Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 55 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Carbamazepine C. Rifampicin D. Reserpine 2 / 50 2. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Salmonella 3 / 50 3. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B 27 B. B8 C. DR3 D. DR4 4 / 50 4. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Thrombocytopenia C. Age of onset 20-25 yrs D. Vasculitis 5 / 50 5. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Scleroderma 6 / 50 6. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Leprosy C. Cysticercosis D. Dermatomyositis 7 / 50 7. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Keratoderma blenorrhagica B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Circinate balanitis D. Subungual hyperkeratosis 8 / 50 8. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Bronchial asthma B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. SLE D. Myasthenia gravis 9 / 50 9. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Pericarditis B. ulcerative colitis C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 10 / 50 10. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Alcoholic cirrhosis C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 11 / 50 11. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Urethritis B. Meningoencephalitis C. Thrombophlebitis D. Genital ulceration 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Pemphigus B. Myasthenia gravis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Wilson's disease 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Naproxen B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Leflunomide D. Sulphasalazine 14 / 50 14. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 15 / 50 15. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Fluorosis B. Hodgkin's disease C. Osteomalacia D. Osteopetrosis 16 / 50 16. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Microscopic polyarteritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Crescentic glomerulonephritis 17 / 50 17. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Presence of lupus anticoagulant B. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody C. Overlap syndrome D. Chronic renal failure 18 / 50 18. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Malar rash B. Vasculitis C. Pulmonary nodules D. Hyperostosis 19 / 50 19. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 70% cases B. 45% cases C. 90% cases D. 30% cases 20 / 50 20. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Retinoids B. Sodium fluoride C. Calcipotriol D. Alendronate 21 / 50 21. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-RNP antibody B. Anti-histone antibody C. Anti-centromere antibody D. Anti-Jo1 antibody 22 / 50 22. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Gout B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Middle-aged females 23 / 50 23. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Bone marrow failure C. Bone pain D. High alkaline phosphatase 24 / 50 24. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 25 / 50 25. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. High viscosity B. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 C. Cloudy in colour D. Low complement CH50 26 / 50 26. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Central nervous system B. Cardiac C. Pulmonary D. Renal 27 / 50 27. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 28 / 50 28. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Polymyositis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Behcet's syndrome 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Panniculitis B. Periungual erythema C. Bullous lesion D. Erythema nodosum 30 / 50 30. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant B. High CPK C. Female preponderance D. Focal point tenderness 31 / 50 31. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Benzbromarone B. Pegloticase C. Olmesartan D. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra 32 / 50 32. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Reiter's syndrome D. Lyme arthritis 33 / 50 33. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Interferon B. Glucocorticoids C. Cyclophosphamide D. Azathioprine 34 / 50 34. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 35 / 50 35. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. COPD 36 / 50 36. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients B. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns C. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles D. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated 37 / 50 37. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. High-output cardiac failure B. Spontaneous fracture C. Angioid streaks in retina D. Coldness of the extremities 38 / 50 38. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reactive arthritis 39 / 50 39. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Dysphagia B. Eosinophilia C. Hyperglobulinaemia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 40 / 50 40. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Anti-histone antibodies are present B. Nephritis is rare C. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders D. Central nervous system involvement is common 41 / 50 41. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Leukaemia C. Hodgkin's disease D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 42 / 50 42. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis B. Demyelination C. Anaphylaxis D. Reversible lupus-syndrome 43 / 50 43. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Sacroiliitis B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Maculopapular rash D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 44 / 50 44. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Pachy dermoperiostitis C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Metastatic tumour of lung 45 / 50 45. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgA B. IgD C. lgG D. lgM 46 / 50 46. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Ulcerate B. Tender C. Big D. Fixed to skin 47 / 50 47. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Leflunomide B. Azathioprine C. Etanercept D. Salphasalazine 48 / 50 48. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Reiter's syndrome 49 / 50 49. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. De Quervains' tenosynovitis C. Dupuytren's contracture D. Cervical rib 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-RNP B. Anti-ssDNA C. Anti-Ro/La D. Anti-Sm LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz