Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Verapamil D. Phenytoin 2 / 266 2. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypoxia B. Hypocapnia C. Hypotension D. Hyponatremia 3 / 266 3. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer's disease C. Pick's disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 4 / 266 4. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Spasticity B. Babinski's sign C. Fasciculations D. Clonus 5 / 266 5. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Sturge-Weber disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Weber-Christian disease D. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome 6 / 266 6. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Venous thrombosis D. Acute myocardial infarction 7 / 266 7. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Myoglobinuria may be associated with D. Has a good prognosis in children 8 / 266 8. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Neurofibroma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Patchy arachnoiditis 9 / 266 9. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Organophosphorus poisoning 10 / 266 10. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Beta oxalyl amino alanine D. Aflatoxin 11 / 266 11. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 12 / 266 12. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypokalemia 13 / 266 13. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Brain tumor C. Cerebral infarction D. Cerebral haemorrhage 14 / 266 14. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Proximal muscle weakness B. Wasting of muscles C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions 15 / 266 15. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome C. Cerebellar infarction D. Epilepsy 16 / 266 16. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th 17 / 266 17. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Paralysis of soft palate C. Polyneuropathy D. Loss of accommodation 18 / 266 18. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myelopathy B. Neuropathy C. Encephalitis D. Myopathy 19 / 266 19. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Optic glioma C. Scoliosis D. Meningioma 20 / 266 20. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cluster headache B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Syringobulbia D. Bell's palsy 21 / 266 21. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Pons B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Cortex 22 / 266 22. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Tonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Myoclonic seizures 23 / 266 23. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Cocaine B. Flumazenil C. Carbamazepine D. Amphetamines 24 / 266 24. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Immune disorder 25 / 266 25. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Hypoglycaemia 26 / 266 26. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 27 / 266 27. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 28 / 266 28. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lamotrigine B. Felbamate C. Vigabatrin D. Lubeluzole 29 / 266 29. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Polyneuropathy D. Subacute combined degeneration 30 / 266 30. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Deep coma B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Hyperkalemia 31 / 266 31. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. E. coli D. H. influenzae 32 / 266 32. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 33 / 266 33. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Wernicke's encephalopathy C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Multiple sclerosis 34 / 266 34. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Internal capsule C. Thalamus D. Cerebral cortex 35 / 266 35. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Rabies B. Myasthenia gravis C. Poliomyelitis D. Snakebite 36 / 266 36. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Cervical spondylosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 37 / 266 37. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Abnormal neurological movement disorder C. Synonymous with pin-point pupil D. Unequal pupil 38 / 266 38. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Cerebellar disorder 39 / 266 39. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Botulinus poisoning B. Elapidae group snake bite C. Periodic paralysis D. Lathyrism 40 / 266 40. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Polycystic kidney C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Takayasu's disease 41 / 266 41. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Galactosaemia D. Haemochromatosis 42 / 266 42. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Increased tone in flexor groups B. Flexor spasm C. Mass reflex D. Flexor plantar response 43 / 266 43. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Midbrain C. Upper pons D. Lower pons 44 / 266 44. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 45 / 266 45. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Muscle biopsy C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 46 / 266 46. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents vasospasm D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 47 / 266 47. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Amblyopia B. Pontine glioma C. Cerebellar disorder D. Phenytoin toxicity 48 / 266 48. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 49 / 266 49. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Psychosis B. Chorea C. Migraine D. Myodonus 50 / 266 50. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Gross pedal oedema B. Parkinsonism C. Myxoedema D. Tabes dorsalis 51 / 266 51. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Cataplexy C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Sleep paralysis 52 / 266 52. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Tremor C. Rigidity D. Hyperkinesia 53 / 266 53. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Relief by haloperidol B. Coprolalia C. Dementia D. Multiple tics 54 / 266 54. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Thrombocytopenia D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 55 / 266 55. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Defect in learning C. Confabulation D. Retrograde amnesia 56 / 266 56. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Progressive muscular atrophy D. Botulism 57 / 266 57. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Neurosarcoidosis C. Viral meningitis D. Meningococcal meningitis 58 / 266 58. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Absent superficial reflex C. Weakness and spasticity D. Equivocal plantar response 59 / 266 59. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Motor neuron disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral diplegia 60 / 266 60. Lithium is not used in: A. Cluster headache B. Mania C. Polycythaemia vera D. SIADH 61 / 266 61. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Gonda sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Chaddock's sign 62 / 266 62. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 63 / 266 63. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Diabetes mellitus C. Brain tumour D. Gradenigo's syndrome 64 / 266 64. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Common in women C. Hemicranial headache D. Hereditary predisposition 65 / 266 65. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Sarcoidosis 66 / 266 66. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Facial nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 67 / 266 67. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Hepatic precoma C. Taboparesis D. Friedreich' s ataxia 68 / 266 68. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Leprosy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Diabetic amyotrophy D. Polymyositis 69 / 266 69. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Fourth ventricle B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 70 / 266 70. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basilar artery thrombosis D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 71 / 266 71. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Topiramate B. Valproate C. Diazepam D. Ethosuximide 72 / 266 72. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Xth C. Vllth D. IIIrd 73 / 266 73. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Altered consciousness C. Headache D. Convulsions 74 / 266 74. Miosis is found in all except: A. Old age B. Myotonic pupil C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Application of pilocarpine drops 75 / 266 75. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Limb shortening C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Anencephaly 76 / 266 76. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Embolic C. Hemorrhagic D. Inflammatory 77 / 266 77. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 78 / 266 78. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Central scotoma B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Tunnel vision 79 / 266 79. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Ocular myopathy 80 / 266 80. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 81 / 266 81. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Aphasia B. Papilloedema C. Temporal pallor of optic disc D. Nystagmus 82 / 266 82. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. TOCP poisoning B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Amyloidosis 83 / 266 83. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Sylvian fissure C. Cerebello-pontine angle D. Over visual cortex 84 / 266 84. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Leprosy 85 / 266 85. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 96 hours C. 24 hours D. 2 weeks 86 / 266 86. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peroneal muscular atrophy B. Common peroneal nerve palsy C. Motor neuron disease D. Peripheral neuropathy 87 / 266 87. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Anterior neck muscles B. Proximal limb muscles C. Ocular muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 88 / 266 88. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Amantadine B. Selegiline C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 89 / 266 89. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. Huntington's disease B. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 90 / 266 90. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Midbrain lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Posterior fossa lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 91 / 266 91. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 92 / 266 92. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 5-10 μg/ml 93 / 266 93. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Hyponatraemia C. Wilson's disease D. Thyrotoxicosis 94 / 266 94. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Acanthocytosis of RBC B. Deafness C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 95 / 266 95. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Diarrhoea B. Onycholysis C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 96 / 266 96. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Cephalosporins C. Aminoglycosides D. Quinolones 97 / 266 97. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Venous sinus thrombosis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 98 / 266 98. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 99 / 266 99. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Cerebral atrophy C. Neurosyphilis D. Lacunar infarction 100 / 266 100. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Diplopia D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 101 / 266 101. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Albright's disease B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 102 / 266 102. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 103 / 266 103. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 104 / 266 104. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Periorbital pain D. Absence of hereditary predisposition 105 / 266 105. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Cerebellar signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Loss of corneal reflex 106 / 266 106. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Emetine B. Zidovudine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 107 / 266 107. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Generalized tonic clonic B. Infantile spasm C. Petit mal D. Complex partial 108 / 266 108. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Apraxia C. Agnosia D. Aphasia 109 / 266 109. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Aspirin B. Clopidogrel C. Ticlopidine D. Pentoxifylline 110 / 266 110. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Leprosy 111 / 266 111. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Electroconvulsive therapy D. Marathon runner 112 / 266 112. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV frusemide C. IV mannitol D. Dexamethasone 113 / 266 113. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Oculomotor palsy 114 / 266 114. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Focal neuro deficit D. Blindness 115 / 266 115. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign C. May be associated with malignancy D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 116 / 266 116. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Turner's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 117 / 266 117. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Papilledema B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Infarction of occipital lobe D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 118 / 266 118. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Monotonous speech B. Dysarthria C. Dysphonia D. Aphasia 119 / 266 119. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Syphilis B. Leprosy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ethambutol 120 / 266 120. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Acromegaly 121 / 266 121. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Cerebral palsy C. Alzheimer's disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 122 / 266 122. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Diabetes mellitus 123 / 266 123. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 124 / 266 124. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Ptosis C. Brachycephaly D. Testicular atrophy 125 / 266 125. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Amiodarone C. Probenecid D. Chloroquine 126 / 266 126. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 127 / 266 127. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Optic neuritis C. SIADH D. Convulsions 128 / 266 128. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Poliomyelitis B. Transverse myelitis C. Hung-up knee jerk D. Restlessness 129 / 266 129. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Cerebral cortex 130 / 266 130. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Looking in front 131 / 266 131. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing's syndrome 132 / 266 132. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Nasal regurgitation C. Dysphagia D. Spastic tongue 133 / 266 133. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Caudate nucleus D. Putamen 134 / 266 134. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 135 / 266 135. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Lithium 136 / 266 136. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Acoustic neuroma B. Meningioma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Ependymoma 137 / 266 137. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Cortex B. Ventral pons C. Internal capsule D. Thalamus 138 / 266 138. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Titubation B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Dysrhythmokinesis 139 / 266 139. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive 140 / 266 140. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV quinine C. Glucocorticoids D. IV mannitol 141 / 266 141. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Dementia in AIDS C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 142 / 266 142. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Masked facies D. Emotional incontinence 143 / 266 143. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Hysteria B. Meningism C. After epileptic seizure D. Tetanus 144 / 266 144. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Cord compression C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 145 / 266 145. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Pure motor hemiparesis B. Pure sensory stroke C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Ataxic-hemiparesis 146 / 266 146. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Hydrophidae group of snake bite B. Diphtheria C. Quinsy D. Tetanus 147 / 266 147. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tuberculous meningitis D. Brain tumor 148 / 266 148. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Transient ischemic attack D. Epilepsy 149 / 266 149. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Interferon B. Immunoglobulin C. Corticosteroid D. Cyclophosphamide 150 / 266 150. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 151 / 266 151. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Asteroid bodies B. Schaumann bodies C. Lewy bodies D. Negri bodies 152 / 266 152. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Dementia B. Ataxia C. Urinary incontinence D. Normal intellectual activity 153 / 266 153. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cortex C. Internal capsule D. Cervical spine 154 / 266 154. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Athletes C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Manual labourers 155 / 266 155. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. AV malformations C. Systemic hypertension D. Emotional excitement 156 / 266 156. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Benzodiazepine C. Haloperidol D. Trimipramine 157 / 266 157. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Abducens nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Facial nerve D. Oculomotor nerve 158 / 266 158. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Waddling gait B. Argyll Robertson pupil C. Sensory dysfunction D. Loss of ankle jerk 159 / 266 159. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Hypoxia C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 160 / 266 160. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Seizures C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Mental retardation 161 / 266 161. Ptosis is absent in: A. Myopathy of Duchenne type B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Botulism 162 / 266 162. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Duchenne myopathy D. Hysteria 163 / 266 163. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Hemiparesis C. Facial weakness D. Coma 164 / 266 164. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg's syndrome D. Acute renal failure 165 / 266 165. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Myopathy B. Motor neuron disease C. Polymyositis D. Myasthenia gravis 166 / 266 166. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Left atrial myxoma 167 / 266 167. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy-18 C. Trisomy-21 D. Trisomy-13 168 / 266 168. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority D. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia 169 / 266 169. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Cervical spondylosis C. Prolapsed intervertebral disc D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 170 / 266 170. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Alcohol 171 / 266 171. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Duodenal stenosis B. Polymyositis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer's disease 172 / 266 172. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Anal reflex C. Snout reflex D. Grasp reflex 173 / 266 173. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 174 / 266 174. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Kuru 175 / 266 175. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Syringomyelia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Friedreich's ataxia 176 / 266 176. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Paranoia C. Mania D. Depression 177 / 266 177. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Ocular myopathy D. Malignant exophthalmos 178 / 266 178. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. Vincristine C. INH D. Nitrofurantoin 179 / 266 179. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Disconjugate gaze C. Paralysis D. Pin-point pupil 180 / 266 180. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Viral or post-vaccinal B. Bladder involvement is very late C. Definite upper level of sensory loss D. Absence of root pain 181 / 266 181. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Autonomic response C. Eye opening D. Verbal response 182 / 266 182. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 183 / 266 183. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Chorea B. Myotonia C. Athetosis D. Tetany 184 / 266 184. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Brisk jaw jerk B. Sudden onset C. Small, spastic tongue D. Babinski's sign 185 / 266 185. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 186 / 266 186. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 187 / 266 187. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Parkinsonism C. Aortic incompetence D. Cerebellar disorder 188 / 266 188. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Pituitary tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 189 / 266 189. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Cardiac tamponade C. Arrhythmia D. Tight aortic stenosis 190 / 266 190. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Platybasia C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 191 / 266 191. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington's chorea 192 / 266 192. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Intact proprioception C. Increased tone D. Brisk deep reflexes 193 / 266 193. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Coma C. Retention of urine D. Absent deep reflexes 194 / 266 194. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Rasagiline C. Ropinirole D. Pramipexole 195 / 266 195. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Toxin C. Bacteria D. Autoimmunity 196 / 266 196. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Putamen B. Midbrain C. Thalamus D. Cerebellum 197 / 266 197. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Infraspinatus C. Deltoid D. Pectoralis major 198 / 266 198. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Meningioma D. Metastatic carcinoma 199 / 266 199. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 200 / 266 200. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Leprosy D. Refsum's disease 201 / 266 201. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Horner's syndrome C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Oculomotor palsy 202 / 266 202. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques B. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased 203 / 266 203. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 204 / 266 204. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. High places B. Animals C. Strangers D. Pain 205 / 266 205. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Ankle oedema C. Seizures D. Livedo reticularis 206 / 266 206. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Paroxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Fluoxetine 207 / 266 207. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 208 / 266 208. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 209 / 266 209. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Visual hallucinations B. Early onset C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 210 / 266 210. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Presence of nystagmus D. Associated with lacunar infarction 211 / 266 211. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction 212 / 266 212. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C6, 7 B. C4, 5 C. C3, 4 D. C5, 6 213 / 266 213. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Huntington's chorea B. Post-encephalitic C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Alzheimer's disease 214 / 266 214. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Pineal body B. Basal ganglia C. Dura matter D. Choroid plexus 215 / 266 215. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 216 / 266 216. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Trypanosomiasis D. Pickwickian syndrome 217 / 266 217. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pseudolymphoma B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pendular nystagmus 218 / 266 218. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Hyperpyrexia C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Autonomic dysfunction 219 / 266 219. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Parietal lobe 220 / 266 220. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 221 / 266 221. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Aura phase of migraine C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Digitalis toxicity 222 / 266 222. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Damocles syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 223 / 266 223. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Leukodystrophy B. Tropical spastic paraplegia C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) 224 / 266 224. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Mental retardation C. Choreoathetosis D. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection 225 / 266 225. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Babinski's sign B. Anemia C. Glossitis D. Ankle clonus 226 / 266 226. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Hemiballismus C. Dystonia D. Myoclonus 227 / 266 227. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Complete ptosis B. Constricted pupil C. Anhidrosis D. Enophthalmos 228 / 266 228. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. High protein content B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. Increased CSF pressure D. Xanthochromia 229 / 266 229. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Metoclopramide-induced C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 230 / 266 230. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 231 / 266 231. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T4 D. T2 232 / 266 232. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Hyperthyroid myopathy 233 / 266 233. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Meningism B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Acoustic neurofibroma D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 234 / 266 234. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Cataract D. Alzheimer's disease 235 / 266 235. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Pyramidal lesion B. Hiccups C. Ataxia D. Horner's syndrome 236 / 266 236. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Alcohol B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Myxoedema D. Valproic acid 237 / 266 237. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Niemann-Pick disease C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Central retinal artery occlusion 238 / 266 238. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Sensory ataxia B. Apraxia C. Labyrinthine ataxia D. Cerebellar ataxia 239 / 266 239. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Mania 240 / 266 240. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Hydrosis + miosis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 241 / 266 241. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5 B. S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5,S1 242 / 266 242. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Oculomotor palsy 243 / 266 243. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Huge ascites 244 / 266 244. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia 245 / 266 245. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Osteomalacia C. Ataxia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 246 / 266 246. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Adenoma sebaceum 247 / 266 247. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors B. Flexor plantar response C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Increased deep reflexes 248 / 266 248. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 249 / 266 249. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Poliomyelitis 250 / 266 250. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Febrile D. Trauma 251 / 266 251. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh B. May occur spontaneously C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. Seen in tall, thin people 252 / 266 252. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Myopathy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Cervical rib 253 / 266 253. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. MRI scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. CT scan 254 / 266 254. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Agraphia B. Aphasia C. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe D. Acalculia 255 / 266 255. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal 256 / 266 256. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Two-point localisation D. Graphesthesia 257 / 266 257. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. External ophthalmoplegia C. Areflexia D. Ataxia 258 / 266 258. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Dysphasia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 259 / 266 259. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Poliomyelitis B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Syringomyelia D. Radial nerve palsy 260 / 266 260. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Sensory functions B. EMG C. Cerebellar functions D. Proprioception 261 / 266 261. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Multiparous woman C. Obesity D. Lax abdominal wall 262 / 266 262. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Hypnotic poisoning B. Hepatocellular failure C. Severe heart failure D. Raised intracranial pressure 263 / 266 263. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Weil's disease C. Cerebral malaria D. Atypical pneumonia 264 / 266 264. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Confabulation B. Perspiration C. Tremor D. Visual hallucinations 265 / 266 265. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 266 / 266 266. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Pseudoclonus C. Distal muscle weakness D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology