Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Left ventricular failure C. Wenckebach block D. Pericardial effusion 2 / 50 2. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Angina Pectoris C. Atrial fibrillation D. Acute left ventricular failure 3 / 50 3. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Doxorubicin C. Chloramphenicol D. Methotrexate 4 / 50 4. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Tricuspid atresia 5 / 50 5. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 50 Joules B. 200 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 400 Joules 6 / 50 6. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Wenckebach heart block C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Sinus arrhythmia 7 / 50 7. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. On the left side of lower sternum B. After holding the breath C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. In lying down position 8 / 50 8. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Tachycardia B. Left atrial failure C. Digitalis overdose D. Mitral valve calcification 9 / 50 9. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. AS C. MR D. MS 10 / 50 10. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Laennec B. Babinski C. Korotkoff D. Osler 11 / 50 11. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Water-hammer pulse C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulsus bigeminus 12 / 50 12. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. 2nd degree heart block B. Extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Sinus arrhythmia 13 / 50 13. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Down's syndrome C. Holt-Oram syndrome D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 14 / 50 14. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Orthopnoea C. Hypotension D. Pulsatile liver 15 / 50 15. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Increased JVP B. Pulmonary congestion C. Kussmaul's sign D. Hypotension 16 / 50 16. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Cardiomyopathy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 17 / 50 17. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Should be ignored B. Present in all hypertensives C. As a result of venous distension D. Related to diastolic BP 18 / 50 18. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Verapamil B. Amiodarone C. Metoprolol D. Adenosine 19 / 50 19. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Cardiac tamponade C. Acute mitral regurgitation D. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction 20 / 50 20. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 21 / 50 21. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Pregnancy C. Sickle cell anemia D. Polycythemia 22 / 50 22. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Endotoxic shock C. Mitral stenosis D. Constrictive pericarditis 23 / 50 23. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis B. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula C. Aortopulmonary window D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 24 / 50 24. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Myocarditis C. Right ventricular infarction D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Polyarthritis C. Erythema nodosum D. Chorea 26 / 50 26. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Floppy mitral valve 27 / 50 27. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 60mmHg B. 80mmHg C. 40mmHg D. 30mmHg 28 / 50 28. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus AR B. ASD plus MR C. VSD plus MS D. ASD plus MS 29 / 50 29. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. WPW syndrome C. Hypothermia D. Sick sinus syndrome 30 / 50 30. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 31 / 50 31. Still’s murmur is: A. Best heard over mitral area B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Commonly found in children D. Associated with thrill 32 / 50 32. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Hypokalaemia C. Left bundle branch block D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 33 / 50 33. All are true in severe PS except: A. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 B. The ejection click goes away from S1 C. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased D. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur 34 / 50 34. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral incompetence 35 / 50 35. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. Coarctation of aorta 36 / 50 36. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 37 / 50 37. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 38 / 50 38. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Morning-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Night-time single dosage 39 / 50 39. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta B. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels C. Aneurysm of subclavian artery D. Takayasu's disease 40 / 50 40. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 6-9th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 10-12th rib 41 / 50 41. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Increased LDH3 B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L D. Inverted T wave in ECG 42 / 50 42. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with tight PS B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with CCF D. AR with systemic hypertension 43 / 50 43. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Stenosis is severe D. Occurs immediately after S1 44 / 50 44. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Restenosis cases D. Absence of valvular calcification 45 / 50 45. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Standing B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Leg raising 46 / 50 46. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. MS D. Coarctation of aorta 47 / 50 47. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. Rheumatic carditis C. Digitalis toxicity D. WPW syndrome 48 / 50 48. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Acrocyanosis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Livedo reticularis 49 / 50 49. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. AR C. MR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 50 / 50 50. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. MR C. AS D. 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