Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 B. Cloudy in colour C. High viscosity D. Low complement CH50 2 / 50 2. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Anaphylaxis B. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis C. Demyelination D. Reversible lupus-syndrome 3 / 50 3. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Negative Rose-Waaler test B. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints C. Sacroiliitis D. Maculopapular rash 4 / 50 4. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polymyositis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 5 / 50 5. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 30% cases B. 70% cases C. 90% cases D. 45% cases 6 / 50 6. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Reactive arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Behcet's syndrome 7 / 50 7. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Eosinophilia B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Usually a self-limiting disease D. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan 8 / 50 8. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Chondrocalcinosis C. Congenital syphilis D. Tabes dorsalis 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Leflunomide B. Naproxen C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Sulphasalazine 10 / 50 10. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Scleroderma B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Polymyositis D. Myelofibrosis 11 / 50 11. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Pregnancy B. Primary amyloidosis C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Acromegaly 12 / 50 12. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency B. Deficiency of leukotrienes C. Excess of prostaglandin D2 D. Hypocomplementemia C2 13 / 50 13. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Splenomegaly C. Maculopapular rash D. Positive Rose-Waaler test 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Diffuse glomerulonephritis B. Interstitial nephritis C. Membranous nephropathy D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 15 / 50 15. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. SLE 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Amyloidosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Aortic incompetence D. Acute pulmonary fibrosis 17 / 50 17. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Azathioprine B. Interferon C. Glucocorticoids D. Cyclophosphamide 18 / 50 18. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Myxoedema B. Hemophilia C. Fibromyalgia D. Depression 19 / 50 19. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Osteoarthritis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Dermatomyositis 20 / 50 20. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) B. Polymyositis C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. Drug-induced SLE 21 / 50 21. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Alcoholic cirrhosis 22 / 50 22. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Reserpine B. Carbamazepine C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptives 23 / 50 23. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Dermatomyositis with lung disease B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Lupus nephritis 24 / 50 24. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Corneal deposits B. Optic atrophy C. Cataract D. Maculopathy 25 / 50 25. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Staphylococcus B. Campylobacter C. Chlamydia D. Shigella 26 / 50 26. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Churg-Strauss syndrome B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Temporal arteritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 27 / 50 27. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Cervical rib C. De Quervains' tenosynovitis D. Dupuytren's contracture 28 / 50 28. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Leukaemia B. Gastrointestinal malignancy C. Hodgkin's disease D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 29 / 50 29. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Osteopetrosis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reiter's syndrome 30 / 50 30. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Bronchial asthma B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Vasculitis 31 / 50 31. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Osteomyelitis B. Dactylitis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Polyarthritis 32 / 50 32. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. ulcerative colitis C. Pericarditis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 33 / 50 33. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Caplan's syndrome C. Shrinking lung syndrome D. Hidebound chest syndrome 34 / 50 34. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Yaws B. Glandular fever C. Antiphospholipid syndrome D. Leprosy 35 / 50 35. Lyme arthritis is: A. Viral infection B. Tick-borne spirochetal infection C. Autoimmune disease D. Bacterial infection 36 / 50 36. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reactive arthritis 37 / 50 37. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Kidney B. Upper respiratory tract C. Lower respiratory tract D. Cardiovascular system 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Erythema nodosum B. Periungual erythema C. Panniculitis D. Bullous lesion 39 / 50 39. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. CD4 lymphocyte count B. ASO titre C. Antinuclear antibodies D. Rheumatoid factor 40 / 50 40. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Fluorosis B. Osteopetrosis C. Hodgkin's disease D. Osteomalacia 41 / 50 41. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Cardiac B. Renal C. Central nervous system D. Pulmonary 42 / 50 42. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 43 / 50 43. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Azathioprine B. Leflunomide C. Etanercept D. Salphasalazine 44 / 50 44. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone pain B. High alkaline phosphatase C. Hypercalcemia D. Bone marrow failure 45 / 50 45. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Metatarsophalangeal joint B. Knee joint C. Spine D. Joints of hands 46 / 50 46. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Metastatic tumour of lung B. Pachy dermoperiostitis C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 47 / 50 47. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Osteoarthritis D. Psoriasis 48 / 50 48. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Renal involvement B. Pulmonary infiltrates C. Polyarthritis D. Polyserositis 49 / 50 49. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Scleroderma 50 / 50 50. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Isoniazid B. Glucocorticoids C. Phenytoin D. Ketoconazole LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz