Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. MS C. AR D. Pulmonary hypertension 2 / 50 2. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 3 / 50 3. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Pregnancy C. Polycythemia D. Congestive cardiac failure 4 / 50 4. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Erythema nodosum C. Polyarthritis D. Chorea 6 / 50 6. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Moderate VSD B. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Haemodynamically significant 7 / 50 7. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Aortic insufficiency D. Mitral stenosis 8 / 50 8. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. Ebstein's anomaly 9 / 50 9. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Residual neurodeficit C. Gradual onset D. Rapid recovery 10 / 50 10. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Hypokalaemia 11 / 50 11. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Rupture C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Infective endocarditis 12 / 50 12. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. Propranolol C. Surgical myotomy of the septum D. ACE-inhibitors 13 / 50 13. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Should be ignored B. Present in all hypertensives C. As a result of venous distension D. Related to diastolic BP 14 / 50 14. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Atrioventricular septal defect 15 / 50 15. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Cardiomyopathy C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Emphysema 16 / 50 16. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 17 / 50 17. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Systemic hypertension D. Angina Pectoris 18 / 50 18. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. MS C. VSD D. AR 19 / 50 19. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Acute severe asthma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 20 / 50 20. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. High ESR D. Splenomegaly 21 / 50 21. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 22 / 50 22. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class III C. Class II D. Class IV 23 / 50 23. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Sodium nitroprusside B. Labetalol C. Diazoxide D. Methyldopa 24 / 50 24. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Microvascular angina B. Hyperuricemia C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Morbid obesity 25 / 50 25. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Disturbances in vision D. Intermittent claudication 26 / 50 26. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Water-hammer pulse C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulsus bigeminus 27 / 50 27. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Takayasu's disease D. Aplastic anaemia 28 / 50 28. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. ACE inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Diuretics 29 / 50 29. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. WPW syndrome C. Digitalis toxicity D. Rheumatic carditis 30 / 50 30. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Streptococcus faecalis 31 / 50 31. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypothermia D. Vagal stimulation 32 / 50 32. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Hyperdynamic circulatory states C. Aortic aneurysm D. Coarctation of aorta 33 / 50 33. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 34 / 50 34. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Left-to-right shunt 35 / 50 35. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Sinus arrhythmia 36 / 50 36. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Transposition of great vessels C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ebstein's anomaly 37 / 50 37. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Right atrial myxoma 38 / 50 38. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Low pulse pressure B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Hypotension 39 / 50 39. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Post-AMI C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Rhabdomyolysis 40 / 50 40. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Haemothorax D. Constrictive pericarditis 41 / 50 41. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. First degree heart block C. AV nodal rhythm D. WPW syndrome 42 / 50 42. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure B. Regular pulse rate C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Low volume pulse 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Raised JVP D. Ascites 45 / 50 45. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Kussmaul's sign D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 46 / 50 46. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Sick sinus syndrome D. WPW syndrome 47 / 50 47. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Diastolic shock C. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 48 / 50 48. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Water-hammer pulse D. Tapping apex 49 / 50 49. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Trauma B. Cervical rib C. Sarcoidosis D. Tophaceous gout 50 / 50 50. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Phenylephrin B. Morphine C. Amiodarone D. Propranolol LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology