CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Dextrocardia C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 2 / 50 2. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 5 ml C. 50 ml D. 25 ml 3 / 50 3. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 30mmHg B. 40mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 80mmHg 4 / 50 4. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised VLDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 5 / 50 5. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Present in late diastole C. Low-pitched D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 6 / 50 6. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. PDA 7 / 50 7. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Pericardial knock C. Opening snap D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 8 / 50 8. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Microvascular angina C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Hyperuricemia 9 / 50 9. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Aortic insufficiency D. Mitral stenosis 10 / 50 10. Sudden death may occur in: A. ASD B. PDA C. Constrictive pericarditis D. AS 11 / 50 11. Loud A2 is present in: A. Aortitis B. Unfolding of aorta C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Calcified aortic valve 12 / 50 12. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. VSD B. Dextrocardia C. PDA D. Bicuspid aortic valve 13 / 50 13. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Endotoxic shock C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 14 / 50 14. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 8 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 12 inch long 15 / 50 15. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Central cyanosis D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 16 / 50 16. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with tight PS D. AR with CCF 17 / 50 17. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Emphysema C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Cardiomyopathy 18 / 50 18. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. There are two negative waves C. Undulating D. Becomes prominent on lying down 19 / 50 19. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. More common in females C. High-pitched late systolic murmur D. Early systolic click 20 / 50 20. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Hydralazine B. Prazosin C. Amiloride D. Methyldopa 21 / 50 21. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. MS C. AR D. MR 22 / 50 22. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Hyperdynamic circulatory states B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Aortic aneurysm 23 / 50 23. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. VSD C. AS D. PS 24 / 50 24. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Occurs below 18 years D. Pin-point mitral valve 25 / 50 25. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Atrial fibrillation C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Constrictive pericarditis 26 / 50 26. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve 27 / 50 27. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Morphine B. Phenylephrin C. Propranolol D. Amiodarone 28 / 50 28. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Rupture C. Infective endocarditis D. Congestive cardiac failure 29 / 50 29. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Polyarthritis C. Erythema nodosum D. Subcutaneous nodule 31 / 50 31. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Ventricular septal defect 32 / 50 32. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hyperkalaemia 33 / 50 33. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Tricuspid valve B. Aortic valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Mitral valve 34 / 50 34. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Left ventricular pacing B. LBBB C. Aortic regurgitation D. RBBB 35 / 50 35. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. VSD C. MS D. PS 36 / 50 36. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ostium primum ASD C. PDA D. VSD 37 / 50 37. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. Y-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 38 / 50 38. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus tachycardia C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus bradycardia 39 / 50 39. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. Aortic regurgitation D. Right-sided aortic arch 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Haptoglobulin C. Orosomucoid D. Alpha-fetoprotein 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Increased ESR C. Elevated ASO titre D. Arthralgia 42 / 50 42. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep Q wave 43 / 50 43. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Tricuspid atresia C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 44 / 50 44. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Bacterial endocarditis C. Pregnancy D. Severe menstrual bleeding 45 / 50 45. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Single ventricle 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Pitting oedema B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients 47 / 50 47. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Ebstein's anomaly C. VSD D. Fallot's tetralogy 48 / 50 48. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Moderate VSD B. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Haemodynamically significant 49 / 50 49. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. MS C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 50 / 50 50. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. PAI-I C. Lipoprotein D. 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