Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Y-shaped 2 / 50 2. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Radial C. Femoral D. Dorsalis pedis 3 / 50 3. The disease with male preponderance is: A. PDA B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. SLE D. Coarctation of aorta 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Osteoarthritis 5 / 50 5. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Homocystinuria D. Hyperthyroidism 7 / 50 7. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Systemic hypertension D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 8 / 50 8. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Cytomegalovirus C. Chlamydia D. HIV 9 / 50 9. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep Q wave D. Prominent ST elevation 10 / 50 10. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Aortitis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Unfolding of aorta 11 / 50 11. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Quinidine B. Disopyramide C. Flecainide D. Verapamil 12 / 50 12. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Cat-like cry C. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 D. VSD 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Bradykinin C. Nitric oxide D. Endothelin 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Regular pulse rate C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 15 / 50 15. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Severe menstrual bleeding B. Bacterial endocarditis C. Pregnancy D. H/O intraocular bleeding 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Increased ESR C. Elevated ASO titre D. Arthralgia 17 / 50 17. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Rheumatic valve 18 / 50 18. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Aortic stenosis 19 / 50 19. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. MR B. PDA C. ASD D. VSD 20 / 50 20. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Marantic endocarditis 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Trendelenburg position C. Morphine D. Diuretics 22 / 50 22. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur C. Diastolic shock D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) 23 / 50 23. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 24 / 50 24. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AR B. MR C. AS D. MS 25 / 50 25. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Splenomegaly B. Pyrexia C. High ESR D. Clubbing 26 / 50 26. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. Hypertension D. Embolic phenomenon 27 / 50 27. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Diuretics C. Beta-blockers D. ACE inhibitors 28 / 50 28. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Holt-Oram syndrome 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Ceruloplasmin C. Haptoglobulin D. Orosomucoid 30 / 50 30. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 31 / 50 31. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Polycystic kidney disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Phaeochromocytoma 32 / 50 32. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Protozoa B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Autoimmune reaction 33 / 50 33. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Morbid obesity C. Microvascular angina D. Obstructive sleep apnoea 34 / 50 34. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Labetalol C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 35 / 50 35. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Low pulse pressure C. Sinus bradycardia D. Hypotension 36 / 50 36. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. MS C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 37 / 50 37. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Propranolol C. Digoxin D. Bucindolol 38 / 50 38. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined MS and MR 39 / 50 39. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Tricuspid incompetence 40 / 50 40. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. IV fluid C. Diuretics D. Restriction of fluid 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Chorea D. Polyarthritis 42 / 50 42. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. WPW syndrome D. Digitalis toxicity 43 / 50 43. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent y-descent C. Prominent x-descent D. Prominent a-wave 44 / 50 44. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 45 / 50 45. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Diazoxide C. Methyldopa D. Sodium nitroprusside 46 / 50 46. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Right-to-left shunt 47 / 50 47. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 48 / 50 48. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Renal failure C. Old age D. Hepatic encephalopathy 49 / 50 49. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Opening snap C. Pericardial knock D. Ejection click 50 / 50 50. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Dilated cardiomyopathy D. Acute severe asthma LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
