Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Bouchard’s nodes in osteoarthritis are seen in: A. Metacarpophalangeal joint B. Distal interphalangeal joint C. Proximal interphalangeal joint D. Carpometacarpal joint 2 / 50 2. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium oxalate C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate D. Monosodium urate 3 / 50 3. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Hidebound chest syndrome B. Pneumoconiosis C. Caplan's syndrome D. Shrinking lung syndrome 4 / 50 4. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Subungual hyperkeratosis B. Keratoderma blenorrhagica C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Circinate balanitis 5 / 50 5. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Exudative effusion B. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl C. Protein > 4 g/dl D. High CH50 6 / 50 6. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Sacroiliitis B. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints C. Negative Rose-Waaler test D. Maculopapular rash 7 / 50 7. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Dermatomyositis with lung disease C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Lupus nephritis 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Sulphasalazine B. Naproxen C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Leflunomide 9 / 50 9. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amiodarone B. Bromocriptine C. Amantadine D. Finasteride 10 / 50 10. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 11 / 50 11. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Decompression sickness B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Sickle cell disease D. Corticosteroid therapy 12 / 50 12. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Gout B. Middle-aged females C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypertension 13 / 50 13. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Cervical rib C. Dupuytren's contracture D. De Quervains' tenosynovitis 14 / 50 14. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Diuretics B. Mineralocorticoids C. Tropical corticosteroid D. Danazol 15 / 50 15. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Pericarditis B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. ulcerative colitis D. Fibrosing alveolitis 16 / 50 16. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Glandular fever C. Leprosy D. Yaws 17 / 50 17. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Bronchial asthma C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. SLE 18 / 50 18. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 70% cases B. 80% cases C. 60% cases D. 95% cases 19 / 50 19. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. ASO titre B. Rheumatoid factor C. CD4 lymphocyte count D. Antinuclear antibodies 20 / 50 20. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Leukaemia D. Gastrointestinal malignancy 21 / 50 21. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Hemochromatosis C. Ochronosis D. Gout 22 / 50 22. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Childhood dermatomyositis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. CREST syndrome D. Scleroderma 23 / 50 23. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-centromere antibody B. Anti-Jo1 antibody C. Anti-histone antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 24 / 50 24. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Working with vibrating tools 25 / 50 25. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. Melasma B. Scleroderma C. SLE D. Lupus vulgaris 26 / 50 26. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Allopurinol C. Benzbromarone D. Cochicine 27 / 50 27. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Ulcerate B. Big C. Tender D. Fixed to skin 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of ANA B. Low serum level of complement C. High serum level of anti-dsDNA D. High serum level of C-reactive protein 29 / 50 29. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) B. Polymyositis C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. Drug-induced SLE 30 / 50 30. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Reactive arthritis D. Osteoarthritis 31 / 50 31. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Pulmonary B. Central nervous system C. Renal D. Cardiac 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population D. Common in non-smokers 33 / 50 33. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Wilson's disease C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Rheumatoid arthritis 34 / 50 34. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Esophageal Hypomotility B. Endomyocardia C. Exophthalmos D. Edema 35 / 50 35. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Ketoconazole C. Phenytoin D. Isoniazid 36 / 50 36. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Scleroderma C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Myelofibrosis 37 / 50 37. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Livedo reticularis B. Sclerodactyly C. Pseudoclubbing D. Digital infarcts 38 / 50 38. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone marrow failure B. Hypercalcemia C. High alkaline phosphatase D. Bone pain 39 / 50 39. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals B. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 40 / 50 40. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Myocarditis C. Pericarditis D. Aortic incompetence 41 / 50 41. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Pachy dermoperiostitis B. Metastatic tumour of lung C. Mesothelioma of pleura D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 42 / 50 42. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Bronchial asthma B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Vasculitis 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Panniculitis B. Erythema nodosum C. Periungual erythema D. Bullous lesion 44 / 50 44. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 90% cases B. 70% cases C. 30% cases D. 45% cases 45 / 50 45. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Azathioprine C. Etanercept D. Leflunomide 46 / 50 46. ‘Pathergy’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Lyme arthritis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis 47 / 50 47. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Pulmonary nodules B. Malar rash C. Hyperostosis D. Vasculitis 48 / 50 48. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Spine B. Joints of hands C. Knee joint D. Metatarsophalangeal joint 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Long bones of extremities B. Phalanges C. Pelvis D. Skull 50 / 50 50. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Epistaxis C. Sinusitis D. Allergic rhinitis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz