RheumatologyHome Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 56 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Azathioprine B. Salphasalazine C. Etanercept D. Leflunomide 2 / 50 2. Progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS) may develop in all except: A. Heart block B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Alveolar cell neoplasm 3 / 50 3. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Staphylococcus B. Campylobacter C. Shigella D. Chlamydia 4 / 50 4. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Exudative effusion B. Glucose 10-50 mg/dl C. High CH50 D. Protein > 4 g/dl 5 / 50 5. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Behcet's syndrome D. Reiter's syndrome 6 / 50 6. Infliximab is directed against: A. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) B. Interleukin-2 C. Interleukin-6 D. Tumour necrosis factor-a 7 / 50 7. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Corticosteroid B. Glutethimide C. Amphotericin B D. Statins 8 / 50 8. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly due to: A. Mesothelioma of pleura B. Fibrosing alveolitis C. COPD D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 9 / 50 9. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Urethritis B. Genital ulceration C. Thrombophlebitis D. Meningoencephalitis 10 / 50 10. Exacerbations of SLE are produced by: A. Carbamazepine B. Rifampicin C. Reserpine D. Oral contraceptives 11 / 50 11. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals 12 / 50 12. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Hepatorenal syndrome C. Bronchial asthma D. Vasculitis 13 / 50 13. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Bronchial asthma B. SLE C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Myasthenia gravis 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is usually not a skin lesion of SLE? A. Panniculitis B. Bullous lesion C. Erythema nodosum D. Periungual erythema 15 / 50 15. The commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Myocarditis C. Pericarditis D. Aortic incompetence 16 / 50 16. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Osteomalacia C. Fluorosis D. Osteopetrosis 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Pericarditis B. Acute pulmonary fibrosis C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Mitral stenosis 18 / 50 18. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine C. Amiodarone D. Finasteride 19 / 50 19. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci B. Salmonella C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Staphylococcus aureus 20 / 50 20. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Vasculitis C. Age of onset 20-25 yrs D. Thrombocytopenia 21 / 50 21. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Photosensitivity B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Telangiectasia D. Heals with scarring 22 / 50 22. HLA B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Reactive arthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Psoriatic arthritis 23 / 50 23. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. ASO titre B. Rheumatoid factor C. CD4 lymphocyte count D. Antinuclear antibodies 24 / 50 24. The commonest metabolic bone disease is: A. Osteomalacia B. Rickets C. Osteoporosis D. Osteoarthritis 25 / 50 25. Metacarpophalangeal joints are usually not affected in: A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Reactive arthritis 26 / 50 26. Oesophagus is most commonly involved by: A. Polymyositis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Behcet's syndrome 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity B. Commonly found in rheumatoid arthritis C. Common in non-smokers D. Present in approximately 1.5% of normal population 28 / 50 28. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 1 joint B. 2 joints C. 4 joints D. 3 joints 29 / 50 29. Polyarteritis nodosa is not manifested by: A. Erythema nodosum B. Mononeuritis multiplex C. HBsAg positivity D. Asthma 30 / 50 30. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Cataract B. Maculopathy C. Corneal deposits D. Optic atrophy 31 / 50 31. In rheumatoid arthritis, rheumatoid factor is formed against: A. IgD B. lgG C. IgA D. lgM 32 / 50 32. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Renal involvement B. Polyserositis C. Pulmonary infiltrates D. Polyarthritis 33 / 50 33. Which is true regarding synovial fluid analysis in osteoarthritis? A. High viscosity B. Low complement CH50 C. Cloudy in colour D. 4000-8000 cells/mm^3 34 / 50 34. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Scleroderma C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 35 / 50 35. CREST syndrome is an aggregation of calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia and __? A. Endomyocardia B. Esophageal Hypomotility C. Edema D. Exophthalmos 36 / 50 36. c-ANCA (antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody) is diagnostic of: A. Microscopic polyarteritis B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Crescentic glomerulonephritis 37 / 50 37. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Hidebound chest syndrome C. Caplan's syndrome D. Shrinking lung syndrome 38 / 50 38. Positive ‘Dagger sign’ in X-ray of spine is a feature of: A. Psoriatic arthropathy B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Reactive arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a side effect of penicillamine? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Pemphigus C. Wilson's disease D. Nephrotic syndrome 40 / 50 40. Cytoid (colloid) bodies in the retina are recognised finding in: A. Cranial arteritis B. Retinal vein thrombosis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Reiter's syndrome 41 / 50 41. Classically which of the following does not produce polyarthralgia? A. Fibromyalgia B. Hemophilia C. Depression D. Myxoedema 42 / 50 42. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Females B. Low C3 C. Delayed age of onset D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Hydroxychloroquine B. Leflunomide C. Sulphasalazine D. Naproxen 44 / 50 44. ‘Arthritis mutilans’ is characteristic of: A. Osteoarthritis B. Psoriasis C. Sjogren's syndrome D. Reiter's syndrome 45 / 50 45. HBsAg may be present in which vasculitis? A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Churg-Strauss syndrome C. Temporal arteritis D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura 46 / 50 46. Multiple myeloma is associated with all of the following except: A. Bone marrow failure B. Bone pain C. High alkaline phosphatase D. Hypercalcemia 47 / 50 47. False-positive serological test (VDRL) persisting for 6 months is seen in all except: A. Yaws B. Leprosy C. Glandular fever D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 48 / 50 48. All of the following indicate poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Extra-articular manifestations B. High titre of rheumatoid factor C. Acute onset of disease D. Early development of nodules 49 / 50 49. Pseudogout may result from all except: A. Gout B. Ochronosis C. Hemochromatosis D. Hyperphosphatasia 50 / 50 50. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in all except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Dermatomyositis C. Leprosy D. Cysticercosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz