Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Amiodarone C. Finasteride D. Bromocriptine 2 / 50 2. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-2 B. Tumour necrosis factor-a C. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) D. Interleukin-6 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Acute pulmonary fibrosis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Mitral stenosis D. Pericarditis 4 / 50 4. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Scleroderma C. Depression D. Parkinsonism 5 / 50 5. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Low C3 B. Females C. High-titre rheumatoid factor D. Delayed age of onset 6 / 50 6. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Kidney C. Upper respiratory tract D. Lower respiratory tract 7 / 50 7. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Shrinking lung syndrome B. Hidebound chest syndrome C. Caplan's syndrome D. Pneumoconiosis 8 / 50 8. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Behcet's syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 9 / 50 9. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 10 / 50 10. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis 11 / 50 11. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. lbuprofen B. Acetaminophen C. Diclofenac D. Corticosteroids 12 / 50 12. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 13 / 50 13. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Anaphylaxis B. Reversible lupus-syndrome C. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis D. Demyelination 14 / 50 14. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Leprosy B. Yaws C. Glandular fever D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 15 / 50 15. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders B. Anti-histone antibodies are present C. Central nervous system involvement is common D. Nephritis is rare 16 / 50 16. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Wilson's disease C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 17 / 50 17. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Carbamazepine B. Oral contraceptives C. Reserpine D. Rifampicin 18 / 50 18. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. Extra-articular manifestations C. Acute onset of disease D. High titre of rheumatoid factor 19 / 50 19. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Bronchial asthma C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Vasculitis 20 / 50 20. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Lupus vulgaris B. Melasma C. Scleroderma D. SLE 21 / 50 21. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone pain B. High alkaline phosphatase C. Hypercalcemia D. Bone marrow failure 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-ssDNA B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-RNP D. Anti-Ro/La 23 / 50 23. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgM B. lgG C. IgA D. IgD 24 / 50 24. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Osteoarthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 25 / 50 25. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Maculopapular rash C. Splenomegaly D. Positive Rose-Waaler test 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Myasthenia gravis C. Pemphigus D. Wilson's disease 27 / 50 27. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Jaw claudication B. Bell's palsy C. May develop permanent blindness D. Intense headache 28 / 50 28. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Campylobacter B. Shigella C. Chlamydia D. Staphylococcus 29 / 50 29. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Usually a self-limiting disease B. Eosinophilia C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan 30 / 50 30. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. SLE D. Gout 31 / 50 31. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Hydralazine B. Pentazocine C. Bleomycin D. Vinyl chloride 32 / 50 32. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Amyloidosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Aortic incompetence D. Acute pulmonary fibrosis 34 / 50 34. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-histone antibody B. Anti-Jo1 antibody C. Anti-centromere antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 35 / 50 35. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Pleural effusion B. Hemiplegia C. Coronary artery aneurysm D. Renal failure 36 / 50 36. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns B. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients C. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles D. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated 37 / 50 37. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Hemochromatosis C. Gout D. Ochronosis 38 / 50 38. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Sinusitis C. Epistaxis D. Allergic rhinitis 39 / 50 39. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Central nervous system B. Cardiac C. Pulmonary D. Renal 40 / 50 40. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Cervical rib C. Dupuytren's contracture D. De Quervains' tenosynovitis 41 / 50 41. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Decompression sickness B. Sickle cell disease C. Corticosteroid therapy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 42 / 50 42. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Interferon C. Cyclophosphamide D. Azathioprine 43 / 50 43. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Rickets B. Osteomalacia C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteoporosis 44 / 50 44. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Chronic renal failure B. Overlap syndrome C. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody D. Presence of lupus anticoagulant 45 / 50 45. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. SLE D. Rheumatoid arthritis 46 / 50 46. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Allopurinol C. Probenecid D. Cochicine 47 / 50 47. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Amphotericin B C. Glutethimide D. Corticosteroid 48 / 50 48. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Temporal arteritis D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura 49 / 50 49. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Heart block B. Alveolar cell neoplasm C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Pulmonary hypertension 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Sulphasalazine B. Leflunomide C. Naproxen D. Hydroxychloroquine LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz