CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Lovastatin B. Nicotinic acid C. Probucol D. Gemfibrozil 2 / 50 2. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Methyldopa C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Diazoxide 3 / 50 3. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Tapping apex D. Water-hammer pulse 4 / 50 4. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 5 / 50 5. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PS C. AS D. VSD 6 / 50 6. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Late diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 7 / 50 7. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Infundibular PS B. Supravalvular AS C. Lutembacher syndrome D. Ebstein's anomaly 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Haptoglobulin B. Ceruloplasmin C. Orosomucoid D. Alpha-fetoprotein 9 / 50 9. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Prominent a-wave in neck veins B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Central cyanosis D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 10 / 50 10. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class IV B. Class II C. Class III D. Class I 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Hepatitis C. Photosensitivity D. Tachyarrhythmias 12 / 50 12. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 13 / 50 13. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows reverse split 14 / 50 14. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation B. Diminished cardiac output C. Pericardial effusion D. Prolonged circulation time 15 / 50 15. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. PAI-I C. Transferrin D. Lipoprotein 16 / 50 16. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. PS C. MS D. VSD 17 / 50 17. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 18 / 50 18. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Shock C. Hypertension D. Arrhythmias 19 / 50 19. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Massive myocardial infarction C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular fibrillation 20 / 50 20. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Candida albicans endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 21 / 50 21. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Disturbances in vision C. Intermittent claudication D. Diminished pulses in upper extremity 22 / 50 22. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Haemothorax D. Constrictive pericarditis 23 / 50 23. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Asplenia B. VSD C. Fingerization of thumb D. Absent clavicle 24 / 50 24. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Ostium primum ASD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. PDA 25 / 50 25. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 26 / 50 26. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Autoimmune reaction D. Virus 27 / 50 27. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Myxoedema D. Mitral stenosis 28 / 50 28. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Aortopulmonary window C. Ventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus 29 / 50 29. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Aortic stenosis C. Buerger's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 30 / 50 30. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. ASD 31 / 50 31. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. During inspiration C. Ostium primum ASD D. Hyperkalaemia 32 / 50 32. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Residual neurodeficit C. Warning symptoms D. Gradual onset 33 / 50 33. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Undulating B. Better felt than seen C. Becomes prominent on lying down D. There are two negative waves 34 / 50 34. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 40mmHg B. 80mmHg C. 30mmHg D. 60mmHg 35 / 50 35. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Presence of S3 36 / 50 36. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 37 / 50 37. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Afibrinogenaemia B. Old age C. SLE D. Vasculitis 38 / 50 38. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 1-12th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 39 / 50 39. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Systolic innocent murmur 40 / 50 40. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hyponatraemia 41 / 50 41. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Homocystinuria C. Hyperthyroidism D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 43 / 50 43. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Severe coarctation of aorta 44 / 50 44. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Digitalis toxicity C. Hypothermia D. Chronic cor pulmonale 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure B. Regular pulse rate C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Low volume pulse 46 / 50 46. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Beta-blockers B. Diuretics C. ACE inhibitors D. Aspirin 47 / 50 47. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined MS and AS C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined AR and MR 48 / 50 48. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Prominent x-descent C. Small v-wave D. Prominent a-wave 49 / 50 49. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. SLE 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Erythema nodosum C. Chorea D. Subcutaneous nodule LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology