Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve 2 / 50 2. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Papilloedema D. Arteriovenous nipping 3 / 50 3. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Cauda equina B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Popliteal artery 4 / 50 4. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Wenckebach block B. Mobitz type II block C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Ventricular bigeminy 5 / 50 5. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. MR B. VSD C. ASD D. PDA 6 / 50 6. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Deep Q wave C. Prominent ST elevation D. Height of R wave maximum in V6 7 / 50 7. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pericardial effusion 8 / 50 8. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class III C. Class IV D. Class I 9 / 50 9. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. More common in females 10 / 50 10. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Mitral stenosis C. Myxoedema D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 11 / 50 11. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Marantic endocarditis 12 / 50 12. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left atrium B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Left ventricle 13 / 50 13. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Digitalis overdose B. Left atrial failure C. Mitral valve calcification D. Tachycardia 14 / 50 14. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Pulmonary hypertension C. MS D. AR 15 / 50 15. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Cerebral thrombosis 16 / 50 16. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Systole 17 / 50 17. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Eccentric dosage schedule B. Morning-time single dosage C. Night-time single dosage D. Twice daily dosage schedule 18 / 50 18. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Ostium primum ASD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. PDA 19 / 50 19. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 100 Joules B. 200 Joules C. 50 Joules D. 400 Joules 20 / 50 20. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Acute mediastinitis C. Unstable angina D. Bornholm disease 21 / 50 21. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. PDA B. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 22 / 50 22. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Prazosin C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 23 / 50 23. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Dextrocardia B. Emphysema C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 24 / 50 24. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 25 / 50 25. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 26 / 50 26. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 27 / 50 27. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent x-descent B. Prominent y-descent C. Small v-wave D. Prominent a-wave 28 / 50 28. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-diastole C. Late diastole D. Mid-systole 29 / 50 29. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 30 / 50 30. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Fallot's tetralogy C. PDA D. Coarctation of aorta 31 / 50 31. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Athletes D. Pregnancy 32 / 50 32. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Orthopnoea B. Raised JVP C. Pulsatile liver D. Hypotension 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Hepatitis C. Alveolitis D. Tachyarrhythmias 34 / 50 34. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Wenckebach block C. Pericardial effusion D. Digitalis toxicity 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Starts in the dependent part C. Pitting oedema D. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients 36 / 50 36. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Angina Pectoris C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 37 / 50 37. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows reverse split C. Remains single D. Shows narrow split 38 / 50 38. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 B. VSD C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. Cat-like cry 39 / 50 39. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Floppy mitral valve D. Acute rheumatic fever 40 / 50 40. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Transposition of great vessels D. Left-to-right shunt 41 / 50 41. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Transposition of great vessels C. VSD D. Fallot's tetralogy 42 / 50 42. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Chlamydia C. HIV D. H. pylori 43 / 50 43. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Hyperdynamic circulatory states B. Aortic aneurysm C. Coarctation of aorta D. Budd-Chiari syndrome 44 / 50 44. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AR B. AS with AR C. MR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 45 / 50 45. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Valsalva maneuver C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Squatting 46 / 50 46. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Babinski B. Korotkoff C. Laennec D. Osler 47 / 50 47. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Right atrial myxoma C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 48 / 50 48. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Gonorrhoea C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute pancreatitis 49 / 50 49. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Old age B. Afibrinogenaemia C. SLE D. Vasculitis 50 / 50 50. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arteritis D. Systemic hypertension LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology