CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Splenomegaly C. Clubbing D. Cafe au lait pallor 2 / 50 2. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Doxorubicin C. Methotrexate D. Allopurinol 3 / 50 3. The murmur of MS is: A. Early diastolic B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. High-pitched D. With radiation towards left axilla 4 / 50 4. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. With the diaphragm of stethoscope B. In standing position C. Anywhere in the precordium D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 5 / 50 5. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 4 cm2 6 / 50 6. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. ASD C. PDA D. Transposition of great vessels 7 / 50 7. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Amiodarone B. Propranolol C. Phenylephrin D. Morphine 8 / 50 8. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Arteriovenous nipping D. Papilloedema 9 / 50 9. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Shows reverse split C. Remains single D. Having wide split 10 / 50 10. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Late diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 11 / 50 11. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Pulmonary atresia 12 / 50 12. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Superior mediastinal syndrome B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Left ventricular failure D. Cirrhosis of liver 13 / 50 13. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Prolonged circulation time B. Pericardial effusion C. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation D. Diminished cardiac output 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Haptoglobulin D. Ceruloplasmin 15 / 50 15. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Presence of S3 D. Graham Steel murmur 16 / 50 16. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. SGOT C. LDH D. CPK 17 / 50 17. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. VSD B. PS C. MS D. Chronic cor-pulmonale 18 / 50 18. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Acute pulmonary oedema B. Transposition of great vessels C. Left-to-right shunt D. Fallot's tetralogy 19 / 50 19. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. VSD C. MS D. PDA 20 / 50 20. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Valsalva manoeuvre B. Standing C. Leg raising D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 21 / 50 21. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Bush tea C. Tapioca D. Aflatoxin 22 / 50 22. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Atrial fibrillation D. Acute left ventricular failure 23 / 50 23. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Right atrial myxoma D. Atrial fibrillation 24 / 50 24. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Autoimmune reaction B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Protozoa 25 / 50 25. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Acute severe asthma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 26 / 50 26. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Low-pitched C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Present in late diastole 27 / 50 27. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Clotting time (CT) D. Factor-X assay 28 / 50 28. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 29 / 50 29. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Pericardial knock C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 30 / 50 30. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptoroccus viridans B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Pneumococcus 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Elevated ASO titre C. Prolonged PR interval D. Arthralgia 32 / 50 32. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Should be ignored B. Present in all hypertensives C. Related to diastolic BP D. As a result of venous distension 33 / 50 33. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Hyperdynamic circulatory states D. Aortic aneurysm 34 / 50 34. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Bucindolol B. Digoxin C. Spironolactone D. Propranolol 35 / 50 35. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic innocent murmur B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation 36 / 50 36. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Complete heart block B. Right atrial myxoma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Tricuspid incompetence 37 / 50 37. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Cardiomyopathy C. Ischemic heart disease D. Severe anemia 38 / 50 38. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Cauda equina 39 / 50 39. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Transposition of great vessels D. Coarctation of aorta 40 / 50 40. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Acute leukaemia C. Takayasu's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 41 / 50 41. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Aortic stenosis C. Myocarditis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 42 / 50 42. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Endotoxic shock C. Aortic stenosis D. Constrictive pericarditis 43 / 50 43. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Haemothorax 44 / 50 44. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MR B. MS C. AS D. AR 45 / 50 45. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. IV fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. Restriction of fluid D. Diuretics 46 / 50 46. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised VLDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 47 / 50 47. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Systole D. Diastole 48 / 50 48. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Myocarditis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Emphysema 49 / 50 49. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. Pulmonary hypertension C. AR D. Acute rheumatic fever 50 / 50 50. All are true in severe PS except: A. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 B. The ejection click goes away from S1 C. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased D. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology