Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The murmur of MS is: A. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation B. With radiation towards left axilla C. Early diastolic D. High-pitched 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Elevated ASO titre C. Arthralgia D. Increased ESR 3 / 50 3. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. On the left side of lower sternum C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. After holding the breath 4 / 50 4. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Sickle cell anemia D. Polycythemia 5 / 50 5. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Increased PR interval C. Shortened PR interval D. Diminished QT interval 6 / 50 6. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Aortic stenosis C. Myocarditis D. Ventricular fibrillation 7 / 50 7. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 8 / 50 8. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Shows reverse split C. Having wide split D. Remains single 9 / 50 9. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Aortic stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Pulmonary stenosis 10 / 50 10. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. VSD D. Ebstein's anomaly 11 / 50 11. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Verapamil C. Disopyramide D. Quinidine 12 / 50 12. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 13 / 50 13. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. A small fraction closes by the year 10 B. Moderate VSD C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. Haemodynamically significant 14 / 50 14. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Left ventricular pacing B. LBBB C. Aortic regurgitation D. RBBB 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Erythema nodosum C. Polyarthritis D. Chorea 16 / 50 16. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 17 / 50 17. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ventricular septal defect 18 / 50 18. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 19 / 50 19. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Wenckebach block C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Ventricular bigeminy 20 / 50 20. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. High ESR C. Splenomegaly D. Pyrexia 21 / 50 21. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. HIV infection B. Toxoplasma infection C. Diphtheria D. Ascariasis 22 / 50 22. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Austin Flint murmur B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Left atrial myxoma 23 / 50 23. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Prazosin C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 24 / 50 24. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. LDH C. SGPT D. CPK 25 / 50 25. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Aortic insufficiency D. Mitral regurgitation 26 / 50 26. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Palate C. Fundus D. Nailbed 27 / 50 27. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Morphine C. Trendelenburg position D. Rotating tourniquets 29 / 50 29. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Embolic phenomenon C. Pyrexia D. Hypertension 30 / 50 30. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. PDA B. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 31 / 50 31. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. SLE C. Afibrinogenaemia D. Old age 32 / 50 32. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. PDA D. Coarctation of aorta 33 / 50 33. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. ASD C. Right ventricular pacing D. Left ventricular failure 34 / 50 34. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Increased JVP B. Kussmaul's sign C. Hypotension D. Pulmonary congestion 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Hyperthyroidism C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 36 / 50 36. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Acute severe asthma D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 37 / 50 37. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Found in severe AR D. Having loud S1 38 / 50 38. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Severe anemia C. Ischemic heart disease D. Coarctation of aorta 39 / 50 39. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Trauma C. Cervical rib D. Sarcoidosis 40 / 50 40. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Aortopulmonary window 41 / 50 41. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined AR and MR D. Combined MS and AS 42 / 50 42. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Opening snap C. Pericardial knock D. Ejection click 43 / 50 43. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Buerger's disease C. Leriche's syndrome D. Lumbar canal stenosis 44 / 50 44. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 45 / 50 45. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. V-shaped D. Y-shaped 46 / 50 46. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Coarctation of aorta C. Renal artery stenosis D. Phaeochromocytoma 47 / 50 47. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve 48 / 50 48. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. MR C. AR D. AS 49 / 50 49. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Systolic innocent murmur 50 / 50 50. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S3 LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology