Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Hepatorenal syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Bronchial asthma D. Vasculitis 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Bullous lesion B. Erythema nodosum C. Panniculitis D. Periungual erythema 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Skull B. Pelvis C. Phalanges D. Long bones of extremities 4 / 50 4. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Coldness of the extremities B. High-output cardiac failure C. Spontaneous fracture D. Angioid streaks in retina 5 / 50 5. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Osteomyelitis B. Polyarthritis C. Dactylitis D. Avascular necrosis of bone 6 / 50 6. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Sodium fluoride B. Alendronate C. Retinoids D. Calcipotriol 7 / 50 7. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Azathioprine B. Etanercept C. Leflunomide D. Salphasalazine 8 / 50 8. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Wilson's disease B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Rheumatoid arthritis 9 / 50 9. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Psoriasis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Osteoarthritis 10 / 50 10. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Dermatomyositis with lung disease B. Lupus nephritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 11 / 50 11. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Dermatomyositis B. Leprosy C. Rheumatic fever D. Cysticercosis 12 / 50 12. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type III B. Type I C. Type IV D. Type II 13 / 50 13. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Pulmonary B. Cardiac C. Central nervous system D. Renal 14 / 50 14. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. ASO titre B. CD4 lymphocyte count C. Antinuclear antibodies D. Rheumatoid factor 15 / 50 15. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reactive arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Psoriatic arthritis 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Aortic incompetence C. Acute pulmonary fibrosis D. Amyloidosis 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis B. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity C. Common in non-smokers D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-ssDNA B. Anti-Ro/La C. Anti-RNP D. Anti-Sm 19 / 50 19. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. High alkaline phosphatase B. Bone marrow failure C. Hypercalcemia D. Bone pain 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Membranous nephropathy B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Interstitial nephritis D. Diffuse glomerulonephritis 21 / 50 21. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Scleroderma C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection 22 / 50 22. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Epistaxis C. Allergic rhinitis D. Sinusitis 23 / 50 23. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Knee joint B. Metatarsophalangeal joint C. Spine D. Joints of hands 24 / 50 24. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Splenomegaly B. Positive Rose-Waaler test C. Maculopapular rash D. Lymphadenopathy 25 / 50 25. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Low B. High C. Remains as normal D. Very low 26 / 50 26. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Melasma B. Scleroderma C. Lupus vulgaris D. SLE 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Pericarditis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Acute pulmonary fibrosis D. Mitral stenosis 28 / 50 28. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Polymyositis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Osteoarthritis D. Myasthenia gravis 29 / 50 29. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 30 / 50 30. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Rheumatic fever B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Reiter's syndrome D. Sarcoidosis 31 / 50 31. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Tumour necrosis factor-a C. Interleukin-2 D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 32 / 50 32. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Hyperostosis B. Malar rash C. Vasculitis D. Pulmonary nodules 33 / 50 33. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Parachute diving B. Cushing's syndrome C. Post-renal transplant D. Sickle cell disease 34 / 50 34. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Retinal vein thrombosis D. Cranial arteritis 35 / 50 35. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Scleroderma B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Myelofibrosis D. Polymyositis 36 / 50 36. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Usually a self-limiting disease C. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan D. Eosinophilia 37 / 50 37. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Polyserositis B. Pulmonary infiltrates C. Polyarthritis D. Renal involvement 38 / 50 38. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Glandular fever B. Leprosy C. Antiphospholipid syndrome D. Yaws 39 / 50 39. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Allopurinol C. Cochicine D. Benzbromarone 40 / 50 40. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Lower respiratory tract B. Upper respiratory tract C. Cardiovascular system D. Kidney 41 / 50 41. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Fluorosis C. Osteopetrosis D. Osteomalacia 42 / 50 42. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 2 joints C. 3 joints D. 4 joints 43 / 50 43. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Amphotericin B C. Corticosteroid D. Glutethimide 44 / 50 44. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Reactive arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 45 / 50 45. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Jaw claudication C. Intense headache D. May develop permanent blindness 46 / 50 46. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Childhood dermatomyositis B. Scleroderma C. CREST syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 47 / 50 47. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. HBsAg positivity B. Asthma C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Erythema nodosum 48 / 50 48. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 49 / 50 49. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Excess of prostaglandin D2 B. Deficiency of leukotrienes C. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency D. Hypocomplementemia C2 50 / 50 50. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Big B. Fixed to skin C. Ulcerate D. Tender LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz