Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Mobitz type II block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Wenckebach block 2 / 50 2. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Hypokalaemia C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Old age 3 / 50 3. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Pin-point mitral valve D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 4 / 50 4. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Late and loud opening snap B. Presence of S3 C. Graham Steel murmur D. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur 5 / 50 5. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral stenosis D. Mitral regurgitation 6 / 50 6. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Rheumatic arthritis C. Felty's syndrome D. Viral arthritis 7 / 50 7. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. ASD C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Transposition of great vessels 8 / 50 8. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Magnesium 9 / 50 9. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. VSD D. PS 10 / 50 10. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Wenckebach block C. Left ventricular failure D. Pericardial effusion 11 / 50 11. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. ACE-inhibitors C. Surgical myotomy of the septum D. Propranolol 12 / 50 12. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Acute rheumatic fever D. MS 13 / 50 13. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. Early diastolic D. High-pitched 14 / 50 14. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Superior mediastinal syndrome D. Left ventricular failure 15 / 50 15. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Systemic hypertension C. Takayasu's disease D. Diabetes mellitus 16 / 50 16. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Buerger's disease C. Peripheral embolism D. Coarctation of aorta 17 / 50 17. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Amiodarone C. Lisinopril D. Amlodipine 18 / 50 18. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ischemic heart disease D. Cardiomyopathy 19 / 50 19. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. VSD C. PDA D. AR 20 / 50 20. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. Aortic regurgitation D. Right-sided aortic arch 21 / 50 21. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute leukaemia C. Aplastic anaemia D. Takayasu's disease 22 / 50 22. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Adenosine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone 23 / 50 23. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Pyrexia C. Splenomegaly D. Clubbing 24 / 50 24. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Clubbing C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Cafe au lait pallor 25 / 50 25. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Aneurysm of subclavian artery B. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels C. Takayasu's disease D. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta 26 / 50 26. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 27 / 50 27. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Systemic hypertension 28 / 50 28. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive myocardial infarction B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Atrial fibrillation 29 / 50 29. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Diuretics C. ACE inhibitors D. Beta-blockers 30 / 50 30. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Accentuated B. Diminished C. Normal in character D. Ringing in character 31 / 50 31. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. Restriction of fluid C. IV fluid D. Diuretics 32 / 50 32. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised Lipoprotein (a) C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised VLDL 33 / 50 33. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Hydralazine C. Methyldopa D. Enalapril 34 / 50 34. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Hypertension C. Embolic phenomenon D. Clubbing 35 / 50 35. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Right ventricular failure D. Left-to-right shunt 36 / 50 36. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined MS and MR 37 / 50 37. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Atrial fibrillation 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Prolonged PR interval C. Elevated ASO titre D. Increased ESR 39 / 50 39. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. AS C. AR D. MS 40 / 50 40. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. PDA 41 / 50 41. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortitis C. Calcified aortic valve D. Pulmonary hypertension 42 / 50 42. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. AR C. MR D. MS 43 / 50 43. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Hypertension C. Arrhythmias D. Diabetes mellitus 44 / 50 44. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypothermia D. Vagal stimulation 45 / 50 45. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Methyldopa C. Amlodipine D. Telmisartan 46 / 50 46. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 47 / 50 47. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Anomalous origin of coronary artery C. Single ventricle D. Fallot's tetralogy 48 / 50 48. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 49 / 50 49. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 50 / 50 50. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Digitalis toxicity C. Chronic cor pulmonale D. Hypothermia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology