Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Single ventricle C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 2 / 50 2. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive myocardial infarction B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Atrial fibrillation 3 / 50 3. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. PS D. VSD 4 / 50 4. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. MR C. AR D. AS 5 / 50 5. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Gradual onset C. Residual neurodeficit D. Rapid recovery 6 / 50 6. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Left ventricular failure D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 7 / 50 7. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. PDA C. Aortic regurgitation D. Right-sided aortic arch 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Regular pulse rate 9 / 50 9. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Dextrocardia B. ECG was taken in deep inspiration C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. Emphysema 10 / 50 10. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 11 / 50 11. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Restenosis cases C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Pure mitral stenosis 12 / 50 12. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MS C. MR D. AS 13 / 50 13. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 14 / 50 14. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Renal artery stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Eclampsia 15 / 50 15. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. Tetralogy of Fallot 16 / 50 16. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. On the left side of lower sternum B. In lying down position C. After holding the breath D. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope 17 / 50 17. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Isolated levocardia B. Emphysema C. Addison's disease D. Sheehan's syndrome 18 / 50 18. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. Carotid massage C. IV Lignocaine D. Electrical cardioversion 19 / 50 19. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Deep Q wave C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Height of R wave maximum in V6 20 / 50 20. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Kussmaul's sign C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 21 / 50 21. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Tinel's sign B. Hoover's sign C. Branham's sign D. Bing sign 22 / 50 22. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Graham Steel murmur D. Presence of S3 23 / 50 23. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Rheumatic arthritis C. Viral arthritis D. Felty's syndrome 24 / 50 24. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Protozoa C. Autoimmune reaction D. Bacteria 25 / 50 25. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 26 / 50 26. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Marantic endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 27 / 50 27. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Acute mitral regurgitation B. Right ventricular infarction C. Cardiac tamponade D. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction 28 / 50 28. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 1-12th rib 29 / 50 29. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Buerger's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Peripheral embolism 30 / 50 30. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. MS is a recognised cause D. Found in basal region 31 / 50 31. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. Inverted T wave in ECG C. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 D. Increased LDH3 32 / 50 32. The least common complication of MS is: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Atrial fibrillation C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Cerebral thrombosis 33 / 50 33. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Wenckebach heart block D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 34 / 50 34. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. WPW syndrome C. First degree heart block D. AV nodal rhythm 35 / 50 35. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Cafe au lait pallor C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Splenomegaly 36 / 50 36. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Tricuspid atresia 37 / 50 37. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Rheumatic valve C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 38 / 50 38. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Ashen-grey pallor D. Raised JVP 39 / 50 39. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows reverse split C. Shows narrow split D. Remains single 40 / 50 40. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Haemothorax B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 41 / 50 41. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 42 / 50 42. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Clubbing C. Embolic phenomenon D. Hypertension 43 / 50 43. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Twice daily dosage schedule C. Night-time single dosage D. Eccentric dosage schedule 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Pitting oedema B. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients C. Starts in the dependent part D. Initially noticed in the morning 45 / 50 45. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Fundus C. Palate D. Nailbed 46 / 50 46. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Pregnancy C. Myocarditis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 47 / 50 47. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Pericardial knock B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 48 / 50 48. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Propranolol C. Digoxin D. Bucindolol 49 / 50 49. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Methyldopa C. Amlodipine D. Telmisartan 50 / 50 50. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology