Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Hypocomplementemia C2 B. Excess of prostaglandin D2 C. Deficiency of leukotrienes D. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency 2 / 50 2. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 3 / 50 3. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombophlebitis B. Genital ulceration C. Meningoencephalitis D. Urethritis 4 / 50 4. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Jaw claudication C. Intense headache D. Bell's palsy 5 / 50 5. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Reactive arthritis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Psoriatic arthropathy 6 / 50 6. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Hyperostosis B. Vasculitis C. Pulmonary nodules D. Malar rash 7 / 50 7. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Wilson's disease 8 / 50 8. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Psoriasis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Osteoarthritis 9 / 50 9. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Isoniazid C. Ketoconazole D. Phenytoin 10 / 50 10. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Very low B. Low C. Remains as normal D. High 11 / 50 11. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium oxalate B. Monosodium urate C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate D. Calcium phosphate 12 / 50 12. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Metatarsophalangeal joint B. Knee joint C. Spine D. Joints of hands 13 / 50 13. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Central nervous system involvement is common B. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders C. Nephritis is rare D. Anti-histone antibodies are present 14 / 50 14. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. B8 C. B 27 D. DR3 15 / 50 15. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. Remain unchanged B. Turn red C. become white D. Turn blue 16 / 50 16. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. ASO titre B. Rheumatoid factor C. CD4 lymphocyte count D. Antinuclear antibodies 17 / 50 17. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Lymphadenopathy C. Thrombocytopenia D. Age of onset 20-25 yrs 18 / 50 18. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Sacroiliitis C. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints D. Negative Rose-Waaler test 19 / 50 19. Lyme arthritis is: A. Bacterial infection B. Autoimmune disease C. Viral infection D. Tick-borne spirochetal infection 20 / 50 20. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Osteoarthritis D. Polymyositis 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-ssDNA B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-Ro/La D. Anti-RNP 22 / 50 22. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Temporal arteritis B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Polyarteritis nodosa 23 / 50 23. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Sickle cell disease B. Cushing's syndrome C. Post-renal transplant D. Parachute diving 24 / 50 24. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Cataract B. Maculopathy C. Optic atrophy D. Corneal deposits 25 / 50 25. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Probenecid C. Cochicine D. Allopurinol 26 / 50 26. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. COPD C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Mesothelioma of pleura 27 / 50 27. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Haemophilic arthritis 28 / 50 28. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Erythema nodosum B. Asthma C. HBsAg positivity D. Mononeuritis multiplex 29 / 50 29. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. High CH50 C. Protein > 4 g/dl D. Exudative effusion 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Pemphigus B. Wilson's disease C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 31 / 50 31. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Females B. Low C3 C. Delayed age of onset D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 32 / 50 32. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Reserpine C. Rifampicin D. Carbamazepine 33 / 50 33. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Behcet's syndrome C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Ankylosing spondylitis 34 / 50 34. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Pregnancy B. Acromegaly C. Primary amyloidosis D. Thyrotoxicosis 35 / 50 35. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Dactylitis B. Polyarthritis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Osteomyelitis 36 / 50 36. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Shigella B. Staphylococcus C. Campylobacter D. Chlamydia 37 / 50 37. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Hepatorenal syndrome B. Bronchial asthma C. Vasculitis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 38 / 50 38. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine C. Finasteride D. Amiodarone 39 / 50 39. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Polymyositis D. Behcet's syndrome 40 / 50 40. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-centromere antibody B. Anti-histone antibody C. Anti-RNP antibody D. Anti-Jo1 antibody 41 / 50 41. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteomalacia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Fluorosis D. Osteopetrosis 42 / 50 42. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. CREST syndrome B. Childhood dermatomyositis C. Scleroderma D. Rheumatoid arthritis 43 / 50 43. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Vitamin D toxicity B. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Scleroderma 44 / 50 44. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Renal involvement B. Polyserositis C. Pulmonary infiltrates D. Polyarthritis 45 / 50 45. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan C. Eosinophilia D. Usually a self-limiting disease 46 / 50 46. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Psoriatic arthritis 47 / 50 47. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. High CPK B. Female preponderance C. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant D. Focal point tenderness 48 / 50 48. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Salphasalazine C. Leflunomide D. Azathioprine 49 / 50 49. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Coldness of the extremities B. Spontaneous fracture C. High-output cardiac failure D. Angioid streaks in retina 50 / 50 50. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Splenomegaly B. Maculopapular rash C. Lymphadenopathy D. Positive Rose-Waaler test LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz