8. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Working with vibrating tools C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 9 / 50 9. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Intense headache B. May develop permanent blindness C. Jaw claudication D. Bell's palsy 10 / 50 10. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Splenomegaly B. Lymphadenopathy C. Maculopapular rash D. Positive Rose-Waaler test 11 / 50 11. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium oxalate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium phosphate 12 / 50 12. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 70% cases B. 50% cases C. 20% cases D. 35% cases 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Pemphigus B. Myasthenia gravis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Wilson's disease 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Phalanges B. Long bones of extremities C. Skull D. Pelvis 15 / 50 15. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Demyelination B. Reversible lupus-syndrome C. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis D. Anaphylaxis 16 / 50 16. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Female preponderance B. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant C. Focal point tenderness D. High CPK 17 / 50 17. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Chronic renal failure B. Presence of lupus anticoagulant C. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody D. Overlap syndrome 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Bullous lesion B. Periungual erythema C. Erythema nodosum D. Panniculitis 19 / 50 19. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Very low B. Remains as normal C. Low D. High 20 / 50 20. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Lyme arthritis B. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Reiter's syndrome 21 / 50 21. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Glandular fever B. Yaws C. Antiphospholipid syndrome D. Leprosy 22 / 50 22. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Gout D. SLE 23 / 50 23. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Wilson's disease D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 24 / 50 24. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone pain B. High alkaline phosphatase C. Hypercalcemia D. Bone marrow failure 25 / 50 25. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Congenital syphilis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Chondrocalcinosis 26 / 50 26. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Pulmonary nodules B. Vasculitis C. Hyperostosis D. Malar rash 27 / 50 27. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amiodarone B. Bromocriptine C. Finasteride D. Amantadine 28 / 50 28. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Methysergide C. Naftidrofuryl D. Dimethyl sulfoxide 29 / 50 29. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Gout B. Hemochromatosis C. Hyperphosphatasia D. Ochronosis 30 / 50 30. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Cranial arteritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Reiter's syndrome D. Retinal vein thrombosis 31 / 50 31. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 32 / 50 32. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Osteoarthritis C. Dermatomyositis D. Gout 33 / 50 33. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Iritis B. Enthesopathy C. Sacroiliitis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 34 / 50 34. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Gastrointestinal malignancy D. Leukaemia 35 / 50 35. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Isoniazid B. Ketoconazole C. Phenytoin D. Glucocorticoids 36 / 50 36. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Acetaminophen B. lbuprofen C. Diclofenac D. Corticosteroids 37 / 50 37. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Antinuclear antibodies B. CD4 lymphocyte count C. Rheumatoid factor D. ASO titre 38 / 50 38. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Amyloidosis B. Frostbite C. Vasculitis D. Leprosy 39 / 50 39. Infliximab is directed against: A. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) B. Interleukin-2 C. Tumour necrosis factor-a D. Interleukin-6 40 / 50 40. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 41 / 50 41. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Tropical corticosteroid B. Diuretics C. Mineralocorticoids D. Danazol 42 / 50 42. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Scleroderma C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 43 / 50 43. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Leprosy C. Dermatomyositis D. Cysticercosis 44 / 50 44. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Benzbromarone B. Olmesartan C. Pegloticase D. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra 45 / 50 45. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 90% cases B. 30% cases C. 45% cases D. 70% cases 46 / 50 46. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Depression B. Parkinsonism C. Scleroderma D. Myotonic dystrophy 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. Low serum level of complement B. High serum level of ANA C. High serum level of anti-dsDNA D. High serum level of C-reactive protein 48 / 50 48. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection B. Vitamin D toxicity C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Scleroderma 49 / 50 49. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 95% cases B. 60% cases C. 70% cases D. 80% cases 50 / 50 50. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteomalacia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Fluorosis D. Osteopetrosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz