Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 55 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Malar rash C. Hyperostosis D. Pulmonary nodules 2 / 50 2. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Pachy dermoperiostitis B. Metastatic tumour of lung C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 3 / 50 3. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. ulcerative colitis C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Pericarditis 4 / 50 4. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Pericarditis D. Myocarditis 5 / 50 5. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Corticosteroid B. Glutethimide C. Amphotericin B D. Statins 6 / 50 6. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Age of onset 20-25 yrs B. Thrombocytopenia C. Lymphadenopathy D. Vasculitis 7 / 50 7. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Vinyl chloride B. Pentazocine C. Bleomycin D. Hydralazine 8 / 50 8. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Upper respiratory tract B. Kidney C. Cardiovascular system D. Lower respiratory tract 9 / 50 9. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 2 joints B. 3 joints C. 1 joint D. 4 joints 10 / 50 10. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Salmonella C. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci D. Staphylococcus aureus 11 / 50 11. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders B. Nephritis is rare C. Central nervous system involvement is common D. Anti-histone antibodies are present 12 / 50 12. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Cochicine C. Allopurinol D. Benzbromarone 13 / 50 13. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Azathioprine C. Glucocorticoids D. Interferon 14 / 50 14. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Knee joint B. Spine C. Metatarsophalangeal joint D. Joints of hands 15 / 50 15. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Cardiac B. Pulmonary C. Central nervous system D. Renal 16 / 50 16. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Diclofenac B. Acetaminophen C. Corticosteroids D. lbuprofen 17 / 50 17. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Shrinking lung syndrome C. Caplan's syndrome D. Hidebound chest syndrome 18 / 50 18. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Depression B. Myxoedema C. Hemophilia D. Fibromyalgia 19 / 50 19. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Crescentic glomerulonephritis 20 / 50 20. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Pregnancy B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Primary amyloidosis D. Acromegaly 21 / 50 21. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Leprosy B. Frostbite C. Vasculitis D. Amyloidosis 22 / 50 22. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Delayed age of onset B. Low C3 C. Females D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-RNP B. Anti-Ro/La C. Anti-Sm D. Anti-ssDNA 24 / 50 24. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Diffuse glomerulonephritis B. Membranous nephropathy C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Interstitial nephritis 26 / 50 26. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Scleroderma 27 / 50 27. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Leukaemia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Gastrointestinal malignancy D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 28 / 50 28. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Ketoconazole C. Phenytoin D. Isoniazid 29 / 50 29. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Osteoarthritis B. Gout C. Dermatomyositis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 30 / 50 30. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 31 / 50 31. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Chondrocalcinosis D. Congenital syphilis 32 / 50 32. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Eosinophilia 33 / 50 33. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns B. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated C. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of C-reactive protein B. Low serum level of complement C. High serum level of anti-dsDNA D. High serum level of ANA 35 / 50 35. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Spontaneous fracture B. Angioid streaks in retina C. High-output cardiac failure D. Coldness of the extremities 36 / 50 36. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. Turn blue B. Turn red C. Remain unchanged D. become white 37 / 50 37. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Gout B. Ochronosis C. Hyperphosphatasia D. Hemochromatosis 38 / 50 38. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 70% cases B. 80% cases C. 60% cases D. 95% cases 39 / 50 39. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 70% cases B. 35% cases C. 50% cases D. 20% cases 40 / 50 40. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Hemiplegia B. Pleural effusion C. Coronary artery aneurysm D. Renal failure 41 / 50 41. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reactive arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 42 / 50 42. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Hyperglobulinaemia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Eosinophilia D. Dysphagia 43 / 50 43. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Azathioprine C. Salphasalazine D. Leflunomide 44 / 50 44. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polymyositis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 45 / 50 45. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Scleroderma B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Sjogren's syndrome 46 / 50 46. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-RNP antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-histone antibody 47 / 50 47. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Osteoarthritis D. Myasthenia gravis 48 / 50 48. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgM B. IgA C. IgD D. lgG 49 / 50 49. Lyme arthritis is: A. Autoimmune disease B. Tick-borne spirochetal infection C. Viral infection D. Bacterial infection 50 / 50 50. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. Acute onset of disease C. Extra-articular manifestations D. 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