RheumatologyHome Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. SLE D. Gout 2 / 50 2. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Myelofibrosis C. Scleroderma D. Primary biliary cirrhosis 3 / 50 3. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Primary amyloidosis C. Pregnancy D. Acromegaly 4 / 50 4. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Statins B. Glutethimide C. Amphotericin B D. Corticosteroid 5 / 50 5. Highest incidence of rheumatoid factor (RF) is found in: A. SLE B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome 6 / 50 6. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all except: A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Hodgkin's disease C. Gastrointestinal malignancy D. Leukaemia 7 / 50 7. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Intense headache C. Jaw claudication D. May develop permanent blindness 8 / 50 8. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Remains as normal B. High C. Very low D. Low 9 / 50 9. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-RNP antibody B. Anti-histone antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-centromere antibody 10 / 50 10. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci C. Salmonella D. Staphylococcus aureus 11 / 50 11. Forrestier’s disease is associated with: A. Hyperostosis B. Pulmonary nodules C. Vasculitis D. Malar rash 12 / 50 12. Lyme arthritis is: A. Viral infection B. Bacterial infection C. Tick-borne spirochetal infection D. Autoimmune disease 13 / 50 13. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Exudative effusion B. High CH50 C. Protein > 4 g/dl D. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl 14 / 50 14. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Crescentic glomerulonephritis 15 / 50 15. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Lupus nephritis C. Dermatomyositis with lung disease D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 16 / 50 16. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Danazol B. Mineralocorticoids C. Tropical corticosteroid D. Diuretics 17 / 50 17. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Iritis C. Enthesopathy D. Sacroiliitis 18 / 50 18. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Bronchial asthma B. Myasthenia gravis C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. SLE 19 / 50 19. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Olmesartan B. Pegloticase C. Benzbromarone D. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra 20 / 50 20. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Psoriasis 21 / 50 21. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Scleroderma C. Childhood dermatomyositis D. CREST syndrome 22 / 50 22. Antitopoisomerase-1 virtually diagnoses: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Sjogren's syndrome 23 / 50 23. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. High-output cardiac failure B. Coldness of the extremities C. Spontaneous fracture D. Angioid streaks in retina 24 / 50 24. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Corneal deposits C. Maculopathy D. Cataract 25 / 50 25. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Telangiectasia B. Photosensitivity C. Heals with scarring D. Raynaud's phenomenon 26 / 50 26. Hands of scleroderma may classically reveal all except: A. Pseudoclubbing B. Digital infarcts C. Livedo reticularis D. Sclerodactyly 27 / 50 27. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Temporal arteritis B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Churg-Strauss syndrome D. Polyarteritis nodosa 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Pemphigus C. Myasthenia gravis D. Wilson's disease 29 / 50 29. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Allergic rhinitis B. Epistaxis C. Sinusitis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 30 / 50 30. Infliximab is directed against: A. Tumour necrosis factor-a B. Interleukin-6 C. Interleukin-2 D. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) 31 / 50 31. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Kidney C. Upper respiratory tract D. Lower respiratory tract 32 / 50 32. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Rifampicin B. Reserpine C. Oral contraceptives D. Carbamazepine 33 / 50 33. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Behcet's syndrome D. Ankylosing spondylitis 34 / 50 34. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Methysergide B. Naftidrofuryl C. Dimethyl sulfoxide D. Propranolol 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Aortic incompetence B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Amyloidosis D. Acute pulmonary fibrosis 36 / 50 36. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Decompression sickness B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Corticosteroid therapy D. Sickle cell disease 37 / 50 37. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Keratoderma blenorrhagica B. Circinate balanitis C. Subungual hyperkeratosis D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Acute pulmonary fibrosis B. Mitral stenosis C. Pericarditis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of ANA B. High serum level of C-reactive protein C. Low serum level of complement D. High serum level of anti-dsDNA 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Long bones of extremities B. Pelvis C. Phalanges D. Skull 41 / 50 41. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Alcoholic cirrhosis 42 / 50 42. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 90% cases B. 30% cases C. 45% cases D. 70% cases 43 / 50 43. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Shrinking lung syndrome B. Pneumoconiosis C. Caplan's syndrome D. Hidebound chest syndrome 44 / 50 44. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Ulcerate B. Fixed to skin C. Big D. Tender 45 / 50 45. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 B. High viscosity C. Low complement CH50 D. Cloudy in colour 46 / 50 46. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Isoniazid B. Glucocorticoids C. Ketoconazole D. Phenytoin 47 / 50 47. Heberden’s node is seen in: A. Osteoarthritis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Dermatomyositis D. Gout 48 / 50 48. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints B. Sacroiliitis C. Negative Rose-Waaler test D. Maculopapular rash 49 / 50 49. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Myocarditis D. Pericarditis 50 / 50 50. Terminal interphalangeal joint is classically involved in: A. Behcet's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Reactive arthritis D. 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