Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 48 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant B. Female preponderance C. High CPK D. Focal point tenderness 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of C-reactive protein B. Low serum level of complement C. High serum level of ANA D. High serum level of anti-dsDNA 3 / 50 3. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. Turn blue B. Remain unchanged C. become white D. Turn red 4 / 50 4. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Coronary artery aneurysm B. Renal failure C. Hemiplegia D. Pleural effusion 5 / 50 5. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombophlebitis B. Genital ulceration C. Meningoencephalitis D. Urethritis 6 / 50 6. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium oxalate 7 / 50 7. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Gout B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Middle-aged females 8 / 50 8. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Scleroderma B. Depression C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Parkinsonism 9 / 50 9. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Polymyositis 10 / 50 10. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Negative Rose-Waaler test B. Maculopapular rash C. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints D. Sacroiliitis 11 / 50 11. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. HBsAg positivity B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. Erythema nodosum D. Asthma 12 / 50 12. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Cataract B. Optic atrophy C. Maculopathy D. Corneal deposits 13 / 50 13. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Fluorosis B. Osteomalacia C. Hodgkin's disease D. Osteopetrosis 14 / 50 14. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Keratoderma blenorrhagica B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Circinate balanitis D. Subungual hyperkeratosis 15 / 50 15. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Leflunomide C. Salphasalazine D. Azathioprine 16 / 50 16. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Females B. Low C3 C. High-titre rheumatoid factor D. Delayed age of onset 17 / 50 17. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Corticosteroids B. Diclofenac C. Acetaminophen D. lbuprofen 18 / 50 18. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Alendronate B. Sodium fluoride C. Calcipotriol D. Retinoids 19 / 50 19. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 20 / 50 20. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Angioid streaks in retina B. High-output cardiac failure C. Spontaneous fracture D. Coldness of the extremities 21 / 50 21. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Temporal arteritis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Churg-Strauss syndrome D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Membranous nephropathy 23 / 50 23. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Dimethyl sulfoxide C. Naftidrofuryl D. Methysergide 24 / 50 24. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome B. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) C. Polymyositis D. Drug-induced SLE 25 / 50 25. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Extra-articular manifestations B. Early development of nodules C. Acute onset of disease D. High titre of rheumatoid factor 26 / 50 26. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Myocarditis B. Pericarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Aortic incompetence 27 / 50 27. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. SLE D. Rheumatoid arthritis 28 / 50 28. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Alveolar cell neoplasm C. Heart block D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 29 / 50 29. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Eosinophilia B. Dysphagia C. Hyperglobulinaemia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 30 / 50 30. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Wilson's disease 31 / 50 31. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Chronic renal failure B. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody C. Overlap syndrome D. Presence of lupus anticoagulant 32 / 50 32. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Rifampicin B. Oral contraceptives C. Reserpine D. Carbamazepine 33 / 50 33. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Gout B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Dermatomyositis D. Osteoarthritis 34 / 50 34. Infliximab is directed against: A. Interleukin-6 B. Tumour necrosis factor-a C. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) D. Interleukin-2 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Erythema nodosum B. Periungual erythema C. Bullous lesion D. Panniculitis 36 / 50 36. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan C. Eosinophilia D. Usually a self-limiting disease 37 / 50 37. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Episderitis B. Anterior uveitis C. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca D. Scleromalacia 38 / 50 38. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Intense headache C. Jaw claudication D. May develop permanent blindness 39 / 50 39. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Maculopapular rash C. Positive Rose-Waaler test D. Splenomegaly 40 / 50 40. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Enthesopathy C. Sacroiliitis D. Iritis 41 / 50 41. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 90% cases B. 45% cases C. 70% cases D. 30% cases 42 / 50 42. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Cochicine B. Allopurinol C. Probenecid D. Benzbromarone 43 / 50 43. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Osteomyelitis B. Dactylitis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Polyarthritis 44 / 50 44. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra B. Pegloticase C. Benzbromarone D. Olmesartan 45 / 50 45. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Ulcerate B. Tender C. Big D. Fixed to skin 46 / 50 46. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 4 joints C. 3 joints D. 2 joints 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Pemphigus C. Wilson's disease D. Myasthenia gravis 48 / 50 48. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Ergot ingestion B. Dermatomyositis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Hyperviscosity syndrome 49 / 50 49. Example of autoimmune arthritis is: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Haemophilic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 50 / 50 50. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Lyme arthritis C. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis D. Behcet's syndrome LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz