Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Absent superficial reflex C. Equivocal plantar response D. Weakness and spasticity 2 / 266 2. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus B. Thrombocytopenia C. Ataxia D. Hypothyroidism 3 / 266 3. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Prolapsed intervertebral disc B. Cervical spondylosis C. Duchenne myopathy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 4 / 266 4. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Internal capsule D. Cortex 5 / 266 5. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Tuberculous meningitis C. Brain tumor D. Multiple sclerosis 6 / 266 6. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Venous sinus thrombosis 7 / 266 7. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Vibration sensation C. Perceptual rivalry D. Two-point localisation 8 / 266 8. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. May occur spontaneously B. Seen in tall, thin people C. Quite often remits spontaneously D. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh 9 / 266 9. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tuberculosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Leprosy 10 / 266 10. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 11 / 266 11. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. X-linked dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal dominant 12 / 266 12. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Duchenne myopathy D. Hysteria 13 / 266 13. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma B. Meningioma C. Medulloblastoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 14 / 266 14. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Subdural hematoma D. Encephalitis lethargica 15 / 266 15. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Ciliary ganglion B. Oculomotor nerve C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 16 / 266 16. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic D. May be associated with malignancy 17 / 266 17. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Diplopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 18 / 266 18. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 24 hours C. 2 weeks D. 96 hours 19 / 266 19. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Ventral pons D. Thalamus 20 / 266 20. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia 21 / 266 21. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Epilepsy 22 / 266 22. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor plantar response D. Mass reflex 23 / 266 23. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Multiple sclerosis C. Pituitary tumors D. Calcification within a lesion 24 / 266 24. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vth B. Xth C. IIIrd D. Vllth 25 / 266 25. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Benzodiazepine B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 26 / 266 26. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Bitemporal hemianopi B. Homonymous hemianopia C. Central scotoma D. Tunnel vision 27 / 266 27. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Rheumatic fever C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Wilson's disease 28 / 266 28. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Albright's disease D. Multiple neurofibromatosis 29 / 266 29. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Lathyrism C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute transverse myelitis 30 / 266 30. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Myodonus C. Psychosis D. Migraine 31 / 266 31. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Obesity C. Lax abdominal wall D. Multiparous woman 32 / 266 32. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Synonymous with pin-point pupil C. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil D. Unequal pupil 33 / 266 33. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Advanced pregnancy D. Huge ascites 34 / 266 34. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Alzheimer's disease C. Huntington's disease D. Head trauma in professional boxers 35 / 266 35. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. Oral glycerol B. IV mannitol C. Dexamethasone D. IV frusemide 36 / 266 36. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Absence seizures B. Myoclonic seizures C. Infantile spasm D. Tonic seizures 37 / 266 37. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Polyneuropathy C. Loss of accommodation D. Paralysis of soft palate 38 / 266 38. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Snakebite C. Poliomyelitis D. Rabies 39 / 266 39. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperpyrexia D. Deep coma 40 / 266 40. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Pyramidal signs C. Facial nerve palsy D. Cerebellar signs 41 / 266 41. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Tuberculous meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Viral meningitis D. Pyogenic meningitis 42 / 266 42. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection B. Choreoathetosis C. Mental retardation D. Retinitis pigmentosa 43 / 266 43. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Titubation D. Hypermetria 44 / 266 44. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe B. Aphasia C. Agraphia D. Acalculia 45 / 266 45. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th 46 / 266 46. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome C. Weber-Christian disease D. Sturge-Weber disease 47 / 266 47. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness B. Diplopia C. Drop attacks D. lpsilateral hemiplegia 48 / 266 48. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Visual hallucinations C. Passivity feelings D. Depression 49 / 266 49. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe 50 / 266 50. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. Glucocorticoids B. IV quinine C. 5% dextrose D. IV mannitol 51 / 266 51. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Oesophagitis B. Wallenberg's syndrome C. Acute renal failure D. Diaphragmatic pleurisy 52 / 266 52. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral embolism B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral thrombosis 53 / 266 53. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. IVth cranial nerve B. VIIth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIth cranial nerve 54 / 266 54. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Inflammatory B. Demyelinating C. Embolic D. Hemorrhagic 55 / 266 55. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Mental retardation C. Limb shortening D. Heart valve abnormalities 56 / 266 56. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. T2 B. C8 C. T1 D. T4 57 / 266 57. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 58 / 266 58. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high B. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice C. Affects at 5-15 yrs age D. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion 59 / 266 59. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Pseudobulbar palsy B. SIADH C. Convulsions D. Optic neuritis 60 / 266 60. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinitis pigmentosa 61 / 266 61. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Refsum's disease 62 / 266 62. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Coxsackie virus meningitis B. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex virus meningitis 63 / 266 63. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Meningioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Scoliosis 64 / 266 64. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Periodic paralysis C. Elapidae snake bite D. Oculomotor palsy 65 / 266 65. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Paraesthesia C. Seizures D. Diplopia 66 / 266 66. Amantadine does not produce: A. Fatty liver B. Livedo reticularis C. Ankle oedema D. Seizures 67 / 266 67. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Mania C. Cluster headache D. SIADH 68 / 266 68. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Mucopolysaccharidoses B. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 69 / 266 69. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Glioma 70 / 266 70. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Partial ptosis + miosis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Anhidrosis + mydriasis 71 / 266 71. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Multiple tics C. Relief by haloperidol D. Coprolalia 72 / 266 72. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypocalcemia 73 / 266 73. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Cerebral diplegia C. Parkinsonism D. Multiple sclerosis 74 / 266 74. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Tetany C. Myotonia D. Chorea 75 / 266 75. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Raised intracranial pressure B. Severe heart failure C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hypnotic poisoning 76 / 266 76. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Huntington's chorea D. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus 77 / 266 77. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Myopathy 78 / 266 78. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Leukodystrophy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 79 / 266 79. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Apraxia 80 / 266 80. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Viral meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Neurosarcoidosis 81 / 266 81. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Polyneuropathy C. Myositis D. Tabes dorsalis 82 / 266 82. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Deafness D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 83 / 266 83. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Gillespie's syndrome 84 / 266 84. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Sylvian fissure C. Over visual cortex D. Cerebello-pontine angle 85 / 266 85. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Petit mal epilepsy C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 86 / 266 86. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Aphasia B. Facial weakness C. Hemiparesis D. Coma 87 / 266 87. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Convulsions B. Headache C. Altered consciousness D. Non-projectile vomiting 88 / 266 88. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Macrolides 89 / 266 89. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Hyperkinesia D. Tremor 90 / 266 90. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Amphetamines B. Carbamazepine C. Cocaine D. Flumazenil 91 / 266 91. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength D. Deep reflexes are depressed 92 / 266 92. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Aphasia C. Dysphonia D. Monotonous speech 93 / 266 93. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Infertility C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 94 / 266 94. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Beta oxalyl amino alanine B. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids C. Aflatoxin D. Thiocyanates 95 / 266 95. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Wasting of muscles B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Absent tendon reflexes D. Proximal muscle weakness 96 / 266 96. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Definite upper level of sensory loss C. Absence of root pain D. Viral or post-vaccinal 97 / 266 97. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 98 / 266 98. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Cerebellar functions C. Proprioception D. Sensory functions 99 / 266 99. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Nutrition of muscles C. Stereognosis D. Tone and power 100 / 266 100. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Hyperpyrexia C. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment D. Autonomic dysfunction 101 / 266 101. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Facial nerve D. Vagus nerve 102 / 266 102. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Corticosteroid withdrawal C. Addison's disease D. Hypoparathyroidism 103 / 266 103. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Pseudoclonus D. Distal muscle weakness 104 / 266 104. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Ependymoma D. Acoustic neuroma 105 / 266 105. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Chloroquine C. Probenecid D. Amiodarone 106 / 266 106. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Emotional incontinence B. Flaccid dysarthria C. Masked facies D. Extensor plantar response 107 / 266 107. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 108 / 266 108. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Donazepril is used in treatment B. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found D. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques 109 / 266 109. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Loss of immediate recall B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Retrograde amnesia 110 / 266 110. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Mania 111 / 266 111. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Febrile B. Epilepsy C. Encephalitis D. Trauma 112 / 266 112. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Complex partial B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Infantile spasm 113 / 266 113. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Stokes-Adams syndrome B. Tight aortic stenosis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Arrhythmia 114 / 266 114. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy C. Manual labourers D. Athletes 115 / 266 115. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Toxin D. Autoimmunity 116 / 266 116. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Anemia B. Ankle clonus C. Glossitis D. Babinski's sign 117 / 266 117. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 118 / 266 118. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. Meningococcous C. H. influenzae D. E. coli 119 / 266 119. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. Emotional excitement C. AV malformations D. Systemic hypertension 120 / 266 120. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myelopathy C. Myopathy D. Neuropathy 121 / 266 121. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Interferon C. Cyclophosphamide D. Corticosteroid 122 / 266 122. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 123 / 266 123. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Diabetic neuropathy C. Leprosy D. Raynaud's disease 124 / 266 124. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Reading a book B. Looking sideways by the affected eye C. Looking to the roof D. Looking in front 125 / 266 125. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Tabes dorsalis C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Diabetes mellitus 126 / 266 126. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Lathyrism B. Botulinus poisoning C. Elapidae group snake bite D. Periodic paralysis 127 / 266 127. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Bulbar palsy D. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease 128 / 266 128. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Optic nerv B. Trigeminal nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Facial nerve 129 / 266 129. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Lead B. Vincristine C. Alcohol D. Arsenic 130 / 266 130. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Leucodystrophy D. Cerebral palsy 131 / 266 131. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Diphtheria B. Tetanus C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Quinsy 132 / 266 132. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 133 / 266 133. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Ataxic-hemiparesis B. Pure motor hemiparesis C. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome D. Pure sensory stroke 134 / 266 134. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Agnosia B. Acalculia C. Apraxia D. Aphasia 135 / 266 135. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common in women C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common migraine has aura 136 / 266 136. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Lovastatin B. Febuxostat C. Zidovudine D. Emetine 137 / 266 137. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Intact proprioception C. Increased tone D. Sensory ataxia 138 / 266 138. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basal ganglia infarction B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Carotid artery occlusion 139 / 266 139. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Amyloidosis B. Pyridoxine deficiency C. TOCP poisoning D. Acute intermittent porphyria 140 / 266 140. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Rheumatoid arthritis 141 / 266 141. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. Nitrofurantoin C. Methotrexate D. INH 142 / 266 142. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-21 B. Trisomy-13 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-18 143 / 266 143. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Papilloedema C. Aphasia D. Nystagmus 144 / 266 144. Fine tremor is found in: A. Wilson's disease B. Cerebellar disorder C. Alcoholism D. Parkinsonism 145 / 266 145. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Metastatic C. Glioblastoma D. Meningioma 146 / 266 146. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hyperthyroid myopathy B. Dermatomyositis C. Hypothyroid myopathy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 147 / 266 147. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Verbal response B. Motor response C. Autonomic response D. Eye opening 148 / 266 148. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Cerebral atrophy B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Neurosyphilis D. Lacunar infarction 149 / 266 149. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 150 / 266 150. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Mania B. Depression C. Phobia D. Paranoia 151 / 266 151. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Ursodeoxycholic acid C. Pindolol D. Reserpine 152 / 266 152. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Hypoglycaemic coma B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Marathon runner 153 / 266 153. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Myopathy C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 154 / 266 154. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Chorea B. Myoclonus C. Hemiballismus D. Dystonia 155 / 266 155. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. S1 B. L5,S1 C. L5 D. S1,S2 156 / 266 156. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Babinski's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Rossolimo's sign D. Gonda sign 157 / 266 157. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Oculomotor palsy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Horner's syndrome D. Botulism 158 / 266 158. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. Hysteria 159 / 266 159. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Venous thrombosis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral infarction 160 / 266 160. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Loss of recent memory B. Confabulation C. Presence of nystagmus D. Associated with lacunar infarction 161 / 266 161. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C6, 7 C. C5, 6 D. C4, 5 162 / 266 162. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Dysarthria B. Spastic tongue C. Dysphagia D. Nasal regurgitation 163 / 266 163. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Rasagiline B. Pramipexole C. Ropinirole D. Tiagabine 164 / 266 164. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Poliomyelitis C. Radial nerve palsy D. Syringomyelia 165 / 266 165. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Babinski's sign B. Spasticity C. Fasciculations D. Clonus 166 / 266 166. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Corpus striatum C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 167 / 266 167. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Polymyositis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Diabetic amyotrophy 168 / 266 168. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Epilepsy B. Hypnagogic hallucination C. Sleep paralysis D. Cataplexy 169 / 266 169. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Onycholysis C. Ataxia D. Diarrhoea 170 / 266 170. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Vigabatrin B. Felbamate C. Lubeluzole D. Lamotrigine 171 / 266 171. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Radioculomyelopathy C. Blindness D. Focal neuro deficit 172 / 266 172. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis C. Malignant hypertension D. Hypoxia 173 / 266 173. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Cerebellar disorder D. Amblyopia 174 / 266 174. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Strangers C. High places D. Pain 175 / 266 175. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Loss of ankle jerk B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Argyll Robertson pupil 176 / 266 176. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Choroid plexus B. Basal ganglia C. Dura matter D. Pineal body 177 / 266 177. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Early Alzheimer's disease B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Polymyositis D. Duodenal stenosis 178 / 266 178. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Froin's loculation syndrome 179 / 266 179. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Hysterical gait disorder C. Dementia in AIDS D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 180 / 266 180. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Brain tumor D. Cerebral infarction 181 / 266 181. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Transverse myelitis B. Poliomyelitis C. Restlessness D. Hung-up knee jerk 182 / 266 182. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 183 / 266 183. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Schaumann bodies 184 / 266 184. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Putamen C. Thalamus D. Cerebellum 185 / 266 185. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Upper pons B. Midbrain C. Lower pons D. Medulla 186 / 266 186. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Cerebral haemorrhage B. Pinealomas C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 187 / 266 187. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Aura phase of migraine B. Digitalis toxicity C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Cerebellar infarction 188 / 266 188. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypoxia D. Hypotension 189 / 266 189. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. PET scan B. MRI scan C. CT scan D. Diffusion-weighted MRI 190 / 266 190. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Cervical spondylosis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Motor neuron disease 191 / 266 191. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Selegiline 192 / 266 192. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue C. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy D. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane 193 / 266 193. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Wilson's disease 194 / 266 194. Miosis is found in all except: A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Myotonic pupil C. Old age D. Application of pilocarpine drops 195 / 266 195. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Aspirin C. Pentoxifylline D. Clopidogrel 196 / 266 196. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Leprosy C. Alcoholic polyneuropathy D. Diabetes mellitus 197 / 266 197. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Electromyography C. Muscle biopsy D. Nerve conduction study 198 / 266 198. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cortex B. Cervical spine C. Brainstem D. Internal capsule 199 / 266 199. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Leprosy B. Syphilis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Ethambutol 200 / 266 200. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 201 / 266 201. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Multiple sclerosis C. Alzheimer's disease D. Cataract 202 / 266 202. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Syringomyelia C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Poliomyelitis 203 / 266 203. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Sucking reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Anal reflex 204 / 266 204. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache D. Prevents rebleeding 205 / 266 205. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Brachycephaly B. Frontal baldness C. Ptosis D. Testicular atrophy 206 / 266 206. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Pick's disease 207 / 266 207. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Syringobulbia B. Bell's palsy C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Cluster headache 208 / 266 208. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Clomipramine B. Lithium C. Carbamazepine D. Haloperidol 209 / 266 209. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Normal intellectual activity B. Ataxia C. Urinary incontinence D. Dementia 210 / 266 210. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Pyramidal lesion C. Ataxia D. Horner's syndrome 211 / 266 211. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Pompholyx C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Adenoma sebaceum 212 / 266 212. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Kuru B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome D. Rubella panencephalitis 213 / 266 213. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Progressive muscular atrophy C. Botulism D. Myasthenia gravis 214 / 266 214. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski's sign B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Sudden onset D. Small, spastic tongue 215 / 266 215. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. A component of mixed connective tissue disease C. Has a good prognosis in children D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 216 / 266 216. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Froin's loculation syndrome B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Meningism D. Acoustic neurofibroma 217 / 266 217. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract D. Flexor plantar response 218 / 266 218. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Confabulation C. Tremor D. Perspiration 219 / 266 219. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Labyrinthine lesion B. Vestibular lesion C. Midbrain lesion D. Posterior fossa lesion 220 / 266 220. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Areflexia C. Ataxia D. Apraxia 221 / 266 221. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Diazepam 222 / 266 222. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 30-40 μg/ml B. 5-10 μg/ml C. 20-30 μg/ml D. 10-20 μg/ml 223 / 266 223. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Immune disorder B. Neuroendocrine disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Psychiatric disorder 224 / 266 224. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Lathyrism 225 / 266 225. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia B. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority C. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss D. May be precipitated by drug toxicity 226 / 266 226. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Common peroneal nerve palsy D. Motor neuron disease 227 / 266 227. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Hutchinson's pupil B. Oculomotor palsy C. Application of mydriatic to one eye D. Horner's syndrome 228 / 266 228. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluvoxamine B. Sertraline C. Fluoxetine D. Paroxetine 229 / 266 229. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Hepatic precoma B. Friedreich' s ataxia C. Taboparesis D. Subacute combined degeneration 230 / 266 230. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Brain tumour C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Gradenigo's syndrome 231 / 266 231. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Anhidrosis B. Constricted pupil C. Complete ptosis D. Enophthalmos 232 / 266 232. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Enteric fever B. Cerebral malaria C. Weil's disease D. Atypical pneumonia 233 / 266 233. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Gross pedal oedema C. Parkinsonism D. Tabes dorsalis 234 / 266 234. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Halothane B. Succinylcholine C. Methoxyflurane D. Dantrolene 235 / 266 235. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Organophosphorus poisoning B. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis C. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Hereditary spastic paraplegia 236 / 266 236. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Frontal D. Temporal 237 / 266 237. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Superior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Transverse sinus 238 / 266 238. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve B. Optic nerve C. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Trochlear nerve 239 / 266 239. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy B. Ocular myopathy C. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle D. Malignant exophthalmos 240 / 266 240. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Alcohol C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Myxoedema 241 / 266 241. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Internal capsule B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Brainstem 242 / 266 242. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Verapamil B. Phenytoin C. Sumatriptan D. Atenolol 243 / 266 243. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Noonan's syndrome D. Down's syndrome 244 / 266 244. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulism C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 245 / 266 245. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Epilepsy C. Transient ischemic attack D. Head injury 246 / 266 246. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Cerebellar syndrome B. Pseudolymphoma C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Pendular nystagmus 247 / 266 247. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Drug-induced dyskinesia B. Aortic incompetence C. Cerebellar disorder D. Parkinsonism 248 / 266 248. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Absence of hereditary predisposition B. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis C. Male dominance D. Periorbital pain 249 / 266 249. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Chloride content 720-750 mg% B. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Protein content 20-40 mg% 250 / 266 250. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Positive Queckenstedt's test B. High protein content C. Xanthochromia D. Increased CSF pressure 251 / 266 251. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Motor neuron disease C. Myopathy D. Myasthenia gravis 252 / 266 252. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Putamen B. Substantia nigra C. Caudate nucleus D. Red nucleus 253 / 266 253. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism B. Idiopathic parkinsonism C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 254 / 266 254. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Galactorrhoea C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 255 / 266 255. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Disconjugate gaze C. Paralysis D. Pin-point pupil 256 / 266 256. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Ataxia C. Osteomalacia D. Hyperglycaemia 257 / 266 257. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Atlantoaxial dislocation C. Platybasia D. Klippel-Feil anomaly 258 / 266 258. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 259 / 266 259. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Phakomatosis B. Mental retardation C. Seizures D. Adenoma sebaceum 260 / 266 260. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Hypertonia B. Coma C. Retention of urine D. Absent deep reflexes 261 / 266 261. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Infraspinatus B. Pectoralis major C. Calf muscles D. Deltoid 262 / 266 262. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Post-encephalitic C. Huntington's chorea D. Multi-infarct dementia 263 / 266 263. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Coarctation of aorta C. Takayasu's disease D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 264 / 266 264. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic 265 / 266 265. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. von Recklinghausen's disease B. Sturge-Weber disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 266 / 266 266. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Spinal epidural abscess B. Patchy arachnoiditis C. Neurofibroma D. Subacute combined degeneration LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology