Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Diclofenac B. Corticosteroids C. Acetaminophen D. lbuprofen 2 / 50 2. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Rheumatic fever C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Sarcoidosis 3 / 50 3. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Metastatic tumour of lung B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Pachy dermoperiostitis 4 / 50 4. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Primary amyloidosis C. Pregnancy D. Acromegaly 5 / 50 5. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Anterior uveitis C. Scleromalacia D. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 6 / 50 6. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polymyositis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Behcet's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 7 / 50 7. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Carbamazepine B. Reserpine C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptives 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-RNP B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-Ro/La D. Anti-ssDNA 9 / 50 9. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Tropical corticosteroid B. Diuretics C. Mineralocorticoids D. Danazol 10 / 50 10. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Gastrointestinal malignancy B. Hodgkin's disease C. Leukaemia D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 11 / 50 11. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Excess of prostaglandin D2 B. Deficiency of leukotrienes C. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency D. Hypocomplementemia C2 12 / 50 12. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. SLE 13 / 50 13. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Gout B. SLE C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 14 / 50 14. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Acute onset of disease B. High titre of rheumatoid factor C. Early development of nodules D. Extra-articular manifestations 15 / 50 15. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Paget's disease C. Primary hyperparathyroidism D. Acromegaly 16 / 50 16. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals 17 / 50 17. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Presence of lupus anticoagulant B. Chronic renal failure C. Overlap syndrome D. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody 18 / 50 18. Lyme arthritis is: A. Tick-borne spirochetal infection B. Autoimmune disease C. Viral infection D. Bacterial infection 19 / 50 19. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombophlebitis B. Meningoencephalitis C. Genital ulceration D. Urethritis 20 / 50 20. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Decompression sickness B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Corticosteroid therapy D. Sickle cell disease 21 / 50 21. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 2 joints C. 3 joints D. 4 joints 22 / 50 22. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Vasculitis C. Bronchial asthma D. Hepatorenal syndrome 23 / 50 23. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Pericarditis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. ulcerative colitis D. Fibrosing alveolitis 24 / 50 24. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Female preponderance B. Focal point tenderness C. High CPK D. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Pericarditis B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Mitral stenosis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 26 / 50 26. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Dysphagia B. Hyperglobulinaemia C. Eosinophilia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 27 / 50 27. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Pentazocine B. Bleomycin C. Vinyl chloride D. Hydralazine 28 / 50 28. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Psoriatic arthropathy 29 / 50 29. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. SLE C. Myasthenia gravis D. Bronchial asthma 30 / 50 30. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Coronary artery aneurysm B. Hemiplegia C. Renal failure D. Pleural effusion 31 / 50 31. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Haemophilic arthritis 32 / 50 32. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-histone antibody B. Anti-RNP antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-centromere antibody 33 / 50 33. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 30% cases B. 70% cases C. 90% cases D. 45% cases 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Leflunomide B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Naproxen D. Sulphasalazine 35 / 50 35. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium oxalate 36 / 50 36. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Hemochromatosis C. Ochronosis D. Gout 37 / 50 37. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. Exudative effusion C. High CH50 D. Protein > 4 g/dl 38 / 50 38. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Lupus nephritis B. Dermatomyositis with lung disease C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 39 / 50 39. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Melasma C. Lupus vulgaris D. Scleroderma 40 / 50 40. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Retinoids B. Calcipotriol C. Sodium fluoride D. Alendronate 41 / 50 41. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Subungual hyperkeratosis B. Keratoderma blenorrhagica C. Circinate balanitis D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 42 / 50 42. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Rheumatoid factor B. CD4 lymphocyte count C. Antinuclear antibodies D. ASO titre 43 / 50 43. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 60% cases B. 80% cases C. 95% cases D. 70% cases 44 / 50 44. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Salmonella 45 / 50 45. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Interleukin-2 D. Tumour necrosis factor-a 46 / 50 46. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. De Quervains' tenosynovitis C. Dupuytren's contracture D. Cervical rib 47 / 50 47. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Staphylococcus B. Chlamydia C. Shigella D. Campylobacter 48 / 50 48. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Chondrocalcinosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Congenital syphilis 49 / 50 49. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type III B. Type I C. Type IV D. Type II 50 / 50 50. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. B8 C. DR3 D. B 27 LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz