Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. ASD B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. VSD 2 / 50 2. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Atrial fibrillation D. 2nd degree heart block 3 / 50 3. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Valsalva manoeuvre B. Standing C. Leg raising D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 4 / 50 4. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral incompetence 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Hyperthyroidism D. Nephrotic syndrome 6 / 50 6. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Fallot's tetralogy 7 / 50 7. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Coarctation of aorta C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 8 / 50 8. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Pin-point mitral valve D. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Pitting oedema C. Starts in the dependent part D. Initially noticed in the morning 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 11 / 50 11. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Mitral stenosis C. Mitral regurgitation D. Aortic stenosis 12 / 50 12. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Transferrin C. Homocysteine D. Lipoprotein 13 / 50 13. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. PDA 14 / 50 14. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent B. Haemodynamically significant C. Moderate VSD D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 15 / 50 15. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Labetalol C. Carvedilol D. Atenolol 16 / 50 16. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. SGPT C. LDH D. CPK 17 / 50 17. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Presence of J-wave 18 / 50 18. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV Lignocaine B. Carotid massage C. IV amiodarone D. Electrical cardioversion 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Hepatitis B. Photosensitivity C. Tachyarrhythmias D. Alveolitis 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Chorea C. Erythema nodosum D. Polyarthritis 21 / 50 21. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Propranolol B. Phenylephrin C. Morphine D. Amiodarone 22 / 50 22. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Autoimmune reaction D. Protozoa 23 / 50 23. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late diastole C. Mid-systole D. Late systole 24 / 50 24. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Aortic stenosis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 25 / 50 25. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. Early diastolic C. High-pitched D. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation 26 / 50 26. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive myocardial infarction B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Atrial fibrillation 27 / 50 27. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Magnesium D. Calcium 28 / 50 28. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 29 / 50 29. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Splenomegaly C. Clubbing D. Macroscopic hematuria 30 / 50 30. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) D. Diastolic shock 31 / 50 31. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Infundibular PS B. Supravalvular AS C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Lutembacher syndrome 32 / 50 32. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Doxorubicin C. Methotrexate D. Allopurinol 33 / 50 33. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Microvascular angina B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Hyperuricemia D. Morbid obesity 34 / 50 34. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. Beta-blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Aspirin 35 / 50 35. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Nailbed B. Palms C. Palate D. Fundus 36 / 50 36. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Tapioca C. Bush tea D. Aflatoxin 37 / 50 37. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Atrial fibrillation C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Right atrial myxoma 38 / 50 38. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Septic shock D. Cardiogenic shock 39 / 50 39. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. VSD plus MS B. ASD plus MS C. ASD plus AR D. ASD plus MR 40 / 50 40. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Pericardial knock D. Opening snap 41 / 50 41. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Rheumatic valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Mural thrombus 42 / 50 42. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Kussmaul's sign C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 43 / 50 43. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Mobitz type II block C. Wenckebach block D. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block 44 / 50 44. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Isolated levocardia D. Emphysema 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Cubbing B. Murmur C. Osler's node D. Splenomegaly 46 / 50 46. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Cardiac tamponade D. Haemothorax 47 / 50 47. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep Q wave 48 / 50 48. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Old age B. Afibrinogenaemia C. SLE D. Vasculitis 49 / 50 49. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound C. Stenosis is severe D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 50 / 50 50. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Felty's syndrome C. Viral arthritis D. Rheumatic arthritis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology