Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. CREST syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Childhood dermatomyositis D. Scleroderma 2 / 50 2. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Delayed age of onset B. Low C3 C. Females D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 3 / 50 3. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amiodarone B. Amantadine C. Bromocriptine D. Finasteride 4 / 50 4. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics B. Alcoholic cirrhosis C. Working with vibrating tools D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 5 / 50 5. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Haemophilic arthritis 6 / 50 6. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. Protein > 4 g/dl C. High CH50 D. Exudative effusion 7 / 50 7. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-centromere antibody B. Anti-histone antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 8 / 50 8. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Churg-Strauss syndrome B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Temporal arteritis 9 / 50 9. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection B. Scleroderma C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Hyperparathyroidism 10 / 50 10. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Positive Rose-Waaler test C. Splenomegaly D. Maculopapular rash 11 / 50 11. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Reiter's syndrome C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Behcet's syndrome 12 / 50 12. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Pulmonary infiltrates B. Polyserositis C. Renal involvement D. Polyarthritis 13 / 50 13. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Acetaminophen B. Corticosteroids C. Diclofenac D. lbuprofen 14 / 50 14. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Alveolar cell neoplasm C. Heart block D. Pulmonary hypertension 15 / 50 15. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. High viscosity B. Cloudy in colour C. Low complement CH50 D. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 16 / 50 16. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 30% cases B. 90% cases C. 45% cases D. 70% cases 17 / 50 17. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Demyelination B. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis C. Reversible lupus-syndrome D. Anaphylaxis 18 / 50 18. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Esophageal Hypomotility B. Edema C. Exophthalmos D. Endomyocardia 19 / 50 19. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate B. Monosodium urate C. Calcium phosphate D. Calcium oxalate 20 / 50 20. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Azathioprine C. Etanercept D. Leflunomide 21 / 50 21. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Joints of hands B. Knee joint C. Metatarsophalangeal joint D. Spine 22 / 50 22. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Epistaxis C. Sinusitis D. Allergic rhinitis 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-RNP B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-Ro/La D. Anti-ssDNA 24 / 50 24. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Middle-aged females B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Gout 25 / 50 25. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Lung B. Central nervous system C. Liver D. Kidney 26 / 50 26. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Sacroiliitis C. Negative Rose-Waaler test D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 27 / 50 27. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Erythema nodosum C. HBsAg positivity D. Asthma 28 / 50 28. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Acromegaly B. Paget's disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Primary hyperparathyroidism 29 / 50 29. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Crescentic glomerulonephritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Microscopic polyarteritis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Erythema nodosum B. Panniculitis C. Periungual erythema D. Bullous lesion 31 / 50 31. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 3 joints B. 2 joints C. 4 joints D. 1 joint 32 / 50 32. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Osteopetrosis 33 / 50 33. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Polymyositis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Behcet's syndrome 34 / 50 34. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Benzbromarone B. Cochicine C. Probenecid D. Allopurinol 35 / 50 35. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Female preponderance B. Focal point tenderness C. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant D. High CPK 36 / 50 36. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Fibromyalgia B. Myxoedema C. Depression D. Hemophilia 37 / 50 37. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. High alkaline phosphatase B. Bone pain C. Bone marrow failure D. Hypercalcemia 38 / 50 38. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Cataract C. Maculopathy D. Corneal deposits 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Mitral stenosis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Pericarditis D. Acute pulmonary fibrosis 40 / 50 40. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Telangiectasia B. Photosensitivity C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Heals with scarring 41 / 50 41. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Naftidrofuryl C. Methysergide D. Dimethyl sulfoxide 42 / 50 42. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Rickets C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoarthritis 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Minimal lesion nephropathy B. Membranous nephropathy C. Interstitial nephritis D. Diffuse glomerulonephritis 44 / 50 44. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Leukaemia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 45 / 50 45. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgG B. lgM C. IgA D. IgD 46 / 50 46. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Coldness of the extremities B. Angioid streaks in retina C. Spontaneous fracture D. High-output cardiac failure 47 / 50 47. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Fluorosis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteopetrosis 48 / 50 48. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Shigella B. Chlamydia C. Staphylococcus D. Campylobacter 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Pemphigus C. Myasthenia gravis D. Wilson's disease 50 / 50 50. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Reactive arthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Psoriatic arthritis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz