Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 54 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Sm B. Anti-ssDNA C. Anti-RNP D. Anti-Ro/La 2 / 50 2. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Alveolar cell neoplasm C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Heart block 3 / 50 3. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Haemophilic arthritis 4 / 50 4. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Vitamin D toxicity C. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection D. Scleroderma 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of anti-dsDNA B. High serum level of ANA C. Low serum level of complement D. High serum level of C-reactive protein 6 / 50 6. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Danazol B. Diuretics C. Tropical corticosteroid D. Mineralocorticoids 7 / 50 7. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Polyarthritis B. Osteomyelitis C. Dactylitis D. Avascular necrosis of bone 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Acute pulmonary fibrosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Amyloidosis D. Aortic incompetence 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Erythema nodosum B. Bullous lesion C. Panniculitis D. Periungual erythema 10 / 50 10. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Congenital syphilis D. Chondrocalcinosis 11 / 50 11. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Distal interphalangeal joint B. Carpometacarpal joint C. Proximal interphalangeal joint D. Metacarpophalangeal joint 12 / 50 12. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Edema B. Endomyocardia C. Esophageal Hypomotility D. Exophthalmos 13 / 50 13. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type III B. Type IV C. Type I D. Type II 14 / 50 14. Lyme arthritis is: A. Viral infection B. Bacterial infection C. Autoimmune disease D. Tick-borne spirochetal infection 15 / 50 15. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 16 / 50 16. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Interferon C. Glucocorticoids D. Azathioprine 17 / 50 17. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Remains as normal B. Low C. Very low D. High 18 / 50 18. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. SLE B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout 19 / 50 19. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Staphylococcus C. Shigella D. Campylobacter 20 / 50 20. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Coronary artery aneurysm B. Pleural effusion C. Renal failure D. Hemiplegia 21 / 50 21. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 70% cases B. 35% cases C. 50% cases D. 20% cases 22 / 50 22. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. High CH50 B. Exudative effusion C. Protein > 4 g/dl D. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl 23 / 50 23. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Maculopathy B. Cataract C. Corneal deposits D. Optic atrophy 24 / 50 24. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Bleomycin B. Vinyl chloride C. Pentazocine D. Hydralazine 25 / 50 25. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. Cloudy in colour B. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 C. High viscosity D. Low complement CH50 26 / 50 26. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amiodarone B. Bromocriptine C. Amantadine D. Finasteride 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis B. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity C. Common in non-smokers D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Naproxen B. Leflunomide C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Sulphasalazine 29 / 50 29. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 30 / 50 30. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Colchicine B. Prednisolone C. Allopurinol D. Celecoxib 31 / 50 31. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 45% cases B. 30% cases C. 70% cases D. 90% cases 32 / 50 32. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Osteopetrosis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Reiter's syndrome 33 / 50 33. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Corticosteroid therapy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Decompression sickness D. Sickle cell disease 34 / 50 34. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Salmonella B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci 35 / 50 35. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteopetrosis B. Fluorosis C. Osteomalacia D. Hodgkin's disease 36 / 50 36. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Sickle cell disease B. Cushing's syndrome C. Post-renal transplant D. Parachute diving 37 / 50 37. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Dermatomyositis C. Osteoarthritis D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 38 / 50 38. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 4 joints B. 2 joints C. 3 joints D. 1 joint 39 / 50 39. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Middle-aged females B. Gout C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus 40 / 50 40. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Wilson's disease D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 41 / 50 41. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Allopurinol C. Probenecid D. Cochicine 42 / 50 42. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Subungual hyperkeratosis B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Keratoderma blenorrhagica D. Circinate balanitis 43 / 50 43. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Scleroderma C. Childhood dermatomyositis D. CREST syndrome 44 / 50 44. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Myelofibrosis B. Polymyositis C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Scleroderma 45 / 50 45. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Tumour necrosis factor-a D. Interleukin-2 46 / 50 46. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Churg-Strauss syndrome B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Temporal arteritis 47 / 50 47. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Kidney C. Lower respiratory tract D. Upper respiratory tract 48 / 50 48. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated B. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients D. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns 49 / 50 49. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Osteoarthritis 50 / 50 50. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Behcet's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Reactive arthritis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz