Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Cardiomegaly D. Tapping apex 2 / 50 2. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Toxoplasma infection B. Diphtheria C. Ascariasis D. HIV infection 3 / 50 3. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Clubbing C. Hypertension D. Embolic phenomenon 4 / 50 4. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic murmur in complete heart block B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation D. Systolic innocent murmur 5 / 50 5. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Clotting time (CT) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Prothrombin time (PT) 6 / 50 6. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Cervical rib C. Trauma D. Tophaceous gout 7 / 50 7. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Right ventricular failure C. Left ventricular failure D. Pulmonary stenosis 8 / 50 8. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Massive myocardial infarction C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular fibrillation 9 / 50 9. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. Pulmonary hypertension C. MS D. Acute rheumatic fever 10 / 50 10. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Emphysema C. Cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 11 / 50 11. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Squatting C. Valsalva maneuver D. Standing 12 / 50 12. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Prominent ST elevation C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep Q wave 13 / 50 13. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Pericardial knock D. Opening snap 14 / 50 14. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Diastolic shock C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 15 / 50 15. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Thoracic deformity D. Cardiomyopathy 16 / 50 16. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Sickle cell anemia D. Pregnancy 17 / 50 17. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Hypothermia C. Complete heart block D. Myxoedema 19 / 50 19. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Pulmonary congestion C. Increased JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 20 / 50 20. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. 2nd degree heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Sinus arrhythmia 21 / 50 21. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. During inspiration C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 22 / 50 22. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypokalaemia 23 / 50 23. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Buerger's disease B. Lumbar canal stenosis C. Leriche's syndrome D. Peripheral neuropathy 24 / 50 24. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Felty's syndrome C. Viral arthritis D. Rheumatic arthritis 25 / 50 25. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 26 / 50 26. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Takayasu's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Aplastic anaemia 27 / 50 27. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Bornholm disease C. Acute mediastinitis D. Unstable angina 28 / 50 28. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Systolic C. Early diastolic D. Presystolic 29 / 50 29. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Methyldopa B. Labetalol C. Telmisartan D. Amlodipine 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Arteriosclerosis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Pregnancy 31 / 50 31. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Presence of S3 C. Late and loud opening snap D. Graham Steel murmur 32 / 50 32. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Methyldopa D. Labetalol 33 / 50 33. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg B. Found in basal region C. MS is a recognised cause D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 34 / 50 34. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Ringing in character B. Accentuated C. Normal in character D. Diminished 35 / 50 35. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. After holding the breath C. In lying down position D. On the left side of lower sternum 36 / 50 36. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Residual neurodeficit B. Rapid recovery C. Gradual onset D. Warning symptoms 37 / 50 37. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. PDA C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 38 / 50 38. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Venous hum C. S2 D. Opening snap 39 / 50 39. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. Peripheral cyanosis C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Raised JVP 40 / 50 40. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Left atrial myxoma D. Austin Flint murmur 41 / 50 41. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Cytomegalovirus C. HIV D. Chlamydia 42 / 50 42. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 43 / 50 43. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. AR C. AS D. MR 44 / 50 44. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Haemothorax 45 / 50 45. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Post-AMI C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Myocarditis 46 / 50 46. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Acrocyanosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Livedo reticularis 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Rotating tourniquets C. Morphine D. Diuretics 48 / 50 48. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Acute pancreatitis C. Chronic renal failure D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 49 / 50 49. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Carvedilol B. Pindolol C. Labetalol D. Atenolol 50 / 50 50. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class IV C. Class I D. Class II LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology