RheumatologyHome Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Leflunomide B. Etanercept C. Salphasalazine D. Azathioprine 2 / 50 2. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Behcet's syndrome D. Ankylosing spondylitis 3 / 50 3. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Intense headache C. Bell's palsy D. Jaw claudication 4 / 50 4. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 80% cases B. 95% cases C. 60% cases D. 70% cases 5 / 50 5. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Leprosy B. Vasculitis C. Amyloidosis D. Frostbite 6 / 50 6. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Behcet's syndrome C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Polymyositis 7 / 50 7. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Glutethimide B. Statins C. Corticosteroid D. Amphotericin B 8 / 50 8. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Hemiplegia B. Renal failure C. Coronary artery aneurysm D. Pleural effusion 9 / 50 9. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Interleukin-2 C. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) D. Tumour necrosis factor-a 10 / 50 10. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Ketoconazole C. Phenytoin D. Isoniazid 11 / 50 11. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Allergic rhinitis C. Sinusitis D. Epistaxis 12 / 50 12. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 13 / 50 13. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Sacroiliitis C. Enthesopathy D. Iritis 14 / 50 14. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Reactive arthritis 15 / 50 15. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. B 27 C. DR3 D. B8 16 / 50 16. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Leukaemia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 17 / 50 17. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. SLE B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout 18 / 50 18. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 20% cases B. 70% cases C. 35% cases D. 50% cases 19 / 50 19. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Rheumatic fever B. Reiter's syndrome C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Sarcoidosis 20 / 50 20. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 2 joints C. 3 joints D. 4 joints 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Bullous lesion B. Periungual erythema C. Erythema nodosum D. Panniculitis 22 / 50 22. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. Cloudy in colour B. Low complement CH50 C. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 D. High viscosity 23 / 50 23. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Excess of prostaglandin D2 B. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency C. Hypocomplementemia C2 D. Deficiency of leukotrienes 24 / 50 24. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Delayed age of onset B. High-titre rheumatoid factor C. Females D. Low C3 25 / 50 25. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients B. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated C. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns D. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles 26 / 50 26. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Hidebound chest syndrome B. Pneumoconiosis C. Caplan's syndrome D. Shrinking lung syndrome 27 / 50 27. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. De Quervains' tenosynovitis B. Cervical rib C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Dupuytren's contracture 28 / 50 28. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Malar rash B. Hyperostosis C. Vasculitis D. Pulmonary nodules 29 / 50 29. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Wilson's disease C. Myasthenia gravis D. Pemphigus 31 / 50 31. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Allopurinol B. Cochicine C. Benzbromarone D. Probenecid 32 / 50 32. Lyme arthritis is: A. Tick-borne spirochetal infection B. Bacterial infection C. Viral infection D. Autoimmune disease 33 / 50 33. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Central nervous system B. Lung C. Kidney D. Liver 34 / 50 34. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Aortic incompetence C. Myocarditis D. Pericarditis 35 / 50 35. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. Protein > 4 g/dl C. Exudative effusion D. High CH50 36 / 50 36. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Bone marrow failure C. Bone pain D. High alkaline phosphatase 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Common in non-smokers B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 38 / 50 38. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Acute onset of disease B. High titre of rheumatoid factor C. Early development of nodules D. Extra-articular manifestations 39 / 50 39. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Calcium oxalate D. Monosodium urate 40 / 50 40. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Heart block B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Alveolar cell neoplasm D. Pulmonary hypertension 41 / 50 41. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Scleroderma 42 / 50 42. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Hemochromatosis C. Ochronosis D. Gout 43 / 50 43. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Dimethyl sulfoxide B. Methysergide C. Naftidrofuryl D. Propranolol 44 / 50 44. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics C. Working with vibrating tools D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 45 / 50 45. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Congenital syphilis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Chondrocalcinosis 46 / 50 46. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Asthma B. Erythema nodosum C. HBsAg positivity D. Mononeuritis multiplex 47 / 50 47. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca B. Episderitis C. Scleromalacia D. Anterior uveitis 48 / 50 48. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Haemophilic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Membranous nephropathy B. Interstitial nephritis C. Diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 50 / 50 50. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Fixed to skin B. Ulcerate C. Big D. 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