Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Olmesartan B. Pegloticase C. Benzbromarone D. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra 2 / 50 2. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Pentazocine B. Bleomycin C. Vinyl chloride D. Hydralazine 3 / 50 3. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. De Quervains' tenosynovitis C. Dupuytren's contracture D. Cervical rib 4 / 50 4. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. CD4 lymphocyte count B. Rheumatoid factor C. Antinuclear antibodies D. ASO titre 5 / 50 5. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis C. Lyme arthritis D. Behcet's syndrome 6 / 50 6. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Polymyositis 7 / 50 7. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Lung B. Central nervous system C. Kidney D. Liver 8 / 50 8. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Reiter's syndrome D. Behcet's syndrome 9 / 50 9. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Acetaminophen B. lbuprofen C. Diclofenac D. Corticosteroids 10 / 50 10. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 11 / 50 11. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Exophthalmos B. Edema C. Endomyocardia D. Esophageal Hypomotility 12 / 50 12. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. SLE B. Myasthenia gravis C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Bronchial asthma 13 / 50 13. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Behcet's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 14 / 50 14. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Vitamin D toxicity B. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection C. Scleroderma D. Hyperparathyroidism 15 / 50 15. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Behcet's syndrome 16 / 50 16. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. Low complement CH50 B. Cloudy in colour C. High viscosity D. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 17 / 50 17. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Celecoxib B. Allopurinol C. Prednisolone D. Colchicine 18 / 50 18. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 50% cases B. 70% cases C. 20% cases D. 35% cases 19 / 50 19. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Usually a self-limiting disease D. Eosinophilia 20 / 50 20. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Leflunomide B. Salphasalazine C. Etanercept D. Azathioprine 21 / 50 21. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Scleroderma D. Mixed connective tissue disease 22 / 50 22. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Corneal deposits C. Maculopathy D. Cataract 23 / 50 23. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 3 joints C. 2 joints D. 4 joints 24 / 50 24. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate B. Calcium oxalate C. Calcium phosphate D. Monosodium urate 25 / 50 25. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Positive Rose-Waaler test C. Splenomegaly D. Maculopapular rash 26 / 50 26. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. SLE D. Gout 27 / 50 27. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reversible lupus-syndrome B. Demyelination C. Anaphylaxis D. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis 28 / 50 28. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Dermatomyositis with lung disease C. Lupus nephritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 29 / 50 29. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Metatarsophalangeal joint B. Knee joint C. Spine D. Joints of hands 30 / 50 30. Infliximab is directed against: A. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) B. Tumour necrosis factor-a C. Interleukin-6 D. Interleukin-2 31 / 50 31. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Cochicine B. Benzbromarone C. Probenecid D. Allopurinol 32 / 50 32. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Anterior uveitis C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Scleromalacia 33 / 50 33. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Kidney B. Lower respiratory tract C. Upper respiratory tract D. Cardiovascular system 34 / 50 34. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type III B. Type II C. Type IV D. Type I 35 / 50 35. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Female preponderance B. Focal point tenderness C. High CPK D. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant 36 / 50 36. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Photosensitivity B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Heals with scarring D. Telangiectasia 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Wilson's disease C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Pemphigus 38 / 50 38. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Fluorosis C. Osteopetrosis D. Osteomalacia 39 / 50 39. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated B. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns C. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients 40 / 50 40. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 41 / 50 41. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip B. Very high ESR C. Elevated muscle enzymes D. Early morning stiffness 42 / 50 42. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Shrinking lung syndrome C. Caplan's syndrome D. Hidebound chest syndrome 43 / 50 43. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. lgM C. lgG D. IgA 44 / 50 44. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Hyperglobulinaemia C. Dysphagia D. Eosinophilia 45 / 50 45. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Dermatomyositis B. Cysticercosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Leprosy 46 / 50 46. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. Turn blue B. become white C. Remain unchanged D. Turn red 47 / 50 47. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Pericarditis C. ulcerative colitis D. Fibrosing alveolitis 48 / 50 48. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Decompression sickness B. Sickle cell disease C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Corticosteroid therapy 49 / 50 49. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 50 / 50 50. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. COPD D. Mesothelioma of pleura LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz