Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Transposition of great vessels 2 / 50 2. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Systole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 3 / 50 3. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Cardiomyopathy D. Thoracic deformity 4 / 50 4. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Severe coarctation of aorta B. Pulmonary atresia C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection D. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome 5 / 50 5. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Severe pulmonary hypertension B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid atresia 6 / 50 6. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Microvascular angina D. Hyperuricemia 7 / 50 7. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation C. PDA D. Pulmonary stenosis 8 / 50 8. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 30mmHg C. 40mmHg D. 60mmHg 9 / 50 9. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Anywhere in the precordium 10 / 50 10. The least common complication of MS is: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Cerebral thrombosis 11 / 50 11. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Quinidine B. Disopyramide C. Verapamil D. Flecainide 12 / 50 12. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. MR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. AR 13 / 50 13. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Right ventricular infarction C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 14 / 50 14. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. PDA 15 / 50 15. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Buerger's disease B. Aortic stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Unstable angina 16 / 50 16. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. AR C. MS D. PDA 17 / 50 17. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Opening snap B. Pericardial knock C. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma D. Ejection click 18 / 50 18. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Eccentric dosage schedule B. Twice daily dosage schedule C. Night-time single dosage D. Morning-time single dosage 19 / 50 19. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Conn's syndrome C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Addison's disease 20 / 50 20. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Severe anemia C. Cardiomyopathy D. Ischemic heart disease 21 / 50 21. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Wenckebach heart block C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 22 / 50 22. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Pregnancy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Athletes 23 / 50 23. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Acrocyanosis D. Livedo reticularis 24 / 50 24. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. 2nd degree heart block C. Extrasystoles D. Atrial fibrillation 25 / 50 25. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. AS C. MS D. MR 26 / 50 26. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Left-sided heart failure 27 / 50 27. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Aortic regurgitation B. RBBB C. LBBB D. Left ventricular pacing 28 / 50 28. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Polycythemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Pregnancy 29 / 50 29. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Bing sign C. Hoover's sign D. Tinel's sign 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Regular pulse rate D. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein 31 / 50 31. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Shortened PR interval C. Increased PR interval D. Diminished QT interval 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Osteoarthritis C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 33 / 50 33. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MS B. AR C. MR D. AS 34 / 50 34. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Stenosis is severe D. Occurs immediately after S1 35 / 50 35. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. LDH B. SGOT C. CPK D. SGPT 36 / 50 36. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Cardiomyopathy D. Emphysema 37 / 50 37. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Found in severe AR B. Absence of thrill C. Having loud S1 D. Mid-diastolic murmur 38 / 50 38. The disease with male preponderance is: A. PDA B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. Coarctation of aorta D. SLE 39 / 50 39. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Homocysteine C. Lipoprotein D. Transferrin 40 / 50 40. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Phenylephrin B. Amiodarone C. Morphine D. Propranolol 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulmonary oedema C. Ascites D. Pulsus paradoxus 42 / 50 42. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. Increased LDH3 43 / 50 43. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 44 / 50 44. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. MR C. AR D. MS 45 / 50 45. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased QT interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Increased PR interval 46 / 50 46. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Hypertension B. Pyrexia C. Embolic phenomenon D. Clubbing 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Nitric oxide C. Endothelin D. Bradykinin 48 / 50 48. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 49 / 50 49. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen B. Occurs below 18 years C. Pin-point mitral valve D. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon 50 / 50 50. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised VLDL B. Reduced HDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology