CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Pulmonary oedema D. Ascites 2 / 50 2. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Increased PR interval D. Tall T-waves 3 / 50 3. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Left ventricular failure 4 / 50 4. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. Early systolic click D. More common in females 5 / 50 5. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. VSD B. Mongoloid slant of eyes C. Cat-like cry D. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 6 / 50 6. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Right atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence 7 / 50 7. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Height of R wave maximum in V6 B. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion C. Prominent ST elevation D. Deep Q wave 8 / 50 8. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. High-pitched D. Early diastolic 9 / 50 9. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Acute severe asthma D. Cardiac tamponade 10 / 50 10. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Floppy mitral valve D. Acute rheumatic fever 11 / 50 11. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased QT interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased PR interval 12 / 50 12. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Diastolic shock B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 13 / 50 13. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with tight PS B. AR with systemic hypertension C. Acutely developing AR D. AR with CCF 14 / 50 14. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-systole C. Diastole D. Mid-diastole 15 / 50 15. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Systemic hypertension 16 / 50 16. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Metoprolol C. Verapamil D. Adenosine 17 / 50 17. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Atrial fibrillation D. Complete heart block 18 / 50 18. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. WPW syndrome B. Digitalis toxicity C. Rheumatic carditis D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 19 / 50 19. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Eclampsia D. Renal artery stenosis 20 / 50 20. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Laennec B. Babinski C. Osler D. Korotkoff 21 / 50 21. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Neurogenic C. Cardiogenic D. Hypovolaemic 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Ceruloplasmin C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Haptoglobulin 23 / 50 23. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Left-to-right shunt 24 / 50 24. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Atherosclerosis of aorta C. Unfolding of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 25 / 50 25. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Right ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Left-to-right shunt 26 / 50 26. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. PDA C. Transposition of great vessels D. ASD 27 / 50 27. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Cytomegalovirus C. Chlamydia D. HIV 28 / 50 28. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Tapioca C. Aflatoxin D. Bush tea 29 / 50 29. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Lutembacher syndrome C. Supravalvular AS D. Infundibular PS 30 / 50 30. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. MR C. VSD D. PDA 31 / 50 31. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Systemic hypertension D. Marfan's syndrome 32 / 50 32. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class I C. Class III D. Class IV 33 / 50 33. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Best heard over mitral area C. Commonly found in children D. Associated with thrill 34 / 50 34. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Right ventricular dilatation 35 / 50 35. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Pin-point mitral valve 36 / 50 36. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Streptoroccus viridans C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Pneumococcus 37 / 50 37. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Aortic regurgitation B. LBBB C. RBBB D. Left ventricular pacing 38 / 50 38. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 39 / 50 39. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur 40 / 50 40. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Morning-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Night-time single dosage 41 / 50 41. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Aortic valve D. Mitral valve 42 / 50 42. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Hypovolaemic shock D. Septic shock 43 / 50 43. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. VSD D. ASD 44 / 50 44. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PS C. VSD D. AS 45 / 50 45. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Standing B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Leg raising 46 / 50 46. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Prominent a-wave C. Small v-wave D. Prominent x-descent 47 / 50 47. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Gallop rhythm C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 48 / 50 48. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Leriche's syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Peripheral embolism 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Hypothermia B. Obstructive jaundice C. Complete heart block D. Myxoedema 50 / 50 50. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Morbid obesity D. Microvascular angina LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology