Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Polycythemia D. Pregnancy 2 / 50 2. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Aortic arch syndrome C. Berry aneurysm D. Bicuspid aortic valve 3 / 50 3. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 5 ml B. 50 ml C. 15 ml D. 25 ml 4 / 50 4. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Shock D. Arrhythmias 5 / 50 5. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hyperkinetic circulatory states B. Athletes C. Pregnancy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 6 / 50 6. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Related to diastolic BP B. Present in all hypertensives C. As a result of venous distension D. Should be ignored 7 / 50 7. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Lovastatin C. Gemfibrozil D. Probucol 8 / 50 8. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Tinel's sign B. Bing sign C. Branham's sign D. Hoover's sign 9 / 50 9. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Mitral incompetence C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 10 / 50 10. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Labetalol D. Methyldopa 11 / 50 11. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. Hyperkalaemia C. Ostium primum ASD D. WPW syndrome 12 / 50 12. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. AS C. VSD D. PS 13 / 50 13. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Standing 14 / 50 14. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Hydralazine B. Enalapril C. Labetalol D. Methyldopa 15 / 50 15. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. LBBB B. RBBB C. Left ventricular pacing D. Aortic regurgitation 16 / 50 16. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. CPK C. LDH D. SGOT 17 / 50 17. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. VSD C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. PS 18 / 50 18. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Graham Steel murmur D. Presence of S3 19 / 50 19. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Ringing in character B. Accentuated C. Normal in character D. Diminished 20 / 50 20. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Amlodipine C. Lisinopril D. Amiodarone 21 / 50 21. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. ASD D. VSD 22 / 50 22. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. After holding the breath B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. In lying down position D. On the left side of lower sternum 23 / 50 23. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ebstein's anomaly C. VSD D. Transposition of great vessels 24 / 50 24. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. A small fraction closes by the year 10 C. Moderate VSD D. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent 25 / 50 25. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Hypovolaemic 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Myxoedema B. Hypothermia C. Complete heart block D. Obstructive jaundice 27 / 50 27. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Shortened PR interval 28 / 50 28. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows reverse split C. Remains single D. Shows narrow split 29 / 50 29. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Afibrinogenaemia B. Vasculitis C. Old age D. SLE 30 / 50 30. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. Increased LDH3 C. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 31 / 50 31. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Left ventricular failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 32 / 50 32. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Digitalis toxicity C. Hypothermia D. Chronic cor pulmonale 33 / 50 33. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Prominent x-descent C. Small v-wave D. Prominent a-wave 34 / 50 34. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Complete heart block D. Tricuspid incompetence 35 / 50 35. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Tapioca C. Bush tea D. Aflatoxin 36 / 50 36. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage C. MS is a recognised cause D. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg 37 / 50 37. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Pulmonary hypertension 38 / 50 38. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Hypothermia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Quinidine therapy 39 / 50 39. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Chronic constrictive pericarditis C. Mural thrombus D. Rheumatic valve 40 / 50 40. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Flecainide C. Quinidine D. Verapamil 41 / 50 41. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. SLE C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 42 / 50 42. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 43 / 50 43. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. PDA 44 / 50 44. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Squatting D. Standing 45 / 50 45. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Chorea D. Erythema nodosum 47 / 50 47. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV Lignocaine C. IV amiodarone D. Electrical cardioversion 48 / 50 48. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Staphylococcus aureus 49 / 50 49. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. MS C. AS D. AR 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Arteriosclerosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology