Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Cervical rib B. De Quervains' tenosynovitis C. Dupuytren's contracture D. Ankylosing spondylitis 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of ANA B. Low serum level of complement C. High serum level of C-reactive protein D. High serum level of anti-dsDNA 3 / 50 3. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Salmonella B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci D. Staphylococcus aureus 4 / 50 4. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Dermatomyositis with lung disease D. Lupus nephritis 5 / 50 5. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. lgM C. IgA D. lgG 6 / 50 6. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Demyelination B. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis C. Anaphylaxis D. Reversible lupus-syndrome 7 / 50 7. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. CD4 lymphocyte count B. Rheumatoid factor C. Antinuclear antibodies D. ASO titre 8 / 50 8. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Circinate balanitis B. Subungual hyperkeratosis C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Keratoderma blenorrhagica 9 / 50 9. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Wilson's disease B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 10 / 50 10. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Myelofibrosis B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Scleroderma D. Polymyositis 11 / 50 11. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Nephritis is rare B. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders C. Central nervous system involvement is common D. Anti-histone antibodies are present 12 / 50 12. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 4 joints B. 3 joints C. 1 joint D. 2 joints 13 / 50 13. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. SLE C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 14 / 50 14. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Pregnancy C. Acromegaly D. Primary amyloidosis 15 / 50 15. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 16 / 50 16. Lyme arthritis is: A. Viral infection B. Tick-borne spirochetal infection C. Autoimmune disease D. Bacterial infection 17 / 50 17. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Chronic renal failure B. Presence of lupus anticoagulant C. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody D. Overlap syndrome 18 / 50 18. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Upper respiratory tract B. Cardiovascular system C. Kidney D. Lower respiratory tract 19 / 50 19. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteomalacia B. Rickets C. Osteoporosis D. Osteoarthritis 20 / 50 20. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Early morning stiffness B. Elevated muscle enzymes C. Very high ESR D. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip 21 / 50 21. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Big B. Tender C. Fixed to skin D. Ulcerate 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Pelvis B. Long bones of extremities C. Skull D. Phalanges 23 / 50 23. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Pericarditis B. Myocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Aortic incompetence 24 / 50 24. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Photosensitivity B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Telangiectasia D. Heals with scarring 25 / 50 25. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Sacroiliitis B. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints C. Maculopapular rash D. Negative Rose-Waaler test 26 / 50 26. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Acute onset of disease B. Early development of nodules C. High titre of rheumatoid factor D. Extra-articular manifestations 27 / 50 27. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Psoriasis 28 / 50 28. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Spontaneous fracture B. Coldness of the extremities C. High-output cardiac failure D. Angioid streaks in retina 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Hydroxychloroquine B. Naproxen C. Leflunomide D. Sulphasalazine 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Acute pulmonary fibrosis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Pericarditis D. Mitral stenosis 31 / 50 31. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Cysticercosis B. Leprosy C. Dermatomyositis D. Rheumatic fever 32 / 50 32. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 B. Cloudy in colour C. High viscosity D. Low complement CH50 33 / 50 33. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Rheumatic fever B. Sarcoidosis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 34 / 50 34. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Jaw claudication B. Bell's palsy C. Intense headache D. May develop permanent blindness 35 / 50 35. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Lymphadenopathy C. Vasculitis D. Age of onset 20-25 yrs 36 / 50 36. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B8 B. B 27 C. DR4 D. DR3 37 / 50 37. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Cochicine C. Probenecid D. Allopurinol 38 / 50 38. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Metastatic tumour of lung B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Pachy dermoperiostitis D. Mesothelioma of pleura 39 / 50 39. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Gout C. Osteoarthritis D. Dermatomyositis 40 / 50 40. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Behcet's syndrome D. Lyme arthritis 41 / 50 41. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Hyperglobulinaemia C. Dysphagia D. Eosinophilia 42 / 50 42. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Polymyositis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Myasthenia gravis D. Osteoarthritis 43 / 50 43. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Haemophilic arthritis 44 / 50 44. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Hydralazine B. Bleomycin C. Pentazocine D. Vinyl chloride 45 / 50 45. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Hyperostosis B. Vasculitis C. Pulmonary nodules D. Malar rash 46 / 50 46. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Reactive arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 47 / 50 47. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Polymyositis B. Drug-induced SLE C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) 48 / 50 48. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Depression B. Myxoedema C. Fibromyalgia D. Hemophilia 49 / 50 49. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Positive Rose-Waaler test B. Maculopapular rash C. Lymphadenopathy D. Splenomegaly 50 / 50 50. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Allopurinol B. Celecoxib C. Prednisolone D. Colchicine LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz