CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Left atrial myxoma C. Atrial fibrillation D. Constrictive pericarditis 2 / 50 2. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Propranolol B. Morphine C. Amiodarone D. Phenylephrin 3 / 50 3. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Myocarditis C. Right ventricular infarction D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 4 / 50 4. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Clotting time (CT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Factor-X assay D. Prothrombin time (PT) 5 / 50 5. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Acute severe asthma D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 6 / 50 6. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L D. Increased LDH3 7 / 50 7. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Right atrial myxoma C. Cardiac tamponade D. Ventricular tachycardia 8 / 50 8. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium 9 / 50 9. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Pregnancy C. Sickle cell anemia D. Polycythemia 10 / 50 10. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Right ventricular infarction C. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction D. Acute mitral regurgitation 11 / 50 11. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Coarctation of aorta C. Eclampsia D. Renal artery stenosis 12 / 50 12. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Disopyramide 13 / 50 13. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Streptoroccus viridans 14 / 50 14. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-diastole 15 / 50 15. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Fallot's tetralogy C. ASD D. VSD 16 / 50 16. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Ringing in character B. Normal in character C. Diminished D. Accentuated 17 / 50 17. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. PDA C. ASD D. Coarctation of aorta 18 / 50 18. Sudden death may occur in: A. PDA B. Constrictive pericarditis C. ASD D. AS 19 / 50 19. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. On the left side of lower sternum B. After holding the breath C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. In lying down position 20 / 50 20. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MS C. MR D. AS 21 / 50 21. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. VSD D. MS 22 / 50 22. All are true in severe PS except: A. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 B. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur C. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased D. The ejection click goes away from S1 23 / 50 23. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. SLE 24 / 50 24. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 25 / 50 25. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Valsalva manoeuvre B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Standing D. Leg raising 26 / 50 26. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Ebstein's anomaly C. VSD D. Fallot's tetralogy 27 / 50 27. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined MS and MR 28 / 50 28. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Telmisartan C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine 29 / 50 29. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Unstable angina B. Acute mediastinitis C. Bornholm disease D. Dissecting aneurysm 30 / 50 30. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Cervical rib B. Tophaceous gout C. Sarcoidosis D. Trauma 31 / 50 31. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. MS 32 / 50 32. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Takayasu's disease C. Diabetes mellitus D. Systemic hypertension 33 / 50 33. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Systemic hypertension D. Syphilitic aortitis 34 / 50 34. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Ventricular septal defect D. Aortopulmonary window 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Raised JVP C. Ascites D. Pulmonary oedema 36 / 50 36. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Fundus C. Nailbed D. Palms 37 / 50 37. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Associated with thrill C. Usually diastolic in timing D. Best heard over mitral area 38 / 50 38. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 39 / 50 39. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Aortitis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Unfolding of aorta 40 / 50 40. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypokalaemia D. True posterior myocardial infarction 41 / 50 41. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Severe coarctation of aorta B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Pulmonary atresia D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 42 / 50 42. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min 43 / 50 43. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Clubbing C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Splenomegaly 44 / 50 44. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 12 inch long 45 / 50 45. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Anomalous origin of coronary artery C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Single ventricle 46 / 50 46. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Hypothermia B. Chronic cor pulmonale C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 47 / 50 47. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. AR C. MR D. AS 48 / 50 48. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Found in severe AR C. Having loud S1 D. Mid-diastolic murmur 49 / 50 49. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Present in late diastole C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Low-pitched 50 / 50 50. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Twice daily dosage schedule LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology