Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. ASD D. Left ventricular failure 2 / 50 2. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Mitral stenosis D. Myxoedema 3 / 50 3. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Splenomegaly B. High ESR C. Clubbing D. Pyrexia 4 / 50 4. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Spironolactone C. Bucindolol D. Digoxin 5 / 50 5. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arteritis D. Systemic hypertension 6 / 50 6. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Electrical cardioversion B. Carotid massage C. IV amiodarone D. IV Lignocaine 7 / 50 7. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Presystolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Early diastolic D. Systolic 8 / 50 8. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. Pregnancy D. H/O intraocular bleeding 9 / 50 9. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Aneurysm of subclavian artery B. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta C. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels D. Takayasu's disease 10 / 50 10. The least common complication of MS is: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Cerebral thrombosis 11 / 50 11. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class III C. Class I D. Class IV 12 / 50 12. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Prominent x-descent in JVP B. Kussmaul's sign C. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography D. Pulsus paradoxus 13 / 50 13. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. WPW syndrome C. Hyperkalaemia D. Ostium primum ASD 14 / 50 14. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Splenomegaly C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Clubbing 15 / 50 15. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Emphysema D. Isolated levocardia 16 / 50 16. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Obstructive mitral valve disease B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Pulmonary oedema D. Pulmonary fibrosis 17 / 50 17. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 18 / 50 18. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. ASD D. Coarctation of aorta 19 / 50 19. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. MR 20 / 50 20. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve 21 / 50 21. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypothermia C. WPW syndrome D. Sick sinus syndrome 22 / 50 22. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. ACE inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Diuretics 23 / 50 23. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Candida albicans endocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis 24 / 50 24. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Dextrocardia B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. VSD D. PDA 25 / 50 25. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. AR C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Pulmonary hypertension 26 / 50 26. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. MR C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 27 / 50 27. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Verapamil C. Disopyramide D. Quinidine 28 / 50 28. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Undulating C. Becomes prominent on lying down D. Better felt than seen 29 / 50 29. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Complete heart block B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Right atrial myxoma D. Constrictive pericarditis 30 / 50 30. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 22 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 12 inch long D. 8 inch long 31 / 50 31. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Cauda equina C. Femoral artery D. Inferior vena cava 32 / 50 32. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Septic C. Cardiogenic D. Hypovolaemic 33 / 50 33. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Clotting time (CT) D. Prothrombin time (PT) 34 / 50 34. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Fallot's tetralogy 35 / 50 35. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur 36 / 50 36. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Valsalva maneuver C. Standing D. Squatting 37 / 50 37. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Dorsalis pedis D. Radial 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Myxoedema C. Hypothermia D. Obstructive jaundice 39 / 50 39. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left bundle branch block D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 40 / 50 40. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. Early systolic click D. More common in females 41 / 50 41. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. First degree heart block B. WPW syndrome C. Low atrial rhythm D. AV nodal rhythm 42 / 50 42. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Acute bacterial endocarditis B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Left atrial myxoma D. Right-to-left shunt 43 / 50 43. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus AR B. ASD plus MS C. VSD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 44 / 50 44. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Labetalol C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulmonary oedema B. Ascites C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Raised JVP 46 / 50 46. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Felty's syndrome B. Viral arthritis C. SLE D. Rheumatic arthritis 47 / 50 47. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Standing B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Leg raising D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 48 / 50 48. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Deep Q wave C. Prominent ST elevation D. Height of R wave maximum in V6 49 / 50 49. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Left atrium 50 / 50 50. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MS B. AR C. AS D. MR LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology