Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 2 / 50 2. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Graham Steel murmur B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Presence of S3 3 / 50 3. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Coarctation of aorta B. ASD C. PDA D. VSD 4 / 50 4. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 10-12th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 6-9th rib D. 1-12th rib 5 / 50 5. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 6 / 50 6. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Hypertension C. Clubbing D. Embolic phenomenon 7 / 50 7. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. WPW syndrome B. Rheumatic carditis C. Digitalis toxicity D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 8 / 50 8. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. ECG was taken in deep inspiration B. Dextrocardia C. Emphysema D. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode 9 / 50 9. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 10 / 50 10. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. MR C. VSD D. ASD 11 / 50 11. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Complete heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Nodal rhythm 12 / 50 12. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Undulating B. Better felt than seen C. There are two negative waves D. Becomes prominent on lying down 13 / 50 13. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Wenckebach heart block D. Sinus arrhythmia 14 / 50 14. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 200 Joules C. 50 Joules D. 100 Joules 15 / 50 15. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Cardiomegaly D. Water-hammer pulse 16 / 50 16. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 17 / 50 17. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. More common in females D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic 18 / 50 18. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable S4 19 / 50 19. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Acute leukaemia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Aplastic anaemia 20 / 50 20. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Anomalous origin of coronary artery C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ebstein's anomaly 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Ascites D. Pulmonary oedema 22 / 50 22. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortitis C. Calcified aortic valve D. Pulmonary hypertension 23 / 50 23. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Chronic constrictive pericarditis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Rheumatic valve 24 / 50 24. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Polycystic kidney disease B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Conn's syndrome D. Addison's disease 25 / 50 25. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Rupture B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Infective endocarditis D. Embolism 26 / 50 26. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Right atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Cardiac tamponade 27 / 50 27. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Athletes C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 28 / 50 28. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Sodium 29 / 50 29. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction B. Cardiac tamponade C. Right ventricular infarction D. Acute mitral regurgitation 30 / 50 30. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Berry aneurysm B. Polycystic kidney C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Aortic arch syndrome 31 / 50 31. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Systemic hypertension C. Disturbances in vision D. Intermittent claudication 32 / 50 32. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. ACE inhibitors B. Aspirin C. Diuretics D. Beta-blockers 33 / 50 33. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Systemic hypertension D. Pregnancy 34 / 50 34. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Old age B. Afibrinogenaemia C. Vasculitis D. SLE 35 / 50 35. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Myocarditis D. Right ventricular infarction 36 / 50 36. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Having wide split C. Shows reverse split D. Shows narrow split 37 / 50 37. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Acute severe asthma D. Constrictive pericarditis 38 / 50 38. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Bush tea C. Tapioca D. Aflatoxin 39 / 50 39. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial flutter C. Wenckebach block D. Multiple ectopics 40 / 50 40. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. MS is a recognised cause C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg 41 / 50 41. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Takayasu's disease C. Diabetes mellitus D. Systemic hypertension 42 / 50 42. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Mitral stenosis C. Myxoedema D. Carcinoid syndrome 43 / 50 43. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class IV C. Class I D. Class III 44 / 50 44. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Warning symptoms C. Rapid recovery D. Residual neurodeficit 45 / 50 45. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Wenckebach block C. Digitalis toxicity D. Pericardial effusion 46 / 50 46. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. In standing position C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 47 / 50 47. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 48 / 50 48. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Chronic obstructive airway disease B. Pericardial effusion C. Pulmonary thromboembolism D. Left-sided heart failure 49 / 50 49. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Right atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Atrial fibrillation 50 / 50 50. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Lipoprotein C. Homocysteine D. Transferrin LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology