Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 95% cases B. 70% cases C. 60% cases D. 80% cases 2 / 50 2. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. SLE C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 3 / 50 3. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Depression B. Parkinsonism C. Scleroderma D. Myotonic dystrophy 4 / 50 4. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Keratoderma blenorrhagica B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Subungual hyperkeratosis D. Circinate balanitis 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. Low serum level of complement B. High serum level of anti-dsDNA C. High serum level of C-reactive protein D. High serum level of ANA 6 / 50 6. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Kidney B. Central nervous system C. Liver D. Lung 7 / 50 7. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Overlap syndrome B. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody C. Presence of lupus anticoagulant D. Chronic renal failure 8 / 50 8. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Lupus vulgaris B. Melasma C. SLE D. Scleroderma 9 / 50 9. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Leprosy C. Glandular fever D. Yaws 10 / 50 10. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. High CPK B. Female preponderance C. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant D. Focal point tenderness 11 / 50 11. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Polymyositis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Behcet's syndrome 12 / 50 12. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Coronary artery aneurysm B. Hemiplegia C. Renal failure D. Pleural effusion 13 / 50 13. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Elevated muscle enzymes B. Early morning stiffness C. Very high ESR D. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip 14 / 50 14. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Staphylococcus B. Chlamydia C. Shigella D. Campylobacter 15 / 50 15. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Vasculitis B. Bronchial asthma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Hepatorenal syndrome 16 / 50 16. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Polyarthritis B. Pulmonary infiltrates C. Polyserositis D. Renal involvement 17 / 50 17. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Excess of prostaglandin D2 B. Hypocomplementemia C2 C. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency D. Deficiency of leukotrienes 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis B. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population C. Common in non-smokers D. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Mitral stenosis C. Acute pulmonary fibrosis D. Pericarditis 20 / 50 20. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Wilson's disease 21 / 50 21. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Corticosteroids B. Diclofenac C. lbuprofen D. Acetaminophen 22 / 50 22. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 23 / 50 23. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Scleroderma B. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Hyperparathyroidism 24 / 50 24. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Myelofibrosis D. Scleroderma 25 / 50 25. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Dysphagia B. Hyperglobulinaemia C. Eosinophilia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 26 / 50 26. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. COPD D. Mesothelioma of pleura 27 / 50 27. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Dimethyl sulfoxide B. Propranolol C. Methysergide D. Naftidrofuryl 28 / 50 28. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Splenomegaly B. Positive Rose-Waaler test C. Lymphadenopathy D. Maculopapular rash 29 / 50 29. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Myocarditis C. Pericarditis D. Aortic incompetence 30 / 50 30. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Haemophilic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 31 / 50 31. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 32 / 50 32. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Dermatomyositis C. Osteoarthritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 33 / 50 33. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Sacroiliitis B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Maculopapular rash D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 34 / 50 34. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals 35 / 50 35. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Corticosteroid therapy B. Sickle cell disease C. Decompression sickness D. Rheumatoid arthritis 36 / 50 36. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Antinuclear antibodies B. ASO titre C. CD4 lymphocyte count D. Rheumatoid factor 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Diffuse glomerulonephritis B. Membranous nephropathy C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Interstitial nephritis 38 / 50 38. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Metastatic tumour of lung C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Pachy dermoperiostitis 39 / 50 39. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Iritis B. Sacroiliitis C. Enthesopathy D. Mononeuritis multiplex 40 / 50 40. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Behcet's syndrome C. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis D. Lyme arthritis 41 / 50 41. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Ergot ingestion B. Dermatomyositis C. Hyperviscosity syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 42 / 50 42. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. High titre of rheumatoid factor B. Early development of nodules C. Extra-articular manifestations D. Acute onset of disease 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Phalanges B. Skull C. Pelvis D. Long bones of extremities 44 / 50 44. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Scleroderma C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 45 / 50 45. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Leukaemia D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 46 / 50 46. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Heart block B. Alveolar cell neoplasm C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 47 / 50 47. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium oxalate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 48 / 50 48. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Interferon B. Cyclophosphamide C. Glucocorticoids D. Azathioprine 49 / 50 49. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Cochicine B. Allopurinol C. Benzbromarone D. Probenecid 50 / 50 50. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Azathioprine B. Etanercept C. Salphasalazine D. Leflunomide LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz