Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 55 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Heart block C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Alveolar cell neoplasm 2 / 50 2. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Bell's palsy C. Intense headache D. Jaw claudication 3 / 50 3. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Mesothelioma of pleura B. Pachy dermoperiostitis C. Metastatic tumour of lung D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 4 / 50 4. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis 5 / 50 5. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Low C3 B. Females C. Delayed age of onset D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 6 / 50 6. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Proximal interphalangeal joint B. Carpometacarpal joint C. Distal interphalangeal joint D. Metacarpophalangeal joint 7 / 50 7. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Leprosy B. Frostbite C. Vasculitis D. Amyloidosis 8 / 50 8. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-RNP antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-histone antibody D. Anti-Jo1 antibody 9 / 50 9. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip B. Elevated muscle enzymes C. Very high ESR D. Early morning stiffness 10 / 50 10. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 80% cases B. 95% cases C. 70% cases D. 60% cases 11 / 50 11. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-2 B. Interleukin-6 C. Tumour necrosis factor-a D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Membranous nephropathy C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Diffuse glomerulonephritis 13 / 50 13. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Positive Rose-Waaler test C. Splenomegaly D. Maculopapular rash 14 / 50 14. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Lower respiratory tract B. Upper respiratory tract C. Kidney D. Cardiovascular system 15 / 50 15. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Shigella C. Staphylococcus D. Campylobacter 16 / 50 16. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Dermatomyositis with lung disease B. Lupus nephritis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Sjogren's syndrome 17 / 50 17. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Allergic rhinitis B. Epistaxis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Sinusitis 18 / 50 18. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns B. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients C. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated D. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles 19 / 50 19. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Scleroderma B. CREST syndrome C. Childhood dermatomyositis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 20 / 50 20. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Haemophilic arthritis 21 / 50 21. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Primary amyloidosis B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Pregnancy D. Acromegaly 22 / 50 22. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Ulcerate B. Fixed to skin C. Tender D. Big 23 / 50 23. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Corticosteroids B. lbuprofen C. Diclofenac D. Acetaminophen 24 / 50 24. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Spine B. Joints of hands C. Knee joint D. Metatarsophalangeal joint 25 / 50 25. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Leukaemia C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 26 / 50 26. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Antinuclear antibodies B. ASO titre C. CD4 lymphocyte count D. Rheumatoid factor 27 / 50 27. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Dysphagia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Eosinophilia D. Hyperglobulinaemia 28 / 50 28. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Depression B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Parkinsonism D. Scleroderma 29 / 50 29. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteopetrosis B. Osteomalacia C. Fluorosis D. Hodgkin's disease 30 / 50 30. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Cochicine B. Benzbromarone C. Allopurinol D. Probenecid 31 / 50 31. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Anterior uveitis B. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca C. Scleromalacia D. Episderitis 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Skull B. Pelvis C. Phalanges D. Long bones of extremities 33 / 50 33. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine C. Amiodarone D. Finasteride 34 / 50 34. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Mixed connective tissue disease B. Scleroderma C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 35 / 50 35. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Alcoholic cirrhosis C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 36 / 50 36. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Reactive arthritis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 37 / 50 37. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. High alkaline phosphatase B. Bone marrow failure C. Bone pain D. Hypercalcemia 38 / 50 38. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Vasculitis B. Bronchial asthma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Hepatorenal syndrome 39 / 50 39. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. B8 C. DR3 D. B 27 40 / 50 40. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Middle-aged females C. Hypertension D. Gout 41 / 50 41. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Osteoarthritis 42 / 50 42. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Lyme arthritis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis D. Reiter's syndrome 43 / 50 43. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Liver B. Lung C. Kidney D. Central nervous system 44 / 50 44. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Behcet's syndrome 45 / 50 45. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Leprosy C. Cysticercosis D. Dermatomyositis 46 / 50 46. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Ankylosing spondylitis 47 / 50 47. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Vinyl chloride B. Hydralazine C. Bleomycin D. Pentazocine 48 / 50 48. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Psoriasis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Osteoarthritis D. Reiter's syndrome 49 / 50 49. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 30% cases B. 70% cases C. 90% cases D. 45% cases 50 / 50 50. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Myxoedema B. Hemophilia C. Depression D. 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