RheumatologyHome Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. CREST syndrome C. Scleroderma D. Childhood dermatomyositis 2 / 50 2. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Osteopetrosis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 3 / 50 3. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. lbuprofen B. Corticosteroids C. Diclofenac D. Acetaminophen 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Pericarditis B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Mitral stenosis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 5 / 50 5. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Sacroiliitis B. Enthesopathy C. Iritis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 6 / 50 6. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. lgG C. IgA D. lgM 7 / 50 7. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Finasteride B. Amiodarone C. Bromocriptine D. Amantadine 8 / 50 8. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Esophageal Hypomotility B. Exophthalmos C. Edema D. Endomyocardia 9 / 50 9. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Upper respiratory tract B. Lower respiratory tract C. Cardiovascular system D. Kidney 10 / 50 10. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Hyperviscosity syndrome C. Ergot ingestion D. Dermatomyositis 11 / 50 11. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. SLE B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 12 / 50 12. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Lupus nephritis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Dermatomyositis with lung disease D. Sjogren's syndrome 13 / 50 13. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 14 / 50 14. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Fixed to skin B. Ulcerate C. Tender D. Big 15 / 50 15. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Cataract B. Optic atrophy C. Maculopathy D. Corneal deposits 16 / 50 16. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia D. Rickets 17 / 50 17. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Interleukin-2 D. Tumour necrosis factor-a 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Phalanges B. Pelvis C. Long bones of extremities D. Skull 19 / 50 19. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Amphotericin B C. Glutethimide D. Corticosteroid 20 / 50 20. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. High CH50 B. Exudative effusion C. Protein > 4 g/dl D. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl 21 / 50 21. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Circinate balanitis C. Subungual hyperkeratosis D. Keratoderma blenorrhagica 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of ANA B. High serum level of anti-dsDNA C. Low serum level of complement D. High serum level of C-reactive protein 23 / 50 23. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Danazol B. Tropical corticosteroid C. Diuretics D. Mineralocorticoids 24 / 50 24. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Caplan's syndrome B. Pneumoconiosis C. Hidebound chest syndrome D. Shrinking lung syndrome 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Wilson's disease B. Myasthenia gravis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Pemphigus 26 / 50 26. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. De Quervains' tenosynovitis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Cervical rib D. Dupuytren's contracture 27 / 50 27. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 28 / 50 28. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Behcet's syndrome C. Lyme arthritis D. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis 29 / 50 29. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Depression B. Parkinsonism C. Scleroderma D. Myotonic dystrophy 30 / 50 30. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Vinyl chloride B. Pentazocine C. Hydralazine D. Bleomycin 31 / 50 31. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Middle-aged females B. Gout C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypertension 32 / 50 32. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Scleroderma C. Melasma D. Lupus vulgaris 33 / 50 33. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypercalcemia B. High alkaline phosphatase C. Bone pain D. Bone marrow failure 34 / 50 34. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody B. Presence of lupus anticoagulant C. Overlap syndrome D. Chronic renal failure 35 / 50 35. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. Mesothelioma of pleura C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. COPD 36 / 50 36. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Positive Rose-Waaler test B. Splenomegaly C. Lymphadenopathy D. Maculopapular rash 37 / 50 37. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Osteoarthritis D. Reactive arthritis 38 / 50 38. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. High viscosity B. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 C. Cloudy in colour D. Low complement CH50 39 / 50 39. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Dermatomyositis D. Osteoarthritis 40 / 50 40. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Vasculitis C. Lymphadenopathy D. Age of onset 20-25 yrs 41 / 50 41. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Extra-articular manifestations B. High titre of rheumatoid factor C. Early development of nodules D. Acute onset of disease 42 / 50 42. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 43 / 50 43. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Working with vibrating tools C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics 44 / 50 44. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Naftidrofuryl C. Dimethyl sulfoxide D. Methysergide 45 / 50 45. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Myocarditis B. Aortic incompetence C. Pericarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 46 / 50 46. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Cysticercosis B. Dermatomyositis C. Rheumatic fever D. Leprosy 47 / 50 47. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reactive arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 48 / 50 48. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca B. Episderitis C. Scleromalacia D. Anterior uveitis 49 / 50 49. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Anti-histone antibodies are present B. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders C. Central nervous system involvement is common D. Nephritis is rare 50 / 50 50. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Eosinophilia C. Dysphagia D. 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