Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 54 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Staphylococcus B. Campylobacter C. Shigella D. Chlamydia 2 / 50 2. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Leprosy B. Frostbite C. Vasculitis D. Amyloidosis 3 / 50 3. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hemochromatosis B. Hyperphosphatasia C. Ochronosis D. Gout 4 / 50 4. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Decompression sickness B. Sickle cell disease C. Corticosteroid therapy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 5 / 50 5. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Kidney B. Central nervous system C. Lung D. Liver 6 / 50 6. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Heart block B. Alveolar cell neoplasm C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 7 / 50 7. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Yaws B. Antiphospholipid syndrome C. Leprosy D. Glandular fever 8 / 50 8. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints B. Maculopapular rash C. Sacroiliitis D. Negative Rose-Waaler test 9 / 50 9. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Carpometacarpal joint B. Proximal interphalangeal joint C. Metacarpophalangeal joint D. Distal interphalangeal joint 10 / 50 10. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Haemophilic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis 11 / 50 11. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Allopurinol B. Benzbromarone C. Probenecid D. Cochicine 12 / 50 12. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Bromocriptine B. Amiodarone C. Amantadine D. Finasteride 13 / 50 13. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Myxoedema B. Depression C. Hemophilia D. Fibromyalgia 14 / 50 14. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Olmesartan B. Benzbromarone C. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra D. Pegloticase 15 / 50 15. Lyme arthritis is: A. Viral infection B. Autoimmune disease C. Bacterial infection D. Tick-borne spirochetal infection 16 / 50 16. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reactive arthritis 17 / 50 17. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Anaphylaxis B. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis C. Demyelination D. Reversible lupus-syndrome 18 / 50 18. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Behcet's syndrome D. Lyme arthritis 19 / 50 19. Infliximab is directed against: A. Tumour necrosis factor-a B. Interleukin-2 C. Interleukin-6 D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 20 / 50 20. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Ulcerate B. Tender C. Big D. Fixed to skin 21 / 50 21. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Subungual hyperkeratosis B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Keratoderma blenorrhagica D. Circinate balanitis 22 / 50 22. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Hyperviscosity syndrome C. Dermatomyositis D. Ergot ingestion 23 / 50 23. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Joints of hands B. Metatarsophalangeal joint C. Spine D. Knee joint 24 / 50 24. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Coronary artery aneurysm B. Pleural effusion C. Hemiplegia D. Renal failure 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Acute pulmonary fibrosis B. Mitral stenosis C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Pericarditis 26 / 50 26. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Corneal deposits B. Optic atrophy C. Cataract D. Maculopathy 27 / 50 27. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Upper respiratory tract B. Cardiovascular system C. Kidney D. Lower respiratory tract 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Common in non-smokers B. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population C. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity 29 / 50 29. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Remains as normal B. High C. Very low D. Low 30 / 50 30. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. become white B. Turn red C. Turn blue D. Remain unchanged 31 / 50 31. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Eosinophilia B. Hyperglobulinaemia C. Dysphagia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 32 / 50 32. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Azathioprine C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 33 / 50 33. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Scleroderma C. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection D. Vitamin D toxicity 34 / 50 34. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Colchicine B. Allopurinol C. Prednisolone D. Celecoxib 35 / 50 35. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Congenital syphilis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Chondrocalcinosis D. Diabetes mellitus 36 / 50 36. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics 37 / 50 37. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. SLE B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 38 / 50 38. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Lupus vulgaris C. Scleroderma D. Melasma 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of C-reactive protein B. Low serum level of complement C. High serum level of ANA D. High serum level of anti-dsDNA 40 / 50 40. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Azathioprine B. Etanercept C. Leflunomide D. Salphasalazine 41 / 50 41. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteomalacia C. Rickets D. Osteoporosis 42 / 50 42. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Bell's palsy C. Jaw claudication D. Intense headache 43 / 50 43. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Low C3 B. Females C. Delayed age of onset D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 44 / 50 44. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 45% cases B. 70% cases C. 90% cases D. 30% cases 45 / 50 45. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Renal involvement B. Polyserositis C. Polyarthritis D. Pulmonary infiltrates 46 / 50 46. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Reactive arthritis 47 / 50 47. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-histone antibody B. Anti-RNP antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-centromere antibody 48 / 50 48. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Photosensitivity B. Heals with scarring C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Telangiectasia 49 / 50 49. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Pericarditis B. Myocarditis C. Aortic incompetence D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 50 / 50 50. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Calcium oxalate D. Monosodium urate LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz