Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 54 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium oxalate 2 / 50 2. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Reactive arthritis 3 / 50 3. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Amiodarone C. Finasteride D. Bromocriptine 4 / 50 4. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hemochromatosis B. Gout C. Hyperphosphatasia D. Ochronosis 5 / 50 5. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Mesothelioma of pleura B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. COPD D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 6 / 50 6. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Behcet's syndrome 7 / 50 7. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Pleural effusion B. Hemiplegia C. Renal failure D. Coronary artery aneurysm 8 / 50 8. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Gastrointestinal malignancy B. Hodgkin's disease C. Leukaemia D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 9 / 50 9. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Central nervous system involvement is common B. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders C. Anti-histone antibodies are present D. Nephritis is rare 10 / 50 10. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Vinyl chloride B. Bleomycin C. Pentazocine D. Hydralazine 11 / 50 11. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Angioid streaks in retina B. Spontaneous fracture C. Coldness of the extremities D. High-output cardiac failure 12 / 50 12. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Digital infarcts B. Sclerodactyly C. Pseudoclubbing D. Livedo reticularis 13 / 50 13. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Wilson's disease B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 14 / 50 14. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 15 / 50 15. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Dactylitis B. Polyarthritis C. Osteomyelitis D. Avascular necrosis of bone 16 / 50 16. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 4 joints B. 1 joint C. 2 joints D. 3 joints 17 / 50 17. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. Exudative effusion C. Protein > 4 g/dl D. High CH50 18 / 50 18. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Haemophilic arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis 19 / 50 19. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Spine B. Knee joint C. Joints of hands D. Metatarsophalangeal joint 20 / 50 20. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Antinuclear antibodies B. Rheumatoid factor C. ASO titre D. CD4 lymphocyte count 21 / 50 21. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Shrinking lung syndrome C. Caplan's syndrome D. Hidebound chest syndrome 22 / 50 22. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reactive arthritis 23 / 50 23. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-2 B. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) C. Interleukin-6 D. Tumour necrosis factor-a 24 / 50 24. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Hyperglobulinaemia B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Dysphagia D. Eosinophilia 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Membranous nephropathy D. Diffuse glomerulonephritis 26 / 50 26. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody B. Overlap syndrome C. Presence of lupus anticoagulant D. Chronic renal failure 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Panniculitis B. Erythema nodosum C. Periungual erythema D. Bullous lesion 28 / 50 28. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Polymyositis D. Myasthenia gravis 29 / 50 29. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Cochicine C. Benzbromarone D. Allopurinol 30 / 50 30. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Pregnancy B. Primary amyloidosis C. Acromegaly D. Thyrotoxicosis 31 / 50 31. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Pericarditis B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. ulcerative colitis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 32 / 50 32. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Interferon C. Cyclophosphamide D. Azathioprine 33 / 50 33. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Carbamazepine B. Oral contraceptives C. Rifampicin D. Reserpine 34 / 50 34. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Epistaxis B. Sinusitis C. Allergic rhinitis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 35 / 50 35. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Early development of nodules B. Acute onset of disease C. High titre of rheumatoid factor D. Extra-articular manifestations 36 / 50 36. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Reiter's syndrome C. Psoriasis D. Osteoarthritis 37 / 50 37. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Iritis C. Sacroiliitis D. Enthesopathy 38 / 50 38. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgM B. lgG C. IgD D. IgA 39 / 50 39. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Vitamin D toxicity B. Scleroderma C. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection D. Hyperparathyroidism 40 / 50 40. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. Scleroderma C. Polymyositis D. Myelofibrosis 41 / 50 41. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Working with vibrating tools C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics 42 / 50 42. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. SLE C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout 43 / 50 43. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Leprosy B. Antiphospholipid syndrome C. Glandular fever D. Yaws 44 / 50 44. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Parkinsonism C. Depression D. Scleroderma 45 / 50 45. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Heals with scarring B. Telangiectasia C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Photosensitivity 46 / 50 46. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoporosis B. Rickets C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteomalacia 47 / 50 47. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reversible lupus-syndrome B. Demyelination C. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis D. Anaphylaxis 48 / 50 48. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals 49 / 50 49. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 20% cases B. 50% cases C. 35% cases D. 70% cases 50 / 50 50. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Gout C. Osteoarthritis D. Dermatomyositis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz