Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 52 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium oxalate B. Monosodium urate C. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate D. Calcium phosphate 2 / 50 2. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Depression B. Scleroderma C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Parkinsonism 3 / 50 3. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Extra-articular manifestations B. Acute onset of disease C. Early development of nodules D. High titre of rheumatoid factor 4 / 50 4. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Leprosy C. Cysticercosis D. Dermatomyositis 5 / 50 5. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type III B. Type II C. Type I D. Type IV 6 / 50 6. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Myocarditis B. Aortic incompetence C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Pericarditis 7 / 50 7. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Allopurinol B. Probenecid C. Cochicine D. Benzbromarone 8 / 50 8. Drug of choice for relieving pain in osteoarthritis is: A. lbuprofen B. Diclofenac C. Acetaminophen D. Corticosteroids 9 / 50 9. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Hyperphosphatasia B. Gout C. Hemochromatosis D. Ochronosis 10 / 50 10. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Isoniazid B. Phenytoin C. Ketoconazole D. Glucocorticoids 11 / 50 11. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Reiter's syndrome 12 / 50 12. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. B8 B. DR3 C. DR4 D. B 27 13 / 50 13. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is due to: A. Deficiency of leukotrienes B. Excess of prostaglandin D2 C. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency D. Hypocomplementemia C2 14 / 50 14. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Pleural effusion B. Coronary artery aneurysm C. Hemiplegia D. Renal failure 15 / 50 15. Regarding drug-induced SLE, which is false? A. Anti-histone antibodies are present B. Nephritis is rare C. Hydralazine and procainamide are most common offenders D. Central nervous system involvement is common 16 / 50 16. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Glandular fever B. Leprosy C. Yaws D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 17 / 50 17. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Alveolar cell neoplasm B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Heart block 18 / 50 18. In Churg-Strauss syndrome, the principal organ involved is: A. Kidney B. Lung C. Central nervous system D. Liver 19 / 50 19. Scleroderma-like lesion may be produced by all except: A. Bleomycin B. Hydralazine C. Vinyl chloride D. Pentazocine 20 / 50 20. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Alendronate B. Retinoids C. Calcipotriol D. Sodium fluoride 21 / 50 21. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Ankylosing spondylitis 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Panniculitis B. Bullous lesion C. Periungual erythema D. Erythema nodosum 23 / 50 23. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Fluorosis B. Hodgkin's disease C. Osteomalacia D. Osteopetrosis 24 / 50 24. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Polymyositis 25 / 50 25. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Maculopapular rash B. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints C. Negative Rose-Waaler test D. Sacroiliitis 26 / 50 26. Lyme arthritis is: A. Tick-borne spirochetal infection B. Autoimmune disease C. Bacterial infection D. Viral infection 27 / 50 27. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Crescentic glomerulonephritis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 28 / 50 28. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Psoriasis B. Osteoarthritis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Reiter's syndrome 29 / 50 29. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Working with vibrating tools C. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 30 / 50 30. Aseptic necrosis of bone is not a feature of: A. Corticosteroid therapy B. Sickle cell disease C. Decompression sickness D. Rheumatoid arthritis 31 / 50 31. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Cataract B. Corneal deposits C. Maculopathy D. Optic atrophy 32 / 50 32. Rose-Waaler test (RF) is positive in rheumatoid arthritis in: A. 30% cases B. 70% cases C. 45% cases D. 90% cases 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not a recognised complication of SLE? A. Membranous nephropathy B. Interstitial nephritis C. Diffuse glomerulonephritis D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 34 / 50 34. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. ASO titre B. CD4 lymphocyte count C. Rheumatoid factor D. Antinuclear antibodies 35 / 50 35. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Age of onset 20-25 yrs B. Lymphadenopathy C. Thrombocytopenia D. Vasculitis 36 / 50 36. Recurrent anterior uveitis is most characteristic of: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Behcet's syndrome 37 / 50 37. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. IgA C. lgG D. lgM 38 / 50 38. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manifests as: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Allergic rhinitis C. Epistaxis D. Sinusitis 39 / 50 39. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Hidebound chest syndrome B. Shrinking lung syndrome C. Pneumoconiosis D. Caplan's syndrome 40 / 50 40. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Renal involvement B. Polyarthritis C. Pulmonary infiltrates D. Polyserositis 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not an extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Amyloidosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Aortic incompetence D. Acute pulmonary fibrosis 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Long bones of extremities B. Phalanges C. Pelvis D. Skull 43 / 50 43. Temporal arteritis is featured by all except: A. May develop permanent blindness B. Intense headache C. Jaw claudication D. Bell's palsy 44 / 50 44. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Chlamydia B. Staphylococcus C. Campylobacter D. Shigella 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Common in non-smokers B. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity C. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population D. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis 46 / 50 46. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Angioid streaks in retina B. High-output cardiac failure C. Spontaneous fracture D. Coldness of the extremities 47 / 50 47. Eosinophilic fasciitis does not give rise to: A. Eosinophilia B. Hyperglobulinaemia C. Dysphagia D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 48 / 50 48. Avascular necrosis of bone is a recognised association in all except: A. Post-renal transplant B. Cushing's syndrome C. Sickle cell disease D. Parachute diving 49 / 50 49. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteomalacia C. Osteoporosis D. Rickets 50 / 50 50. Reiter’s syndrome is not featured by: A. Subungual hyperkeratosis B. Circinate balanitis C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Keratoderma blenorrhagica LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz