Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Amphotericin B C. Glutethimide D. Corticosteroid 2 / 50 2. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Deficiency of leukotrienes B. Excess of prostaglandin D2 C. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency D. Hypocomplementemia C2 3 / 50 3. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Negative Rose-Waaler test B. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints C. Sacroiliitis D. Maculopapular rash 4 / 50 4. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 5 / 50 5. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Acromegaly C. Paget's disease D. Primary hyperparathyroidism 6 / 50 6. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Pseudoclubbing B. Digital infarcts C. Sclerodactyly D. Livedo reticularis 7 / 50 7. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium oxalate C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate D. Calcium phosphate 8 / 50 8. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Bronchial asthma C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Vasculitis 9 / 50 9. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Salmonella B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Skull B. Long bones of extremities C. Pelvis D. Phalanges 11 / 50 11. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Osteoarthritis B. Polymyositis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 12 / 50 12. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals 13 / 50 13. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Myasthenia gravis B. SLE C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Bronchial asthma 14 / 50 14. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Middle-aged females D. Gout 15 / 50 15. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Polyarthritis B. Osteomyelitis C. Dactylitis D. Avascular necrosis of bone 16 / 50 16. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Scleroderma B. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Hyperparathyroidism 17 / 50 17. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Sjogren's syndrome 18 / 50 18. Lyme arthritis is: A. Autoimmune disease B. Tick-borne spirochetal infection C. Viral infection D. Bacterial infection 19 / 50 19. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Pulmonary nodules C. Malar rash D. Hyperostosis 20 / 50 20. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Osteopetrosis D. Psoriatic arthritis 21 / 50 21. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 4 joints B. 3 joints C. 2 joints D. 1 joint 22 / 50 22. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. Cloudy in colour B. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 C. Low complement CH50 D. High viscosity 23 / 50 23. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rickets D. Osteomalacia 24 / 50 24. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Hyperglobulinaemia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Dysphagia D. Eosinophilia 25 / 50 25. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Scleroderma B. SLE C. Melasma D. Lupus vulgaris 26 / 50 26. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Eosinophilia 27 / 50 27. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Behcet's syndrome 28 / 50 28. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. SLE C. Gout D. Rheumatoid arthritis 29 / 50 29. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Dupuytren's contracture B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Cervical rib D. De Quervains' tenosynovitis 30 / 50 30. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Enthesopathy B. Iritis C. Sacroiliitis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 31 / 50 31. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Interferon B. Cyclophosphamide C. Glucocorticoids D. Azathioprine 32 / 50 32. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Post-renal transplant B. Parachute diving C. Cushing's syndrome D. Sickle cell disease 33 / 50 33. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Hemophilia B. Myxoedema C. Fibromyalgia D. Depression 34 / 50 34. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Fixed to skin B. Tender C. Ulcerate D. Big 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Wilson's disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Pemphigus 36 / 50 36. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Maculopathy C. Corneal deposits D. Cataract 37 / 50 37. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Reactive arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 38 / 50 38. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Myocarditis D. Pericarditis 39 / 50 39. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Keratoderma blenorrhagica B. Subungual hyperkeratosis C. Circinate balanitis D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 40 / 50 40. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Lymphadenopathy C. Age of onset 20-25 yrs D. Thrombocytopenia 41 / 50 41. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 95% cases B. 80% cases C. 70% cases D. 60% cases 42 / 50 42. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Yaws C. Leprosy D. Glandular fever 43 / 50 43. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reversible lupus-syndrome B. Demyelination C. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis D. Anaphylaxis 44 / 50 44. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Bell's palsy B. May develop permanent blindness C. Jaw claudication D. Intense headache 45 / 50 45. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Leprosy B. Rheumatic fever C. Dermatomyositis D. Cysticercosis 46 / 50 46. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Kidney B. Liver C. Lung D. Central nervous system 47 / 50 47. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-histone antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 48 / 50 48. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Protein > 4 g/dl B. Exudative effusion C. High CH50 D. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl 49 / 50 49. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Maculopapular rash C. Positive Rose-Waaler test D. Splenomegaly 50 / 50 50. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Proximal interphalangeal joint B. Distal interphalangeal joint C. Carpometacarpal joint D. Metacarpophalangeal joint LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz