Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Dysphagia C. Eosinophilia D. Hyperglobulinaemia 2 / 50 2. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Metacarpophalangeal joint B. Proximal interphalangeal joint C. Distal interphalangeal joint D. Carpometacarpal joint 3 / 50 3. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Haemophilic arthritis 4 / 50 4. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Circinate balanitis B. Keratoderma blenorrhagica C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Subungual hyperkeratosis 5 / 50 5. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Acute onset of disease B. Early development of nodules C. High titre of rheumatoid factor D. Extra-articular manifestations 6 / 50 6. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. High viscosity B. Cloudy in colour C. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 D. Low complement CH50 7 / 50 7. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles B. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns C. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients D. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated 8 / 50 8. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Amyloidosis B. Frostbite C. Vasculitis D. Leprosy 9 / 50 9. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Heals with scarring B. Telangiectasia C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Photosensitivity 10 / 50 10. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Osteoarthritis D. Dermatomyositis 11 / 50 11. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Cochicine B. Allopurinol C. Probenecid D. Benzbromarone 12 / 50 12. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Negative Rose-Waaler test B. Maculopapular rash C. Sacroiliitis D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 13 / 50 13. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics B. Alcoholic cirrhosis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Working with vibrating tools 14 / 50 14. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 15 / 50 15. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. CREST syndrome C. Scleroderma D. Childhood dermatomyositis 16 / 50 16. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Lyme arthritis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis D. Behcet's syndrome 17 / 50 17. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Dermatomyositis with lung disease C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Lupus nephritis 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Hydroxychloroquine B. Sulphasalazine C. Naproxen D. Leflunomide 19 / 50 19. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Vasculitis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Bronchial asthma D. Hepatorenal syndrome 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Bullous lesion B. Panniculitis C. Periungual erythema D. Erythema nodosum 21 / 50 21. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Gout B. Diabetes mellitus C. Middle-aged females D. Hypertension 22 / 50 22. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-Jo1 antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-histone antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 23 / 50 23. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Cervical rib B. De Quervains' tenosynovitis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Dupuytren's contracture 24 / 50 24. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Spontaneous fracture B. Angioid streaks in retina C. Coldness of the extremities D. High-output cardiac failure 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Long bones of extremities B. Phalanges C. Skull D. Pelvis 26 / 50 26. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Glandular fever B. Yaws C. Leprosy D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 27 / 50 27. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Low C3 B. Females C. Delayed age of onset D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 28 / 50 28. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. SLE B. Gout C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 29 / 50 29. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 30% cases B. 45% cases C. 70% cases D. 90% cases 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Pemphigus D. Wilson's disease 31 / 50 31. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Pentazocine B. Hydralazine C. Vinyl chloride D. Bleomycin 32 / 50 32. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Mineralocorticoids B. Tropical corticosteroid C. Diuretics D. Danazol 33 / 50 33. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Ulcerate B. Tender C. Big D. Fixed to skin 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of C-reactive protein B. High serum level of ANA C. Low serum level of complement D. High serum level of anti-dsDNA 35 / 50 35. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Osteoarthritis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Polymyositis D. Sjogren's syndrome 36 / 50 36. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Sickle cell disease B. Decompression sickness C. Corticosteroid therapy D. Rheumatoid arthritis 37 / 50 37. Syndesmophytes are seen in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Osteopetrosis D. Psoriatic arthritis 38 / 50 38. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. COPD 39 / 50 39. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Kidney B. Cardiovascular system C. Lower respiratory tract D. Upper respiratory tract 40 / 50 40. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. High CH50 B. Exudative effusion C. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl D. Protein > 4 g/dl 41 / 50 41. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Ketoconazole B. Glucocorticoids C. Isoniazid D. Phenytoin 42 / 50 42. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. HBsAg positivity B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Erythema nodosum D. Asthma 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Membranous nephropathy C. Diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 44 / 50 44. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ergot ingestion C. Hyperviscosity syndrome D. Dermatomyositis 45 / 50 45. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Interferon B. Azathioprine C. Cyclophosphamide D. Glucocorticoids 46 / 50 46. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Splenomegaly B. Positive Rose-Waaler test C. Maculopapular rash D. Lymphadenopathy 47 / 50 47. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Calcium oxalate D. Monosodium urate 48 / 50 48. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Sodium fluoride B. Retinoids C. Alendronate D. Calcipotriol 49 / 50 49. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Parkinsonism C. Depression D. Scleroderma 50 / 50 50. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Corneal deposits B. Optic atrophy C. Maculopathy D. Cataract LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz