Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Skull B. Phalanges C. Pelvis D. Long bones of extremities 2 / 50 2. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Churg-Strauss syndrome B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Temporal arteritis 3 / 50 3. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Livedo reticularis B. Digital infarcts C. Pseudoclubbing D. Sclerodactyly 4 / 50 4. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. Scleroderma C. Myelofibrosis D. Polymyositis 5 / 50 5. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Allopurinol B. Prednisolone C. Colchicine D. Celecoxib 6 / 50 6. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Depression B. Scleroderma C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Parkinsonism 7 / 50 7. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Spontaneous fracture B. Angioid streaks in retina C. High-output cardiac failure D. Coldness of the extremities 8 / 50 8. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Carpometacarpal joint B. Distal interphalangeal joint C. Metacarpophalangeal joint D. Proximal interphalangeal joint 9 / 50 9. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Pericarditis C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. ulcerative colitis 10 / 50 10. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Hyperostosis B. Vasculitis C. Malar rash D. Pulmonary nodules 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Wilson's disease B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Myasthenia gravis D. Pemphigus 12 / 50 12. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. High viscosity B. Low complement CH50 C. Cloudy in colour D. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 13 / 50 13. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 50% cases B. 35% cases C. 20% cases D. 70% cases 14 / 50 14. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 15 / 50 15. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Liver B. Lung C. Central nervous system D. Kidney 16 / 50 16. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Drug-induced SLE D. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) 17 / 50 17. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Joints of hands B. Spine C. Metatarsophalangeal joint D. Knee joint 18 / 50 18. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Tumour necrosis factor-a D. Interleukin-2 19 / 50 19. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Pericarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Aortic incompetence D. Myocarditis 20 / 50 20. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Cranial arteritis B. Retinal vein thrombosis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 21 / 50 21. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Salmonella C. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci D. Staphylococcus aureus 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Bullous lesion B. Erythema nodosum C. Panniculitis D. Periungual erythema 23 / 50 23. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders B. Central nervous system involvement is common C. Anti-histone antibodies are present D. Nephritis is rare 24 / 50 24. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. DR3 C. B8 D. B 27 25 / 50 25. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra B. Olmesartan C. Benzbromarone D. Pegloticase 26 / 50 26. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Exophthalmos B. Esophageal Hypomotility C. Endomyocardia D. Edema 27 / 50 27. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Bromocriptine B. Amiodarone C. Finasteride D. Amantadine 28 / 50 28. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Sacroiliitis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Iritis D. Enthesopathy 29 / 50 29. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Amyloidosis B. Leprosy C. Frostbite D. Vasculitis 30 / 50 30. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Reactive arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Ankylosing spondylitis 31 / 50 31. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Rickets B. Osteoarthritis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoporosis 32 / 50 32. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Hyperglobulinaemia B. Eosinophilia C. Dysphagia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 33 / 50 33. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. SLE 34 / 50 34. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgM B. IgA C. lgG D. IgD 35 / 50 35. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Cochicine B. Allopurinol C. Benzbromarone D. Probenecid 36 / 50 36. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Bone pain C. Bone marrow failure D. High alkaline phosphatase 37 / 50 37. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics B. Working with vibrating tools C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 38 / 50 38. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Post-renal transplant B. Sickle cell disease C. Parachute diving D. Cushing's syndrome 39 / 50 39. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Hypocomplementemia C2 B. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency C. Excess of prostaglandin D2 D. Deficiency of leukotrienes 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Naproxen B. Leflunomide C. Sulphasalazine D. Hydroxychloroquine 41 / 50 41. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Dermatomyositis D. Ergot ingestion 42 / 50 42. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Carbamazepine B. Reserpine C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptives 43 / 50 43. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Salphasalazine C. Azathioprine D. Leflunomide 44 / 50 44. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Glutethimide B. Corticosteroid C. Statins D. Amphotericin B 45 / 50 45. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. COPD B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Mesothelioma of pleura 46 / 50 46. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Scleromalacia C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Anterior uveitis 47 / 50 47. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Polyarthritis B. Dactylitis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Osteomyelitis 48 / 50 48. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Staphylococcus B. Shigella C. Chlamydia D. Campylobacter 49 / 50 49. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteomalacia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Fluorosis D. Osteopetrosis 50 / 50 50. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant B. High CPK C. Female preponderance D. Focal point tenderness LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz