Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Right-to-left shunt D. Left atrial myxoma 2 / 50 2. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Pin-point mitral valve C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 3 / 50 3. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Left ventricular failure B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Cirrhosis of liver 4 / 50 4. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 2 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 5 / 50 5. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. ACE inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Aspirin 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Ascites C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulmonary oedema 7 / 50 7. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. Ostium primum ASD D. VSD 8 / 50 8. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Cat-like cry B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. VSD 9 / 50 9. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Having loud S1 D. Found in severe AR 10 / 50 10. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Gallop rhythm B. Dependent oedema C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 11 / 50 11. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta B. Aneurysm of subclavian artery C. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels D. Takayasu's disease 12 / 50 12. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 13 / 50 13. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Unfolding of aorta 14 / 50 14. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Hypokalaemia D. Old age 15 / 50 15. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. MS is a recognised cause B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. Found in basal region 16 / 50 16. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. WPW syndrome C. Hyperkalaemia D. Sick sinus syndrome 17 / 50 17. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. MS C. Fallot's tetralogy D. PDA 18 / 50 18. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Haemothorax B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 19 / 50 19. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Severe coarctation of aorta B. Pulmonary atresia C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 20 / 50 20. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Myocarditis B. Right ventricular infarction C. Pregnancy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 21 / 50 21. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute leukaemia D. Takayasu's disease 22 / 50 22. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Phenylephrin B. Propranolol C. Morphine D. Amiodarone 23 / 50 23. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Accentuated C. Diminished D. Ringing in character 24 / 50 24. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Mitral stenosis C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Aortic stenosis 25 / 50 25. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Brachial C. Radial D. Femoral 26 / 50 26. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Raised JVP D. Peripheral cyanosis 27 / 50 27. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MS B. ASD plus MR C. ASD plus AR D. VSD plus MS 28 / 50 28. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 29 / 50 29. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 30 / 50 30. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Tricuspid atresia 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Starts in the dependent part D. Pitting oedema 32 / 50 32. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Shock D. Arrhythmias 33 / 50 33. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Rupture C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Embolism 34 / 50 34. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Quinidine C. Disopyramide D. Verapamil 35 / 50 35. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Renal artery stenosis B. Eclampsia C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Coarctation of aorta 36 / 50 36. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Digitalis toxicity C. Hypothermia D. Chronic cor pulmonale 37 / 50 37. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Early diastolic D. Presystolic 38 / 50 38. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Residual neurodeficit C. Rapid recovery D. Gradual onset 39 / 50 39. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MR B. AR C. AS D. MS 40 / 50 40. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. LDH B. SGOT C. SGPT D. CPK 41 / 50 41. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur 42 / 50 42. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Left-to-right shunt 43 / 50 43. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. H. pylori C. Chlamydia D. HIV 44 / 50 44. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. First degree heart block C. AV nodal rhythm D. WPW syndrome 45 / 50 45. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Cafe au lait pallor C. Clubbing D. Macroscopic hematuria 46 / 50 46. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. VSD C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Dextrocardia 47 / 50 47. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. VSD B. PS C. AS D. Coarctation of aorta 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Prolonged PR interval C. Elevated ASO titre D. Increased ESR 49 / 50 49. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Atrial fibrillation C. Massive myocardial infarction D. Ventricular fibrillation 50 / 50 50. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined AS and AR LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology