CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Emphysema D. Cardiomyopathy 2 / 50 2. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. Papilloedema C. Retinal haemorrhage D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 3 / 50 3. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus bradycardia B. Hypotension C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus tachycardia 4 / 50 4. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Vasculitis C. Afibrinogenaemia D. Old age 5 / 50 5. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right ventricle B. Left atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right atrium 6 / 50 6. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. SLE C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 7 / 50 7. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Homocysteine C. Transferrin D. Lipoprotein 8 / 50 8. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 9 / 50 9. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Acute mitral regurgitation B. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction C. Cardiac tamponade D. Right ventricular infarction 10 / 50 10. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Right atrial myxoma D. Mitral valve prolapse 11 / 50 11. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Angina Pectoris D. Supraventricular tachycardia 12 / 50 12. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Venous hum B. S2 C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 13 / 50 13. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Valsalva maneuver C. Squatting D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 14 / 50 14. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard in standing position C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 15 / 50 15. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Pregnancy C. Polycythemia D. Congestive cardiac failure 16 / 50 16. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 17 / 50 17. Loud A2 is present in: A. Aortitis B. Calcified aortic valve C. Unfolding of aorta D. Pulmonary hypertension 18 / 50 18. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Coarctation of aorta C. Fallot's tetralogy D. PDA 19 / 50 19. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. PDA 20 / 50 20. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. PDA D. Aortic regurgitation 21 / 50 21. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Berry aneurysm D. Coronary osteal stenosis 22 / 50 22. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Septic shock C. Hypovolaemic shock D. Cardiogenic shock 23 / 50 23. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Arrhythmias C. Shock D. Diabetes mellitus 24 / 50 24. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Dextrocardia C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 25 / 50 25. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. AR C. Pulmonary hypertension D. MS 26 / 50 26. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Cardiac tamponade 27 / 50 27. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Ventricular bigeminy C. Wenckebach block D. Mobitz type II block 28 / 50 28. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 18 inch long 29 / 50 29. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. AR C. AS D. MR 30 / 50 30. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Accentuated C. Normal in character D. Ringing in character 31 / 50 31. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Laennec B. Osler C. Babinski D. Korotkoff 32 / 50 32. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Water-hammer pulse D. Pulsus bigeminus 33 / 50 33. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Bing sign C. Tinel's sign D. Hoover's sign 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Arthralgia C. Prolonged PR interval D. Elevated ASO titre 35 / 50 35. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Pregnancy D. Myocarditis 36 / 50 36. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. PDA C. Transposition of great vessels D. VSD 37 / 50 37. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Photosensitivity C. Tachyarrhythmias D. Hepatitis 39 / 50 39. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Undulating C. Becomes prominent on lying down D. There are two negative waves 40 / 50 40. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. A small fraction closes by the year 10 B. Moderate VSD C. Haemodynamically significant D. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent 41 / 50 41. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Hypothermia B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Digitalis toxicity D. Chronic cor pulmonale 42 / 50 42. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Embolism C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Rupture 43 / 50 43. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Prominent x-descent C. Small v-wave D. Prominent a-wave 44 / 50 44. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid atresia C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. Severe pulmonary hypertension 45 / 50 45. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Doxorubicin B. Methotrexate C. Allopurinol D. Chloramphenicol 46 / 50 46. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised small dense LDL C. Raised VLDL D. Reduced HDL 47 / 50 47. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta B. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels C. Takayasu's disease D. Aneurysm of subclavian artery 48 / 50 48. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 49 / 50 49. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Calcium 50 / 50 50. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Pulmonary valve LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology