Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 52 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Glutethimide B. Corticosteroid C. Statins D. Amphotericin B 2 / 50 2. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Colchicine B. Celecoxib C. Allopurinol D. Prednisolone 3 / 50 3. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Chondrocalcinosis D. Congenital syphilis 4 / 50 4. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Sacroiliitis D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 5 / 50 5. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 6 / 50 6. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Circinate balanitis C. Subungual hyperkeratosis D. Keratoderma blenorrhagica 7 / 50 7. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Polyserositis B. Renal involvement C. Pulmonary infiltrates D. Polyarthritis 8 / 50 8. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics C. Working with vibrating tools D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 9 / 50 9. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Churg-Strauss syndrome B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Temporal arteritis 10 / 50 10. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Protein > 4 g/dl B. Exudative effusion C. High CH50 D. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl 11 / 50 11. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Central nervous system B. Kidney C. Lung D. Liver 12 / 50 12. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Photosensitivity B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Heals with scarring D. Telangiectasia 13 / 50 13. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Maculopapular rash B. Positive Rose-Waaler test C. Splenomegaly D. Lymphadenopathy 14 / 50 14. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Central nervous system B. Cardiac C. Pulmonary D. Renal 15 / 50 15. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Heart block C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Alveolar cell neoplasm 16 / 50 16. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Mesothelioma of pleura B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. COPD 17 / 50 17. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gout C. Middle-aged females D. Hypertension 18 / 50 18. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Age of onset 20-25 yrs C. Lymphadenopathy D. Vasculitis 19 / 50 19. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 30% cases B. 45% cases C. 70% cases D. 90% cases 20 / 50 20. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan C. Eosinophilia D. Usually a self-limiting disease 21 / 50 21. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Retinoids B. Calcipotriol C. Alendronate D. Sodium fluoride 22 / 50 22. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Livedo reticularis B. Digital infarcts C. Sclerodactyly D. Pseudoclubbing 23 / 50 23. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Behcet's syndrome C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Rheumatoid arthritis 24 / 50 24. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Hydralazine B. Vinyl chloride C. Bleomycin D. Pentazocine 25 / 50 25. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 26 / 50 26. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-Sm B. Anti-ssDNA C. Anti-Ro/La D. Anti-RNP 28 / 50 28. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Jaw claudication C. Bell's palsy D. Intense headache 29 / 50 29. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Rifampicin B. Carbamazepine C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptives 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Mitral stenosis B. Pericarditis C. Acute pulmonary fibrosis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 31 / 50 31. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Myocarditis C. Pericarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Periungual erythema B. Panniculitis C. Erythema nodosum D. Bullous lesion 33 / 50 33. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Benzbromarone C. Cochicine D. Allopurinol 34 / 50 34. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Acute onset of disease B. High titre of rheumatoid factor C. Extra-articular manifestations D. Early development of nodules 35 / 50 35. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 2 joints B. 1 joint C. 3 joints D. 4 joints 36 / 50 36. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 50% cases B. 35% cases C. 70% cases D. 20% cases 37 / 50 37. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Pregnancy B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Acromegaly D. Primary amyloidosis 38 / 50 38. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Lower respiratory tract C. Upper respiratory tract D. Kidney 39 / 50 39. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Vasculitis B. Hepatorenal syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Bronchial asthma 40 / 50 40. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Cervical rib B. Dupuytren's contracture C. De Quervains' tenosynovitis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 41 / 50 41. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Decompression sickness B. Corticosteroid therapy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sickle cell disease 42 / 50 42. Lyme arthritis is: A. Tick-borne spirochetal infection B. Autoimmune disease C. Viral infection D. Bacterial infection 43 / 50 43. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Polyarthritis B. Dactylitis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Osteomyelitis 44 / 50 44. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Proximal interphalangeal joint B. Metacarpophalangeal joint C. Distal interphalangeal joint D. Carpometacarpal joint 45 / 50 45. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Ergot ingestion C. Dermatomyositis D. Coarctation of aorta 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Wilson's disease B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Myasthenia gravis D. Pemphigus 47 / 50 47. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Metastatic tumour of lung B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Pachy dermoperiostitis 48 / 50 48. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Coronary artery aneurysm B. Pleural effusion C. Renal failure D. Hemiplegia 49 / 50 49. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. SLE C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout 50 / 50 50. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Psoriatic arthropathy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz