Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Thoracic deformity D. Cardiomyopathy 2 / 50 2. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Endotoxic shock C. Mitral stenosis D. Constrictive pericarditis 3 / 50 3. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. Electrical cardioversion C. Carotid massage D. IV Lignocaine 4 / 50 4. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Cardiogenic C. Neurogenic D. Septic 5 / 50 5. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 5 ml B. 25 ml C. 50 ml D. 15 ml 6 / 50 6. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. PDA C. VSD D. MR 7 / 50 7. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Myocarditis D. Ventricular fibrillation 8 / 50 8. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Gonorrhoea C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Acute pancreatitis 9 / 50 9. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Hypothermia 10 / 50 10. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. Asplenia C. Absent clavicle D. VSD 11 / 50 11. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Isolated levocardia C. Emphysema D. Sheehan's syndrome 12 / 50 12. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Tachycardia C. Digitalis overdose D. Mitral valve calcification 13 / 50 13. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. MS C. AR D. MR 14 / 50 14. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Raised JVP D. Ashen-grey pallor 15 / 50 15. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Renal failure C. Old age D. Hepatic encephalopathy 16 / 50 16. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Infective endocarditis C. Rupture D. Congestive cardiac failure 17 / 50 17. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Coarctation of aorta 18 / 50 18. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. AR C. MS D. Acute rheumatic fever 19 / 50 19. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-systole 20 / 50 20. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ventricular septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Atrioventricular septal defect 21 / 50 21. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptoroccus viridans B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Pneumococcus 22 / 50 22. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 23 / 50 23. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 24 / 50 24. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. PDA B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation 25 / 50 25. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Propranolol B. Phenylephrin C. Morphine D. Amiodarone 26 / 50 26. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Rheumatic valve C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Mural thrombus 27 / 50 27. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Felty's syndrome C. Rheumatic arthritis D. Viral arthritis 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Haptoglobulin C. Orosomucoid D. Ceruloplasmin 29 / 50 29. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Cardiac tamponade C. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction D. Acute mitral regurgitation 30 / 50 30. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortitis C. Calcified aortic valve D. Pulmonary hypertension 31 / 50 31. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Haemothorax B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 32 / 50 32. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Opening snap B. S2 C. Venous hum D. Ejection click 33 / 50 33. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Lisinopril C. Amiodarone D. Amlodipine 34 / 50 34. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Left-to-right shunt 35 / 50 35. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. First degree heart block B. AV nodal rhythm C. Low atrial rhythm D. WPW syndrome 36 / 50 36. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Pericardial knock B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 37 / 50 37. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Systemic hypertension 38 / 50 38. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent B. Haemodynamically significant C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Moderate VSD 39 / 50 39. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Left atrial myxoma D. Constrictive pericarditis 40 / 50 40. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Presystolic B. Systolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Early diastolic 41 / 50 41. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 42 / 50 42. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and MR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined AS and AR 43 / 50 43. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Right ventricular pacing C. Left ventricular failure D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 44 / 50 44. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. VSD B. PS C. Coarctation of aorta D. AS 45 / 50 45. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Anywhere in the precordium 46 / 50 46. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Mitral stenosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Myxoedema D. Carcinoid syndrome 47 / 50 47. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Cervical rib B. Sarcoidosis C. Tophaceous gout D. Trauma 48 / 50 48. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. HIV C. Chlamydia D. H. pylori 49 / 50 49. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Tricuspid atresia D. Severe pulmonary hypertension 50 / 50 50. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Diminished cardiac output B. Pericardial effusion C. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation D. Prolonged circulation time LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology