Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 26 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Grasp reflex C. Snout reflex D. Sucking reflex 2 / 266 2. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. Drop attacks B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. lpsilateral hemiplegia D. Diplopia 3 / 266 3. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Arrhythmia B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Tight aortic stenosis D. Cardiac tamponade 4 / 266 4. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Mental retardation B. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection C. Choreoathetosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa 5 / 266 5. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Flumazenil C. Cocaine D. Amphetamines 6 / 266 6. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Atypical pneumonia B. Cerebral malaria C. Enteric fever D. Weil’s disease 7 / 266 7. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Basilar artery thrombosis C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Carotid artery occlusion 8 / 266 8. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Motor neuron disease D. Myopathy 9 / 266 9. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Babinski’s sign B. Sudden onset C. Small, spastic tongue D. Brisk jaw jerk 10 / 266 10. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myxoedema D. Gross pedal oedema 11 / 266 11. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Equivocal plantar response B. Weakness and spasticity C. Brisk deep reflexes D. Absent superficial reflex 12 / 266 12. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Cervical rib B. Myopathy C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Rheumatoid arthritis 13 / 266 13. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Paranoia B. Depression C. Mania D. Phobia 14 / 266 14. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Optic nerv D. Trochlear nerve 15 / 266 15. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Giant cell arteritis B. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia 16 / 266 16. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Psychiatric disorder C. Metabolic disorder D. Immune disorder 17 / 266 17. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Advanced pregnancy B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease C. Huge ascites D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 18 / 266 18. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Syringomyelia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Tabes dorsalis D. Friedreich’s ataxia 19 / 266 19. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Lax abdominal wall B. Obesity C. Multiparous woman D. Hysteria 20 / 266 20. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Ataxia B. Hyperglycaemia C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Osteomalacia 21 / 266 21. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Noonan’s syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Down’s syndrome D. Turner’s syndrome 22 / 266 22. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Temporal lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Occipital lobe 23 / 266 23. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Pseudoparkinsonism B. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment C. Hyperpyrexia D. Autonomic dysfunction 24 / 266 24. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Raynaud’s disease C. Tabes dorsalis D. Leprosy 25 / 266 25. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Tropical spastic paraplegia B. Leukodystrophy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 26 / 266 26. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Trimipramine C. Benzodiazepine D. Haloperidol 27 / 266 27. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Steroid myopathy B. McArdle’s disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 28 / 266 28. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Paroxetine 29 / 266 29. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo’s sign B. Chaddock’s sign C. Gonda sign D. Babinski’s sign 30 / 266 30. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Becker muscular dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 31 / 266 31. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Xanthochromia B. High protein content C. Increased CSF pressure D. Positive Queckenstedt’s test 32 / 266 32. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Coma B. Facial weakness C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 33 / 266 33. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Visual hallucinations B. Confabulation C. Tremor D. Perspiration 34 / 266 34. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Alcohol B. Arsenic C. Vincristine D. Lead 35 / 266 35. Lithium is not used in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. SIADH C. Mania D. Cluster headache 36 / 266 36. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner’s syndrome B. Myasthenia gravis C. Botulism D. Oculomotor palsy 37 / 266 37. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position B. Protein content 20-40 mg% C. Chloride content 720-750 mg% D. Sugar content 40-80 mg% 38 / 266 38. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Proximal limb muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Pharyngeal muscles 39 / 266 39. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Acromegaly B. Parkinsonism C. Galactorrhoea D. Gynaecomastia 40 / 266 40. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Corticosteroid B. Immunoglobulin C. Interferon D. Cyclophosphamide 41 / 266 41. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Midbrain C. Cortex D. Pons 42 / 266 42. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Aflatoxin B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Thiocyanates 43 / 266 43. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Tetany D. Myotonia 44 / 266 44. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Acoustic neurofibroma B. Froin’s loculation syndrome C. Meningism D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 45 / 266 45. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Ependymoma 46 / 266 46. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Myositis B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Tabes dorsalis D. Polyneuropathy 47 / 266 47. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Leprosy B. Refsum’s disease C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 48 / 266 48. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Pure sensory stroke C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure motor hemiparesis 49 / 266 49. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Reserpine B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Pindolol D. Ursodeoxycholic acid 50 / 266 50. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Bell’s palsy C. Cluster headache D. Syringobulbia 51 / 266 51. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Marathon runner B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hypoglycaemic coma 52 / 266 52. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Thoracic inlet syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 53 / 266 53. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Niemann-Pick disease 54 / 266 54. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Transverse myelitis C. Poliomyelitis D. Restlessness 55 / 266 55. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Cerebral infarction B. Venous thrombosis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cerebral hemorrhage 56 / 266 56. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIth cranial nerve B. IVth cranial nerve C. Xth cranial nerve D. VIIth cranial nerve 57 / 266 57. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Elapidae group snake bite B. Periodic paralysis C. Botulinus poisoning D. Lathyrism 58 / 266 58. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Internal capsule B. Ventral pons C. Cortex D. Thalamus 59 / 266 59. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Absent deep reflexes B. Coma C. Hypertonia D. Retention of urine 60 / 266 60. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Medulla B. Midbrain C. Lower pons D. Upper pons 61 / 266 61. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Convulsions B. Blindness C. Focal neuro deficit D. Radioculomyelopathy 62 / 266 62. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Manual labourers B. Athletes C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Myotonia 63 / 266 63. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Hypnagogic hallucination B. Cataplexy C. Epilepsy D. Sleep paralysis 64 / 266 64. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Froin’s loculation syndrome B. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 65 / 266 65. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. MRI scan D. PET scan 66 / 266 66. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. May be precipitated by drug toxicity C. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 67 / 266 67. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Galactosaemia B. Wilson’s disease C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Haemochromatosis 68 / 266 68. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Lubeluzole B. Felbamate C. Vigabatrin D. Lamotrigine 69 / 266 69. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Febuxostat C. Lovastatin D. Emetine 70 / 266 70. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Diphtheria C. Tetanus D. Hydrophidae group of snake bite 71 / 266 71. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Friedreich’s ataxia B. Poliomyelitis C. Neurofibromatosis D. Syringomyelia 72 / 266 72. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Cerebral embolism C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Cerebral thrombosis 73 / 266 73. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis B. Male dominance C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Periorbital pain 74 / 266 74. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Brainstem B. Cervical spine C. Cortex D. Internal capsule 75 / 266 75. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Exaggerated deep reflex B. Pseudoclonus C. Distal muscle weakness D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 76 / 266 76. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Inferior sagittal sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Transverse sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 77 / 266 77. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Clonus B. Fasciculations C. Babinski’s sign D. Spasticity 78 / 266 78. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Lewy bodies B. Negri bodies C. Schaumann bodies D. Asteroid bodies 79 / 266 79. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Labyrinthine ataxia B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Sensory ataxia D. Apraxia 80 / 266 80. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus C. Thrombocytopenia D. Ataxia 81 / 266 81. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 82 / 266 82. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Pseudolymphoma C. Cerebellar syndrome D. Pendular nystagmus 83 / 266 83. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Encephalitis lethargica C. Subdural hematoma D. Pickwickian syndrome 84 / 266 84. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Muscle enzyme study B. Muscle biopsy C. Nerve conduction study D. Electromyography 85 / 266 85. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache B. Prevents vasospasm C. Prevents rebleeding D. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF 86 / 266 86. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hyponatremia B. Hypoxia C. Hypotension D. Hypocapnia 87 / 266 87. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Ethambutol B. Multiple sclerosis C. Syphilis D. Leprosy 88 / 266 88. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Ataxia B. Hypothyroidism C. Onycholysis D. Diarrhoea 89 / 266 89. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Hyperkinesia B. Tremor C. Normal reflexes D. Rigidity 90 / 266 90. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Cerebello-pontine angle B. Olfactory groove C. Over visual cortex D. Sylvian fissure 91 / 266 91. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Dermatomyositis 92 / 266 92. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Post-encephalitic B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Multi-infarct dementia D. Huntington’s chorea 93 / 266 93. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Posterior fossa tumors B. Calcification within a lesion C. Multiple sclerosis D. Pituitary tumors 94 / 266 94. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Has a good prognosis in children C. A component of mixed connective tissue disease D. Myoglobinuria may be associated with 95 / 266 95. Fine tremor is found in: A. Parkinsonism B. Cerebellar disorder C. Wilson’s disease D. Alcoholism 96 / 266 96. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hypnotic poisoning C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hepatocellular failure 97 / 266 97. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Hypermetria B. Titubation C. Hypertonia D. Dysrhythmokinesis 98 / 266 98. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Agraphia C. Acalculia D. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe 99 / 266 99. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Motor neuron disease D. Common peroneal nerve palsy 100 / 266 100. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Posterior fossa lesion B. Midbrain lesion C. Vestibular lesion D. Labyrinthine lesion 101 / 266 101. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. External ophthalmoplegia B. Areflexia C. Ataxia D. Apraxia 102 / 266 102. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Cerebral embolism C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Venous sinus thrombosis 103 / 266 103. Migraine is not associated with: A. Paraesthesia B. Seizures C. Dysphasia D. Diplopia 104 / 266 104. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. Diminished auditory acuity B. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane C. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue D. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy 105 / 266 105. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Deep coma 106 / 266 106. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Epilepsy B. Febrile C. Trauma D. Encephalitis 107 / 266 107. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Eye opening B. Verbal response C. Motor response D. Autonomic response 108 / 266 108. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking sideways by the affected eye B. Looking to the roof C. Looking in front D. Reading a book 109 / 266 109. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Metastatic B. Astrocytoma C. Meningioma D. Glioblastoma 110 / 266 110. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. 5% dextrose B. IV quinine C. IV mannitol D. Glucocorticoids 111 / 266 111. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Neurofibroma C. Subacute combined degeneration D. Spinal epidural abscess 112 / 266 112. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Generalized tonic clonic C. Petit mal D. Complex partial 113 / 266 113. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Ependymoma B. Glioma C. Cerebral lymphoma D. Pinealomas 114 / 266 114. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Lathyrism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Cord compression 115 / 266 115. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. EMG B. Proprioception C. Sensory functions D. Cerebellar functions 116 / 266 116. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing’s syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hyperthyroidism D. Bulbar palsy 117 / 266 117. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Damocles syndrome B. Gillespie’s syndrome C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Da Costa’s syndrome 118 / 266 118. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Headache B. Non-projectile vomiting C. Altered consciousness D. Convulsions 119 / 266 119. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Increased deep reflexes D. Flexor plantar response 120 / 266 120. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Graphesthesia B. Two-point localisation C. Vibration sensation D. Perceptual rivalry 121 / 266 121. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Klippel-Feil anomaly B. Platybasia C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Dolichocephaly 122 / 266 122. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Pinealomas B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Wernicke’s encephalopathy 123 / 266 123. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Xth B. Vllth C. IIIrd D. Vth 124 / 266 124. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. ‘Normal-pressure’ hydrocephalus B. Head trauma in professional boxers C. Huntington’s disease D. Alzheimer’s disease 125 / 266 125. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Ankle oedema C. Livedo reticularis D. Fatty liver 126 / 266 126. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Coprolalia B. Multiple tics C. Relief by haloperidol D. Dementia 127 / 266 127. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. SIADH C. Pseudobulbar palsy D. Optic neuritis 128 / 266 128. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Viral meningitis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Pyogenic meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis 129 / 266 129. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Ocular myopathy D. Multiple sclerosis 130 / 266 130. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Shy-Drager syndrome B. Punch-drunk syndrome C. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus D. Huntington’s chorea 131 / 266 131. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV frusemide B. Oral glycerol C. IV mannitol D. Dexamethasone 132 / 266 132. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus 133 / 266 133. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Brainstem B. Thalamus C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 134 / 266 134. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Gradenigo’s syndrome B. Brain tumour C. Diabetes mellitus D. Raised intracranial pressure 135 / 266 135. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Ischemic optic neuropathy B. Retinal hemorrhage C. Papilledema D. Infarction of occipital lobe 136 / 266 136. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Medulloblastoma D. Meningioma 137 / 266 137. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Hyponatraemia B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Wilson’s disease 138 / 266 138. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T2 D. T4 139 / 266 139. Miosis is found in all except: A. Application of pilocarpine drops B. Old age C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Myotonic pupil 140 / 266 140. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Meningioma B. Scoliosis C. Acoustic neuroma D. Optic glioma 141 / 266 141. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Pick’s disease D. Subacute combined degeneration 142 / 266 142. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Cervical spondylosis D. Duchenne myopathy 143 / 266 143. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Myopathy B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Leprosy D. Sarcoidosis 144 / 266 144. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Cerebral cortex B. Internal capsule C. Midbrain D. Pons 145 / 266 145. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Seizures B. Phakomatosis C. Mental retardation D. Adenoma sebaceum 146 / 266 146. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. Affects at 5-15 yrs age B. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion C. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high D. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice 147 / 266 147. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Mental retardation B. Anencephaly C. Heart valve abnormalities D. Limb shortening 148 / 266 148. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Aphasia 149 / 266 149. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Acute renal failure B. Diaphragmatic pleurisy C. Wallenberg’s syndrome D. Oesophagitis 150 / 266 150. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Alcoholic polyneuropathy 151 / 266 151. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Post-herpetic neuralgia D. Alcohol withdrawal 152 / 266 152. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Cerebellar disorder D. Amblyopia 153 / 266 153. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Macrolides B. Quinolones C. Aminoglycosides D. Cephalosporins 154 / 266 154. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Masked facies C. Emotional incontinence D. Flaccid dysarthria 155 / 266 155. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Duchenne myopathy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Hysteria 156 / 266 156. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Animals B. Strangers C. Pain D. High places 157 / 266 157. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Deafness C. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid D. Acanthocytosis of RBC 158 / 266 158. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Dysphagia D. Spastic tongue 159 / 266 159. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic B. May be associated with malignancy C. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron’s sign D. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage 160 / 266 160. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Hereditary spastic paraplegia D. Organophosphorus poisoning 161 / 266 161. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Depression 162 / 266 162. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Abnormal neurological movement disorder B. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil C. Unequal pupil D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 163 / 266 163. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Confabulation B. Retrograde amnesia C. Defect in learning D. Loss of immediate recall 164 / 266 164. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor plantar response B. Flexor spasm C. Mass reflex D. Increased tone in flexor groups 165 / 266 165. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Atenolol B. Sumatriptan C. Phenytoin D. Verapamil 166 / 266 166. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Multiple sclerosis C. Brain tumor D. Tuberculous meningitis 167 / 266 167. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh C. May occur spontaneously D. Quite often remits spontaneously 168 / 266 168. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Meningococcous B. E. coli C. Pneumococcus D. H. influenzae 169 / 266 169. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Poliomyelitis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Snakebite D. Rabies 170 / 266 170. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Normokalaemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercalcemia 171 / 266 171. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Ataxia B. Hiccups C. Pyramidal lesion D. Horner’s syndrome 172 / 266 172. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Digitalis toxicity C. Lesion in visual cortex D. Aura phase of migraine 173 / 266 173. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Fatal familial insomnia B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 174 / 266 174. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Putamen D. Caudate nucleus 175 / 266 175. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Chloroquine B. Ethambutol C. Amiodarone D. Probenecid 176 / 266 176. Ptosis is absent in: A. Botulism B. Myasthenia gravis C. Periodic paralysis D. Myopathy of Duchenne type 177 / 266 177. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysphonia B. Aphasia C. Monotonous speech D. Dysarthria 178 / 266 178. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz’s syndrome D. Tuberculosis 179 / 266 179. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle C. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy D. Ocular myopathy 180 / 266 180. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Temporal B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Frontal 181 / 266 181. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Myodonus B. Migraine C. Chorea D. Psychosis 182 / 266 182. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Sarcoidosis 183 / 266 183. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th C. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 184 / 266 184. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Neuropathy D. Encephalitis 185 / 266 185. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Autoimmunity D. Toxin 186 / 266 186. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 20-30 μg/ml B. 10-20 μg/ml C. 5-10 μg/ml D. 30-40 μg/ml 187 / 266 187. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Cerebral atrophy C. Lacunar infarction D. Neurosyphilis 188 / 266 188. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Syringomyelia B. Radial nerve palsy C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 189 / 266 189. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Drug-induced dyskinesia C. Parkinsonism D. Cerebellar disorder 190 / 266 190. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Common migraine has aura B. Hemicranial headache C. Common in women D. Hereditary predisposition 191 / 266 191. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Polymyositis C. Duodenal stenosis D. Early Alzheimer’s disease 192 / 266 192. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Friedreich’ s ataxia C. Hepatic precoma D. Taboparesis 193 / 266 193. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Rubella panencephalitis C. Kuru D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 194 / 266 194. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Polymyositis C. Leprosy D. Guillain-Barre syndrome 195 / 266 195. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Methotrexate B. INH C. Nitrofurantoin D. Vincristine 196 / 266 196. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Botulism 197 / 266 197. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Temporal pallor of optic disc B. Papilloedema C. Nystagmus D. Aphasia 198 / 266 198. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Stereognosis B. Nutrition of muscles C. Involuntary movements D. Tone and power 199 / 266 199. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Motor neuron disease B. Parkinsonism C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral diplegia 200 / 266 200. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Oculomotor palsy C. Periodic paralysis D. Elapidae snake bite 201 / 266 201. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Sensory dysfunction C. Waddling gait D. Loss of ankle jerk 202 / 266 202. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia B. Mucopolysaccharidoses C. Gaucher’s disease D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 203 / 266 203. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Putamen 204 / 266 204. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Cryptococcal meningitis B. Herpes simplex virus meningitis C. Coxsackie virus meningitis D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis 205 / 266 205. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Glossitis B. Babinski’s sign C. Ankle clonus D. Anemia 206 / 266 206. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Testicular atrophy C. Ptosis D. Brachycephaly 207 / 266 207. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Trisomy-13 C. Trisomy-18 D. Trisomy-21 208 / 266 208. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Urinary incontinence B. Ataxia C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 209 / 266 209. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Medial longitudinal fasciculus D. Ciliary ganglion 210 / 266 210. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Constricted pupil B. Enophthalmos C. Anhidrosis D. Complete ptosis 211 / 266 211. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. Meningism B. After epileptic seizure C. Tetanus D. Hysteria 212 / 266 212. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Asthenia in motor neuron disease B. Muscle contraction in myotonia C. Dementia in AIDS D. Hysterical gait disorder 213 / 266 213. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Shagreen patch B. Pompholyx C. Adenoma sebaceum D. White spots over trunk and limbs 214 / 266 214. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Tunnel vision B. Central scotoma C. Bitemporal hemianopi D. Homonymous hemianopia 215 / 266 215. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Brain tumor B. Cerebral infarction C. Hysteria D. Cerebral haemorrhage 216 / 266 216. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Calf muscles B. Infraspinatus C. Deltoid D. Pectoralis major 217 / 266 217. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Petit mal epilepsy D. Millard-Gubler syndrome 218 / 266 218. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Definite upper level of sensory loss B. Absence of root pain C. Bladder involvement is very late D. Viral or post-vaccinal 219 / 266 219. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Topiramate C. Valproate D. Diazepam 220 / 266 220. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Leucodystrophy B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Cerebral palsy D. Tuberous sclerosis 221 / 266 221. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Succinylcholine B. Halothane C. Dantrolene D. Methoxyflurane 222 / 266 222. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Pyridoxine deficiency B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. TOCP poisoning D. Amyloidosis 223 / 266 223. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Tiagabine B. Pramipexole C. Ropinirole D. Rasagiline 224 / 266 224. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Pineal body C. Choroid plexus D. Basal ganglia 225 / 266 225. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Left ventricular aneurysm C. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 226 / 266 226. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Sensory ataxia B. Brisk deep reflexes C. Intact proprioception D. Increased tone 227 / 266 227. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Absent tendon reflexes B. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions C. Proximal muscle weakness D. Wasting of muscles 228 / 266 228. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Confabulation B. Presence of nystagmus C. Associated with lacunar infarction D. Loss of recent memory 229 / 266 229. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Oculomotor palsy C. Hutchinson’s pupil D. Horner’s syndrome 230 / 266 230. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Head injury B. Epilepsy C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Transient ischemic attack 231 / 266 231. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Microscopically ‘neurofibrillary tangles’ are found B. Biochemically cortical’ choline acetyltransferase is increased C. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques D. Donazepril is used in treatment 232 / 266 232. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Ticlopidine B. Pentoxifylline C. Clopidogrel D. Aspirin 233 / 266 233. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1 C. S1,S2 D. L5 234 / 266 234. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Parkinsonism D. Acromegaly 235 / 266 235. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Lathyrism 236 / 266 236. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Berry aneurysm rupture B. AV malformations C. Emotional excitement D. Systemic hypertension 237 / 266 237. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. Sturge-Weber disease C. von Recklinghausen’s disease D. Tuberous sclerosis 238 / 266 238. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Addison’s disease B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Corticosteroid withdrawal 239 / 266 239. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Trochlear nerve B. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve D. Optic nerve 240 / 266 240. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Corpus striatum B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Mamillary bodies 241 / 266 241. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Alcohol D. Myxoedema 242 / 266 242. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Cervical spondylosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Multiple sclerosis 243 / 266 243. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Pyramidal signs B. Loss of corneal reflex C. Facial nerve palsy D. Cerebellar signs 244 / 266 244. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Right homonymous hemianopia B. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left C. Diplopia D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 245 / 266 245. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Idiopathic parkinsonism B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Punch-drunk syndrome 246 / 266 246. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Deep reflexes are depressed B. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice C. Ocular muscles are commonly involved D. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength 247 / 266 247. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Sturge-Weber disease D. Weber-Christian disease 248 / 266 248. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C4, 5 C. C5, 6 D. C6, 7 249 / 266 249. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Malignant hypertension C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 250 / 266 250. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Vagus nerve B. Facial nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Abducens nerve 251 / 266 251. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Hydrosis + miosis C. Partial ptosis + miosis D. Complete ptosis + miosis 252 / 266 252. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Amantadine C. Levodopa D. Trihexyphenidyl 253 / 266 253. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Carbamazepine B. Clomipramine C. Lithium D. Haloperidol 254 / 266 254. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Abducens palsy B. Loss of accommodation C. Polyneuropathy D. Paralysis of soft palate 255 / 266 255. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Myoclonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Tonic seizures 256 / 266 256. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Epilepsy C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Multiple sclerosis 257 / 266 257. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 24 hours B. 96 hours C. 2 weeks D. 3 weeks 258 / 266 258. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkaliemia 259 / 266 259. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Pin-point pupil C. Disconjugate gaze D. Paralysis 260 / 266 260. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu’s disease B. Polycystic kidney C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 261 / 266 261. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Multiple neurofibromatosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Ataxia-telangiectasia D. Albright’s disease 262 / 266 262. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Cataract C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Cirrhosis of liver 263 / 266 263. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Neurosarcoidosis 264 / 266 264. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner’s syndrome B. Down’s syndrome C. Noonan’s syndrome D. Klinefelter’s syndrome 265 / 266 265. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Hemorrhagic C. Inflammatory D. Embolic 266 / 266 266. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Myoclonus B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Hemiballismus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Dr Abu-Ahmed Dr Abu Ahmed, an Internist & Graphic Designer, has brought this website to help Medical Students in the subject of Internal Medicine. Articles: 25 Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology
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