Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 55 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Carbamazepine B. Oral contraceptives C. Reserpine D. Rifampicin 2 / 50 2. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Very high ESR B. Early morning stiffness C. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip D. Elevated muscle enzymes 3 / 50 3. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Dysphagia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Hyperglobulinaemia D. Eosinophilia 4 / 50 4. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR3 B. B 27 C. DR4 D. B8 5 / 50 5. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Behcet's syndrome 6 / 50 6. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Gout B. Diabetes mellitus C. Middle-aged females D. Hypertension 7 / 50 7. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Maculopapular rash D. Sacroiliitis 8 / 50 8. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. ASO titre B. CD4 lymphocyte count C. Antinuclear antibodies D. Rheumatoid factor 9 / 50 9. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Scleroderma B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Myelofibrosis D. Polymyositis 10 / 50 10. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Polyserositis B. Renal involvement C. Polyarthritis D. Pulmonary infiltrates 11 / 50 11. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated B. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients D. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population D. Common in non-smokers 13 / 50 13. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. SLE 14 / 50 14. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 3 joints B. 2 joints C. 4 joints D. 1 joint 15 / 50 15. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Depression B. Scleroderma C. Parkinsonism D. Myotonic dystrophy 16 / 50 16. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Dimethyl sulfoxide B. Naftidrofuryl C. Methysergide D. Propranolol 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Ro/La B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-RNP D. Anti-ssDNA 18 / 50 18. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Vitamin D toxicity B. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Scleroderma 19 / 50 19. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. High alkaline phosphatase B. Hypercalcemia C. Bone marrow failure D. Bone pain 20 / 50 20. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. High titre of rheumatoid factor C. Acute onset of disease D. Extra-articular manifestations 21 / 50 21. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Kidney B. Liver C. Central nervous system D. Lung 22 / 50 22. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Olmesartan B. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra C. Benzbromarone D. Pegloticase 23 / 50 23. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Staphylococcus 24 / 50 24. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Osteomyelitis B. Polyarthritis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Dactylitis 25 / 50 25. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca B. Episderitis C. Anterior uveitis D. Scleromalacia 26 / 50 26. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Psoriasis D. Osteoarthritis 27 / 50 27. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Cochicine C. Allopurinol D. Probenecid 28 / 50 28. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Working with vibrating tools 29 / 50 29. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 30 / 50 30. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Delayed age of onset B. Low C3 C. High-titre rheumatoid factor D. Females 31 / 50 31. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Fibromyalgia B. Myxoedema C. Hemophilia D. Depression 32 / 50 32. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. COPD D. Mesothelioma of pleura 33 / 50 33. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals 34 / 50 34. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Monosodium urate C. Calcium oxalate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 35 / 50 35. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Urethritis B. Meningoencephalitis C. Genital ulceration D. Thrombophlebitis 36 / 50 36. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Allopurinol B. Colchicine C. Prednisolone D. Celecoxib 37 / 50 37. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Hydralazine B. Pentazocine C. Vinyl chloride D. Bleomycin 38 / 50 38. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Sacroiliitis B. Iritis C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Enthesopathy 39 / 50 39. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Cardiac B. Renal C. Pulmonary D. Central nervous system 40 / 50 40. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Hidebound chest syndrome B. Shrinking lung syndrome C. Pneumoconiosis D. Caplan's syndrome 41 / 50 41. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Dupuytren's contracture C. De Quervains' tenosynovitis D. Cervical rib 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Membranous nephropathy D. Diffuse glomerulonephritis 43 / 50 43. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 70% cases B. 60% cases C. 95% cases D. 80% cases 44 / 50 44. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Fixed to skin B. Ulcerate C. Tender D. Big 45 / 50 45. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. CREST syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Childhood dermatomyositis D. Scleroderma 46 / 50 46. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Yaws B. Antiphospholipid syndrome C. Leprosy D. Glandular fever 47 / 50 47. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Heart block C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Alveolar cell neoplasm 48 / 50 48. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Drug-induced SLE B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome C. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) D. Polymyositis 49 / 50 49. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Chondrocalcinosis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Congenital syphilis 50 / 50 50. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Leukaemia B. Gastrointestinal malignancy C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Hodgkin's disease LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz