Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 48 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Sm B. Anti-ssDNA C. Anti-Ro/La D. Anti-RNP 2 / 50 2. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Splenomegaly C. Positive Rose-Waaler test D. Maculopapular rash 3 / 50 3. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Cataract C. Maculopathy D. Corneal deposits 4 / 50 4. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Esophageal Hypomotility B. Exophthalmos C. Endomyocardia D. Edema 5 / 50 5. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Reiter's syndrome C. Osteoarthritis D. Psoriasis 6 / 50 6. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Reserpine B. Carbamazepine C. Oral contraceptives D. Rifampicin 7 / 50 7. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Low C3 C. Females D. Delayed age of onset 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Sulphasalazine B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Leflunomide D. Naproxen 9 / 50 9. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. CREST syndrome B. Scleroderma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Childhood dermatomyositis 10 / 50 10. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Renal involvement B. Polyserositis C. Pulmonary infiltrates D. Polyarthritis 11 / 50 11. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Acute onset of disease B. Extra-articular manifestations C. High titre of rheumatoid factor D. Early development of nodules 12 / 50 12. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Myelofibrosis D. Scleroderma 13 / 50 13. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Photosensitivity B. Heals with scarring C. Telangiectasia D. Raynaud's phenomenon 14 / 50 14. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Gout C. Osteoarthritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Membranous nephropathy C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Diffuse glomerulonephritis 16 / 50 16. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Interferon C. Cyclophosphamide D. Azathioprine 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Pemphigus D. Wilson's disease 18 / 50 18. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Drug-induced SLE B. Polymyositis C. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) D. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome 19 / 50 19. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Lyme arthritis C. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis D. Behcet's syndrome 20 / 50 20. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B 27 B. DR3 C. B8 D. DR4 21 / 50 21. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 45% cases B. 30% cases C. 70% cases D. 90% cases 22 / 50 22. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Dysphagia B. Hyperglobulinaemia C. Eosinophilia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 23 / 50 23. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Eosinophilia B. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Usually a self-limiting disease 24 / 50 24. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. High B. Very low C. Low D. Remains as normal 25 / 50 25. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints B. Sacroiliitis C. Negative Rose-Waaler test D. Maculopapular rash 26 / 50 26. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Polymyositis D. Behcet's syndrome 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of C-reactive protein B. Low serum level of complement C. High serum level of anti-dsDNA D. High serum level of ANA 28 / 50 28. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. Low complement CH50 B. High viscosity C. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 D. Cloudy in colour 29 / 50 29. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Scleroderma B. Depression C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Parkinsonism 30 / 50 30. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Urethritis B. Meningoencephalitis C. Thrombophlebitis D. Genital ulceration 31 / 50 31. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Liver B. Lung C. Kidney D. Central nervous system 32 / 50 32. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Diuretics B. Danazol C. Tropical corticosteroid D. Mineralocorticoids 33 / 50 33. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Cochicine C. Probenecid D. Allopurinol 34 / 50 34. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Glandular fever B. Leprosy C. Antiphospholipid syndrome D. Yaws 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Mitral stenosis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Acute pulmonary fibrosis D. Pericarditis 36 / 50 36. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Scleroderma B. Melasma C. SLE D. Lupus vulgaris 37 / 50 37. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 2 joints C. 3 joints D. 4 joints 38 / 50 38. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Leukaemia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Gastrointestinal malignancy D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 39 / 50 39. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Anterior uveitis C. Scleromalacia D. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 40 / 50 40. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ergot ingestion C. Hyperviscosity syndrome D. Dermatomyositis 41 / 50 41. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Bleomycin B. Pentazocine C. Hydralazine D. Vinyl chloride 42 / 50 42. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Reactive arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 43 / 50 43. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Rheumatoid arthritis 44 / 50 44. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Subungual hyperkeratosis C. Keratoderma blenorrhagica D. Circinate balanitis 45 / 50 45. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Hidebound chest syndrome B. Shrinking lung syndrome C. Caplan's syndrome D. Pneumoconiosis 46 / 50 46. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Iritis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Enthesopathy D. Sacroiliitis 47 / 50 47. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Pachy dermoperiostitis B. Metastatic tumour of lung C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Mesothelioma of pleura 48 / 50 48. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Prednisolone B. Celecoxib C. Colchicine D. Allopurinol 49 / 50 49. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Leflunomide C. Etanercept D. Azathioprine 50 / 50 50. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Renal failure B. Pleural effusion C. Coronary artery aneurysm D. Hemiplegia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz