Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. LDH C. CPK D. SGOT 2 / 50 2. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 3 / 50 3. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Microvascular angina C. Hyperuricemia D. Morbid obesity 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Starts in the dependent part C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Pitting oedema 5 / 50 5. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid atresia 6 / 50 6. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Down's syndrome B. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome C. Holt-Oram syndrome D. Trisomy 18 7 / 50 7. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Rheumatic heart disease C. Collagen vascular disease D. Right ventricular dilatation 8 / 50 8. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Emphysema D. Myocarditis 9 / 50 9. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Angina Pectoris D. Systemic hypertension 10 / 50 10. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. PDA 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure B. Low volume pulse C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Regular pulse rate 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Pregnancy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Marfan's syndrome 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Alveolitis C. Tachyarrhythmias D. Hepatitis 14 / 50 14. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Buerger's disease D. Lumbar canal stenosis 15 / 50 15. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Aortic stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Buerger's disease 16 / 50 16. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. More common in females B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. Early systolic click 17 / 50 17. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 18 / 50 18. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. Retinal haemorrhage C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Papilloedema 19 / 50 19. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. After holding the breath B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. On the left side of lower sternum D. In lying down position 20 / 50 20. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Should be ignored B. Present in all hypertensives C. As a result of venous distension D. Related to diastolic BP 21 / 50 21. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Aortic valve D. Mitral valve 22 / 50 22. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. MS C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Acute rheumatic fever 23 / 50 23. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. AS B. VSD C. Coarctation of aorta D. PS 24 / 50 24. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Candida albicans endocarditis C. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 25 / 50 25. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Complete heart block D. Atrial fibrillation 26 / 50 26. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Increased PR interval C. Diminished QT interval D. Tall T-waves 27 / 50 27. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MR D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 28 / 50 28. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Pulmonary atresia 29 / 50 29. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Systemic hypertension D. Intermittent claudication 30 / 50 30. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. Anywhere in the precordium C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 31 / 50 31. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 4 cm2 32 / 50 32. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. ASD B. VSD C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Fallot's tetralogy 33 / 50 33. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Right atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Mitral valve prolapse 34 / 50 34. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Cardiogenic B. Septic C. Neurogenic D. Hypovolaemic 35 / 50 35. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Left-to-right shunt D. Acute pulmonary oedema 36 / 50 36. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 37 / 50 37. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min 38 / 50 38. Sudden death may occur in: A. PDA B. ASD C. Constrictive pericarditis D. AS 39 / 50 39. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. MR C. AR D. MS 40 / 50 40. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable S4 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Histamine C. Nitric oxide D. Endothelin 42 / 50 42. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Endotoxic shock C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Aortic stenosis 43 / 50 43. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Bornholm disease B. Dissecting aneurysm C. Acute mediastinitis D. Unstable angina 44 / 50 44. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Haemothorax 45 / 50 45. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula C. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis D. Aortopulmonary window 46 / 50 46. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased PR interval D. Increased duration of QRS complex 47 / 50 47. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Stenosis is severe 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Trendelenburg position C. Diuretics D. Morphine 49 / 50 49. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Pregnancy C. Marfan's syndrome D. Systemic hypertension 50 / 50 50. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation B. Diminished cardiac output C. Prolonged circulation time D. Pericardial effusion LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
