Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. Papilloedema C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Retinal haemorrhage 2 / 50 2. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. ASD C. VSD D. Fallot's tetralogy 3 / 50 3. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Having wide split C. Shows narrow split D. Shows reverse split 4 / 50 4. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ventricular septal defect 5 / 50 5. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Right ventricular infarction C. Acute mitral regurgitation D. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction 6 / 50 6. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Increased JVP C. Pulmonary congestion D. Kussmaul's sign 7 / 50 7. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 40mmHg B. 80mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 30mmHg 8 / 50 8. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Cardiomyopathy 9 / 50 9. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Embolism C. Rupture D. Congestive cardiac failure 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Morphine B. Diuretics C. Rotating tourniquets D. Trendelenburg position 11 / 50 11. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis B. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula C. Aortopulmonary window D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 12 / 50 12. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Telmisartan C. Labetalol D. Methyldopa 13 / 50 13. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Deep Q wave 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Prolonged PR interval C. Arthralgia D. Elevated ASO titre 15 / 50 15. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Hoover's sign C. Branham's sign D. Tinel's sign 16 / 50 16. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. Increased LDH3 C. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 17 / 50 17. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation B. Diminished cardiac output C. Pericardial effusion D. Prolonged circulation time 18 / 50 18. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Factor-X assay C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Clotting time (CT) 19 / 50 19. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Amiodarone C. Propranolol D. ACE-inhibitors 20 / 50 20. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Amiloride C. Hydralazine D. Prazosin 21 / 50 21. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 15 ml C. 25 ml D. 5 ml 22 / 50 22. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. MS is a recognised cause B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. Found in basal region D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 23 / 50 23. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Palpable opening snap C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable S3 24 / 50 24. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. Anywhere in the precordium D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 25 / 50 25. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Pitting oedema B. Starts in the dependent part C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Initially noticed in the morning 27 / 50 27. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Single ventricle C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 28 / 50 28. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Aortic valve 29 / 50 29. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Mitral stenosis C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Myxoedema 30 / 50 30. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Hypotension B. Raised JVP C. Pulsatile liver D. Orthopnoea 31 / 50 31. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Post-AMI C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Post-electrical cardioversion 32 / 50 32. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Aortic regurgitation B. Left ventricular pacing C. LBBB D. RBBB 33 / 50 33. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Cardiomyopathy C. Severe anemia D. Ischemic heart disease 34 / 50 34. The disease with male preponderance is: A. PDA B. Coarctation of aorta C. Primary pulmonary hypertension D. SLE 35 / 50 35. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. IV fluid C. Diuretics D. Calcium gluconate 36 / 50 36. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Tapioca C. Bush tea D. Aflatoxin 37 / 50 37. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Squatting C. Valsalva maneuver D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 38 / 50 38. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Coarctation of aorta C. MS D. PDA 39 / 50 39. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased PR interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased QT interval 40 / 50 40. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Left ventricular failure D. Cirrhosis of liver 41 / 50 41. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MR D. MS 42 / 50 42. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. AR with tight PS 43 / 50 43. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Methyldopa B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Labetalol D. Diazoxide 44 / 50 44. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Protozoa B. Virus C. Autoimmune reaction D. Bacteria 45 / 50 45. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Venous hum C. Opening snap D. S2 46 / 50 46. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Shortened PR interval D. Tall T-waves 47 / 50 47. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Commonly found in children D. Best heard over mitral area 48 / 50 48. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 49 / 50 49. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Septic shock 50 / 50 50. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-systole B. Mid-diastole C. Late systole D. Late diastole LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology