Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Ringing in character C. Accentuated D. Diminished 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Hyperthyroidism D. Homocystinuria 3 / 50 3. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Acute severe asthma D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 4 / 50 4. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Sick sinus syndrome D. WPW syndrome 5 / 50 5. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Aortic stenosis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 6 / 50 6. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Thoracic deformity D. Cardiomyopathy 7 / 50 7. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Diastole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 8 / 50 8. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Tapping apex C. Cardiomegaly D. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area 9 / 50 9. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Pyrexia C. Clubbing D. Hypertension 10 / 50 10. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Graham Steel murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Presence of S3 11 / 50 11. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels B. Takayasu's disease C. Aneurysm of subclavian artery D. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta 12 / 50 12. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Hydralazine C. Methyldopa D. Prazosin 13 / 50 13. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. PDA C. ASD D. Associated LVH 14 / 50 14. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. SLE C. Afibrinogenaemia D. Old age 15 / 50 15. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined MS and AS 16 / 50 16. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. Ostium primum ASD D. VSD 17 / 50 17. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Aortopulmonary window C. Ventricular septal defect D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Nitric oxide C. Endothelin D. Histamine 19 / 50 19. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 20 / 50 20. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Splenomegaly B. Clubbing C. High ESR D. Pyrexia 21 / 50 21. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 10-12th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 6-9th rib D. 3-6th rib 22 / 50 22. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 24 / 50 24. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with tight PS B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. Acutely developing AR 25 / 50 25. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Cardiac tamponade D. Haemothorax 26 / 50 26. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Gonorrhoea C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Chronic renal failure 27 / 50 27. Still’s murmur is: A. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis B. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Systolic innocent murmur 28 / 50 28. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Nailbed C. Fundus D. Palms 29 / 50 29. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Renal failure D. Old age 30 / 50 30. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Nodal rhythm C. Complete heart block D. Atrial fibrillation 31 / 50 31. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Venous hum B. S2 C. Ejection click D. Opening snap 32 / 50 32. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. VSD C. Transposition of great vessels D. PDA 33 / 50 33. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Calcium 34 / 50 34. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Deep Q wave C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Prominent ST elevation 35 / 50 35. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Shortened PR interval C. Increased PR interval D. Diminished QT interval 36 / 50 36. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. MR B. AR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. AS with AR 37 / 50 37. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Late diastole D. Late systole 38 / 50 38. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic insufficiency D. Mitral regurgitation 39 / 50 39. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Ventricular tachycardia 40 / 50 40. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. MS C. PDA D. Coarctation of aorta 41 / 50 41. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Arrhythmias D. Shock 42 / 50 42. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Cardiomyopathy C. Emphysema D. Acute myocardial infarction 43 / 50 43. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Osler's node B. Cubbing C. Murmur D. Splenomegaly 45 / 50 45. All are true in severe PS except: A. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 B. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur C. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased D. The ejection click goes away from S1 46 / 50 46. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Right ventricular dilatation D. Collagen vascular disease 47 / 50 47. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Undulating B. Better felt than seen C. There are two negative waves D. Becomes prominent on lying down 48 / 50 48. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 30mmHg B. 60mmHg C. 80mmHg D. 40mmHg 49 / 50 49. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 50 / 50 50. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology