Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Rickets C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoarthritis 2 / 50 2. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-centromere antibody B. Anti-histone antibody C. Anti-RNP antibody D. Anti-Jo1 antibody 3 / 50 3. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Polyserositis B. Polyarthritis C. Renal involvement D. Pulmonary infiltrates 4 / 50 4. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Benzbromarone B. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra C. Olmesartan D. Pegloticase 5 / 50 5. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Osteoarthritis B. Reactive arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 6 / 50 6. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Malar rash B. Pulmonary nodules C. Vasculitis D. Hyperostosis 7 / 50 7. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Azathioprine B. Interferon C. Cyclophosphamide D. Glucocorticoids 8 / 50 8. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. COPD C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. Mesothelioma of pleura 9 / 50 9. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Prednisolone B. Allopurinol C. Colchicine D. Celecoxib 10 / 50 10. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Polyarthritis B. Osteomyelitis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Dactylitis 11 / 50 11. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics B. Working with vibrating tools C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Alcoholic cirrhosis 12 / 50 12. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 70% cases B. 95% cases C. 60% cases D. 80% cases 13 / 50 13. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis B. Demyelination C. Reversible lupus-syndrome D. Anaphylaxis 14 / 50 14. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Eosinophilia C. Hyperglobulinaemia D. Dysphagia 15 / 50 15. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Scleroderma B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Mixed connective tissue disease 16 / 50 16. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Epistaxis B. Allergic rhinitis C. Sinusitis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity B. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population C. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis D. Common in non-smokers 18 / 50 18. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Reactive arthritis 19 / 50 19. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 20 / 50 20. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Low B. High C. Remains as normal D. Very low 21 / 50 21. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Metacarpophalangeal joint B. Carpometacarpal joint C. Proximal interphalangeal joint D. Distal interphalangeal joint 22 / 50 22. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Liver B. Lung C. Kidney D. Central nervous system 23 / 50 23. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Meningoencephalitis B. Genital ulceration C. Urethritis D. Thrombophlebitis 24 / 50 24. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Delayed age of onset C. Low C3 D. Females 25 / 50 25. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Salmonella 26 / 50 26. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Azathioprine C. Etanercept D. Leflunomide 27 / 50 27. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR3 B. B 27 C. DR4 D. B8 28 / 50 28. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Temporal arteritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 29 / 50 29. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Drug-induced SLE B. Polymyositis C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) 30 / 50 30. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns B. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated C. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients 31 / 50 31. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. CD4 lymphocyte count B. ASO titre C. Antinuclear antibodies D. Rheumatoid factor 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of C-reactive protein B. High serum level of anti-dsDNA C. High serum level of ANA D. Low serum level of complement 33 / 50 33. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Bronchial asthma B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Vasculitis 34 / 50 34. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Chronic renal failure B. Presence of lupus anticoagulant C. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody D. Overlap syndrome 35 / 50 35. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Pregnancy B. Acromegaly C. Primary amyloidosis D. Thyrotoxicosis 36 / 50 36. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 37 / 50 37. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. SLE B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 38 / 50 38. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Congenital syphilis D. Chondrocalcinosis 39 / 50 39. Lyme arthritis is: A. Autoimmune disease B. Viral infection C. Tick-borne spirochetal infection D. Bacterial infection 40 / 50 40. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Pulmonary B. Central nervous system C. Cardiac D. Renal 41 / 50 41. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Dermatomyositis B. Osteoarthritis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Gout 42 / 50 42. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Glutethimide B. Amphotericin B C. Corticosteroid D. Statins 43 / 50 43. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Retinal vein thrombosis C. Cranial arteritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 44 / 50 44. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Myasthenia gravis B. SLE C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Bronchial asthma 45 / 50 45. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Jaw claudication B. May develop permanent blindness C. Bell's palsy D. Intense headache 46 / 50 46. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. De Quervains' tenosynovitis C. Cervical rib D. Dupuytren's contracture 47 / 50 47. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Paget's disease C. Acromegaly D. Hyperthyroidism 48 / 50 48. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Tropical corticosteroid B. Diuretics C. Mineralocorticoids D. Danazol 49 / 50 49. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amiodarone B. Finasteride C. Amantadine D. Bromocriptine 50 / 50 50. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Maculopathy B. Cataract C. Corneal deposits D. Optic atrophy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz