Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 55 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis 2 / 50 2. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Sjogren's syndrome 3 / 50 3. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 70% cases B. 90% cases C. 30% cases D. 45% cases 4 / 50 4. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombophlebitis B. Genital ulceration C. Urethritis D. Meningoencephalitis 5 / 50 5. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Very low B. Remains as normal C. Low D. High 6 / 50 6. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Scleromalacia B. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca C. Episderitis D. Anterior uveitis 7 / 50 7. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Eosinophilia B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan 8 / 50 8. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Kidney B. Cardiovascular system C. Upper respiratory tract D. Lower respiratory tract 9 / 50 9. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Osteopetrosis C. Fluorosis D. Osteomalacia 10 / 50 10. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type II B. Type I C. Type IV D. Type III 11 / 50 11. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Lupus vulgaris B. SLE C. Melasma D. Scleroderma 12 / 50 12. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. DR3 C. B8 D. B 27 13 / 50 13. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Osteopetrosis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 14 / 50 14. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Demyelination B. Anaphylaxis C. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis D. Reversible lupus-syndrome 15 / 50 15. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgG B. IgD C. lgM D. IgA 16 / 50 16. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Maculopathy B. Cataract C. Corneal deposits D. Optic atrophy 17 / 50 17. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. ulcerative colitis B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. Pericarditis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 18 / 50 18. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Scleroderma B. CREST syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Childhood dermatomyositis 19 / 50 19. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Gastrointestinal malignancy C. Hodgkin's disease D. Leukaemia 20 / 50 20. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Paget's disease D. Acromegaly 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Long bones of extremities B. Pelvis C. Phalanges D. Skull 22 / 50 22. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Myelofibrosis B. Polymyositis C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Scleroderma 23 / 50 23. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Rickets C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteomalacia 24 / 50 24. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Splenomegaly C. Maculopapular rash D. Positive Rose-Waaler test 25 / 50 25. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Hyperostosis B. Vasculitis C. Pulmonary nodules D. Malar rash 26 / 50 26. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Females B. Low C3 C. High-titre rheumatoid factor D. Delayed age of onset 27 / 50 27. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Fibromyalgia B. Myxoedema C. Hemophilia D. Depression 28 / 50 28. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-Jo1 antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-RNP antibody D. Anti-histone antibody 29 / 50 29. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Alveolar cell neoplasm C. Heart block D. Pulmonary hypertension 30 / 50 30. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Campylobacter C. Shigella D. Staphylococcus 31 / 50 31. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Reactive arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Ankylosing spondylitis 32 / 50 32. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Knee joint B. Joints of hands C. Metatarsophalangeal joint D. Spine 33 / 50 33. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Vinyl chloride B. Hydralazine C. Pentazocine D. Bleomycin 34 / 50 34. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 35 / 50 35. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Osteoarthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 36 / 50 36. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Isoniazid B. Glucocorticoids C. Ketoconazole D. Phenytoin 37 / 50 37. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Rifampicin B. Reserpine C. Oral contraceptives D. Carbamazepine 38 / 50 38. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Early morning stiffness B. Elevated muscle enzymes C. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip D. Very high ESR 39 / 50 39. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Salmonella D. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci 40 / 50 40. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium phosphate C. Calcium oxalate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 41 / 50 41. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Bronchial asthma B. Myasthenia gravis C. SLE D. Primary biliary cirrhosis 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Mitral stenosis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Acute pulmonary fibrosis D. Pericarditis 43 / 50 43. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polymyositis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Behcet's syndrome 44 / 50 44. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Anti-histone antibodies are present B. Nephritis is rare C. Central nervous system involvement is common D. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders 45 / 50 45. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Intense headache C. Jaw claudication D. Bell's palsy 46 / 50 46. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Churg-Strauss syndrome B. Temporal arteritis C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Polyarteritis nodosa 47 / 50 47. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Acetaminophen B. lbuprofen C. Corticosteroids D. Diclofenac 48 / 50 48. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 95% cases B. 60% cases C. 70% cases D. 80% cases 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Panniculitis B. Erythema nodosum C. Periungual erythema D. Bullous lesion 50 / 50 50. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Microscopic polyarteritis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz