Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Endothelin C. Nitric oxide D. Histamine 2 / 50 2. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. After holding the breath C. On the left side of lower sternum D. In lying down position 3 / 50 3. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Pericardial effusion C. Digitalis toxicity D. Wenckebach block 4 / 50 4. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Hypokalaemia D. Old age 5 / 50 5. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound C. Stenosis is severe D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 6 / 50 6. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Orthopnoea C. Raised JVP D. Hypotension 7 / 50 7. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 8 / 50 8. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation B. PDA C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 9 / 50 9. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Leriche's syndrome C. Lumbar canal stenosis D. Buerger's disease 10 / 50 10. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Ebstein's anomaly D. VSD 11 / 50 11. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable S3 C. Palpable S4 D. Palpable opening snap 12 / 50 12. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Ringing in character C. Normal in character D. Accentuated 13 / 50 13. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Complete heart block 14 / 50 14. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent a-wave B. Prominent y-descent C. Small v-wave D. Prominent x-descent 15 / 50 15. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Warning symptoms C. Residual neurodeficit D. Rapid recovery 16 / 50 16. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Transposition of great vessels C. Tricuspid atresia D. Fallot's tetralogy 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Prolonged PR interval C. Arthralgia D. Elevated ASO titre 18 / 50 18. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Morbid obesity D. Microvascular angina 19 / 50 19. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Calcified aortic valve C. Unfolding of aorta D. Aortitis 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Pregnancy D. Arteriosclerosis 21 / 50 21. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Brachial C. Radial D. Dorsalis pedis 22 / 50 22. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hypothermia C. Vagal stimulation D. Quinidine therapy 23 / 50 23. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Hypothermia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Digitalis toxicity 24 / 50 24. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Wenckebach heart block D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 25 / 50 25. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Angina Pectoris D. Congestive cardiac failure 26 / 50 26. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Atrioventricular septal defect 27 / 50 27. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. AS C. MR D. AR 28 / 50 28. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Pyrexia C. Clubbing D. Splenomegaly 29 / 50 29. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Right ventricular failure C. Left-to-right shunt D. Left ventricular failure 30 / 50 30. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Buerger's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Peripheral embolism 31 / 50 31. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. High-pitched C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. Early diastolic 32 / 50 32. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left bundle branch block C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 33 / 50 33. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MS B. MR C. AS D. AR 34 / 50 34. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Propranolol B. Morphine C. Amiodarone D. Phenylephrin 35 / 50 35. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. In standing position 36 / 50 36. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Rheumatic valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Mural thrombus 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Splenomegaly B. Osler's node C. Murmur D. Cubbing 38 / 50 38. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Ashen-grey pallor C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Raised JVP 39 / 50 39. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Berry aneurysm C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Bicuspid aortic valve 40 / 50 40. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-AMI B. Post-electrical cardioversion C. Myocarditis D. Rhabdomyolysis 41 / 50 41. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Takayasu's disease D. Systemic hypertension 42 / 50 42. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. Increased LDH3 C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 43 / 50 43. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Amiodarone C. ACE-inhibitors D. Propranolol 44 / 50 44. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Aplastic anaemia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Takayasu's disease 45 / 50 45. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 46 / 50 46. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 47 / 50 47. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Sodium 48 / 50 48. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. Dextrocardia D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 49 / 50 49. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Pulmonary stenosis 50 / 50 50. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Opening snap C. Pericardial knock D. Ejection click LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology