CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Hyperuricemia C. Microvascular angina D. Obstructive sleep apnoea 2 / 50 2. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pneumococcus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Streptoroccus viridans 3 / 50 3. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Mitral valve calcification C. Digitalis overdose D. Tachycardia 4 / 50 4. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Systolic C. Presystolic D. Early diastolic 5 / 50 5. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Severe coarctation of aorta B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Pulmonary atresia D. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome 6 / 50 6. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Pulmonary valve 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Haptoglobulin B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Ceruloplasmin D. Orosomucoid 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Endothelin B. Bradykinin C. Nitric oxide D. Histamine 9 / 50 9. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ventricular septal defect 10 / 50 10. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. Transferrin C. PAI-I D. Lipoprotein 11 / 50 11. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Quinidine therapy B. Hypothermia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Vagal stimulation 12 / 50 12. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Shows reverse split C. Shows narrow split D. Having wide split 13 / 50 13. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Beta-blockers B. Diuretics C. Aspirin D. ACE inhibitors 14 / 50 14. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Mobitz type II block C. Wenckebach block D. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Obstructive jaundice C. Myxoedema D. Hypothermia 16 / 50 16. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortitis C. Calcified aortic valve D. Pulmonary hypertension 17 / 50 17. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Pericardial effusion C. Wenckebach block D. Left ventricular failure 18 / 50 18. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Sickle cell anemia D. Pregnancy 19 / 50 19. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Central cyanosis 20 / 50 20. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Magnesium 21 / 50 21. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Atrial flutter C. Atrial fibrillation D. PSVT 22 / 50 22. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Carvedilol B. Atenolol C. Labetalol D. Pindolol 23 / 50 23. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Arrhythmias C. Shock D. Hypertension 24 / 50 24. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 25 / 50 25. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Aortic stenosis C. Buerger's disease D. Unstable angina 26 / 50 26. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Dorsalis pedis D. Radial 27 / 50 27. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Cardiomyopathy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 28 / 50 28. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Graham Steel murmur 29 / 50 29. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Rheumatic valve D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 30 / 50 30. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Late systole 31 / 50 31. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. 'Silver-wire' arteries B. Arteriovenous nipping C. Papilloedema D. Retinal haemorrhage 32 / 50 32. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. AR C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Acute rheumatic fever 33 / 50 33. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Undulating B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. There are two negative waves D. Better felt than seen 34 / 50 34. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Marfan's syndrome C. Systemic hypertension D. Syphilitic aortitis 35 / 50 35. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Renal failure C. Old age D. Hepatic encephalopathy 36 / 50 36. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 5 ml B. 15 ml C. 25 ml D. 50 ml 37 / 50 37. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Gallop rhythm D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 38 / 50 38. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 39 / 50 39. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Berry aneurysm C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Polycystic kidney 40 / 50 40. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Methyldopa B. Diazoxide C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Labetalol 41 / 50 41. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. AS C. MR D. MS 42 / 50 42. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Tall T-waves C. Shortened PR interval D. Increased PR interval 43 / 50 43. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Infective endocarditis C. Rupture D. Embolism 44 / 50 44. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 45 / 50 45. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. ASD C. PDA D. Associated LVH 46 / 50 46. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Right atrial myxoma C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Tricuspid incompetence 47 / 50 47. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Right atrial myxoma D. Atrial fibrillation 48 / 50 48. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Pregnancy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 49 / 50 49. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Ringing in character B. Diminished C. Accentuated D. Normal in character 50 / 50 50. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology