CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and MR B. Combined MS and AS C. Combined AR and MR D. Combined AS and AR 2 / 50 2. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MS B. AR C. MR D. AS 3 / 50 3. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Addison's disease C. Isolated levocardia D. Sheehan's syndrome 4 / 50 4. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Disturbances in vision D. Systemic hypertension 5 / 50 5. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 6 / 50 6. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Takayasu's disease D. Systemic hypertension 7 / 50 7. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Shows reverse split C. Remains single D. Having wide split 8 / 50 8. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Restenosis cases D. Absence of valvular calcification 9 / 50 9. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Associated with thrill C. Commonly found in children D. Best heard over mitral area 10 / 50 10. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Trendelenburg position C. Morphine D. Rotating tourniquets 12 / 50 12. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Right ventricular pacing D. ASD 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Hypothermia B. Complete heart block C. Obstructive jaundice D. Myxoedema 14 / 50 14. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Atrial fibrillation C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Pulmonary hypertension 15 / 50 15. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard in standing position 16 / 50 16. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus bigeminus B. Water-hammer pulse C. Pulsus alternans D. Pulsus paradoxus 17 / 50 17. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Clotting time (CT) D. Factor-X assay 18 / 50 18. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. Right-sided aortic arch C. PDA D. Persistent right-sided SVC 19 / 50 19. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MR C. MS D. AS 20 / 50 20. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. High ESR D. Splenomegaly 21 / 50 21. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 4 cm2 B. < 3 cm2 C. < 1 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 22 / 50 22. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Prolonged circulation time B. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation C. Diminished cardiac output D. Pericardial effusion 23 / 50 23. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Austin Flint murmur B. Left atrial myxoma C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Carey Coombs murmur 24 / 50 24. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction C. Acute mitral regurgitation D. Right ventricular infarction 25 / 50 25. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Pregnancy D. Athletes 26 / 50 26. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Acrocyanosis 27 / 50 27. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Addison's disease C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Conn's syndrome 28 / 50 28. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Rapid recovery C. Gradual onset D. Residual neurodeficit 29 / 50 29. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 70 ml/kg of body weight 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Marfan's syndrome C. Arteriosclerosis D. Pregnancy 31 / 50 31. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. SLE C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 32 / 50 32. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial flutter B. PSVT C. Atrial fibrillation D. Hypokalaemia 33 / 50 33. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. VSD B. Coarctation of aorta C. PS D. AS 34 / 50 34. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Aortopulmonary window D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Raised JVP C. Ascites D. Pulmonary oedema 36 / 50 36. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Undulating B. There are two negative waves C. Better felt than seen D. Becomes prominent on lying down 37 / 50 37. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Hyperdynamic circulatory states B. Aortic aneurysm C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 38 / 50 38. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Electrical cardioversion B. IV amiodarone C. IV Lignocaine D. Carotid massage 39 / 50 39. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Right-to-left shunt D. Acute bacterial endocarditis 40 / 50 40. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. Pregnancy D. Bacterial endocarditis 41 / 50 41. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. A small fraction closes by the year 10 B. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent C. Haemodynamically significant D. Moderate VSD 42 / 50 42. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Pericardial knock 43 / 50 43. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Arteriovenous nipping C. Papilloedema D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 44 / 50 44. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Splenomegaly C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Clubbing 45 / 50 45. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Radial C. Brachial D. Dorsalis pedis 46 / 50 46. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left bundle branch block C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 47 / 50 47. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Multiple ectopics B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Wenckebach block D. Atrial flutter 48 / 50 48. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Severe coarctation of aorta B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection D. Pulmonary atresia 49 / 50 49. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Gallop rhythm C. Fine crepitations at lung bases D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 50 / 50 50. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Doxorubicin C. Allopurinol D. 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