RheumatologyHome Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Hemochromatosis C. Gout D. Ochronosis 2 / 50 2. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Photosensitivity B. Telangiectasia C. Heals with scarring D. Raynaud's phenomenon 3 / 50 3. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Scleroderma B. SLE C. Lupus vulgaris D. Melasma 4 / 50 4. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 70% cases B. 35% cases C. 20% cases D. 50% cases 5 / 50 5. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals 6 / 50 6. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Exophthalmos B. Edema C. Esophageal Hypomotility D. Endomyocardia 7 / 50 7. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Deficiency of leukotrienes B. Excess of prostaglandin D2 C. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency D. Hypocomplementemia C2 8 / 50 8. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Renal B. Central nervous system C. Cardiac D. Pulmonary 9 / 50 9. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-RNP antibody B. Anti-Jo1 antibody C. Anti-centromere antibody D. Anti-histone antibody 10 / 50 10. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. High-output cardiac failure B. Coldness of the extremities C. Spontaneous fracture D. Angioid streaks in retina 11 / 50 11. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteomalacia B. Osteopetrosis C. Hodgkin's disease D. Fluorosis 12 / 50 12. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Carbamazepine C. Reserpine D. Rifampicin 13 / 50 13. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Osteoarthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 14 / 50 14. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Sickle cell disease C. Parachute diving D. Post-renal transplant 15 / 50 15. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine C. Finasteride D. Amiodarone 16 / 50 16. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Anterior uveitis C. Scleromalacia D. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 17 / 50 17. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 60% cases B. 70% cases C. 95% cases D. 80% cases 18 / 50 18. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome B. Polymyositis C. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) D. Drug-induced SLE 19 / 50 19. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Fibromyalgia B. Depression C. Myxoedema D. Hemophilia 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Aortic incompetence B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Amyloidosis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 21 / 50 21. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. SLE C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 22 / 50 22. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Age of onset 20-25 yrs C. Lymphadenopathy D. Thrombocytopenia 23 / 50 23. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Shigella C. Staphylococcus D. Campylobacter 24 / 50 24. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Usually a self-limiting disease D. Eosinophilia 25 / 50 25. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 26 / 50 26. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Central nervous system involvement is common B. Anti-histone antibodies are present C. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders D. Nephritis is rare 27 / 50 27. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Myelofibrosis B. Scleroderma C. Polymyositis D. Primary biliary cirrhosis 28 / 50 28. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. Turn red B. Remain unchanged C. become white D. Turn blue 29 / 50 29. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. CD4 lymphocyte count B. ASO titre C. Antinuclear antibodies D. Rheumatoid factor 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Leflunomide B. Sulphasalazine C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Naproxen 31 / 50 31. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Vitamin D toxicity B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Scleroderma D. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection 32 / 50 32. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Delayed age of onset C. Low C3 D. Females 33 / 50 33. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Very low B. High C. Remains as normal D. Low 34 / 50 34. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Interleukin-2 D. Tumour necrosis factor-a 35 / 50 35. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. High titre of rheumatoid factor B. Acute onset of disease C. Early development of nodules D. Extra-articular manifestations 36 / 50 36. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Lower respiratory tract B. Cardiovascular system C. Upper respiratory tract D. Kidney 37 / 50 37. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 2 joints B. 1 joint C. 4 joints D. 3 joints 38 / 50 38. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Tropical corticosteroid B. Mineralocorticoids C. Diuretics D. Danazol 39 / 50 39. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Allergic rhinitis B. Epistaxis C. Sinusitis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 40 / 50 40. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone marrow failure B. Hypercalcemia C. High alkaline phosphatase D. Bone pain 41 / 50 41. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Benzbromarone C. Allopurinol D. Cochicine 42 / 50 42. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Dermatomyositis C. Osteoarthritis D. Gout 43 / 50 43. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Dysphagia C. Hyperglobulinaemia D. Eosinophilia 44 / 50 44. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Calcipotriol B. Alendronate C. Retinoids D. Sodium fluoride 45 / 50 45. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Phenytoin B. Isoniazid C. Glucocorticoids D. Ketoconazole 46 / 50 46. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. SLE B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Sjogren's syndrome 47 / 50 47. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Polymyositis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 48 / 50 48. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Intense headache B. May develop permanent blindness C. Jaw claudication D. Bell's palsy 49 / 50 49. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Livedo reticularis B. Pseudoclubbing C. Sclerodactyly D. Digital infarcts 50 / 50 50. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Leprosy B. Cysticercosis C. Dermatomyositis D. 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