RheumatologyHome Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Behcet's syndrome C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reiter's syndrome 2 / 50 2. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Deficiency of leukotrienes B. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency C. Excess of prostaglandin D2 D. Hypocomplementemia C2 3 / 50 3. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Pachy dermoperiostitis B. Mesothelioma of pleura C. Metastatic tumour of lung D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 4 / 50 4. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Vasculitis C. Age of onset 20-25 yrs D. Thrombocytopenia 5 / 50 5. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Working with vibrating tools 6 / 50 6. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Allopurinol C. Benzbromarone D. Cochicine 7 / 50 7. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Bronchial asthma B. Myasthenia gravis C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. SLE 8 / 50 8. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Dermatomyositis with lung disease B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Lupus nephritis 9 / 50 9. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. ulcerative colitis C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Pericarditis 10 / 50 10. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Salmonella D. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci 11 / 50 11. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. Extra-articular manifestations C. High titre of rheumatoid factor D. Acute onset of disease 12 / 50 12. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Corticosteroid therapy C. Decompression sickness D. Sickle cell disease 13 / 50 13. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. High CPK B. Female preponderance C. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant D. Focal point tenderness 14 / 50 14. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Reactive arthritis 15 / 50 15. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium oxalate C. Calcium phosphate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Wilson's disease D. Pemphigus 17 / 50 17. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Dermatomyositis B. Rheumatic fever C. Cysticercosis D. Leprosy 18 / 50 18. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Glandular fever C. Leprosy D. Yaws 19 / 50 19. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan C. Eosinophilia D. Usually a self-limiting disease 20 / 50 20. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Reactive arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Ankylosing spondylitis 21 / 50 21. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Sclerodactyly B. Livedo reticularis C. Digital infarcts D. Pseudoclubbing 22 / 50 22. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 2 joints B. 3 joints C. 1 joint D. 4 joints 23 / 50 23. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Tumour necrosis factor-a D. Interleukin-2 24 / 50 24. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteomalacia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Osteopetrosis D. Fluorosis 25 / 50 25. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Liver B. Central nervous system C. Kidney D. Lung 26 / 50 26. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints B. Sacroiliitis C. Negative Rose-Waaler test D. Maculopapular rash 27 / 50 27. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Leflunomide B. Salphasalazine C. Azathioprine D. Etanercept 28 / 50 28. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. SLE B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 29 / 50 29. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine C. Amiodarone D. Finasteride 30 / 50 30. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Ochronosis B. Hemochromatosis C. Hyperphosphatasia D. Gout 31 / 50 31. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Psoriasis D. Reiter's syndrome 32 / 50 32. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reversible lupus-syndrome B. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis C. Anaphylaxis D. Demyelination 33 / 50 33. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders B. Nephritis is rare C. Anti-histone antibodies are present D. Central nervous system involvement is common 34 / 50 34. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Scleromalacia B. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca C. Anterior uveitis D. Episderitis 35 / 50 35. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Rickets B. Osteomalacia C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteoporosis 36 / 50 36. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Spine B. Metatarsophalangeal joint C. Knee joint D. Joints of hands 37 / 50 37. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Metacarpophalangeal joint B. Proximal interphalangeal joint C. Carpometacarpal joint D. Distal interphalangeal joint 38 / 50 38. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Ergot ingestion C. Dermatomyositis D. Coarctation of aorta 39 / 50 39. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Myelofibrosis C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Scleroderma 40 / 50 40. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Osteomyelitis B. Polyarthritis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Dactylitis 41 / 50 41. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Dermatomyositis C. Osteoarthritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 42 / 50 42. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Haemophilic arthritis 43 / 50 43. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 44 / 50 44. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. HBsAg positivity B. Asthma C. Erythema nodosum D. Mononeuritis multiplex 45 / 50 45. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-Jo1 antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-histone antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 46 / 50 46. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Heart block D. Alveolar cell neoplasm 47 / 50 47. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Very low B. Remains as normal C. Low D. High 48 / 50 48. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. become white B. Turn blue C. Turn red D. Remain unchanged 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of anti-dsDNA B. High serum level of C-reactive protein C. High serum level of ANA D. Low serum level of complement 50 / 50 50. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Methysergide B. Naftidrofuryl C. Dimethyl sulfoxide D. Propranolol LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz