Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 35% cases B. 50% cases C. 70% cases D. 20% cases 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Pemphigus B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Wilson's disease D. Myasthenia gravis 3 / 50 3. Penicillamine and colchicine both are used in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Wilson's disease D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 4 / 50 4. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. lgM B. IgD C. lgG D. IgA 5 / 50 5. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Middle-aged females D. Gout 6 / 50 6. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Campylobacter C. Staphylococcus D. Shigella 7 / 50 7. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Acute onset of disease B. Early development of nodules C. Extra-articular manifestations D. High titre of rheumatoid factor 8 / 50 8. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency B. Hypocomplementemia C2 C. Deficiency of leukotrienes D. Excess of prostaglandin D2 9 / 50 9. Calcinosis is featured by all except: A. Childhood dermatomyositis B. Scleroderma C. CREST syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 10 / 50 10. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Congenital syphilis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Chondrocalcinosis D. Tabes dorsalis 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Common in non-smokers B. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity C. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 12 / 50 12. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Genital ulceration B. Urethritis C. Meningoencephalitis D. Thrombophlebitis 13 / 50 13. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Antinuclear antibodies B. Rheumatoid factor C. CD4 lymphocyte count D. ASO titre 14 / 50 14. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Eosinophilia B. Hyperglobulinaemia C. Dysphagia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 15 / 50 15. Anti-Jo 1 antibody is diagnostic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Dermatomyositis with lung disease D. Lupus nephritis 16 / 50 16. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Caplan's syndrome C. Shrinking lung syndrome D. Hidebound chest syndrome 17 / 50 17. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 2 joints B. 3 joints C. 1 joint D. 4 joints 18 / 50 18. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Behcet's syndrome C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Polymyositis 19 / 50 19. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. High CH50 B. Protein > 4 g/dl C. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl D. Exudative effusion 20 / 50 20. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Hemophilia B. Myxoedema C. Depression D. Fibromyalgia 21 / 50 21. Angioneurotic oedema may be treated by: A. Diuretics B. Mineralocorticoids C. Tropical corticosteroid D. Danazol 22 / 50 22. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Epistaxis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Sinusitis D. Allergic rhinitis 23 / 50 23. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Scleroderma 24 / 50 24. Infliximab is directed against: A. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) B. Tumour necrosis factor-a C. Interleukin-6 D. Interleukin-2 25 / 50 25. Dystrophic calcinosis is classically seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Scleroderma C. Vitamin D toxicity D. Extravasation of calcium salt during injection 26 / 50 26. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Interferon C. Azathioprine D. Cyclophosphamide 27 / 50 27. If a patient with scleroderma with Raynaud’s phenomenon immerses their hand in cold water, the hand will: A. Turn red B. Turn blue C. Remain unchanged D. become white 28 / 50 28. Still’s disease does not give rise to: A. Maculopapular rash B. Splenomegaly C. Positive Rose-Waaler test D. Lymphadenopathy 29 / 50 29. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Retinoids B. Alendronate C. Sodium fluoride D. Calcipotriol 30 / 50 30. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Gout B. Hemochromatosis C. Ochronosis D. Hyperphosphatasia 31 / 50 31. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals D. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals 32 / 50 32. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Allopurinol B. Colchicine C. Prednisolone D. Celecoxib 33 / 50 33. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Leflunomide B. Azathioprine C. Etanercept D. Salphasalazine 34 / 50 34. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Intense headache C. Jaw claudication D. Bell's palsy 35 / 50 35. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Kidney B. Liver C. Central nervous system D. Lung 36 / 50 36. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Alcoholic cirrhosis C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Working with vibrating tools 37 / 50 37. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Propranolol B. Naftidrofuryl C. Dimethyl sulfoxide D. Methysergide 38 / 50 38. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Temporal arteritis B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Polyarteritis nodosa 39 / 50 39. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Angioid streaks in retina B. High-output cardiac failure C. Coldness of the extremities D. Spontaneous fracture 40 / 50 40. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Pericarditis B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. ulcerative colitis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 41 / 50 41. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Polyarthritis B. Polyserositis C. Renal involvement D. Pulmonary infiltrates 42 / 50 42. Fibromyalgia is characterised by all except: A. Improvement by tricyclic antidepressant B. Focal point tenderness C. Female preponderance D. High CPK 43 / 50 43. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. DR3 C. B 27 D. B8 44 / 50 44. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium oxalate B. Calcium phosphate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate 45 / 50 45. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Mononeuritis multiplex B. Asthma C. HBsAg positivity D. Erythema nodosum 46 / 50 46. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Optic atrophy B. Corneal deposits C. Cataract D. Maculopathy 47 / 50 47. Rheumatoid nodules are characterised by all except: A. Big B. Ulcerate C. Fixed to skin D. Tender 48 / 50 48. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Sickle cell disease C. Parachute diving D. Post-renal transplant 49 / 50 49. Which organ involvement does not occur in progressive systemic sclerosis? A. Central nervous system B. Pulmonary C. Cardiac D. Renal 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is the specific antibody for SLE? A. Anti-ssDNA B. Anti-Sm C. Anti-RNP D. 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