Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Graham Steel murmur B. Presence of S3 C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Late and loud opening snap 2 / 50 2. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. VSD C. Transposition of great vessels D. ASD 3 / 50 3. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined MS and MR 4 / 50 4. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Hyperkalaemia 5 / 50 5. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 6 / 50 6. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ventricular septal defect C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus 7 / 50 7. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Left atrial myxoma 8 / 50 8. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S3 9 / 50 9. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. Moderate VSD C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 10 / 50 10. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 1-12th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 6-9th rib D. 10-12th rib 11 / 50 11. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Bucindolol C. Propranolol D. Digoxin 12 / 50 12. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Pulmonary hypertension 13 / 50 13. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Down's syndrome B. Holt-Oram syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 14 / 50 14. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Ventricular septal defect 15 / 50 15. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. PDA C. Constrictive pericarditis D. ASD 16 / 50 16. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-systole 17 / 50 17. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Chronic obstructive airway disease B. Left-sided heart failure C. Pericardial effusion D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 18 / 50 18. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Homocystinuria D. Nephrotic syndrome 20 / 50 20. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Pure mitral stenosis C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Absence of valvular calcification 21 / 50 21. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows reverse split 22 / 50 22. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. Transferrin C. PAI-I D. Lipoprotein 23 / 50 23. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Aortic aneurysm C. Hyperdynamic circulatory states D. Budd-Chiari syndrome 24 / 50 24. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Magnesium 25 / 50 25. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypothermia D. Digitalis toxicity 26 / 50 26. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Berry aneurysm 27 / 50 27. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Thoracic deformity D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 28 / 50 28. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Coarctation of aorta C. Renal artery stenosis D. Eclampsia 29 / 50 29. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ischemic heart disease C. Severe anemia D. Cardiomyopathy 30 / 50 30. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. Pregnancy D. H/O intraocular bleeding 31 / 50 31. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic insufficiency 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Obstructive jaundice C. Myxoedema D. Hypothermia 33 / 50 33. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Verapamil B. Disopyramide C. Quinidine D. Flecainide 34 / 50 34. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. MS C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 35 / 50 35. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Arrhythmias C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus 36 / 50 36. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 2 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 37 / 50 37. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Hoover's sign C. Branham's sign D. Tinel's sign 38 / 50 38. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Systolic C. Presystolic D. Early diastolic 39 / 50 39. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. On the left side of lower sternum B. After holding the breath C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. In lying down position 40 / 50 40. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Livedo reticularis C. Acrocyanosis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 41 / 50 41. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Infundibular PS C. Supravalvular AS D. Lutembacher syndrome 42 / 50 42. S4 is not associated with: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Systemic hypertension C. Aortic stenosis D. Chronic mitral regurgitation 43 / 50 43. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Right ventricular pacing C. Left ventricular failure D. ASD 44 / 50 44. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with tight PS D. AR with CCF 45 / 50 45. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Rheumatic valve C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Mural thrombus 46 / 50 46. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage C. MS is a recognised cause D. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg 47 / 50 47. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arteritis D. Systemic hypertension 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Nitric oxide C. Bradykinin D. Endothelin 49 / 50 49. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Acute severe asthma C. Cardiac tamponade D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 50 / 50 50. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Methyldopa B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Diazoxide D. 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