Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 54 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Corticosteroid C. Amphotericin B D. Glutethimide 2 / 50 2. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Behcet's syndrome D. Sjogren's syndrome 3 / 50 3. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Primary amyloidosis B. Pregnancy C. Acromegaly D. Thyrotoxicosis 4 / 50 4. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Paget's disease D. Acromegaly 5 / 50 5. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Methysergide C. Naftidrofuryl D. Dimethyl sulfoxide 6 / 50 6. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Azathioprine C. Salphasalazine D. Leflunomide 7 / 50 7. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Fluorosis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteopetrosis 8 / 50 8. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-centromere antibody B. Anti-RNP antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-histone antibody 9 / 50 9. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Melasma C. Scleroderma D. Lupus vulgaris 10 / 50 10. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. Turn blue B. become white C. Remain unchanged D. Turn red 11 / 50 11. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Rickets B. Osteomalacia C. Osteoporosis D. Osteoarthritis 12 / 50 12. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Pseudoclubbing B. Livedo reticularis C. Digital infarcts D. Sclerodactyly 13 / 50 13. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Dermatomyositis C. Ergot ingestion D. Coarctation of aorta 14 / 50 14. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. lgG C. lgM D. IgA 15 / 50 15. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 16 / 50 16. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Kidney C. Lower respiratory tract D. Upper respiratory tract 17 / 50 17. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Epistaxis B. Sinusitis C. Allergic rhinitis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 18 / 50 18. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Elevated muscle enzymes B. Very high ESR C. Early morning stiffness D. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Ro/La B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-ssDNA D. Anti-RNP 20 / 50 20. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Endomyocardia B. Exophthalmos C. Esophageal Hypomotility D. Edema 21 / 50 21. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Excess of prostaglandin D2 B. Deficiency of leukotrienes C. Hypocomplementemia C2 D. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency 22 / 50 22. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Age of onset 20-25 yrs B. Vasculitis C. Lymphadenopathy D. Thrombocytopenia 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Common in non-smokers B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 24 / 50 24. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. CREST syndrome C. Scleroderma D. Childhood dermatomyositis 25 / 50 25. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Sodium fluoride B. Retinoids C. Calcipotriol D. Alendronate 26 / 50 26. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Anterior uveitis B. Scleromalacia C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Episderitis 27 / 50 27. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Cochicine B. Probenecid C. Allopurinol D. Benzbromarone 28 / 50 28. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Lupus nephritis C. Dermatomyositis with lung disease D. Sjogren's syndrome 29 / 50 29. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Heart block B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Alveolar cell neoplasm D. Pulmonary hypertension 30 / 50 30. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. High CPK B. Female preponderance C. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant D. Focal point tenderness 31 / 50 31. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Gastrointestinal malignancy B. Hodgkin's disease C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Leukaemia 32 / 50 32. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Ulcerate B. Big C. Tender D. Fixed to skin 33 / 50 33. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium phosphate C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate D. Calcium oxalate 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Pelvis B. Phalanges C. Skull D. Long bones of extremities 35 / 50 35. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Mineralocorticoids B. Diuretics C. Danazol D. Tropical corticosteroid 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Amyloidosis D. Aortic incompetence 37 / 50 37. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Isoniazid B. Phenytoin C. Ketoconazole D. Glucocorticoids 38 / 50 38. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reactive arthritis 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Membranous nephropathy B. Interstitial nephritis C. Diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 40 / 50 40. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 70% cases B. 80% cases C. 60% cases D. 95% cases 41 / 50 41. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. B8 C. B 27 D. DR3 42 / 50 42. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns B. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients C. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles D. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated 43 / 50 43. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Myelofibrosis D. Scleroderma 44 / 50 44. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Psoriasis 45 / 50 45. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Staphylococcus C. Campylobacter D. Shigella 46 / 50 46. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Wilson's disease 47 / 50 47. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Cysticercosis B. Leprosy C. Rheumatic fever D. Dermatomyositis 48 / 50 48. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Corneal deposits B. Maculopathy C. Cataract D. Optic atrophy 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of C-reactive protein B. High serum level of anti-dsDNA C. Low serum level of complement D. High serum level of ANA 50 / 50 50. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Central nervous system involvement is common B. Nephritis is rare C. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders D. 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