Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Sick sinus syndrome C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 2 / 50 2. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased PR interval D. Increased QT interval 3 / 50 3. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 4 / 50 4. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Acute severe asthma D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 5 / 50 5. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Late and loud opening snap C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Graham Steel murmur 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Morphine C. Trendelenburg position D. Rotating tourniquets 7 / 50 7. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 8 / 50 8. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. AS C. Associated LVH D. PDA 9 / 50 9. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Carvedilol C. Labetalol D. Pindolol 10 / 50 10. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Cardiac tamponade D. Haemothorax 11 / 50 11. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Transposition of great vessels C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. ASD 12 / 50 12. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable S3 C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S4 13 / 50 13. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. WPW syndrome D. Digitalis toxicity 14 / 50 14. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class I C. Class II D. Class IV 15 / 50 15. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 25 ml C. 50 ml D. 5 ml 16 / 50 16. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium 17 / 50 17. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Aortic stenosis D. Ventricular fibrillation 18 / 50 18. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. Left ventricular failure C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. ASD 19 / 50 19. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis B. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula C. Aortopulmonary window D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 20 / 50 20. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Unfolding of aorta C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 21 / 50 21. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome B. Austin Flint murmur C. Left atrial myxoma D. Carey Coombs murmur 22 / 50 22. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MR D. MS 23 / 50 23. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Hypovolaemic C. Cardiogenic D. Septic 24 / 50 24. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Bush tea C. Tapioca D. Coffee 25 / 50 25. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Chronic renal failure D. Gonorrhoea 26 / 50 26. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Tall T-waves C. Increased PR interval D. Shortened PR interval 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Photosensitivity C. Alveolitis D. Hepatitis 28 / 50 28. The disease with male preponderance is: A. PDA B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. SLE D. Coarctation of aorta 29 / 50 29. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Pin-point mitral valve 30 / 50 30. Sudden death may occur in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. PDA C. ASD D. AS 31 / 50 31. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Eclampsia C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Renal artery stenosis 32 / 50 32. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. After holding the breath B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. In lying down position D. On the left side of lower sternum 33 / 50 33. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Stenosis is severe C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 34 / 50 34. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AR B. AS C. MR D. MS 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Ascites C. Pulmonary oedema D. Pulsus paradoxus 36 / 50 36. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 70 ml/kg of body weight 37 / 50 37. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Left ventricular failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Superior mediastinal syndrome D. Congestive cardiac failure 38 / 50 38. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 39 / 50 39. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. Carotid massage C. Electrical cardioversion D. IV Lignocaine 40 / 50 40. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Myxoedema C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Mitral stenosis 41 / 50 41. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. MS C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. VSD 42 / 50 42. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Gradual onset C. Warning symptoms D. Residual neurodeficit 43 / 50 43. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Leg raising D. Standing 44 / 50 44. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Emphysema C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Myocarditis 45 / 50 45. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. ASD C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. VSD 46 / 50 46. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Calcium 47 / 50 47. The murmur of MS is: A. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation B. High-pitched C. Early diastolic D. With radiation towards left axilla 48 / 50 48. Loud A2 is present in: A. Aortitis B. Unfolding of aorta C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Calcified aortic valve 49 / 50 49. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Amiodarone C. Adenosine D. Verapamil 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Pitting oedema C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Starts in the dependent part LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
