RheumatologyHome Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Dermatomyositis B. Leprosy C. Rheumatic fever D. Cysticercosis 2 / 50 2. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Wilson's disease D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 3 / 50 3. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Amiodarone C. Finasteride D. Bromocriptine 4 / 50 4. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 5 / 50 5. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone marrow failure B. High alkaline phosphatase C. Hypercalcemia D. Bone pain 6 / 50 6. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Bronchial asthma B. Hepatorenal syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Vasculitis 7 / 50 7. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Reactive arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 8 / 50 8. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. SLE B. Bronchial asthma C. Myasthenia gravis D. Primary biliary cirrhosis 9 / 50 9. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Gout C. Osteoarthritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 10 / 50 10. Infliximab is directed against: A. Tumour necrosis factor-a B. Interleukin-6 C. Interleukin-2 D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 11 / 50 11. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Eosinophilia D. Raynaud's phenomenon 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Sm B. Anti-ssDNA C. Anti-RNP D. Anti-Ro/La 13 / 50 13. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Mineralocorticoids B. Diuretics C. Danazol D. Tropical corticosteroid 14 / 50 14. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 15 / 50 15. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Splenomegaly C. Maculopapular rash D. Positive Rose-Waaler test 16 / 50 16. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders B. Anti-histone antibodies are present C. Central nervous system involvement is common D. Nephritis is rare 17 / 50 17. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Naftidrofuryl B. Propranolol C. Methysergide D. Dimethyl sulfoxide 18 / 50 18. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Sinusitis B. Allergic rhinitis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Epistaxis 19 / 50 19. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-centromere antibody B. Anti-RNP antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-histone antibody 20 / 50 20. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Lung B. Kidney C. Liver D. Central nervous system 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Wilson's disease C. Myasthenia gravis D. Pemphigus 22 / 50 22. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Drug-induced SLE B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome C. Polymyositis D. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) 23 / 50 23. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 4 joints B. 2 joints C. 3 joints D. 1 joint 24 / 50 24. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Osteomyelitis B. Dactylitis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Polyarthritis 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of ANA B. Low serum level of complement C. High serum level of C-reactive protein D. High serum level of anti-dsDNA 26 / 50 26. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Pulmonary B. Central nervous system C. Cardiac D. Renal 27 / 50 27. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hemochromatosis B. Gout C. Ochronosis D. Hyperphosphatasia 28 / 50 28. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. COPD B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Mesothelioma of pleura 29 / 50 29. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium phosphate C. Calcium oxalate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 30 / 50 30. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Telangiectasia C. Photosensitivity D. Heals with scarring 31 / 50 31. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated B. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns C. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients 32 / 50 32. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Myelofibrosis B. Polymyositis C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Scleroderma 33 / 50 33. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Interferon C. Glucocorticoids D. Azathioprine 34 / 50 34. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Carbamazepine C. Reserpine D. Rifampicin 35 / 50 35. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Behcet's syndrome C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reiter's syndrome 36 / 50 36. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 37 / 50 37. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Pericarditis C. Myocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 38 / 50 38. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia D. Rickets 39 / 50 39. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. CD4 lymphocyte count B. Antinuclear antibodies C. Rheumatoid factor D. ASO titre 40 / 50 40. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Pulmonary nodules B. Vasculitis C. Hyperostosis D. Malar rash 41 / 50 41. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Esophageal Hypomotility B. Endomyocardia C. Exophthalmos D. Edema 42 / 50 42. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Allopurinol C. Benzbromarone D. Cochicine 43 / 50 43. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteopetrosis B. Osteomalacia C. Hodgkin's disease D. Fluorosis 44 / 50 44. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Azathioprine B. Leflunomide C. Etanercept D. Salphasalazine 45 / 50 45. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Circinate balanitis C. Keratoderma blenorrhagica D. Subungual hyperkeratosis 46 / 50 46. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Scleroderma B. Mixed connective tissue disease C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 47 / 50 47. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Childhood dermatomyositis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Scleroderma D. CREST syndrome 48 / 50 48. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Metatarsophalangeal joint B. Spine C. Joints of hands D. Knee joint 49 / 50 49. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Frostbite B. Amyloidosis C. Leprosy D. Vasculitis 50 / 50 50. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Retinal vein thrombosis B. Cranial arteritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. 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