Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. AS C. MR D. MS 2 / 50 2. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve 3 / 50 3. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Cardiac tamponade C. Acute mitral regurgitation D. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction 4 / 50 4. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Transposition of great vessels 5 / 50 5. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Complete heart block B. Atrial fibrillation C. Nodal rhythm D. Ventricular tachycardia 6 / 50 6. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MS C. MR D. AS 7 / 50 7. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Digitalis toxicity C. Pericardial effusion D. Wenckebach block 8 / 50 8. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Hyperuricemia C. Microvascular angina D. Obstructive sleep apnoea 9 / 50 9. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Left atrial myxoma C. Atrial fibrillation D. Constrictive pericarditis 10 / 50 10. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. Retinal haemorrhage C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Arteriovenous nipping 11 / 50 11. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. Coarctation of aorta 12 / 50 12. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Vagal stimulation C. Quinidine therapy D. Hypothermia 13 / 50 13. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Tall T-waves D. Shortened PR interval 14 / 50 14. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Polycythemia C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Pregnancy 15 / 50 15. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Night-time single dosage 16 / 50 16. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. ACE-inhibitors C. Propranolol D. Surgical myotomy of the septum 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Cubbing B. Splenomegaly C. Osler's node D. Murmur 18 / 50 18. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Single ventricle D. Ebstein's anomaly 19 / 50 19. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Tapioca C. Bush tea D. Coffee 20 / 50 20. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Standing D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 21 / 50 21. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Prominent a-wave C. Small v-wave D. Prominent x-descent 22 / 50 22. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Ischemic heart disease C. Severe anemia D. Coarctation of aorta 23 / 50 23. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Myocarditis D. Emphysema 24 / 50 24. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Right atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Atrial fibrillation 25 / 50 25. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Acrocyanosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Deep vein thrombosis 26 / 50 26. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 27 / 50 27. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic innocent murmur B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation D. Systolic murmur in complete heart block 28 / 50 28. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Adenosine B. Verapamil C. Metoprolol D. Amiodarone 29 / 50 29. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S3 D. Muscle tremor 30 / 50 30. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium 31 / 50 31. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Found in severe AR B. Absence of thrill C. Having loud S1 D. Mid-diastolic murmur 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Polyarthritis C. Erythema nodosum D. Chorea 33 / 50 33. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. H/O intraocular bleeding D. Pregnancy 34 / 50 34. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. VSD B. PS C. MS D. Chronic cor-pulmonale 35 / 50 35. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute leukaemia D. Takayasu's disease 36 / 50 36. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Sick sinus syndrome 37 / 50 37. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap C. Diastolic shock D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 38 / 50 38. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Ostium primum ASD C. During inspiration D. Hyperkalaemia 39 / 50 39. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Cerebral thrombosis 40 / 50 40. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Wenckebach heart block C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 41 / 50 41. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Aortic regurgitation C. Right-sided aortic arch D. Persistent right-sided SVC 42 / 50 42. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Aortopulmonary window C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 43 / 50 43. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 200 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 50 Joules 44 / 50 44. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. MS is a recognised cause D. Found in basal region 45 / 50 45. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Aortic valve D. Mitral valve 46 / 50 46. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Accentuated C. Ringing in character D. Normal in character 47 / 50 47. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Pulmonary congestion C. Increased JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 48 / 50 48. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Squatting C. Standing D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 49 / 50 49. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Mitral incompetence C. Aortic stenosis D. Pulmonary stenosis 50 / 50 50. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Ejection click C. Venous hum D. Opening snap LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology