RheumatologyHome Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Metastatic tumour of lung C. Pachy dermoperiostitis D. Mesothelioma of pleura 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Minimal lesion nephropathy B. Diffuse glomerulonephritis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Membranous nephropathy 3 / 50 3. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Joints of hands B. Spine C. Metatarsophalangeal joint D. Knee joint 4 / 50 4. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Bronchial asthma D. SLE 5 / 50 5. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Dysphagia B. Eosinophilia C. Hyperglobulinaemia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 6 / 50 6. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Corticosteroid C. Glutethimide D. Amphotericin B 7 / 50 7. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. Exudative effusion C. Protein > 4 g/dl D. High CH50 8 / 50 8. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Sickle cell disease B. Cushing's syndrome C. Post-renal transplant D. Parachute diving 9 / 50 9. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. IgA C. lgM D. lgG 10 / 50 10. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Pentazocine B. Hydralazine C. Bleomycin D. Vinyl chloride 11 / 50 11. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. COPD 12 / 50 12. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Scleroderma B. Melasma C. SLE D. Lupus vulgaris 13 / 50 13. Lyme arthritis is: A. Autoimmune disease B. Bacterial infection C. Tick-borne spirochetal infection D. Viral infection 14 / 50 14. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Gout C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. SLE 15 / 50 15. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome C. Drug-induced SLE D. Polymyositis 16 / 50 16. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Osteopetrosis 17 / 50 17. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Crescentic glomerulonephritis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Wegener's granulomatosis 18 / 50 18. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Glucocorticoids C. Interferon D. Azathioprine 19 / 50 19. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Psoriatic arthropathy 20 / 50 20. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Osteoarthritis D. Myasthenia gravis 21 / 50 21. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Middle-aged females B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Gout 22 / 50 22. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Scleroderma B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Polymyositis D. Myelofibrosis 23 / 50 23. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Positive Rose-Waaler test B. Splenomegaly C. Maculopapular rash D. Lymphadenopathy 24 / 50 24. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals 25 / 50 25. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Temporal arteritis 26 / 50 26. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Working with vibrating tools C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-ssDNA B. Anti-RNP C. Anti-Ro/La D. Anti-Sm 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Wilson's disease B. Pemphigus C. Myasthenia gravis D. Nephrotic syndrome 29 / 50 29. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Tropical corticosteroid B. Diuretics C. Mineralocorticoids D. Danazol 30 / 50 30. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Dermatomyositis D. Osteoarthritis 31 / 50 31. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. SLE D. Sjogren's syndrome 32 / 50 32. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Edema B. Exophthalmos C. Endomyocardia D. Esophageal Hypomotility 33 / 50 33. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Tender B. Big C. Ulcerate D. Fixed to skin 34 / 50 34. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine C. Amiodarone D. Finasteride 35 / 50 35. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Benzbromarone B. Pegloticase C. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra D. Olmesartan 36 / 50 36. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Haemophilic arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Aortic incompetence B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Acute pulmonary fibrosis D. Amyloidosis 38 / 50 38. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Vasculitis B. Bronchial asthma C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Leflunomide B. Naproxen C. Sulphasalazine D. Hydroxychloroquine 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Skull B. Phalanges C. Long bones of extremities D. Pelvis 41 / 50 41. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 42 / 50 42. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Hemophilia B. Fibromyalgia C. Depression D. Myxoedema 43 / 50 43. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Anaphylaxis B. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis C. Reversible lupus-syndrome D. Demyelination 44 / 50 44. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Bell's palsy C. Intense headache D. Jaw claudication 45 / 50 45. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Leflunomide C. Salphasalazine D. Azathioprine 46 / 50 46. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Scleroderma 47 / 50 47. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Campylobacter B. Shigella C. Chlamydia D. Staphylococcus 48 / 50 48. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Kidney B. Lower respiratory tract C. Upper respiratory tract D. Cardiovascular system 49 / 50 49. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Central nervous system B. Pulmonary C. Cardiac D. Renal 50 / 50 50. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Keratoderma blenorrhagica B. Subungual hyperkeratosis C. Circinate balanitis D. 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