CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Rheumatic valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Mural thrombus 2 / 50 2. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Absence of valvular calcification 3 / 50 3. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Histamine C. Endothelin D. Nitric oxide 5 / 50 5. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. AV nodal rhythm C. Low atrial rhythm D. First degree heart block 6 / 50 6. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Buerger's disease C. Aortic stenosis D. Coarctation of aorta 7 / 50 7. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. There are two negative waves D. Undulating 8 / 50 8. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Floppy mitral valve C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 9 / 50 9. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive myocardial infarction B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Atrial fibrillation 10 / 50 10. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. AS C. AR D. MR 11 / 50 11. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 12 / 50 12. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Squatting C. Standing D. Valsalva maneuver 13 / 50 13. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve 14 / 50 14. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. More common in females B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. Early systolic click D. High-pitched late systolic murmur 15 / 50 15. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Calcium 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Hypothermia C. Obstructive jaundice D. Myxoedema 17 / 50 17. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Palpable opening snap C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable S4 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Hepatitis D. Alveolitis 19 / 50 19. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Cardiac tamponade D. Ventricular tachycardia 20 / 50 20. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Ventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Atrioventricular septal defect 21 / 50 21. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. ASD D. VSD 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Elevated ASO titre B. Arthralgia C. Prolonged PR interval D. Increased ESR 23 / 50 23. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. IV fluid C. Restriction of fluid D. Diuretics 24 / 50 24. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Leriche's syndrome D. Peripheral embolism 25 / 50 25. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Standing B. Leg raising C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 26 / 50 26. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. VSD C. Transposition of great vessels D. ASD 27 / 50 27. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Asplenia C. Absent clavicle D. Fingerization of thumb 28 / 50 28. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Deep Q wave C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Orosomucoid C. Haptoglobulin D. Alpha-fetoprotein 30 / 50 30. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Buerger's disease C. Lumbar canal stenosis D. Leriche's syndrome 31 / 50 31. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Conn's syndrome C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Polycystic kidney disease 32 / 50 32. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent B. Haemodynamically significant C. Moderate VSD D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 33 / 50 33. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Constrictive pericarditis 34 / 50 34. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Autoimmune reaction B. Protozoa C. Bacteria D. Virus 35 / 50 35. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Wenckebach heart block C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Sinus arrhythmia 36 / 50 36. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MS B. VSD plus MS C. ASD plus AR D. ASD plus MR 37 / 50 37. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 38 / 50 38. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Systolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Presystolic 39 / 50 39. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Amiodarone C. Amlodipine D. Lisinopril 40 / 50 40. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Kussmaul's sign C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography 41 / 50 41. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. Early diastolic C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. High-pitched 42 / 50 42. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 43 / 50 43. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Austin Flint murmur B. Left atrial myxoma C. Carey Coombs murmur D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 44 / 50 44. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class IV C. Class III D. Class I 45 / 50 45. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised small dense LDL B. Raised VLDL C. Reduced HDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 46 / 50 46. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Toxoplasma infection B. Ascariasis C. Diphtheria D. HIV infection 47 / 50 47. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. PDA 48 / 50 48. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Diastolic shock 49 / 50 49. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Late systole D. Late diastole 50 / 50 50. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Gradual onset C. Residual neurodeficit D. 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