Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Left ventricular failure C. Right ventricular failure D. Left-to-right shunt 2 / 50 2. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Tachycardia B. Left atrial failure C. Mitral valve calcification D. Digitalis overdose 3 / 50 3. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class IV C. Class III D. Class II 4 / 50 4. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Cafe au lait pallor C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Clubbing 5 / 50 5. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Right atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Mitral valve prolapse 6 / 50 6. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Left bundle branch block 7 / 50 7. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Microvascular angina D. Hyperuricemia 8 / 50 8. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. 'f ' waves in neck vein B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. Pulse deficit is > 10 9 / 50 9. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Afibrinogenaemia C. Old age D. Vasculitis 10 / 50 10. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-diastole C. Late systole D. Mid-systole 11 / 50 11. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. PDA 12 / 50 12. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Inverted T wave in ECG C. Increased LDH3 D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 13 / 50 13. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Coarctation of aorta C. Renal artery stenosis D. Eclampsia 14 / 50 14. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. Beta-blockers C. Aspirin D. ACE inhibitors 15 / 50 15. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Old age B. Hypokalaemia C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Renal failure 16 / 50 16. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Coronary osteal stenosis 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Hepatitis C. Alveolitis D. Photosensitivity 18 / 50 18. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Rheumatic arthritis B. SLE C. Viral arthritis D. Felty's syndrome 19 / 50 19. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Septic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 20 / 50 20. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 21 / 50 21. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. PAI-I C. Transferrin D. Lipoprotein 22 / 50 22. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Haemothorax B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 23 / 50 23. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. VSD C. Transposition of great vessels D. Ebstein's anomaly 24 / 50 24. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. Coarctation of aorta C. VSD D. AS 25 / 50 25. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Labetalol C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 26 / 50 26. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Tapping apex C. Cardiomegaly D. Water-hammer pulse 27 / 50 27. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Best heard over mitral area C. Usually diastolic in timing D. Commonly found in children 28 / 50 28. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic murmur in complete heart block B. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation C. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis D. Systolic innocent murmur 29 / 50 29. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows reverse split 30 / 50 30. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Dextrocardia C. PDA D. VSD 31 / 50 31. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 200 Joules 32 / 50 32. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. ASD 33 / 50 33. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Factor-X assay C. Clotting time (CT) D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 34 / 50 34. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 35 / 50 35. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute rheumatic fever 36 / 50 36. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Bush tea C. Tapioca D. Aflatoxin 37 / 50 37. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Having loud S1 C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. Found in severe AR 38 / 50 38. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 25 ml C. 50 ml D. 5 ml 39 / 50 39. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. Pulmonary valve 40 / 50 40. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Chronic renal failure C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Acute pancreatitis 41 / 50 41. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Austin Flint murmur C. Carey Coombs murmur D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 42 / 50 42. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Related to diastolic BP C. Should be ignored D. As a result of venous distension 43 / 50 43. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Angina Pectoris D. Atrial fibrillation 44 / 50 44. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Left atrial myxoma 45 / 50 45. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 46 / 50 46. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with CCF C. AR with tight PS D. AR with systemic hypertension 47 / 50 47. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Buerger's disease B. Lumbar canal stenosis C. Leriche's syndrome D. Peripheral neuropathy 48 / 50 48. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MS D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 49 / 50 49. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur B. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap C. Diastolic shock D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) 50 / 50 50. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Height of R wave maximum in V6 B. Deep Q wave C. Prominent ST elevation D. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology