Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis D. Aortopulmonary window 2 / 50 2. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Late and loud opening snap B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Presence of S3 D. Graham Steel murmur 3 / 50 3. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Pulmonary stenosis C. PDA D. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation 4 / 50 4. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Probucol C. Gemfibrozil D. Lovastatin 5 / 50 5. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Low pulse pressure 6 / 50 6. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Accentuated C. Normal in character D. Ringing in character 7 / 50 7. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Shows reverse split C. Shows narrow split D. Having wide split 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Haptoglobulin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Alpha-fetoprotein 9 / 50 9. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve 10 / 50 10. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Diastole C. Systole D. Mid-diastole 11 / 50 11. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. 'f ' waves in neck vein B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. Pulse deficit is > 10 D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Polyarthritis C. Chorea D. Subcutaneous nodule 13 / 50 13. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea B. Fine crepitations at lung bases C. Gallop rhythm D. Dependent oedema 14 / 50 14. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent y-descent C. Prominent a-wave D. Prominent x-descent 15 / 50 15. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Opening snap B. Ejection click C. Venous hum D. S2 16 / 50 16. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. Low atrial rhythm C. AV nodal rhythm D. First degree heart block 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Bradykinin C. Endothelin D. Nitric oxide 18 / 50 18. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Kussmaul's sign D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 19 / 50 19. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Hypotension B. Raised JVP C. Pulsatile liver D. Orthopnoea 20 / 50 20. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Adenosine B. Verapamil C. Amiodarone D. Metoprolol 21 / 50 21. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Mitral stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 22 / 50 22. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Chronic cor pulmonale C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypothermia 23 / 50 23. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 24 / 50 24. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Tapping apex D. Water-hammer pulse 25 / 50 25. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Peripheral cyanosis D. S3 gallop rhythm 26 / 50 26. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Clotting time (CT) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Prothrombin time (PT) 27 / 50 27. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Hoover's sign C. Branham's sign D. Tinel's sign 28 / 50 28. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. There are two negative waves D. Undulating 29 / 50 29. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Sickle cell anemia C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Polycythemia 30 / 50 30. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. Aortic regurgitation C. Left ventricular pacing D. LBBB 31 / 50 31. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Acute rheumatic fever 32 / 50 32. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. More common in females B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. High-pitched late systolic murmur D. Early systolic click 33 / 50 33. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Isolated levocardia C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Addison's disease 34 / 50 34. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Single ventricle D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein C. Regular pulse rate D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 36 / 50 36. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased duration of QRS complex C. Increased QT interval D. Increased PR interval 37 / 50 37. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Hypokalaemia 38 / 50 38. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Prazosin C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 39 / 50 39. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Rheumatic arthritis B. SLE C. Viral arthritis D. Felty's syndrome 40 / 50 40. Sudden death may occur in: A. ASD B. Constrictive pericarditis C. AS D. PDA 41 / 50 41. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium 42 / 50 42. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. PDA C. VSD D. Dextrocardia 43 / 50 43. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Left ventricular failure B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 44 / 50 44. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-systole B. Mid-diastole C. Late systole D. Late diastole 45 / 50 45. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined MS and AS 46 / 50 46. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Emphysema C. Cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 47 / 50 47. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Splenomegaly C. Pyrexia D. High ESR 48 / 50 48. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Valsalva maneuver C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Squatting 49 / 50 49. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 3 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 50 / 50 50. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Old age C. Renal failure D. 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