Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 52 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 2 / 50 2. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Females B. High-titre rheumatoid factor C. Delayed age of onset D. Low C3 3 / 50 3. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Esophageal Hypomotility B. Edema C. Exophthalmos D. Endomyocardia 4 / 50 4. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Scleroderma C. Lupus vulgaris D. Melasma 5 / 50 5. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-histone antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 6 / 50 6. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Danazol B. Diuretics C. Tropical corticosteroid D. Mineralocorticoids 7 / 50 7. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 70% cases B. 45% cases C. 30% cases D. 90% cases 8 / 50 8. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Dermatomyositis C. Hyperviscosity syndrome D. Ergot ingestion 9 / 50 9. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Lower respiratory tract B. Kidney C. Cardiovascular system D. Upper respiratory tract 10 / 50 10. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Spine B. Joints of hands C. Knee joint D. Metatarsophalangeal joint 11 / 50 11. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis B. Anaphylaxis C. Reversible lupus-syndrome D. Demyelination 12 / 50 12. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. SLE C. Myasthenia gravis D. Bronchial asthma 13 / 50 13. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Positive Rose-Waaler test C. Splenomegaly D. Maculopapular rash 14 / 50 14. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Pericarditis C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. ulcerative colitis 15 / 50 15. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgM B. lgG C. IgA D. IgD 16 / 50 16. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Dermatomyositis D. Osteoarthritis 17 / 50 17. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Scleroderma C. Myelofibrosis D. Primary biliary cirrhosis 18 / 50 18. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Central nervous system B. Liver C. Kidney D. Lung 19 / 50 19. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. SLE B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 20 / 50 20. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 3 joints C. 2 joints D. 4 joints 21 / 50 21. Lyme arthritis is: A. Viral infection B. Autoimmune disease C. Bacterial infection D. Tick-borne spirochetal infection 22 / 50 22. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Heals with scarring C. Telangiectasia D. Photosensitivity 23 / 50 23. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Gout D. SLE 24 / 50 24. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Rickets C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoarthritis 25 / 50 25. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Alcoholic cirrhosis 26 / 50 26. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Elevated muscle enzymes B. Very high ESR C. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip D. Early morning stiffness 27 / 50 27. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Vitamin D toxicity B. Scleroderma C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Wilson's disease B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Pemphigus D. Myasthenia gravis 29 / 50 29. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Hodgkin's disease C. Leukaemia D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 30 / 50 30. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. COPD 31 / 50 31. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Dermatomyositis with lung disease B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Lupus nephritis 32 / 50 32. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Hidebound chest syndrome B. Pneumoconiosis C. Shrinking lung syndrome D. Caplan's syndrome 33 / 50 33. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Depression C. Scleroderma D. Myotonic dystrophy 34 / 50 34. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Paget's disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Acromegaly 35 / 50 35. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Osteopetrosis 36 / 50 36. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Eosinophilia D. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan 37 / 50 37. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Dactylitis B. Polyarthritis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Osteomyelitis 38 / 50 38. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Reserpine B. Carbamazepine C. Oral contraceptives D. Rifampicin 39 / 50 39. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 40 / 50 40. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Reiter's syndrome D. Psoriatic arthropathy 41 / 50 41. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Circinate balanitis B. Keratoderma blenorrhagica C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Subungual hyperkeratosis 42 / 50 42. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Gout C. Hemochromatosis D. Ochronosis 43 / 50 43. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Pegloticase B. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra C. Benzbromarone D. Olmesartan 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Ro/La B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-ssDNA D. Anti-RNP 45 / 50 45. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Polymyositis 46 / 50 46. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Chondrocalcinosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Congenital syphilis D. Tabes dorsalis 47 / 50 47. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Crescentic glomerulonephritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Microscopic polyarteritis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 48 / 50 48. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Fluorosis B. Osteomalacia C. Hodgkin's disease D. Osteopetrosis 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Phalanges B. Pelvis C. Long bones of extremities D. Skull 50 / 50 50. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Vasculitis B. Bronchial asthma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Hepatorenal syndrome LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz