Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. All are true in acute renal failure (ARF) except: A. Raised Creatinine B. Raised [H+] C. Raised K+ D. Raised Calcium 2 / 50 2. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Dilute and alkaline B. Low in sodium C. Highly acidic D. Concentrated 3 / 50 3. The commonest renal lesion in diabetic nephropathy is: A. Nodular glomerulosclerosis B. Chronic interstitial nephritis C. Arterionephrosclerosis D. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis 4 / 50 4. Nocturia is not found in: A. Prostatism B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) C. Vesicoureteral reflux D. Salt-losing nephropathy 5 / 50 5. Green urine is seen in: A. Oxalate poisoning B. Black water fever C. Alkaptonuria D. Pseudomonas infection 6 / 50 6. Which is not true in orthostatic proteinuria? A. Indicates a serious underlying disease B. Maybe related to increased lumbar lordosis C. Seen in tall persons D. Primarily occurs in upright posture 7 / 50 7. Which of the following does not produce red urine? A. Microscopic haematuria B. Myoglobinuria C. Haemoglobinuria D. Acute intermittent porphyria 8 / 50 8. The commonest organism producing acute pyelonephritis is: A. E. coli B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Klebsiella 9 / 50 9. Recurrent haematuria is not classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Haemophilia C. Berger's disease D. Sickle cell disease 10 / 50 10. All of the following drugs may produce nephrotic syndrome except: A. Penicillamine B. alpha-interferon C. Colchicine D. Troxidone 11 / 50 11. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility B. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia C. Increased degradation of erythropoietin D. Reduced red cell survival 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not added to urine by tubular secretion? A. K+ B. Urea C. H+ D. Creatinine 13 / 50 13. In a patient with diabetes mellitus having hypertension, serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dl and a plasma potassium of 5.8 mEq/L are best treated with which antihypertensive agent? A. Amiloride B. Furosemide C. ACE inhibitor D. Angiotensin II receptor blocker 14 / 50 14. ‘Complete’ anuria is found in: A. Acute gastroenteritis B. Chronic Kidney disease C. Diffuse cortical necrosis D. Acute renal failure 15 / 50 15. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. Accumulation of tryptophan B. Premature coronary artery disease C. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase D. Corneal dystrophy 16 / 50 16. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Bumetanide B. Hydrochlorthiazide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Spironolactone 17 / 50 17. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a cause of ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Renal tuberculosis B. Papillary necrosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Cystitis 19 / 50 19. In IgA nephropathy, IgA is deposited in: A. Glomerular basement membrane B. Glomerular capillaries C. Glomerular mesangium D. Renal papilla 20 / 50 20. Minimal change nephropathy is better known as: A. Foot process disease B. Lipoid nephrosis C. Nil lesion D. All of the options 21 / 50 21. Commonest histological variety of nephrotic syndrome in adult is: A. Minimal change lesion B. Mesangial proliferative C. Membranous nephropathy D. Focal glomerulosclerosis 22 / 50 22. Renal tubular acidosis is not seen in: A. Medullary sponge kidney B. Leprosy C. Sickle cell disease D. Galactosemia 23 / 50 23. Absolute contraindications of renal transplantation are all except: A. HIV infection B. Hepatitis C infection with chronic hepatitis C. Previous sensitisation to donor tissue D. Active malignancy 24 / 50 24. All are true regarding renal ischaemia except: A. Most marked in proximal tubules B. Disruption of tubular basement membrane C. Patchy necrosis on biopsy D. Vasculitis is an etiology 25 / 50 25. In pregnancy-induced hypertension, which of the following suggests pre-eclampsia? A. Creatinine > 1.6 mg/ dl B. Urea >45 mg/ dl C. Diastolic BP >95 mm Hg D. Uric acid >5.5 mg/ dl 26 / 50 26. Positive Rothera’s test in urine is found in all except: A. Ketone bodies in urine B. Homocystinuria C. Treatment with captopril D. Tyrosinosis 27 / 50 27. Which of the following certainly diagnoses a renal lump? A. Slight movement with respiration B. Bimanual palpability C. Ballottement D. Band of colonic resonance 28 / 50 28. Wilms’ tumour is characterised by all except: A. Pain abdomen B. Commonest renal malignancy C. Haematuria D. Renal lump with smooth surface 29 / 50 29. Hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism is seen in: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Conn's syndrome D. Sickle cell anemia 30 / 50 30. AGN is not characterised by: A. Macroscopic haematuria B. Massive proteinuria C. Systemic hypertension D. Oliguria 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a guanidino compound? A. Guanidino-succinic acid B. Carnitine C. Creatine D. Creatinine 32 / 50 32. Dehydration should be strictly avoided before performing IVP in: A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. Multiple myeloma D. Lymphoma 33 / 50 33. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Kala-azar B. Hepatitis B C. Pneumococcus D. Malaria 34 / 50 34. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Papillary necrosis B. Renal tuberculosis C. Sickle cell nephropathy D. Acute glomerulonephritis 35 / 50 35. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) B. Mild fever C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Pyaemia 36 / 50 36. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Diabetes insipidus B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Hypercalcaemia D. Chronic renal failure 37 / 50 37. The most beneficial drug in enuresis is: A. Haloperidol B. Fluoxetine C. Chlorpromazine D. Trimipramine 38 / 50 38. Nephrotic syndrome may be associated with hypertension in all except: A. SLE B. Diabetes mellitus C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) D. Focal glomerulosclerosis 39 / 50 39. Serum add phosphatase level is increased in all except: A. Hairy cell leukaemia B. Amyloidosis C. Gaucher's disease D. Prostatic carcinoma 40 / 50 40. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Thrombocytosis B. Hyperammonaemia C. Lenticonus D. Band keratopathy 41 / 50 41. Waxy casts are: A. Virtually not found in normal urine B. Usually not found in nephritic syndrome C. Specific for acute glomerulonephritis D. Frequently seen in UTI 42 / 50 42. Acidic urine is produced in: A. Chronic renal failure B. UTI by Proteus C. Renal tubular acidosis D. High vegetarian diet 43 / 50 43. Struvite stone is usually a result of urinary infection by: A. Pseudomonas B. Proteus C. Staphylococcus D. Klebsiella 44 / 50 44. Chronic phenacetin intake may lead to: A. Papillary necrosis B. Cortical necrosis C. Glomerulosclerosis D. Tubular necrosi 45 / 50 45. Complications of AGN include all except: A. Acute renal failure B. Hypertensive encephalopathy C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Respiratory tract infections 46 / 50 46. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. Radiocontrast media B. High protein feeding C. Administration of mannitol D. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus 47 / 50 47. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Medullary cystic kidney B. Gouty nephropathy C. Papillary necrosis D. Hypercalcemic nephropathy 48 / 50 48. Bosentan is recognised as a: A. Calcium sensitiser B. Serotonin uptake inhibitor C. TNF-antagonist D. Endothelin antagonist 49 / 50 49. Absolute indication for dialysis: A. Clinical evidence of pericarditis B. Serum urea level >200 mg/dl C. Serum K+ level >6 mEq/l D. Serum creatinine level >4 mg/ dl 50 / 50 50. In stage S chronic kidney disease (CKD), the GFR falls below: A. < 10 B. <5 C. <20 D. <15 LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology