Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Allopurinol B. Probenecid C. Benzbromarone D. Cochicine 2 / 50 2. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Sjogren's syndrome 3 / 50 3. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Isoniazid B. Glucocorticoids C. Phenytoin D. Ketoconazole 4 / 50 4. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. COPD C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Mesothelioma of pleura 5 / 50 5. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Anterior uveitis B. Episderitis C. Scleromalacia D. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 6 / 50 6. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Big B. Tender C. Fixed to skin D. Ulcerate 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Common in non-smokers B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 8 / 50 8. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Dermatomyositis D. Ergot ingestion 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Pericarditis B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Mitral stenosis 10 / 50 10. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Central nervous system involvement is common B. Anti-histone antibodies are present C. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders D. Nephritis is rare 11 / 50 11. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Sjogren's syndrome 12 / 50 12. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Osteomalacia C. Osteoarthritis D. Rickets 13 / 50 13. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Avascular necrosis of bone B. Osteomyelitis C. Polyarthritis D. Dactylitis 14 / 50 14. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Positive Rose-Waaler test B. Maculopapular rash C. Lymphadenopathy D. Splenomegaly 15 / 50 15. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Extra-articular manifestations B. High titre of rheumatoid factor C. Early development of nodules D. Acute onset of disease 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Naproxen B. Sulphasalazine C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Leflunomide 17 / 50 17. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Reactive arthritis D. Osteoarthritis 18 / 50 18. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-histone antibody B. Anti-Jo1 antibody C. Anti-centromere antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 19 / 50 19. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. Bronchial asthma C. Myasthenia gravis D. SLE 20 / 50 20. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Sarcoidosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Reiter's syndrome D. Rheumatic fever 21 / 50 21. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Reactive arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Behcet's syndrome 22 / 50 22. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Exophthalmos B. Esophageal Hypomotility C. Endomyocardia D. Edema 23 / 50 23. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Vinyl chloride B. Pentazocine C. Hydralazine D. Bleomycin 24 / 50 24. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Gout B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. SLE 25 / 50 25. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR3 B. B 27 C. DR4 D. B8 26 / 50 26. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Dimethyl sulfoxide B. Propranolol C. Methysergide D. Naftidrofuryl 27 / 50 27. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Fluorosis B. Osteomalacia C. Osteopetrosis D. Hodgkin's disease 28 / 50 28. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Metatarsophalangeal joint B. Spine C. Knee joint D. Joints of hands 29 / 50 29. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Reiter's syndrome 30 / 50 30. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Dermatomyositis with lung disease B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Lupus nephritis 31 / 50 31. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Subungual hyperkeratosis B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Circinate balanitis D. Keratoderma blenorrhagica 32 / 50 32. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 70% cases B. 90% cases C. 45% cases D. 30% cases 33 / 50 33. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Vasculitis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Bronchial asthma D. Hepatorenal syndrome 34 / 50 34. Infliximab is directed against: A. Tumour necrosis factor-a B. Interleukin-2 C. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) D. Interleukin-6 35 / 50 35. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Interferon B. Azathioprine C. Cyclophosphamide D. Glucocorticoids 36 / 50 36. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Lupus vulgaris B. Melasma C. SLE D. Scleroderma 37 / 50 37. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Campylobacter B. Staphylococcus C. Chlamydia D. Shigella 38 / 50 38. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Low C3 C. Delayed age of onset D. Females 39 / 50 39. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Tropical corticosteroid B. Danazol C. Diuretics D. Mineralocorticoids 40 / 50 40. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Acromegaly C. Primary amyloidosis D. Pregnancy 41 / 50 41. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 42 / 50 42. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Gout B. Hemochromatosis C. Ochronosis D. Hyperphosphatasia 43 / 50 43. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome B. Drug-induced SLE C. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) D. Polymyositis 44 / 50 44. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Jaw claudication C. Intense headache D. May develop permanent blindness 45 / 50 45. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Alendronate B. Retinoids C. Calcipotriol D. Sodium fluoride 46 / 50 46. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Dupuytren's contracture B. Cervical rib C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. De Quervains' tenosynovitis 47 / 50 47. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Pachy dermoperiostitis C. Metastatic tumour of lung D. Mesothelioma of pleura 48 / 50 48. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Scleroderma 49 / 50 49. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Low B. High C. Very low D. Remains as normal 50 / 50 50. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Depression B. Scleroderma C. Myotonic dystrophy D. 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