Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Melasma B. Lupus vulgaris C. Scleroderma D. SLE 2 / 50 2. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Methysergide B. Naftidrofuryl C. Propranolol D. Dimethyl sulfoxide 3 / 50 3. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reactive arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Psoriatic arthritis 4 / 50 4. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Microscopic polyarteritis B. Crescentic glomerulonephritis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 5 / 50 5. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated B. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients C. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns D. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles 6 / 50 6. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteomalacia B. Osteoporosis C. Osteoarthritis D. Rickets 7 / 50 7. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Fixed to skin B. Big C. Tender D. Ulcerate 8 / 50 8. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Heals with scarring B. Telangiectasia C. Photosensitivity D. Raynaud's phenomenon 9 / 50 9. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Cervical rib B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Dupuytren's contracture D. De Quervains' tenosynovitis 10 / 50 10. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Jaw claudication B. Bell's palsy C. Intense headache D. May develop permanent blindness 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Hydroxychloroquine B. Leflunomide C. Naproxen D. Sulphasalazine 12 / 50 12. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Positive Rose-Waaler test B. Maculopapular rash C. Splenomegaly D. Lymphadenopathy 13 / 50 13. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 95% cases B. 70% cases C. 80% cases D. 60% cases 14 / 50 14. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Vasculitis C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Bronchial asthma 15 / 50 15. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Salphasalazine C. Azathioprine D. Leflunomide 16 / 50 16. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Primary amyloidosis B. Pregnancy C. Acromegaly D. Thyrotoxicosis 17 / 50 17. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Calcipotriol B. Alendronate C. Retinoids D. Sodium fluoride 18 / 50 18. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Hyperostosis B. Vasculitis C. Pulmonary nodules D. Malar rash 19 / 50 19. Infliximab is directed against: A. Tumour necrosis factor-a B. Interleukin-2 C. Interleukin-6 D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 20 / 50 20. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. COPD C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Fibrosing alveolitis 21 / 50 21. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Eosinophilia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Hyperglobulinaemia D. Dysphagia 22 / 50 22. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type II B. Type I C. Type III D. Type IV 23 / 50 23. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Leprosy B. Vasculitis C. Frostbite D. Amyloidosis 24 / 50 24. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Ergot ingestion B. Coarctation of aorta C. Hyperviscosity syndrome D. Dermatomyositis 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Erythema nodosum B. Periungual erythema C. Bullous lesion D. Panniculitis 26 / 50 26. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Livedo reticularis B. Sclerodactyly C. Digital infarcts D. Pseudoclubbing 27 / 50 27. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Churg-Strauss syndrome B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Temporal arteritis 28 / 50 28. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Alveolar cell neoplasm B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Heart block D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 29 / 50 29. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Reactive arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 30 / 50 30. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Gastrointestinal malignancy B. Leukaemia C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Hodgkin's disease 31 / 50 31. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Gout C. Ochronosis D. Hemochromatosis 32 / 50 32. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Metastatic tumour of lung C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Pachy dermoperiostitis 33 / 50 33. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. SLE C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout 34 / 50 34. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Dermatomyositis with lung disease C. Lupus nephritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 35 / 50 35. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Myasthenia gravis B. SLE C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Bronchial asthma 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Membranous nephropathy D. Diffuse glomerulonephritis 37 / 50 37. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Eosinophilia B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan D. Raynaud's phenomenon 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Long bones of extremities B. Skull C. Phalanges D. Pelvis 39 / 50 39. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium oxalate 40 / 50 40. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Reiter's syndrome C. Rheumatic fever D. Sarcoidosis 41 / 50 41. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Caplan's syndrome C. Shrinking lung syndrome D. Hidebound chest syndrome 42 / 50 42. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Reserpine B. Carbamazepine C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptives 43 / 50 43. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Overlap syndrome B. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody C. Presence of lupus anticoagulant D. Chronic renal failure 44 / 50 44. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Behcet's syndrome 45 / 50 45. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Sacroiliitis B. Maculopapular rash C. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints D. Negative Rose-Waaler test 46 / 50 46. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Hydralazine B. Vinyl chloride C. Bleomycin D. Pentazocine 47 / 50 47. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Glutethimide C. Amphotericin B D. Corticosteroid 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of anti-dsDNA B. High serum level of ANA C. Low serum level of complement D. High serum level of C-reactive protein 49 / 50 49. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Extra-articular manifestations B. Early development of nodules C. Acute onset of disease D. High titre of rheumatoid factor 50 / 50 50. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz