Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial fibrillation C. Hypokalaemia D. Atrial flutter 2 / 50 2. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Phaeochromocytoma 3 / 50 3. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. H. pylori C. HIV D. Chlamydia 4 / 50 4. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep Q wave B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Prominent ST elevation D. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion 5 / 50 5. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 6 / 50 6. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Clotting time (CT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Factor-X assay D. Prothrombin time (PT) 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Alveolitis C. Photosensitivity D. Hepatitis 8 / 50 8. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 9 / 50 9. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Propranolol C. Bucindolol D. Digoxin 10 / 50 10. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Polycythemia C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Pregnancy 11 / 50 11. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Beta-blockers B. ACE inhibitors C. Aspirin D. Diuretics 12 / 50 12. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus bradycardia B. Low pulse pressure C. Hypotension D. Sinus tachycardia 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Raised JVP C. Ascites D. Pulmonary oedema 14 / 50 14. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. Coarctation of aorta 15 / 50 15. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 70 ml/kg of body weight 16 / 50 16. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Intermittent claudication C. Systemic hypertension D. Diminished pulses in upper extremity 17 / 50 17. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Eclampsia C. Renal artery stenosis D. Coarctation of aorta 18 / 50 18. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. Associated LVH C. AS D. PDA 19 / 50 19. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Opening snap B. S2 C. Venous hum D. Ejection click 20 / 50 20. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Hyperdynamic circulatory states D. Aortic aneurysm 21 / 50 21. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Acrocyanosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Livedo reticularis 22 / 50 22. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 23 / 50 23. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Aortic stenosis 24 / 50 24. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. In lying down position C. On the left side of lower sternum D. After holding the breath 25 / 50 25. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Diphtheria B. Toxoplasma infection C. HIV infection D. Ascariasis 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Osteoarthritis C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 27 / 50 27. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Hydralazine B. Methyldopa C. Enalapril D. Labetalol 28 / 50 28. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. MS C. VSD D. PS 29 / 50 29. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Femoral artery B. Popliteal artery C. Cauda equina D. Inferior vena cava 30 / 50 30. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 31 / 50 31. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 32 / 50 32. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. More common in females C. Early systolic click D. High-pitched late systolic murmur 33 / 50 33. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Adenosine C. Metoprolol D. Verapamil 34 / 50 34. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Pulmonary fibrosis 35 / 50 35. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Late systole 36 / 50 36. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg B. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage C. MS is a recognised cause D. Found in basal region 37 / 50 37. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Early diastolic D. Presystolic 38 / 50 38. Loud A2 is present in: A. Aortitis B. Unfolding of aorta C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Calcified aortic valve 39 / 50 39. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Floppy mitral valve 40 / 50 40. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. AR C. MR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Hypothermia C. Obstructive jaundice D. Myxoedema 42 / 50 42. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Potassium 43 / 50 43. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Asplenia B. VSD C. Fingerization of thumb D. Absent clavicle 44 / 50 44. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Remains single C. Shows reverse split D. Shows narrow split 45 / 50 45. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Infundibular PS C. Supravalvular AS D. Ebstein's anomaly 46 / 50 46. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Hypothermia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Digitalis toxicity 47 / 50 47. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Left atrial myxoma 48 / 50 48. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Angina Pectoris C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Systemic hypertension 49 / 50 49. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Nailbed C. Fundus D. Palate 50 / 50 50. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Accentuated B. Normal in character C. Diminished D. 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