Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Pericarditis B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Mitral stenosis 2 / 50 2. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. Acute onset of disease C. High titre of rheumatoid factor D. Extra-articular manifestations 3 / 50 3. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Scleroderma 4 / 50 4. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 5 / 50 5. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci B. Salmonella C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 6 / 50 6. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Cardiac B. Renal C. Central nervous system D. Pulmonary 7 / 50 7. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Pleural effusion B. Coronary artery aneurysm C. Renal failure D. Hemiplegia 8 / 50 8. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Acetaminophen B. Corticosteroids C. lbuprofen D. Diclofenac 9 / 50 9. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Keratoderma blenorrhagica C. Circinate balanitis D. Subungual hyperkeratosis 10 / 50 10. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Very high ESR B. Early morning stiffness C. Elevated muscle enzymes D. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip 11 / 50 11. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Rheumatoid arthritis 12 / 50 12. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody B. Chronic renal failure C. Overlap syndrome D. Presence of lupus anticoagulant 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Wilson's disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Pemphigus 14 / 50 14. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Staphylococcus C. Shigella D. Campylobacter 15 / 50 15. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Reactive arthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis 16 / 50 16. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Sacroiliitis D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 17 / 50 17. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Low C3 B. High-titre rheumatoid factor C. Delayed age of onset D. Females 18 / 50 18. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Lupus nephritis D. Dermatomyositis with lung disease 19 / 50 19. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns B. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients D. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated 20 / 50 20. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Sickle cell disease B. Decompression sickness C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Corticosteroid therapy 21 / 50 21. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. COPD B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 22 / 50 22. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Sclerodactyly B. Digital infarcts C. Pseudoclubbing D. Livedo reticularis 23 / 50 23. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-Jo1 antibody B. Anti-histone antibody C. Anti-RNP antibody D. Anti-centromere antibody 24 / 50 24. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Anterior uveitis B. Scleromalacia C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Episderitis 25 / 50 25. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Haemophilic arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Osteoarthritis 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. Low serum level of complement B. High serum level of anti-dsDNA C. High serum level of ANA D. High serum level of C-reactive protein 27 / 50 27. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. De Quervains' tenosynovitis B. Dupuytren's contracture C. Cervical rib D. Ankylosing spondylitis 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-RNP B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-ssDNA D. Anti-Ro/La 29 / 50 29. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Very low B. High C. Remains as normal D. Low 30 / 50 30. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Thrombocytopenia C. Age of onset 20-25 yrs D. Lymphadenopathy 31 / 50 31. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Paget's disease B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Acromegaly 32 / 50 32. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Dysphagia B. Eosinophilia C. Hyperglobulinaemia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 33 / 50 33. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Primary amyloidosis B. Acromegaly C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Pregnancy 34 / 50 34. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. SLE B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 35 / 50 35. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Rheumatoid factor B. Antinuclear antibodies C. ASO titre D. CD4 lymphocyte count 36 / 50 36. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Glandular fever B. Antiphospholipid syndrome C. Leprosy D. Yaws 37 / 50 37. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Scleroderma C. Melasma D. Lupus vulgaris 38 / 50 38. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis C. Lyme arthritis D. Behcet's syndrome 39 / 50 39. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Pulmonary nodules B. Hyperostosis C. Vasculitis D. Malar rash 40 / 50 40. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Dimethyl sulfoxide C. Methysergide D. Naftidrofuryl 41 / 50 41. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Interferon B. Glucocorticoids C. Cyclophosphamide D. Azathioprine 42 / 50 42. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Eosinophilia D. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan 43 / 50 43. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 70% cases B. 60% cases C. 80% cases D. 95% cases 44 / 50 44. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 2 joints C. 4 joints D. 3 joints 45 / 50 45. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Pericarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Myocarditis D. Aortic incompetence 46 / 50 46. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Congenital syphilis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Chondrocalcinosis 47 / 50 47. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Tender B. Big C. Ulcerate D. Fixed to skin 48 / 50 48. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Myelofibrosis C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Scleroderma 49 / 50 49. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Calcium oxalate D. Monosodium urate 50 / 50 50. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 90% cases B. 70% cases C. 45% cases D. 30% cases LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz