Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Age of onset 20-25 yrs C. Thrombocytopenia D. Lymphadenopathy 2 / 50 2. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. COPD 3 / 50 3. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Childhood dermatomyositis B. CREST syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Scleroderma 4 / 50 4. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Negative Rose-Waaler test B. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints C. Maculopapular rash D. Sacroiliitis 5 / 50 5. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Pulmonary infiltrates B. Polyarthritis C. Renal involvement D. Polyserositis 6 / 50 6. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Digital infarcts B. Sclerodactyly C. Livedo reticularis D. Pseudoclubbing 7 / 50 7. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Keratoderma blenorrhagica B. Subungual hyperkeratosis C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Circinate balanitis 8 / 50 8. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Asthma B. Erythema nodosum C. HBsAg positivity D. Mononeuritis multiplex 9 / 50 9. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Polyarthritis B. Dactylitis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Osteomyelitis 10 / 50 10. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip B. Early morning stiffness C. Very high ESR D. Elevated muscle enzymes 11 / 50 11. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Pentazocine B. Bleomycin C. Vinyl chloride D. Hydralazine 12 / 50 12. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Leukaemia B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Gastrointestinal malignancy D. Hodgkin's disease 13 / 50 13. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Positive Rose-Waaler test B. Lymphadenopathy C. Maculopapular rash D. Splenomegaly 14 / 50 14. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Osteoarthritis C. Gout D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Membranous nephropathy 16 / 50 16. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 17 / 50 17. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. SLE 18 / 50 18. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Microscopic polyarteritis D. Crescentic glomerulonephritis 19 / 50 19. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Reserpine B. Rifampicin C. Oral contraceptives D. Carbamazepine 20 / 50 20. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Rheumatoid factor B. ASO titre C. Antinuclear antibodies D. CD4 lymphocyte count 21 / 50 21. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 22 / 50 22. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. High viscosity B. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 C. Cloudy in colour D. Low complement CH50 23 / 50 23. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Presence of lupus anticoagulant B. Overlap syndrome C. Chronic renal failure D. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody 24 / 50 24. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 80% cases B. 95% cases C. 70% cases D. 60% cases 25 / 50 25. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Polymyositis 26 / 50 26. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Congenital syphilis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Chondrocalcinosis D. Diabetes mellitus 27 / 50 27. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Alveolar cell neoplasm B. Heart block C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 28 / 50 28. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Epistaxis C. Allergic rhinitis D. Sinusitis 29 / 50 29. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hemochromatosis B. Gout C. Hyperphosphatasia D. Ochronosis 30 / 50 30. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Salmonella C. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 31 / 50 31. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Fluorosis B. Hodgkin's disease C. Osteopetrosis D. Osteomalacia 32 / 50 32. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Depression B. Fibromyalgia C. Myxoedema D. Hemophilia 33 / 50 33. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Scleroderma B. Myelofibrosis C. Polymyositis D. Primary biliary cirrhosis 34 / 50 34. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Retinoids B. Alendronate C. Sodium fluoride D. Calcipotriol 35 / 50 35. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Excess of prostaglandin D2 B. Deficiency of leukotrienes C. Hypocomplementemia C2 D. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency 36 / 50 36. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Bone marrow failure C. Bone pain D. High alkaline phosphatase 37 / 50 37. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Benzbromarone B. Pegloticase C. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra D. Olmesartan 38 / 50 38. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Sickle cell disease B. Parachute diving C. Post-renal transplant D. Cushing's syndrome 39 / 50 39. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. De Quervains' tenosynovitis B. Cervical rib C. Dupuytren's contracture D. Ankylosing spondylitis 40 / 50 40. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Glandular fever B. Yaws C. Leprosy D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 41 / 50 41. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Corneal deposits C. Cataract D. Maculopathy 42 / 50 42. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 43 / 50 43. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Eosinophilia B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan D. Raynaud's phenomenon 44 / 50 44. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics 45 / 50 45. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amiodarone B. Finasteride C. Amantadine D. Bromocriptine 46 / 50 46. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Enthesopathy B. Iritis C. Sacroiliitis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 47 / 50 47. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns B. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles C. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated D. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients 48 / 50 48. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Corticosteroid B. Amphotericin B C. Glutethimide D. Statins 49 / 50 49. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Proximal interphalangeal joint B. Metacarpophalangeal joint C. Distal interphalangeal joint D. Carpometacarpal joint 50 / 50 50. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Temporal arteritis B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz