Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Motor response C. Autonomic response D. Eye opening 2 / 266 2. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. High places C. Strangers D. Pain 3 / 266 3. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Frontal 4 / 266 4. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Duchenne myopathy C. Cervical spondylosis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 5 / 266 5. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Schizophrenia 6 / 266 6. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Myotonia B. Athetosis C. Tetany D. Chorea 7 / 266 7. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. T1 C. C8 D. T4 8 / 266 8. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Tone and power C. Nutrition of muscles D. Stereognosis 9 / 266 9. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Metastatic C. Glioblastoma D. Meningioma 10 / 266 10. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Tiagabine C. Ropinirole D. Pramipexole 11 / 266 11. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Cerebral atrophy C. Neurosyphilis D. Chronic motor neuron disease 12 / 266 12. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Pick's disease C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Alzheimer's disease 13 / 266 13. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cervical spondylosis C. Syringomyelia D. Motor neuron disease 14 / 266 14. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Taboparesis C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Friedreich' s ataxia 15 / 266 15. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Obesity B. Lax abdominal wall C. Hysteria D. Multiparous woman 16 / 266 16. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 17 / 266 17. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Absent tendon reflexes C. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions D. Proximal muscle weakness 18 / 266 18. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. Xth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. VIth cranial nerve D. IVth cranial nerve 19 / 266 19. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Valproate B. Topiramate C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam 20 / 266 20. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Petit mal B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Infantile spasm D. Complex partial 21 / 266 21. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Arsenic B. Lead C. Vincristine D. Alcohol 22 / 266 22. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkalemia 23 / 266 23. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Areflexia B. Ataxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Apraxia 24 / 266 24. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Hysteria C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 25 / 266 25. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Argyll Robertson pupil D. Sensory dysfunction 26 / 266 26. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Anterior neck muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 27 / 266 27. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C4, 5 B. C5, 6 C. C3, 4 D. C6, 7 28 / 266 28. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Basal ganglia B. Dura matter C. Choroid plexus D. Pineal body 29 / 266 29. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Systemic hypertension B. AV malformations C. Berry aneurysm rupture D. Emotional excitement 30 / 266 30. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypothyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 31 / 266 31. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Periorbital pain B. Absence of hereditary predisposition C. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis D. Male dominance 32 / 266 32. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Wilson's disease D. Alcoholism 33 / 266 33. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 34 / 266 34. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Restlessness B. Hung-up knee jerk C. Poliomyelitis D. Transverse myelitis 35 / 266 35. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Neuroendocrine disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 36 / 266 36. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Mania C. Paranoia D. Depression 37 / 266 37. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Bell's palsy B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Cluster headache D. Syringobulbia 38 / 266 38. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Ataxia 39 / 266 39. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Altered consciousness D. Convulsions 40 / 266 40. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Aura phase of migraine C. Cerebellar infarction D. Lesion in visual cortex 41 / 266 41. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Mania D. Cluster headache 42 / 266 42. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Migraine B. Psychosis C. Chorea D. Myodonus 43 / 266 43. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Fatal familial insomnia C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 44 / 266 44. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Alzheimer's disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cirrhosis of liver 45 / 266 45. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Lewy bodies C. Asteroid bodies D. Negri bodies 46 / 266 46. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Pindolol C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 47 / 266 47. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Sylvian fissure C. Over visual cortex D. Cerebello-pontine angle 48 / 266 48. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 49 / 266 49. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. May be associated with malignancy B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign 50 / 266 50. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Horner's syndrome C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 51 / 266 51. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Probenecid C. Chloroquine D. Amiodarone 52 / 266 52. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Ependymoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 53 / 266 53. Amantadine does not produce: A. Ankle oedema B. Livedo reticularis C. Seizures D. Fatty liver 54 / 266 54. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Fluoxetine 55 / 266 55. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Paralysis B. Hypothermia C. Disconjugate gaze D. Pin-point pupil 56 / 266 56. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Xanthochromia D. High protein content 57 / 266 57. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. White spots over trunk and limbs B. Adenoma sebaceum C. Pompholyx D. Shagreen patch 58 / 266 58. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Febuxostat C. Emetine D. Zidovudine 59 / 266 59. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Gross pedal oedema C. Myxoedema D. Parkinsonism 60 / 266 60. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Hemiballismus C. Dystonia D. Chorea 61 / 266 61. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Hiccups C. Pyramidal lesion D. Horner's syndrome 62 / 266 62. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Organophosphorus poisoning C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 63 / 266 63. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Hysteria D. Tetanus 64 / 266 64. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Complete ptosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 65 / 266 65. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Pure sensory stroke D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome 66 / 266 66. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm B. Diplopia C. Right homonymous hemianopia D. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left 67 / 266 67. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. PET scan C. Diffusion-weighted MRI D. MRI scan 68 / 266 68. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Red nucleus 69 / 266 69. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 70 / 266 70. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis major D. Calf muscles 71 / 266 71. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. E. coli B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. Pneumococcus 72 / 266 72. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cerebellar infarction C. Epilepsy D. Eaton-Lambert syndrome 73 / 266 73. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Babinski's sign C. Clonus D. Fasciculations 74 / 266 74. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 75 / 266 75. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Babinski's sign D. Glossitis 76 / 266 76. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 77 / 266 77. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Wilson's disease C. Haemochromatosis D. Myotonic dystrophy 78 / 266 78. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gradenigo's syndrome C. Brain tumour D. Raised intracranial pressure 79 / 266 79. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Internal capsule 80 / 266 80. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Ocular muscles are commonly involved B. Deep reflexes are depressed C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 81 / 266 81. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Autonomic dysfunction C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Pseudoparkinsonism 82 / 266 82. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Brainstem D. Cerebral cortex 83 / 266 83. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma 84 / 266 84. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Deafness 85 / 266 85. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Nystagmus C. Papilloedema D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 86 / 266 86. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Damocles syndrome 87 / 266 87. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 88 / 266 88. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Multiple tics C. Relief by haloperidol D. Dementia 89 / 266 89. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Huntington's chorea C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 90 / 266 90. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism 91 / 266 91. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Facial nerve palsy C. Cerebellar signs D. Loss of corneal reflex 92 / 266 92. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Albright's disease D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 93 / 266 93. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Optic neuritis C. Convulsions D. SIADH 94 / 266 94. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Arrhythmia D. Cardiac tamponade 95 / 266 95. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 96 / 266 96. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Syringomyelia 97 / 266 97. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral infarction 98 / 266 98. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Raynaud's disease D. Leprosy 99 / 266 99. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Lamotrigine C. Lubeluzole D. Felbamate 100 / 266 100. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 101 / 266 101. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Polyneuropathy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Loss of accommodation D. Abducens palsy 102 / 266 102. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa 103 / 266 103. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Embolic B. Inflammatory C. Demyelinating D. Hemorrhagic 104 / 266 104. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 105 / 266 105. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Cerebellar functions B. Sensory functions C. EMG D. Proprioception 106 / 266 106. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Anencephaly D. Limb shortening 107 / 266 107. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Confabulation C. Tremor D. Perspiration 108 / 266 108. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Neuropathy C. Myopathy D. Encephalitis 109 / 266 109. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Deep coma 110 / 266 110. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Cerebellar syndrome C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pendular nystagmus 111 / 266 111. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis C. Distal muscle weakness D. Exaggerated deep reflex 112 / 266 112. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Acute renal failure C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 113 / 266 113. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Viral meningitis 114 / 266 114. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 96 hours B. 3 weeks C. 24 hours D. 2 weeks 115 / 266 115. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Rubella panencephalitis B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Kuru 116 / 266 116. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Presence of nystagmus 117 / 266 117. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 118 / 266 118. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Posterior fossa tumors C. Calcification within a lesion D. Multiple sclerosis 119 / 266 119. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Peroneal muscular atrophy D. Motor neuron disease 120 / 266 120. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Transverse sinus D. Inferior sagittal sinus 121 / 266 121. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 122 / 266 122. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Atypical pneumonia C. Weil's disease D. Enteric fever 123 / 266 123. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Elapidae snake bite C. Oculomotor palsy D. Periodic paralysis 124 / 266 124. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Acromegaly C. Alzheimer's disease D. Parkinsonism 125 / 266 125. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Hemiparesis C. Facial weakness D. Aphasia 126 / 266 126. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. Seen in tall, thin people D. Quite often remits spontaneously 127 / 266 127. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Methoxyflurane C. Succinylcholine D. Dantrolene 128 / 266 128. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Sleep paralysis B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Cataplexy D. Epilepsy 129 / 266 129. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Grasp reflex B. Snout reflex C. Anal reflex D. Sucking reflex 130 / 266 130. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Coxsackie virus meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 131 / 266 131. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Sumatriptan C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 132 / 266 132. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 133 / 266 133. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Scoliosis B. Acoustic neuroma C. Optic glioma D. Meningioma 134 / 266 134. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypoxia D. Hypotension 135 / 266 135. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Cerebral cortex D. Midbrain 136 / 266 136. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. S1,S2 C. L5,S1 D. L5 137 / 266 137. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Absence seizures C. Myoclonic seizures D. Tonic seizures 138 / 266 138. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Electroconvulsive therapy 139 / 266 139. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cervical spine C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 140 / 266 140. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Platybasia B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Dolichocephaly D. Atlantoaxial dislocation 141 / 266 141. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 142 / 266 142. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Ciliary ganglion 143 / 266 143. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Absent superficial reflex B. Weakness and spasticity C. Equivocal plantar response D. Brisk deep reflexes 144 / 266 144. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Myopathy 145 / 266 145. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Two-point localisation B. Vibration sensation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Graphesthesia 146 / 266 146. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe 147 / 266 147. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Nasal regurgitation 148 / 266 148. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Drop attacks C. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness D. Diplopia 149 / 266 149. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Diabetic amyotrophy C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Polymyositis 150 / 266 150. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 151 / 266 151. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Extensor plantar response D. Masked facies 152 / 266 152. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Cerebral palsy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Leucodystrophy 153 / 266 153. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Blindness D. Focal neuro deficit 154 / 266 154. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Hysteria C. Duchenne myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 155 / 266 155. Migraine is not associated with: A. Seizures B. Diplopia C. Dysphasia D. Paraesthesia 156 / 266 156. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 157 / 266 157. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Retrograde amnesia C. Loss of immediate recall D. Defect in learning 158 / 266 158. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cord compression C. Lathyrism D. Acute transverse myelitis 159 / 266 159. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Testicular atrophy C. Frontal baldness D. Ptosis 160 / 266 160. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Ventral pons C. Cortex D. Thalamus 161 / 266 161. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Turner's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 162 / 266 162. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Neurofibroma C. Spinal epidural abscess D. Patchy arachnoiditis 163 / 266 163. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Carbamazepine C. Lithium D. Haloperidol 164 / 266 164. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. Glucocorticoids 165 / 266 165. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hyperkaliemia 166 / 266 166. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Monotonous speech C. Aphasia D. Dysarthria 167 / 266 167. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Levodopa B. Selegiline C. Amantadine D. Trihexyphenidyl 168 / 266 168. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Chlorpromazine 169 / 266 169. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Leprosy 170 / 266 170. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 171 / 266 171. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Ocular myopathy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Multiple sclerosis 172 / 266 172. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Trauma B. Encephalitis C. Febrile D. Epilepsy 173 / 266 173. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myopathy 174 / 266 174. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Snakebite 175 / 266 175. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Virus C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 176 / 266 176. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acoustic neurofibroma C. Meningism D. Froin's loculation syndrome 177 / 266 177. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Asthenia in motor neuron disease C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Dementia in AIDS 178 / 266 178. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Acute transverse myelitis 179 / 266 179. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Motor neuron disease C. Cerebral diplegia D. Multiple sclerosis 180 / 266 180. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle biopsy B. Muscle enzyme study C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 181 / 266 181. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Depression B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Visual hallucinations 182 / 266 182. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Babinski's sign C. Gonda sign D. Chaddock's sign 183 / 266 183. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Facial nerve D. Vagus nerve 184 / 266 184. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Huge ascites B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Advanced pregnancy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 185 / 266 185. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 186 / 266 186. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Amyloidosis C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. TOCP poisoning 187 / 266 187. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Onycholysis C. Hypothyroidism D. Ataxia 188 / 266 188. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Weber-Christian disease C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 189 / 266 189. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Central scotoma C. Tunnel vision D. Bitemporal hemianopi 190 / 266 190. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 191 / 266 191. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Absent deep reflexes C. Hypertonia D. Coma 192 / 266 192. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Syringomyelia B. Poliomyelitis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Neurofibromatosis 193 / 266 193. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Tropical spastic paraplegia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 194 / 266 194. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Hypothyroid myopathy C. Dermatomyositis D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 195 / 266 195. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. Xth C. IIIrd D. Vth 196 / 266 196. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 197 / 266 197. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Left ventricular aneurysm 198 / 266 198. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Horner's syndrome C. Hutchinson's pupil D. Application of mydriatic to one eye 199 / 266 199. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Encephalitis lethargica B. Trypanosomiasis C. Pickwickian syndrome D. Subdural hematoma 200 / 266 200. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Pinealomas C. Glioma D. Cerebral lymphoma 201 / 266 201. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Cerebral embolism B. Puerperal sepsis C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 202 / 266 202. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 203 / 266 203. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Polycystic kidney D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 204 / 266 204. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 205 / 266 205. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 206 / 266 206. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 207 / 266 207. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypoparathyroidism 208 / 266 208. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Lathyrism D. Elapidae group snake bite 209 / 266 209. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Leprosy C. Syphilis D. Multiple sclerosis 210 / 266 210. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Mental retardation C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Phakomatosis 211 / 266 211. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Tetanus B. Quinsy C. Diphtheria D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 212 / 266 212. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Mikulicz's syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Tuberculosis D. Leprosy 213 / 266 213. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss 214 / 266 214. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Midbrain D. Putamen 215 / 266 215. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 216 / 266 216. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Athletes B. Manual labourers C. Myotonia D. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy 217 / 266 217. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. Ocular myopathy D. Malignant exophthalmos 218 / 266 218. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Giant cell arteritis D. Trigeminal neuralgia 219 / 266 219. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypertonia B. Titubation C. Dysrhythmokinesis D. Hypermetria 220 / 266 220. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Flexor spasm C. Mass reflex D. Flexor plantar response 221 / 266 221. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Syringomyelia D. Poliomyelitis 222 / 266 222. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-21 C. Trisomy-13 D. Trisomy-18 223 / 266 223. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Parkinsonism C. Cerebellar disorder D. Aortic incompetence 224 / 266 224. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Choreoathetosis C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Mental retardation 225 / 266 225. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Looking to the roof C. Looking in front D. Reading a book 226 / 266 226. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Nitrofurantoin C. INH D. Vincristine 227 / 266 227. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Multi-infarct dementia C. Post-encephalitic D. Huntington's chorea 228 / 266 228. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Severe heart failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 229 / 266 229. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Acalculia B. Agraphia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Aphasia 230 / 266 230. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Parkinsonism B. Acromegaly C. Gynaecomastia D. Galactorrhoea 231 / 266 231. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Basal ganglia infarction 232 / 266 232. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Absence of root pain B. Viral or post-vaccinal C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Bladder involvement is very late 233 / 266 233. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 234 / 266 234. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Cervical rib 235 / 266 235. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Intact proprioception B. Sensory ataxia C. Increased tone D. Brisk deep reflexes 236 / 266 236. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Thiocyanates D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids 237 / 266 237. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus D. Huntington's disease 238 / 266 238. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents vasospasm B. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF C. Prevents rebleeding D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 239 / 266 239. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Corticosteroid C. Interferon D. Immunoglobulin 240 / 266 240. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Vestibular lesion 241 / 266 241. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Enophthalmos C. Anhidrosis D. Constricted pupil 242 / 266 242. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Osteomalacia B. Ataxia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 243 / 266 243. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Klinefelter's syndrome 244 / 266 244. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Myxoedema C. Alcohol D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 245 / 266 245. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Pinealomas D. Multiple sclerosis 246 / 266 246. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Cerebellar disorder C. Amblyopia D. Pontine glioma 247 / 266 247. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Brain tumor 248 / 266 248. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Epilepsy B. Transient ischemic attack C. Head injury D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 249 / 266 249. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aphasia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Acalculia 250 / 266 250. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common in women B. Hereditary predisposition C. Common migraine has aura D. Hemicranial headache 251 / 266 251. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Hypoxia B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Malignant hypertension 252 / 266 252. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Midbrain C. Upper pons D. Medulla 253 / 266 253. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 254 / 266 254. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Dementia C. Urinary incontinence D. Normal intellectual activity 255 / 266 255. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Tremor C. Normal reflexes D. Rigidity 256 / 266 256. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Early Alzheimer's disease C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Duodenal stenosis 257 / 266 257. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Flumazenil B. Carbamazepine C. Amphetamines D. Cocaine 258 / 266 258. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Pentoxifylline C. Clopidogrel D. Ticlopidine 259 / 266 259. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Sudden onset C. Babinski's sign D. Small, spastic tongue 260 / 266 260. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 261 / 266 261. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Synonymous with pin-point pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Abnormal neurological movement disorder 262 / 266 262. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Hyponatraemia C. Rheumatic fever D. Wilson's disease 263 / 266 263. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Steroid myopathy C. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 264 / 266 264. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Dexamethasone B. Oral glycerol C. IV frusemide D. IV mannitol 265 / 266 265. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Has a good prognosis in children B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 266 / 266 266. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Increased deep reflexes D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology