Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. AR with tight PS 2 / 50 2. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. AS C. PDA D. Associated LVH 3 / 50 3. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 4 / 50 4. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Dextrocardia D. VSD 5 / 50 5. Loud A2 is present in: A. Aortitis B. Unfolding of aorta C. Calcified aortic valve D. Pulmonary hypertension 6 / 50 6. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 85 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight 7 / 50 7. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Night-time single dosage 8 / 50 8. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. MS C. MR D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 9 / 50 9. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 12 inch long D. 18 inch long 10 / 50 10. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. ACE inhibitors C. Diuretics D. Beta-blockers 11 / 50 11. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Hypothermia C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 12 / 50 12. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. ASD D. Right ventricular pacing 13 / 50 13. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Late diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 14 / 50 14. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Increased LDH3 B. Inverted T wave in ECG C. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 15 / 50 15. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Viral arthritis C. Rheumatic arthritis D. Felty's syndrome 16 / 50 16. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Tricuspid valve B. Aortic valve C. Mitral valve D. Pulmonary valve 17 / 50 17. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 D. ST elevation in II, III, aVF 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Photosensitivity C. Hepatitis D. Tachyarrhythmias 19 / 50 19. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Morbid obesity C. Microvascular angina D. Hyperuricemia 20 / 50 20. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. AR C. MS D. PDA 21 / 50 21. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. Fallot's tetralogy 22 / 50 22. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Systole 23 / 50 23. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Height of R wave maximum in V6 B. Deep Q wave C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Prominent ST elevation 24 / 50 24. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Single ventricle C. Anomalous origin of coronary artery D. Ebstein's anomaly 25 / 50 25. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Propranolol B. Morphine C. Amiodarone D. Phenylephrin 26 / 50 26. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. After holding the breath B. In lying down position C. On the left side of lower sternum D. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope 27 / 50 27. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Cafe au lait pallor C. Splenomegaly D. Clubbing 28 / 50 28. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Rapid recovery C. Residual neurodeficit D. Warning symptoms 29 / 50 29. Opening snap is: A. Present in late diastole B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Low-pitched D. Best heard in standing position 30 / 50 30. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Isolated levocardia B. Emphysema C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Addison's disease 31 / 50 31. The least common complication of MS is: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Atrial fibrillation 32 / 50 32. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. PDA C. Aortic regurgitation D. Persistent right-sided SVC 33 / 50 33. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 1 cm2 B. < 3 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 34 / 50 34. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Takayasu's disease D. Aplastic anaemia 35 / 50 35. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Cervical rib C. Tophaceous gout D. Trauma 36 / 50 36. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Thoracic deformity D. Cardiomyopathy 37 / 50 37. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex B. Anywhere in the precordium C. In standing position D. With the diaphragm of stethoscope 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Endothelin B. Nitric oxide C. Bradykinin D. Histamine 39 / 50 39. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Pulmonary congestion C. Kussmaul's sign D. Increased JVP 40 / 50 40. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Systemic hypertension C. Disturbances in vision D. Diminished pulses in upper extremity 41 / 50 41. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. AS C. PS D. VSD 42 / 50 42. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Haemothorax 43 / 50 43. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral regurgitation D. Aortic insufficiency 44 / 50 44. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus alternans C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Pulsus paradoxus 45 / 50 45. S4 is not associated with: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Aortic stenosis C. Chronic mitral regurgitation D. Systemic hypertension 46 / 50 46. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Prominent a-wave D. Prominent y-descent 47 / 50 47. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Commonly found in children C. Best heard over mitral area D. Associated with thrill 48 / 50 48. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Polycystic kidney D. Berry aneurysm 49 / 50 49. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Pericardial knock B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 50 / 50 50. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Cat-like cry D. 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