Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-RNP B. Anti-ssDNA C. Anti-Ro/La D. Anti-Sm 2 / 50 2. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Parachute diving B. Cushing's syndrome C. Post-renal transplant D. Sickle cell disease 3 / 50 3. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl B. Exudative effusion C. High CH50 D. Protein > 4 g/dl 4 / 50 4. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Ergot ingestion C. Coarctation of aorta D. Dermatomyositis 5 / 50 5. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 6 / 50 6. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Bell's palsy C. Intense headache D. Jaw claudication 7 / 50 7. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Alendronate B. Sodium fluoride C. Calcipotriol D. Retinoids 8 / 50 8. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Osteopetrosis C. Fluorosis D. Osteomalacia 9 / 50 9. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sickle cell disease C. Decompression sickness D. Corticosteroid therapy 10 / 50 10. Anti-cytokine therapy is usually not associated with: A. Reversible lupus-syndrome B. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis C. Demyelination D. Anaphylaxis 11 / 50 11. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Microscopic polyarteritis 12 / 50 12. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Allopurinol B. Prednisolone C. Celecoxib D. Colchicine 13 / 50 13. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Sinusitis C. Allergic rhinitis D. Epistaxis 14 / 50 14. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Leprosy C. Yaws D. Glandular fever 15 / 50 15. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Reactive arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 16 / 50 16. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Polymyositis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Osteoarthritis 17 / 50 17. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. SLE D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Minimal lesion nephropathy B. Interstitial nephritis C. Diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Membranous nephropathy 19 / 50 19. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polymyositis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Behcet's syndrome D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 20 / 50 20. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Benzbromarone C. Allopurinol D. Cochicine 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Wilson's disease B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Pemphigus D. Myasthenia gravis 22 / 50 22. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Scleroderma C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Mixed connective tissue disease 23 / 50 23. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Lung B. Central nervous system C. Kidney D. Liver 24 / 50 24. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome C. Drug-induced SLE D. Polymyositis 25 / 50 25. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Leukaemia B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Gastrointestinal malignancy D. Hodgkin's disease 26 / 50 26. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Cervical rib C. De Quervains' tenosynovitis D. Dupuytren's contracture 27 / 50 27. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 2 joints B. 1 joint C. 3 joints D. 4 joints 28 / 50 28. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated B. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles C. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients D. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns 29 / 50 29. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Reactive arthritis B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis 30 / 50 30. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Corneal deposits B. Cataract C. Optic atrophy D. Maculopathy 31 / 50 31. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant B. High CPK C. Focal point tenderness D. Female preponderance 32 / 50 32. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Shrinking lung syndrome C. Hidebound chest syndrome D. Caplan's syndrome 33 / 50 33. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Temporal arteritis D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura 34 / 50 34. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. Corticosteroids B. lbuprofen C. Diclofenac D. Acetaminophen 35 / 50 35. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Reactive arthritis 36 / 50 36. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. IgA C. lgG D. lgM 37 / 50 37. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteomalacia B. Osteoporosis C. Rickets D. Osteoarthritis 38 / 50 38. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Mesothelioma of pleura C. COPD D. Fibrosing alveolitis 39 / 50 39. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Pentazocine B. Hydralazine C. Bleomycin D. Vinyl chloride 40 / 50 40. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-Jo1 antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-histone antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 41 / 50 41. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Osteoarthritis B. Dermatomyositis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Gout 42 / 50 42. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Retinal vein thrombosis B. Cranial arteritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Reiter's syndrome 43 / 50 43. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Nephritis is rare B. Central nervous system involvement is common C. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders D. Anti-histone antibodies are present 44 / 50 44. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Vasculitis B. Malar rash C. Pulmonary nodules D. Hyperostosis 45 / 50 45. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Low C3 C. Females D. Delayed age of onset 46 / 50 46. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Etanercept B. Leflunomide C. Salphasalazine D. Azathioprine 47 / 50 47. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Metatarsophalangeal joint B. Joints of hands C. Knee joint D. Spine 48 / 50 48. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Ketoconazole B. Phenytoin C. Glucocorticoids D. Isoniazid 49 / 50 49. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone marrow failure B. Bone pain C. High alkaline phosphatase D. Hypercalcemia 50 / 50 50. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Pulmonary B. Central nervous system C. Renal D. 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