Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Late systole 2 / 50 2. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Coronary osteal stenosis C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta 3 / 50 3. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MS B. AR C. MR D. AS 4 / 50 4. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Tapping apex C. Cardiomegaly D. Water-hammer pulse 5 / 50 5. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. WPW syndrome B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. Digitalis toxicity D. Rheumatic carditis 6 / 50 6. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Autoimmune reaction C. Bacteria D. Protozoa 7 / 50 7. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. Moderate VSD C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 8 / 50 8. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Right ventricular dilatation 9 / 50 9. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. PAI-I C. Lipoprotein D. Transferrin 10 / 50 10. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Superior mediastinal syndrome B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Left ventricular failure D. Cirrhosis of liver 11 / 50 11. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. More common in females D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic 12 / 50 12. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Coarctation of aorta B. SLE C. PDA D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 13 / 50 13. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Aortic regurgitation B. RBBB C. LBBB D. Left ventricular pacing 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Polyarthritis C. Chorea D. Erythema nodosum 15 / 50 15. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. Transposition of great vessels 16 / 50 16. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Old age C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Renal failure 17 / 50 17. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial flutter C. Multiple ectopics D. Wenckebach block 18 / 50 18. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Bush tea B. Coffee C. Tapioca D. Aflatoxin 19 / 50 19. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Acrocyanosis D. Deep vein thrombosis 20 / 50 20. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Bornholm disease B. Unstable angina C. Acute mediastinitis D. Dissecting aneurysm 21 / 50 21. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Left-to-right shunt C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Transposition of great vessels 22 / 50 22. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep Q wave B. Prominent ST elevation C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion 23 / 50 23. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Fallot's tetralogy C. PDA D. MS 24 / 50 24. S4 is not associated with: A. Aortic stenosis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Systemic hypertension D. Chronic mitral regurgitation 25 / 50 25. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. HIV C. Chlamydia D. H. pylori 26 / 50 26. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Squatting C. Valsalva maneuver D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 27 / 50 27. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Haemothorax D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 28 / 50 28. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Systemic hypertension C. Marfan's syndrome D. Pregnancy 29 / 50 29. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. 'Silver-wire' arteries B. Papilloedema C. Retinal haemorrhage D. Arteriovenous nipping 30 / 50 30. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. Y-shaped D. V-shaped 31 / 50 31. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Right atrial myxoma C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 32 / 50 32. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hyponatraemia 33 / 50 33. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. AS C. AR D. MR 34 / 50 34. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen B. Pin-point mitral valve C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Occurs below 18 years 35 / 50 35. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. MR C. AS D. AR 36 / 50 36. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Hyperdynamic circulatory states C. Coarctation of aorta D. Budd-Chiari syndrome 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Splenomegaly B. Osler's node C. Cubbing D. Murmur 38 / 50 38. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. Associated LVH C. PDA D. ASD 39 / 50 39. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Carey Coombs murmur B. Austin Flint murmur C. Left atrial myxoma D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 40 / 50 40. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation C. PDA D. Pulmonary stenosis 41 / 50 41. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Septic shock 42 / 50 42. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Palpable opening snap C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable S3 43 / 50 43. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Toxoplasma infection B. Diphtheria C. Ascariasis D. HIV infection 44 / 50 44. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Complete heart block B. Right atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Constrictive pericarditis 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Diuretics C. Morphine D. Trendelenburg position 46 / 50 46. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Stenosis is severe D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 47 / 50 47. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 48 / 50 48. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Hypothermia C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 49 / 50 49. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Supravalvular AS C. Infundibular PS D. Lutembacher syndrome 50 / 50 50. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Angina Pectoris LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology