Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 54 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Diclofenac B. lbuprofen C. Corticosteroids D. Acetaminophen 2 / 50 2. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Proximal interphalangeal joint B. Distal interphalangeal joint C. Metacarpophalangeal joint D. Carpometacarpal joint 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Periungual erythema B. Erythema nodosum C. Bullous lesion D. Panniculitis 4 / 50 4. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Bone marrow failure C. High alkaline phosphatase D. Bone pain 5 / 50 5. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 6 / 50 6. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Joints of hands B. Knee joint C. Metatarsophalangeal joint D. Spine 7 / 50 7. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints C. Negative Rose-Waaler test D. Sacroiliitis 8 / 50 8. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Bronchial asthma B. Hepatorenal syndrome C. Vasculitis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 9 / 50 9. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Olmesartan B. Benzbromarone C. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra D. Pegloticase 10 / 50 10. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Sodium fluoride B. Retinoids C. Alendronate D. Calcipotriol 11 / 50 11. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Myasthenia gravis B. SLE C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Bronchial asthma 12 / 50 12. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Haemophilic arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Minimal lesion nephropathy B. Membranous nephropathy C. Diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Interstitial nephritis 14 / 50 14. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Eosinophilia B. Dysphagia C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Hyperglobulinaemia 15 / 50 15. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 16 / 50 16. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-RNP antibody B. Anti-histone antibody C. Anti-centromere antibody D. Anti-Jo1 antibody 17 / 50 17. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. High titre of rheumatoid factor C. Extra-articular manifestations D. Acute onset of disease 18 / 50 18. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate B. Calcium phosphate C. Calcium oxalate D. Monosodium urate 19 / 50 19. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Delayed age of onset C. Low C3 D. Females 20 / 50 20. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Keratoderma blenorrhagica B. Subungual hyperkeratosis C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Circinate balanitis 21 / 50 21. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Sclerodactyly B. Livedo reticularis C. Pseudoclubbing D. Digital infarcts 22 / 50 22. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gout C. Middle-aged females D. Hypertension 23 / 50 23. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Leukaemia C. Hodgkin's disease D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 24 / 50 24. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant B. Focal point tenderness C. Female preponderance D. High CPK 25 / 50 25. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B 27 B. DR3 C. B8 D. DR4 26 / 50 26. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Hypocomplementemia C2 B. Deficiency of leukotrienes C. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency D. Excess of prostaglandin D2 27 / 50 27. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Behcet's syndrome 28 / 50 28. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Decompression sickness C. Sickle cell disease D. Corticosteroid therapy 29 / 50 29. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Temporal arteritis 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-RNP B. Anti-ssDNA C. Anti-Sm D. Anti-Ro/La 31 / 50 31. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Fluorosis B. Osteomalacia C. Hodgkin's disease D. Osteopetrosis 32 / 50 32. Lyme arthritis is: A. Autoimmune disease B. Tick-borne spirochetal infection C. Bacterial infection D. Viral infection 33 / 50 33. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Upper respiratory tract C. Kidney D. Lower respiratory tract 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Pericarditis B. Mitral stenosis C. Acute pulmonary fibrosis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 35 / 50 35. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Rheumatoid factor B. CD4 lymphocyte count C. Antinuclear antibodies D. ASO titre 36 / 50 36. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Cochicine B. Benzbromarone C. Allopurinol D. Probenecid 37 / 50 37. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Acromegaly B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Paget's disease 38 / 50 38. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Sacroiliitis B. Enthesopathy C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Iritis 39 / 50 39. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Yaws B. Leprosy C. Antiphospholipid syndrome D. Glandular fever 40 / 50 40. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 41 / 50 41. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Dermatomyositis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Osteoarthritis 42 / 50 42. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Chondrocalcinosis B. Congenital syphilis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Tabes dorsalis 43 / 50 43. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Depression B. Fibromyalgia C. Myxoedema D. Hemophilia 44 / 50 44. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Working with vibrating tools 45 / 50 45. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Nephritis is rare B. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders C. Central nervous system involvement is common D. Anti-histone antibodies are present 46 / 50 46. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Malar rash B. Vasculitis C. Hyperostosis D. Pulmonary nodules 47 / 50 47. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Bleomycin B. Vinyl chloride C. Hydralazine D. Pentazocine 48 / 50 48. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Finasteride C. Amiodarone D. Bromocriptine 49 / 50 49. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Scleroderma 50 / 50 50. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. COPD C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Fibrosing alveolitis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz