Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Takayasu's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute leukaemia 2 / 50 2. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Pregnancy C. Bacterial endocarditis D. Severe menstrual bleeding 3 / 50 3. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 5 ml C. 25 ml D. 15 ml 4 / 50 4. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Palpable S3 C. Palpable S4 D. Muscle tremor 5 / 50 5. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography D. Kussmaul's sign 6 / 50 6. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Hypotension B. Orthopnoea C. Pulsatile liver D. Raised JVP 7 / 50 7. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Adenosine B. Amiodarone C. Metoprolol D. Verapamil 8 / 50 8. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome D. Trisomy 18 9 / 50 9. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. MS is a recognised cause B. Found in basal region C. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 10 / 50 10. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Conn's syndrome 11 / 50 11. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Atenolol C. Labetalol D. Carvedilol 12 / 50 12. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. AR with tight PS C. AR with systemic hypertension D. Acutely developing AR 13 / 50 13. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Athletes D. Pregnancy 14 / 50 14. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Asplenia B. Absent clavicle C. Fingerization of thumb D. VSD 15 / 50 15. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Marfan's syndrome C. Arteriosclerosis D. Pregnancy 17 / 50 17. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cardiomyopathy D. Emphysema 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Polyarthritis C. Chorea D. Subcutaneous nodule 19 / 50 19. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Right ventricular pacing C. ASD D. Left ventricular failure 20 / 50 20. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Standing B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Leg raising D. Valsalva manoeuvre 21 / 50 21. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. Aortic regurgitation C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. PDA 22 / 50 22. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Twice daily dosage schedule 23 / 50 23. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Increased PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Diminished QT interval 24 / 50 24. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Disopyramide C. Quinidine D. Verapamil 25 / 50 25. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Splenomegaly C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Cafe au lait pallor 26 / 50 26. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium 27 / 50 27. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Aortic stenosis 28 / 50 28. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 29 / 50 29. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Mitral stenosis C. Mitral regurgitation D. Aortic stenosis 30 / 50 30. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive myocardial infarction B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Atrial fibrillation 31 / 50 31. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. ASD C. MR D. VSD 32 / 50 32. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Rotating tourniquets C. Diuretics D. Morphine 34 / 50 34. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Stenosis is severe C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 35 / 50 35. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral incompetence C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Tricuspid incompetence 36 / 50 36. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. Lipoprotein C. PAI-I D. Transferrin 37 / 50 37. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Cauda equina B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Popliteal artery 38 / 50 38. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Streptoroccus viridans C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Staphylococcus aureus 39 / 50 39. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. On the left side of lower sternum C. In lying down position D. After holding the breath 40 / 50 40. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-systole B. Late diastole C. Late systole D. Mid-diastole 41 / 50 41. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Myxoedema C. Mitral stenosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 42 / 50 42. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Diazoxide C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Methyldopa 43 / 50 43. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Methyldopa B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Labetalol 44 / 50 44. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Complete heart block B. Nodal rhythm C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation 45 / 50 45. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Osler B. Laennec C. Babinski D. Korotkoff 46 / 50 46. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AR B. MS C. MR D. AS 47 / 50 47. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Wenckebach heart block C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Ventricular tachycardia 48 / 50 48. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 49 / 50 49. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Palate C. Fundus D. Nailbed 50 / 50 50. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Coarctation of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Unfolding of aorta LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology