Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 55 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Pericarditis B. ulcerative colitis C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 2 / 50 2. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Exophthalmos B. Endomyocardia C. Esophageal Hypomotility D. Edema 3 / 50 3. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Anaphylaxis B. Reversible lupus-syndrome C. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis D. Demyelination 4 / 50 4. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. High CH50 C. Protein > 4 g/dl D. Exudative effusion 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Amyloidosis B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Aortic incompetence 6 / 50 6. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Drug-induced SLE B. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. Polymyositis 7 / 50 7. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Childhood dermatomyositis B. Scleroderma C. CREST syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 8 / 50 8. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Central nervous system B. Pulmonary C. Cardiac D. Renal 9 / 50 9. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Naftidrofuryl B. Dimethyl sulfoxide C. Methysergide D. Propranolol 10 / 50 10. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 90% cases B. 70% cases C. 30% cases D. 45% cases 11 / 50 11. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Maculopapular rash B. Lymphadenopathy C. Splenomegaly D. Positive Rose-Waaler test 12 / 50 12. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 80% cases B. 60% cases C. 95% cases D. 70% cases 13 / 50 13. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated B. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients C. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns D. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles 14 / 50 14. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Scleroderma C. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection D. Vitamin D toxicity 15 / 50 15. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Reactive arthritis 16 / 50 16. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Corneal deposits C. Maculopathy D. Cataract 17 / 50 17. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Reactive arthritis 18 / 50 18. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 3 joints B. 1 joint C. 4 joints D. 2 joints 19 / 50 19. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with: A. Elevated muscle enzymes B. Very high ESR C. Early morning stiffness D. Pain in the muscles of neck, shoulder and hip 20 / 50 20. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Carpometacarpal joint B. Proximal interphalangeal joint C. Distal interphalangeal joint D. Metacarpophalangeal joint 21 / 50 21. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone pain B. High alkaline phosphatase C. Bone marrow failure D. Hypercalcemia 22 / 50 22. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-2 B. Interleukin-6 C. Tumour necrosis factor-a D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 23 / 50 23. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Hemochromatosis C. Gout D. Ochronosis 24 / 50 24. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombophlebitis B. Genital ulceration C. Meningoencephalitis D. Urethritis 25 / 50 25. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Middle-aged females B. Diabetes mellitus C. Gout D. Hypertension 26 / 50 26. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgM B. lgG C. IgD D. IgA 27 / 50 27. Lyme arthritis is: A. Viral infection B. Tick-borne spirochetal infection C. Autoimmune disease D. Bacterial infection 28 / 50 28. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Finasteride B. Amantadine C. Bromocriptine D. Amiodarone 29 / 50 29. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. SLE D. Gout 30 / 50 30. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. Extra-articular manifestations C. Acute onset of disease D. High titre of rheumatoid factor 31 / 50 31. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Low C3 B. Females C. High-titre rheumatoid factor D. Delayed age of onset 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity D. Common in non-smokers 33 / 50 33. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Lupus vulgaris C. Scleroderma D. Melasma 34 / 50 34. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Osteomalacia C. Rickets D. Osteoarthritis 35 / 50 35. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Osteoarthritis 36 / 50 36. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Gastrointestinal malignancy C. Leukaemia D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 37 / 50 37. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Azathioprine B. Glucocorticoids C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 38 / 50 38. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Acetaminophen B. lbuprofen C. Diclofenac D. Corticosteroids 39 / 50 39. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Depression B. Hemophilia C. Fibromyalgia D. Myxoedema 40 / 50 40. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Myelofibrosis B. Polymyositis C. Scleroderma D. Primary biliary cirrhosis 41 / 50 41. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Hidebound chest syndrome C. Shrinking lung syndrome D. Caplan's syndrome 42 / 50 42. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Amphotericin B C. Corticosteroid D. Glutethimide 43 / 50 43. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reactive arthritis 44 / 50 44. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Overlap syndrome B. Presence of lupus anticoagulant C. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody D. Chronic renal failure 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Naproxen B. Leflunomide C. Sulphasalazine D. Hydroxychloroquine 46 / 50 46. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Tropical corticosteroid B. Danazol C. Mineralocorticoids D. Diuretics 47 / 50 47. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Rheumatic fever B. Reiter's syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 48 / 50 48. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type IV B. Type II C. Type III D. Type I 49 / 50 49. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Cervical rib C. Dupuytren's contracture D. De Quervains' tenosynovitis 50 / 50 50. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Mesothelioma of pleura B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Fibrosing alveolitis D. 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