Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Interleukin-2 D. Tumour necrosis factor-a 2 / 50 2. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium oxalate B. Calcium phosphate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 3 / 50 3. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Urethritis B. Meningoencephalitis C. Thrombophlebitis D. Genital ulceration 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of anti-dsDNA B. High serum level of ANA C. High serum level of C-reactive protein D. Low serum level of complement 5 / 50 5. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. COPD C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 6 / 50 6. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rickets D. Osteomalacia 7 / 50 7. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type II B. Type I C. Type IV D. Type III 8 / 50 8. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Celecoxib B. Allopurinol C. Colchicine D. Prednisolone 9 / 50 9. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Proximal interphalangeal joint B. Metacarpophalangeal joint C. Carpometacarpal joint D. Distal interphalangeal joint 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Membranous nephropathy 11 / 50 11. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Osteoarthritis 12 / 50 12. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Amiodarone C. Finasteride D. Bromocriptine 13 / 50 13. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Metastatic tumour of lung B. Mesothelioma of pleura C. Pachy dermoperiostitis D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 14 / 50 14. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Upper respiratory tract C. Kidney D. Lower respiratory tract 15 / 50 15. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 95% cases B. 70% cases C. 60% cases D. 80% cases 16 / 50 16. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Sodium fluoride B. Calcipotriol C. Alendronate D. Retinoids 17 / 50 17. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Pseudoclubbing B. Sclerodactyly C. Livedo reticularis D. Digital infarcts 18 / 50 18. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Pentazocine B. Bleomycin C. Vinyl chloride D. Hydralazine 19 / 50 19. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Chondrocalcinosis C. Congenital syphilis D. Tabes dorsalis 20 / 50 20. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 21 / 50 21. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Ulcerate B. Tender C. Big D. Fixed to skin 22 / 50 22. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Polymyositis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Behcet's syndrome 23 / 50 23. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Avascular necrosis of bone B. Polyarthritis C. Dactylitis D. Osteomyelitis 24 / 50 24. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Allopurinol C. Probenecid D. Cochicine 25 / 50 25. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Retinal vein thrombosis C. Cranial arteritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 26 / 50 26. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Low B. Remains as normal C. High D. Very low 27 / 50 27. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Working with vibrating tools D. Alcoholic cirrhosis 28 / 50 28. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 70% cases B. 45% cases C. 90% cases D. 30% cases 29 / 50 29. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reactive arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 30 / 50 30. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. lgG C. lgM D. IgA 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Skull B. Phalanges C. Pelvis D. Long bones of extremities 32 / 50 32. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR3 B. DR4 C. B 27 D. B8 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Pericarditis D. Mitral stenosis 34 / 50 34. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Metatarsophalangeal joint B. Spine C. Knee joint D. Joints of hands 35 / 50 35. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Middle-aged females B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gout D. Hypertension 36 / 50 36. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Staphylococcus B. Shigella C. Chlamydia D. Campylobacter 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Pemphigus C. Wilson's disease D. Myasthenia gravis 38 / 50 38. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Females C. Low C3 D. Delayed age of onset 39 / 50 39. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Anaphylaxis B. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis C. Demyelination D. Reversible lupus-syndrome 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-RNP B. Anti-Ro/La C. Anti-ssDNA D. Anti-Sm 41 / 50 41. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Erythema nodosum B. Asthma C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. HBsAg positivity 42 / 50 42. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Hodgkin's disease C. Leukaemia D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 43 / 50 43. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Psoriasis 44 / 50 44. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders B. Anti-histone antibodies are present C. Nephritis is rare D. Central nervous system involvement is common 45 / 50 45. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Lymphadenopathy C. Thrombocytopenia D. Age of onset 20-25 yrs 46 / 50 46. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. SLE B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Gout 47 / 50 47. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome B. Drug-induced SLE C. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) D. Polymyositis 48 / 50 48. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Lyme arthritis B. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Reiter's syndrome 49 / 50 49. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone marrow failure B. Hypercalcemia C. High alkaline phosphatase D. Bone pain 50 / 50 50. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Dermatomyositis D. Ergot ingestion LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz