Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 55 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Pericarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Myocarditis 2 / 50 2. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Dimethyl sulfoxide B. Propranolol C. Naftidrofuryl D. Methysergide 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Diffuse glomerulonephritis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Interstitial nephritis D. Membranous nephropathy 4 / 50 4. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Heals with scarring B. Telangiectasia C. Photosensitivity D. Raynaud's phenomenon 5 / 50 5. Which of the following conditions is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Acromegaly C. Primary amyloidosis D. Pregnancy 6 / 50 6. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 30% cases B. 90% cases C. 70% cases D. 45% cases 7 / 50 7. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 4 joints B. 3 joints C. 1 joint D. 2 joints 8 / 50 8. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Phenytoin C. Ketoconazole D. Isoniazid 9 / 50 9. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Sacroiliitis C. Negative Rose-Waaler test D. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints 10 / 50 10. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine C. Finasteride D. Amiodarone 11 / 50 11. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Knee joint B. Joints of hands C. Metatarsophalangeal joint D. Spine 12 / 50 12. Which does not produce an erythematous butterfly-like lesion on face? A. SLE B. Scleroderma C. Melasma D. Lupus vulgaris 13 / 50 13. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Amphotericin B B. Statins C. Corticosteroid D. Glutethimide 14 / 50 14. All of the following produce mutilated fingers/toes except: A. Vasculitis B. Leprosy C. Frostbite D. Amyloidosis 15 / 50 15. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Temporal arteritis B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Polyarteritis nodosa 16 / 50 16. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Alveolar cell neoplasm C. Heart block D. Pulmonary hypertension 17 / 50 17. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. High-titre rheumatoid factor B. Females C. Delayed age of onset D. Low C3 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Common in non-smokers D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 19 / 50 19. Seronegative arthropathy is not associated with: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Sacroiliitis C. Iritis D. Enthesopathy 20 / 50 20. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra B. Pegloticase C. Olmesartan D. Benzbromarone 21 / 50 21. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Thrombophlebitis B. Genital ulceration C. Meningoencephalitis D. Urethritis 22 / 50 22. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Vinyl chloride B. Bleomycin C. Hydralazine D. Pentazocine 23 / 50 23. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency B. Excess of prostaglandin D2 C. Deficiency of leukotrienes D. Hypocomplementemia C2 24 / 50 24. ANA is positive in SLE in approximately: A. 70% cases B. 80% cases C. 60% cases D. 95% cases 25 / 50 25. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Reactive arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Psoriatic arthropathy 26 / 50 26. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Azathioprine B. Leflunomide C. Salphasalazine D. Etanercept 27 / 50 27. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Reactive arthritis 28 / 50 28. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Yaws B. Antiphospholipid syndrome C. Leprosy D. Glandular fever 29 / 50 29. Lyme arthritis is: A. Tick-borne spirochetal infection B. Bacterial infection C. Autoimmune disease D. Viral infection 30 / 50 30. Which organ involvement is not included within the classic triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis? A. Cardiovascular system B. Lower respiratory tract C. Upper respiratory tract D. Kidney 31 / 50 31. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Scleroderma C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection 32 / 50 32. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients C. EMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns D. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated 33 / 50 33. Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis usually do not include: A. Scleromalacia B. Episderitis C. Anterior uveitis D. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 34 / 50 34. The viscosity of synovial fluid in osteoarthritis is: A. Very low B. Low C. High D. Remains as normal 35 / 50 35. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Scleroderma B. Childhood dermatomyositis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. CREST syndrome 36 / 50 36. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Osteomyelitis B. Dactylitis C. Avascular necrosis of bone D. Polyarthritis 37 / 50 37. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Central nervous system involvement is common B. Anti-histone antibodies are present C. Nephritis is rare D. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Acute pulmonary fibrosis B. Aortic incompetence C. Amyloidosis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 39 / 50 39. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is least common in: A. Metastatic tumour of lung B. Mesothelioma of pleura C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Pachy dermoperiostitis 40 / 50 40. Finkelstein’s test is positive in: A. Dupuytren's contracture B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Cervical rib D. De Quervains' tenosynovitis 41 / 50 41. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Scleroderma C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Depression 42 / 50 42. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Working with vibrating tools B. Alcoholic cirrhosis C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics 43 / 50 43. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Ochronosis B. Gout C. Hemochromatosis D. Hyperphosphatasia 44 / 50 44. Eosinophilic fasciitis is associated with all except: A. Excessive consumption of L-tryptophan B. Eosinophilia C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Usually a self-limiting disease 45 / 50 45. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome B. Drug-induced SLE C. Polymyositis D. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) 46 / 50 46. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Psoriasis C. Reiter's syndrome D. Osteoarthritis 47 / 50 47. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B 27 B. B8 C. DR3 D. DR4 48 / 50 48. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-histone antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti-Jo1 antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 49 / 50 49. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Epistaxis B. Allergic rhinitis C. Sinusitis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 50 / 50 50. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. Intense headache B. Jaw claudication C. May develop permanent blindness D. 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