Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 53 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Cysticercosis B. Leprosy C. Dermatomyositis D. Rheumatic fever 2 / 50 2. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Gout B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Middle-aged females 3 / 50 3. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Osteomalacia B. Hodgkin's disease C. Osteopetrosis D. Fluorosis 4 / 50 4. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Dimethyl sulfoxide C. Naftidrofuryl D. Methysergide 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Erythema nodosum B. Panniculitis C. Periungual erythema D. Bullous lesion 6 / 50 6. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Gout B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. SLE 7 / 50 7. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Carbamazepine C. Rifampicin D. Reserpine 8 / 50 8. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Etanercept C. Azathioprine D. Leflunomide 9 / 50 9. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Allopurinol B. Colchicine C. Prednisolone D. Celecoxib 10 / 50 10. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. SLE D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 11 / 50 11. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Rheumatic fever 12 / 50 12. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Coldness of the extremities B. High-output cardiac failure C. Spontaneous fracture D. Angioid streaks in retina 13 / 50 13. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Cataract B. Maculopathy C. Optic atrophy D. Corneal deposits 14 / 50 14. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. Cloudy in colour B. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 C. High viscosity D. Low complement CH50 15 / 50 15. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Shrinking lung syndrome C. Caplan's syndrome D. Hidebound chest syndrome 16 / 50 16. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 30% cases B. 90% cases C. 70% cases D. 45% cases 17 / 50 17. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Pulmonary nodules B. Malar rash C. Vasculitis D. Hyperostosis 18 / 50 18. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Mixed connective tissue disease B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Scleroderma D. Sjogren's syndrome 19 / 50 19. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. CD4 lymphocyte count B. ASO titre C. Antinuclear antibodies D. Rheumatoid factor 20 / 50 20. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Scleroderma C. Parkinsonism D. Depression 21 / 50 21. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Glutethimide B. Amphotericin B C. Corticosteroid D. Statins 22 / 50 22. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hemochromatosis B. Gout C. Hyperphosphatasia D. Ochronosis 23 / 50 23. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Hemophilia B. Fibromyalgia C. Depression D. Myxoedema 24 / 50 24. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Hepatorenal syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Vasculitis D. Bronchial asthma 25 / 50 25. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Azathioprine C. Glucocorticoids D. Interferon 26 / 50 26. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Nephritis is rare B. Central nervous system involvement is common C. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders D. Anti-histone antibodies are present 27 / 50 27. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Yaws C. Leprosy D. Glandular fever 28 / 50 28. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Haemophilic arthritis 29 / 50 29. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Cochicine B. Benzbromarone C. Probenecid D. Allopurinol 30 / 50 30. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Heals with scarring B. Telangiectasia C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Photosensitivity 31 / 50 31. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Salmonella C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci 32 / 50 32. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Vinyl chloride B. Hydralazine C. Pentazocine D. Bleomycin 33 / 50 33. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Polymyositis C. Osteoarthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 34 / 50 34. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Edema B. Exophthalmos C. Esophageal Hypomotility D. Endomyocardia 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Diffuse glomerulonephritis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Interstitial nephritis D. Membranous nephropathy 36 / 50 36. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Metatarsophalangeal joint B. Knee joint C. Joints of hands D. Spine 37 / 50 37. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Avascular necrosis of bone B. Polyarthritis C. Dactylitis D. Osteomyelitis 38 / 50 38. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteomalacia B. Osteoarthritis C. Rickets D. Osteoporosis 39 / 50 39. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients B. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles C. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns D. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated 40 / 50 40. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type IV B. Type I C. Type III D. Type II 41 / 50 41. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Sacroiliitis B. Negative Rose-Waaler test C. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints D. Maculopapular rash 42 / 50 42. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome C. Drug-induced SLE D. Polymyositis 43 / 50 43. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. Exudative effusion C. Protein > 4 g/dl D. High CH50 44 / 50 44. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Renal B. Central nervous system C. Cardiac D. Pulmonary 45 / 50 45. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Crescentic glomerulonephritis 46 / 50 46. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Polymyositis 47 / 50 47. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Gastrointestinal malignancy B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Hodgkin's disease D. Leukaemia 48 / 50 48. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Dermatomyositis B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ergot ingestion D. Hyperviscosity syndrome 49 / 50 49. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Alveolar cell neoplasm C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Heart block 50 / 50 50. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 2 joints C. 4 joints D. 3 joints LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz