Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Haptoglobulin C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Orosomucoid 2 / 50 2. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. On the left side of lower sternum C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. After holding the breath 3 / 50 3. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. ASD C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular pacing 4 / 50 4. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. MR C. AS D. AR 5 / 50 5. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Coarctation of aorta C. Unstable angina D. Buerger's disease 6 / 50 6. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Left ventricular failure D. Cirrhosis of liver 7 / 50 7. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Pulse deficit is > 10 8 / 50 8. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Right atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Ventricular tachycardia 9 / 50 9. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Chronic renal failure C. Acute pancreatitis D. Gonorrhoea 10 / 50 10. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Berry aneurysm D. Aortic arch syndrome 11 / 50 11. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Supraventricular tachycardia D. Angina Pectoris 12 / 50 12. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class III C. Class II D. Class IV 13 / 50 13. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Verapamil C. Adenosine D. Amiodarone 14 / 50 14. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. LDH B. SGPT C. SGOT D. CPK 15 / 50 15. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Central cyanosis 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Cubbing B. Murmur C. Splenomegaly D. Osler's node 17 / 50 17. The least common complication of MS is: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Pulmonary hypertension 18 / 50 18. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Lutembacher syndrome D. Infundibular PS 19 / 50 19. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. PDA C. Ostium primum ASD D. Fallot's tetralogy 20 / 50 20. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Candida albicans endocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Marantic endocarditis 21 / 50 21. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Lumbar canal stenosis C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Buerger's disease 22 / 50 22. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Occurs below 18 years D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 23 / 50 23. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Amiloride C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 24 / 50 24. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Undulating C. Becomes prominent on lying down D. Better felt than seen 25 / 50 25. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Factor-X assay D. Clotting time (CT) 26 / 50 26. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Pericardial knock B. Ejection click C. Opening snap D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 27 / 50 27. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 28 / 50 28. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Lovastatin B. Probucol C. Gemfibrozil D. Nicotinic acid 29 / 50 29. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Thoracic deformity 30 / 50 30. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Methyldopa C. Telmisartan D. Labetalol 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein C. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure D. Low volume pulse 32 / 50 32. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Left-to-right shunt C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Acute pulmonary oedema 33 / 50 33. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Chlamydia C. Cytomegalovirus D. HIV 34 / 50 34. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Gradual onset C. Rapid recovery D. Residual neurodeficit 35 / 50 35. Still’s murmur is: A. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis B. Systolic murmur in complete heart block C. Systolic innocent murmur D. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation 36 / 50 36. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Pregnancy D. Sickle cell anemia 37 / 50 37. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Increased LDH3 D. Inverted T wave in ECG 38 / 50 38. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Floppy mitral valve D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 39 / 50 39. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 18 inch long 40 / 50 40. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Disturbances in vision C. Systemic hypertension D. Intermittent claudication 41 / 50 41. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent a-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Small v-wave D. Prominent y-descent 42 / 50 42. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Ventricular septal defect C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Aortopulmonary window 43 / 50 43. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. Aortic regurgitation C. Right-sided aortic arch D. PDA 44 / 50 44. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 45 / 50 45. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-electrical cardioversion B. Myocarditis C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Post-AMI 46 / 50 46. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Doxorubicin B. Allopurinol C. Chloramphenicol D. Methotrexate 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Pitting oedema B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients 48 / 50 48. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Palpable S3 C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable opening snap 49 / 50 49. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 200 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 50 Joules 50 / 50 50. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Right atrial myxoma D. Mitral valve prolapse LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology