Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Celecoxib B. Prednisolone C. Allopurinol D. Colchicine 2 / 50 2. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Nephritis is rare B. Central nervous system involvement is common C. Anti-histone antibodies are present D. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders 3 / 50 3. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Primary amyloidosis C. Pregnancy D. Acromegaly 4 / 50 4. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Females C. Low C3 D. Delayed age of onset 5 / 50 5. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints B. Sacroiliitis C. Maculopapular rash D. Negative Rose-Waaler test 6 / 50 6. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Big B. Tender C. Ulcerate D. Fixed to skin 7 / 50 7. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Spine B. Joints of hands C. Metatarsophalangeal joint D. Knee joint 8 / 50 8. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Wilson's disease 9 / 50 9. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Vitamin D toxicity B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Scleroderma D. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection 10 / 50 10. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Presence of lupus anticoagulant B. Chronic renal failure C. Overlap syndrome D. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody 11 / 50 11. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Hemophilia B. Fibromyalgia C. Myxoedema D. Depression 12 / 50 12. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteopetrosis B. Fluorosis C. Osteomalacia D. Hodgkin's disease 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Leflunomide B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Naproxen D. Sulphasalazine 14 / 50 14. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Cochicine C. Probenecid D. Allopurinol 15 / 50 15. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Rheumatic fever B. Reiter's syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 16 / 50 16. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Focal point tenderness B. High CPK C. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant D. Female preponderance 17 / 50 17. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Polyarthritis B. Avascular necrosis of bone C. Osteomyelitis D. Dactylitis 18 / 50 18. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Carpometacarpal joint B. Proximal interphalangeal joint C. Distal interphalangeal joint D. Metacarpophalangeal joint 19 / 50 19. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Jaw claudication B. Bell's palsy C. May develop permanent blindness D. Intense headache 20 / 50 20. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis B. Demyelination C. Anaphylaxis D. Reversible lupus-syndrome 21 / 50 21. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Osteoarthritis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Psoriasis D. Sjogren's syndrome 22 / 50 22. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. Extra-articular manifestations C. Acute onset of disease D. High titre of rheumatoid factor 23 / 50 23. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Behcet's syndrome C. Reactive arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 24 / 50 24. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Salmonella D. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci 25 / 50 25. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Benzbromarone B. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra C. Pegloticase D. Olmesartan 26 / 50 26. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Myelofibrosis B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Polymyositis D. Scleroderma 27 / 50 27. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Leflunomide C. Etanercept D. Azathioprine 28 / 50 28. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Cranial arteritis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Retinal vein thrombosis 29 / 50 29. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Renal involvement B. Polyarthritis C. Polyserositis D. Pulmonary infiltrates 30 / 50 30. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Lupus vulgaris C. Melasma D. Scleroderma 31 / 50 31. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 50% cases B. 35% cases C. 70% cases D. 20% cases 32 / 50 32. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Dysphagia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Eosinophilia D. Hyperglobulinaemia 33 / 50 33. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Rifampicin B. Reserpine C. Oral contraceptives D. Carbamazepine 34 / 50 34. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics C. Working with vibrating tools D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 35 / 50 35. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Cardiac B. Renal C. Pulmonary D. Central nervous system 36 / 50 36. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 90% cases B. 30% cases C. 45% cases D. 70% cases 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Amyloidosis D. Aortic incompetence 38 / 50 38. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Kidney C. Upper respiratory tract D. Lower respiratory tract 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Wilson's disease B. Pemphigus C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 40 / 50 40. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Drug-induced SLE B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome C. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) D. Polymyositis 41 / 50 41. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 42 / 50 42. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Temporal arteritis D. Churg-Strauss syndrome 43 / 50 43. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 44 / 50 44. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients B. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles C. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated D. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns 45 / 50 45. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Vasculitis B. Frostbite C. Leprosy D. Amyloidosis 46 / 50 46. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. SLE C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout 47 / 50 47. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombophlebitis B. Genital ulceration C. Meningoencephalitis D. Urethritis 48 / 50 48. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Behcet's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 49 / 50 49. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. ASO titre B. Antinuclear antibodies C. Rheumatoid factor D. CD4 lymphocyte count 50 / 50 50. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 4 joints B. 2 joints C. 1 joint D. 3 joints LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz