Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Carpometacarpal joint B. Proximal interphalangeal joint C. Metacarpophalangeal joint D. Distal interphalangeal joint 2 / 50 2. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. SLE 3 / 50 3. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Benzbromarone B. Olmesartan C. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra D. Pegloticase 4 / 50 4. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Gout B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. SLE D. Sjogren's syndrome 5 / 50 5. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Salphasalazine C. Azathioprine D. Leflunomide 6 / 50 6. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Positive Rose-Waaler test B. Maculopapular rash C. Splenomegaly D. Lymphadenopathy 7 / 50 7. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Azathioprine C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 8 / 50 8. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone marrow failure B. High alkaline phosphatase C. Bone pain D. Hypercalcemia 9 / 50 9. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Lymphadenopathy C. Age of onset 20-25 yrs D. Thrombocytopenia 10 / 50 10. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Meningoencephalitis B. Urethritis C. Thrombophlebitis D. Genital ulceration 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Diffuse glomerulonephritis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Membranous nephropathy D. Interstitial nephritis 12 / 50 12. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Crescentic glomerulonephritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Microscopic polyarteritis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 13 / 50 13. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Sacroiliitis D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 14 / 50 14. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Protein > 4 g/dl B. High CH50 C. Exudative effusion D. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl 15 / 50 15. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Behcet's syndrome D. Polymyositis 16 / 50 16. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Sodium fluoride B. Alendronate C. Calcipotriol D. Retinoids 17 / 50 17. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Reactive arthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis 18 / 50 18. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgG B. lgM C. IgD D. IgA 19 / 50 19. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Eosinophilia 20 / 50 20. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Sclerodactyly B. Digital infarcts C. Livedo reticularis D. Pseudoclubbing 21 / 50 21. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Subungual hyperkeratosis B. Keratoderma blenorrhagica C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Circinate balanitis 22 / 50 22. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Scleromalacia C. Anterior uveitis D. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 23 / 50 23. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Joints of hands B. Metatarsophalangeal joint C. Spine D. Knee joint 24 / 50 24. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium oxalate C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate D. Calcium phosphate 25 / 50 25. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. CREST syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Childhood dermatomyositis D. Scleroderma 26 / 50 26. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Drug-induced SLE B. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. Polymyositis 27 / 50 27. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Retinal vein thrombosis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Cranial arteritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Common in non-smokers D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 29 / 50 29. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Depression B. Hemophilia C. Fibromyalgia D. Myxoedema 30 / 50 30. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns B. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients D. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated 31 / 50 31. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. Acute onset of disease C. High titre of rheumatoid factor D. Extra-articular manifestations 32 / 50 32. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Bronchial asthma B. Vasculitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Hepatorenal syndrome 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Aortic incompetence B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Amyloidosis 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Long bones of extremities B. Skull C. Pelvis D. Phalanges 35 / 50 35. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Presence of lupus anticoagulant B. Overlap syndrome C. Chronic renal failure D. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody 36 / 50 36. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. ulcerative colitis C. Pericarditis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 37 / 50 37. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Vitamin D toxicity B. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection C. Scleroderma D. Hyperparathyroidism 38 / 50 38. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Hypertension B. Gout C. Middle-aged females D. Diabetes mellitus 39 / 50 39. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Working with vibrating tools 40 / 50 40. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Heart block B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Alveolar cell neoplasm 41 / 50 41. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 42 / 50 42. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Gastrointestinal malignancy B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Leukaemia D. Hodgkin's disease 43 / 50 43. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Epistaxis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Sinusitis D. Allergic rhinitis 44 / 50 44. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Osteoarthritis B. Polymyositis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 45 / 50 45. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Post-renal transplant B. Sickle cell disease C. Cushing's syndrome D. Parachute diving 46 / 50 46. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Scleroderma B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Sjogren's syndrome 47 / 50 47. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 2 joints B. 4 joints C. 3 joints D. 1 joint 48 / 50 48. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Psoriasis D. Sjogren's syndrome 49 / 50 49. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Fluorosis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteopetrosis 50 / 50 50. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-RNP antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-histone antibody D. Anti-Jo1 antibody LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz