Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 52 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. Low complement CH50 B. High viscosity C. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 D. Cloudy in colour 2 / 50 2. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Behcet's syndrome C. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis D. Lyme arthritis 3 / 50 3. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Melasma B. Scleroderma C. Lupus vulgaris D. SLE 4 / 50 4. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Iritis B. Sacroiliitis C. Enthesopathy D. Mononeuritis multiplex 5 / 50 5. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Circinate balanitis C. Keratoderma blenorrhagica D. Subungual hyperkeratosis 6 / 50 6. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Anterior uveitis C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Scleromalacia 7 / 50 7. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Rickets B. Osteoarthritis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoporosis 8 / 50 8. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Mesothelioma of pleura B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. COPD D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 9 / 50 9. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 80% cases B. 60% cases C. 70% cases D. 95% cases 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Aortic incompetence B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Amyloidosis D. Acute pulmonary fibrosis 11 / 50 11. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Azathioprine C. Glucocorticoids D. Interferon 12 / 50 12. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. High CH50 B. Protein > 4 g/dl C. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl D. Exudative effusion 13 / 50 13. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Maculopathy C. Corneal deposits D. Cataract 14 / 50 14. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of ANA B. High serum level of C-reactive protein C. High serum level of anti-dsDNA D. Low serum level of complement 16 / 50 16. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Eosinophilia B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan 17 / 50 17. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra B. Olmesartan C. Pegloticase D. Benzbromarone 18 / 50 18. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Rheumatoid factor B. CD4 lymphocyte count C. Antinuclear antibodies D. ASO titre 19 / 50 19. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Pericarditis C. Myocarditis D. Aortic incompetence 20 / 50 20. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Myelofibrosis D. Scleroderma 21 / 50 21. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteomalacia B. Osteopetrosis C. Fluorosis D. Hodgkin's disease 22 / 50 22. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Childhood dermatomyositis B. Scleroderma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. CREST syndrome 23 / 50 23. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Heals with scarring C. Telangiectasia D. Photosensitivity 24 / 50 24. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Paget's disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Acromegaly 25 / 50 25. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Naftidrofuryl B. Dimethyl sulfoxide C. Propranolol D. Methysergide 26 / 50 26. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Delayed age of onset B. Low C3 C. Females D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 27 / 50 27. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Ergot ingestion B. Coarctation of aorta C. Dermatomyositis D. Hyperviscosity syndrome 28 / 50 28. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) B. Polymyositis C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. Drug-induced SLE 29 / 50 29. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Osteopetrosis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Psoriatic arthritis 30 / 50 30. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Wilson's disease D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 31 / 50 31. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Extra-articular manifestations B. High titre of rheumatoid factor C. Acute onset of disease D. Early development of nodules 32 / 50 32. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Working with vibrating tools D. Alcoholic cirrhosis 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Sm B. Anti-RNP C. Anti-ssDNA D. Anti-Ro/La 34 / 50 34. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Corticosteroid B. Glutethimide C. Statins D. Amphotericin B 35 / 50 35. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Dactylitis B. Osteomyelitis C. Polyarthritis D. Avascular necrosis of bone 36 / 50 36. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Fixed to skin B. Ulcerate C. Tender D. Big 37 / 50 37. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Elevated muscle enzymes B. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip C. Very high ESR D. Early morning stiffness 38 / 50 38. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Cervical rib B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Dupuytren's contracture D. De Quervains' tenosynovitis 39 / 50 39. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. Turn blue B. Remain unchanged C. become white D. Turn red 40 / 50 40. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Staphylococcus 41 / 50 41. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Sinusitis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Epistaxis D. Allergic rhinitis 42 / 50 42. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Hidebound chest syndrome B. Caplan's syndrome C. Pneumoconiosis D. Shrinking lung syndrome 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Panniculitis B. Periungual erythema C. Bullous lesion D. Erythema nodosum 44 / 50 44. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Behcet's syndrome C. Reactive arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 45 / 50 45. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Hemochromatosis C. Gout D. Ochronosis 46 / 50 46. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Mesothelioma of pleura C. Metastatic tumour of lung D. Pachy dermoperiostitis 47 / 50 47. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Corticosteroids B. lbuprofen C. Acetaminophen D. Diclofenac 48 / 50 48. Infliximab is directed against: A. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) B. Interleukin-6 C. Interleukin-2 D. Tumour necrosis factor-a 49 / 50 49. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. ulcerative colitis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Pericarditis D. Fibrosing alveolitis 50 / 50 50. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium oxalate B. Calcium phosphate C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate D. 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