Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Hemophilia B. Fibromyalgia C. Myxoedema D. Depression 2 / 50 2. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 4 joints C. 3 joints D. 2 joints 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Long bones of extremities B. Skull C. Phalanges D. Pelvis 4 / 50 4. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. HBsAg positivity C. Asthma D. Erythema nodosum 5 / 50 5. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Osteoarthritis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Psoriasis D. Reiter's syndrome 6 / 50 6. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Mixed connective tissue disease C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Scleroderma 7 / 50 7. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Tumour necrosis factor-a D. Interleukin-2 8 / 50 8. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. High titre of rheumatoid factor B. Acute onset of disease C. Extra-articular manifestations D. Early development of nodules 9 / 50 9. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Chronic renal failure B. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody C. Overlap syndrome D. Presence of lupus anticoagulant 10 / 50 10. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type II B. Type III C. Type IV D. Type I 11 / 50 11. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B 27 B. DR4 C. DR3 D. B8 12 / 50 12. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. De Quervains' tenosynovitis C. Cervical rib D. Dupuytren's contracture 13 / 50 13. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Amiodarone C. Finasteride D. Bromocriptine 14 / 50 14. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Dermatomyositis with lung disease B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Lupus nephritis 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Pemphigus B. Myasthenia gravis C. Wilson's disease D. Nephrotic syndrome 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-RNP B. Anti-ssDNA C. Anti-Ro/La D. Anti-Sm 17 / 50 17. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca C. Scleromalacia D. Anterior uveitis 18 / 50 18. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Proximal interphalangeal joint B. Distal interphalangeal joint C. Metacarpophalangeal joint D. Carpometacarpal joint 19 / 50 19. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Spine B. Joints of hands C. Knee joint D. Metatarsophalangeal joint 20 / 50 20. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Pleural effusion B. Renal failure C. Coronary artery aneurysm D. Hemiplegia 21 / 50 21. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Pulmonary infiltrates B. Renal involvement C. Polyarthritis D. Polyserositis 22 / 50 22. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Central nervous system B. Lung C. Kidney D. Liver 23 / 50 23. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Sarcoidosis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Rheumatic fever D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 24 / 50 24. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Hidebound chest syndrome B. Caplan's syndrome C. Pneumoconiosis D. Shrinking lung syndrome 25 / 50 25. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Cysticercosis B. Dermatomyositis C. Rheumatic fever D. Leprosy 26 / 50 26. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Myelofibrosis D. Scleroderma 27 / 50 27. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. ulcerative colitis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Pericarditis D. Fibrosing alveolitis 28 / 50 28. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Iritis B. Enthesopathy C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Sacroiliitis 29 / 50 29. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Drug-induced SLE B. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) C. Polymyositis D. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome 30 / 50 30. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Amphotericin B B. Glutethimide C. Statins D. Corticosteroid 31 / 50 31. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. Exudative effusion C. High CH50 D. Protein > 4 g/dl 32 / 50 32. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 35% cases B. 50% cases C. 20% cases D. 70% cases 33 / 50 33. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Scleroderma B. Depression C. Parkinsonism D. Myotonic dystrophy 34 / 50 34. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reactive arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Psoriatic arthritis 35 / 50 35. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Pachy dermoperiostitis B. Metastatic tumour of lung C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 36 / 50 36. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Gout D. Middle-aged females 37 / 50 37. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Tropical corticosteroid B. Danazol C. Diuretics D. Mineralocorticoids 38 / 50 38. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Cranial arteritis C. Retinal vein thrombosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 39 / 50 39. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. High alkaline phosphatase B. Bone marrow failure C. Bone pain D. Hypercalcemia 40 / 50 40. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Monosodium urate C. Calcium oxalate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 41 / 50 41. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Cochicine C. Allopurinol D. Probenecid 42 / 50 42. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Naftidrofuryl B. Propranolol C. Dimethyl sulfoxide D. Methysergide 43 / 50 43. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Corticosteroid therapy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sickle cell disease D. Decompression sickness 44 / 50 44. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Myocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Pericarditis 45 / 50 45. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgA B. IgD C. lgM D. lgG 46 / 50 46. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Salmonella 47 / 50 47. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Reactive arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 48 / 50 48. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Bell's palsy C. Jaw claudication D. Intense headache 49 / 50 49. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant B. High CPK C. Female preponderance D. Focal point tenderness 50 / 50 50. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz