Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. S4 is not associated with: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Systemic hypertension D. Aortic stenosis 2 / 50 2. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Lisinopril C. Amiodarone D. Amrinone 3 / 50 3. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Single ventricle C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 4 / 50 4. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptoroccus viridans B. Pneumococcus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus faecalis 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Ascites C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulmonary oedema 6 / 50 6. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined MS and AS C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined AS and AR 7 / 50 7. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Tall T-waves C. Shortened PR interval D. Diminished QT interval 8 / 50 8. The murmur of MS is: A. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation B. With radiation towards left axilla C. Early diastolic D. High-pitched 9 / 50 9. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. VSD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ebstein's anomaly 10 / 50 10. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Right atrial myxoma D. Mitral valve prolapse 11 / 50 11. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Supravalvular AS C. Infundibular PS D. Ebstein's anomaly 12 / 50 12. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised small dense LDL B. Reduced HDL C. Raised Lipoprotein (a) D. Raised VLDL 13 / 50 13. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. SLE D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 14 / 50 14. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable S4 D. Palpable S3 15 / 50 15. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ischemic heart disease D. Cardiomyopathy 16 / 50 16. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypokalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 17 / 50 17. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Emphysema C. Cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 18 / 50 18. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 30mmHg B. 40mmHg C. 80mmHg D. 60mmHg 19 / 50 19. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Gradual onset C. Residual neurodeficit D. Rapid recovery 20 / 50 20. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. HIV B. Chlamydia C. Cytomegalovirus D. H. pylori 21 / 50 21. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Left atrial myxoma D. Constrictive pericarditis 22 / 50 22. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 23 / 50 23. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. PDA 24 / 50 24. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. AR C. MR D. MS 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Homocystinuria C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Hyperthyroidism 26 / 50 26. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Polycystic kidney D. Berry aneurysm 27 / 50 27. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Autoimmune reaction B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Protozoa 28 / 50 28. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. MS D. Fallot's tetralogy 29 / 50 29. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Shows reverse split C. Shows narrow split D. Having wide split 30 / 50 30. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Atrial fibrillation C. Acute left ventricular failure D. Supraventricular tachycardia 31 / 50 31. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. A small fraction closes by the year 10 B. Haemodynamically significant C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. Moderate VSD 32 / 50 32. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Peripheral embolism C. Coarctation of aorta D. Leriche's syndrome 33 / 50 33. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 4 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 34 / 50 34. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. The ejection click goes away from S1 C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur 35 / 50 35. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Ringing in character C. Normal in character D. Accentuated 36 / 50 36. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Systemic hypertension D. Arteritis 37 / 50 37. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Trauma B. Sarcoidosis C. Tophaceous gout D. Cervical rib 38 / 50 38. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Fundus C. Palms D. Nailbed 39 / 50 39. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Presystolic C. Early diastolic D. Systolic 40 / 50 40. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. AV nodal rhythm C. WPW syndrome D. First degree heart block 41 / 50 41. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Raised JVP D. Ashen-grey pallor 42 / 50 42. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. 'f ' waves in neck vein C. Pulse deficit is > 10 D. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min 43 / 50 43. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Chronic constrictive pericarditis C. Mural thrombus D. Rheumatic valve 44 / 50 44. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortitis C. Calcified aortic valve D. Pulmonary hypertension 45 / 50 45. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Pulmonary hypertension C. MS D. AR 46 / 50 46. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-systole 47 / 50 47. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Unstable angina C. Buerger's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 48 / 50 48. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Wenckebach block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Mobitz type II block 49 / 50 49. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Lipoprotein B. Transferrin C. Homocysteine D. PAI-I 50 / 50 50. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Aortic stenosis D. Myocarditis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology