Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Behcet's syndrome 2 / 50 2. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 3 / 50 3. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Polymyositis B. Drug-induced SLE C. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) D. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome 4 / 50 4. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Low B. High C. Remains as normal D. Very low 5 / 50 5. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Maculopathy C. Corneal deposits D. Cataract 6 / 50 6. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Gastrointestinal malignancy C. Leukaemia D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 7 / 50 7. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Pulmonary infiltrates B. Polyarthritis C. Polyserositis D. Renal involvement 8 / 50 8. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Psoriasis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Osteoarthritis 9 / 50 9. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Methysergide B. Naftidrofuryl C. Dimethyl sulfoxide D. Propranolol 10 / 50 10. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Sacroiliitis D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 11 / 50 11. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis B. Demyelination C. Reversible lupus-syndrome D. Anaphylaxis 12 / 50 12. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium phosphate C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate D. Calcium oxalate 13 / 50 13. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Mesothelioma of pleura B. Pachy dermoperiostitis C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Metastatic tumour of lung 14 / 50 14. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 15 / 50 15. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. COPD C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Mesothelioma of pleura 16 / 50 16. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Behcet's syndrome 17 / 50 17. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B 27 B. DR4 C. DR3 D. B8 18 / 50 18. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Salmonella B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci 19 / 50 19. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Aortic incompetence C. Myocarditis D. Pericarditis 20 / 50 20. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 60% cases B. 80% cases C. 70% cases D. 95% cases 21 / 50 21. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Allopurinol C. Probenecid D. Cochicine 22 / 50 22. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Anterior uveitis B. Episderitis C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Scleromalacia 23 / 50 23. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Ergot ingestion B. Hyperviscosity syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Dermatomyositis 24 / 50 24. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Parkinsonism C. Scleroderma D. Depression 25 / 50 25. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Presence of lupus anticoagulant B. Overlap syndrome C. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody D. Chronic renal failure 26 / 50 26. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Behcet's syndrome C. Lyme arthritis D. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis 27 / 50 27. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant B. Focal point tenderness C. Female preponderance D. High CPK 28 / 50 28. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Glandular fever C. Yaws D. Leprosy 29 / 50 29. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. lgG C. IgA D. lgM 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Common in non-smokers B. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population C. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity 31 / 50 31. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Pregnancy C. Primary amyloidosis D. Acromegaly 32 / 50 32. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. SLE B. Bronchial asthma C. Myasthenia gravis D. Primary biliary cirrhosis 33 / 50 33. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Very high ESR B. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip C. Early morning stiffness D. Elevated muscle enzymes 34 / 50 34. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Glucocorticoids C. Azathioprine D. Interferon 35 / 50 35. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Vinyl chloride B. Pentazocine C. Bleomycin D. Hydralazine 36 / 50 36. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Osteoarthritis D. Gout 37 / 50 37. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Spine B. Knee joint C. Joints of hands D. Metatarsophalangeal joint 38 / 50 38. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Bullous lesion B. Periungual erythema C. Panniculitis D. Erythema nodosum 40 / 50 40. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reactive arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 41 / 50 41. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Corticosteroid therapy C. Sickle cell disease D. Decompression sickness 42 / 50 42. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Chondrocalcinosis D. Congenital syphilis 43 / 50 43. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Amiodarone C. Finasteride D. Bromocriptine 44 / 50 44. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. Exudative effusion C. High CH50 D. Protein > 4 g/dl 45 / 50 45. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Meningoencephalitis B. Urethritis C. Genital ulceration D. Thrombophlebitis 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Hydroxychloroquine B. Leflunomide C. Sulphasalazine D. Naproxen 47 / 50 47. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Allopurinol B. Prednisolone C. Colchicine D. Celecoxib 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Diffuse glomerulonephritis B. Interstitial nephritis C. Membranous nephropathy D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 49 / 50 49. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteomalacia B. Osteoarthritis C. Rickets D. Osteoporosis 50 / 50 50. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. High alkaline phosphatase B. Bone marrow failure C. Hypercalcemia D. 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