Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 54 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. SLE B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Sjogren's syndrome 2 / 50 2. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Lupus vulgaris C. Scleroderma D. Melasma 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Minimal lesion nephropathy B. Interstitial nephritis C. Membranous nephropathy D. Diffuse glomerulonephritis 4 / 50 4. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Renal failure B. Coronary artery aneurysm C. Hemiplegia D. Pleural effusion 5 / 50 5. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Alendronate B. Sodium fluoride C. Retinoids D. Calcipotriol 6 / 50 6. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Cataract C. Corneal deposits D. Maculopathy 7 / 50 7. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Tender B. Fixed to skin C. Ulcerate D. Big 8 / 50 8. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. COPD C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. Mesothelioma of pleura 9 / 50 9. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Kidney B. Upper respiratory tract C. Cardiovascular system D. Lower respiratory tract 10 / 50 10. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Sacroiliitis B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Maculopapular rash D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 11 / 50 11. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Vitamin D toxicity C. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection D. Scleroderma 12 / 50 12. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Dermatomyositis C. Ergot ingestion D. Hyperviscosity syndrome 13 / 50 13. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Osteoarthritis B. Polymyositis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Myasthenia gravis 14 / 50 14. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Scleroderma C. CREST syndrome D. Childhood dermatomyositis 15 / 50 15. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Staphylococcus B. Campylobacter C. Chlamydia D. Shigella 16 / 50 16. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polymyositis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 17 / 50 17. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Azathioprine C. Leflunomide D. Etanercept 18 / 50 18. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Leukaemia C. Gastrointestinal malignancy D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 19 / 50 19. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Bleomycin B. Pentazocine C. Vinyl chloride D. Hydralazine 20 / 50 20. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Hepatorenal syndrome B. Bronchial asthma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Vasculitis 21 / 50 21. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Gout B. Hemochromatosis C. Hyperphosphatasia D. Ochronosis 22 / 50 22. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-2 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Tumour necrosis factor-a D. Interleukin-6 23 / 50 23. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Depression B. Parkinsonism C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Scleroderma 24 / 50 24. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Acetaminophen B. Corticosteroids C. lbuprofen D. Diclofenac 25 / 50 25. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Polymyositis B. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. Drug-induced SLE 26 / 50 26. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Naftidrofuryl C. Methysergide D. Dimethyl sulfoxide 27 / 50 27. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Antinuclear antibodies B. CD4 lymphocyte count C. Rheumatoid factor D. ASO titre 28 / 50 28. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Osteoarthritis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Psoriasis D. Reiter's syndrome 29 / 50 29. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR3 B. B 27 C. B8 D. DR4 30 / 50 30. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Dysphagia C. Eosinophilia D. Hyperglobulinaemia 31 / 50 31. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Edema B. Exophthalmos C. Esophageal Hypomotility D. Endomyocardia 32 / 50 32. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Eosinophilia B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan D. Usually a self-limiting disease 33 / 50 33. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Lupus nephritis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Dermatomyositis with lung disease D. Sjogren's syndrome 34 / 50 34. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Isoniazid C. Phenytoin D. Ketoconazole 35 / 50 35. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Pericarditis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. ulcerative colitis D. Fibrosing alveolitis 36 / 50 36. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Allopurinol B. Celecoxib C. Colchicine D. Prednisolone 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Common in non-smokers B. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population C. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity D. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis 38 / 50 38. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 39 / 50 39. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Sjogren's syndrome 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of C-reactive protein B. Low serum level of complement C. High serum level of ANA D. High serum level of anti-dsDNA 41 / 50 41. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgM B. IgA C. lgG D. IgD 42 / 50 42. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Reactive arthritis 43 / 50 43. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Mesothelioma of pleura C. Metastatic tumour of lung D. Pachy dermoperiostitis 44 / 50 44. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. High B. Remains as normal C. Very low D. Low 45 / 50 45. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Pericarditis C. Myocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 46 / 50 46. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Erythema nodosum B. Asthma C. HBsAg positivity D. Mononeuritis multiplex 47 / 50 47. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Congenital syphilis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Chondrocalcinosis 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Sm B. Anti-Ro/La C. Anti-RNP D. Anti-ssDNA 49 / 50 49. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 50 / 50 50. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium oxalate B. Calcium phosphate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz