Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. SLE C. Felty's syndrome D. Rheumatic arthritis 2 / 50 2. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Korotkoff B. Laennec C. Babinski D. Osler 3 / 50 3. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Atrial fibrillation C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Mitral valve prolapse 4 / 50 4. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Buerger's disease D. Lumbar canal stenosis 5 / 50 5. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Marantic endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 6 / 50 6. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Hypokalaemia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 7 / 50 7. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. 'f ' waves in neck vein C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. Pulse deficit is > 10 8 / 50 8. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Squatting D. Standing 9 / 50 9. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Hydralazine C. Amiloride D. Methyldopa 10 / 50 10. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Old age B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Renal failure D. Hypokalaemia 11 / 50 11. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Tricuspid atresia 12 / 50 12. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial flutter C. Hypokalaemia D. Atrial fibrillation 13 / 50 13. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Quinidine therapy C. Vagal stimulation D. Hypothermia 14 / 50 14. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Present in late diastole C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Low-pitched 15 / 50 15. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Embolic phenomenon C. Hypertension D. Pyrexia 16 / 50 16. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Pyrexia B. Clubbing C. Splenomegaly D. High ESR 17 / 50 17. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive myocardial infarction D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 18 / 50 18. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Graham Steel murmur 19 / 50 19. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. Y-shaped D. V-shaped 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Histamine C. Nitric oxide D. Endothelin 21 / 50 21. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 60mmHg C. 30mmHg D. 40mmHg 22 / 50 22. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of left atrial thrombus B. Restenosis cases C. Absence of valvular calcification D. Pure mitral stenosis 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Polyarthritis C. Erythema nodosum D. Chorea 24 / 50 24. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-diastole C. Diastole D. Mid-systole 25 / 50 25. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. VSD C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 26 / 50 26. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Fallot's tetralogy 27 / 50 27. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. VSD C. Coarctation of aorta D. AS 28 / 50 28. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Floppy mitral valve C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Acute myocardial infarction 29 / 50 29. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amiodarone B. Amlodipine C. Amrinone D. Lisinopril 30 / 50 30. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Aortic stenosis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 31 / 50 31. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 32 / 50 32. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Systemic hypertension B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Pregnancy D. Marfan's syndrome 33 / 50 33. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Magnesium 34 / 50 34. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. WPW syndrome B. Rheumatic carditis C. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) D. Digitalis toxicity 35 / 50 35. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. Diuretics C. Restriction of fluid D. IV fluid 36 / 50 36. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Mitral incompetence C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Aortic stenosis 37 / 50 37. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 38 / 50 38. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Complete heart block C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Nodal rhythm 39 / 50 39. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Buerger's disease C. Peripheral embolism D. Coarctation of aorta 40 / 50 40. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. AR C. MS D. PDA 41 / 50 41. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 42 / 50 42. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Amlodipine C. Methyldopa D. Telmisartan 43 / 50 43. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S3 44 / 50 44. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Endotoxic shock D. Constrictive pericarditis 45 / 50 45. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. SGOT C. SGPT D. LDH 46 / 50 46. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. MS is a recognised cause B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. Found in basal region D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 47 / 50 47. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Palms C. Fundus D. Nailbed 48 / 50 48. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. SLE C. Afibrinogenaemia D. Old age 49 / 50 49. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus AR B. VSD plus MS C. ASD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 50 / 50 50. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Haemothorax C. Cardiac tamponade D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology