Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Quinidine B. Verapamil C. Disopyramide D. Flecainide 2 / 50 2. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Renal artery stenosis B. Eclampsia C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Coarctation of aorta 3 / 50 3. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. Tricuspid atresia 4 / 50 4. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. After holding the breath C. On the left side of lower sternum D. In lying down position 5 / 50 5. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Asplenia C. Fingerization of thumb D. Absent clavicle 6 / 50 6. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable S4 D. Palpable S3 7 / 50 7. The murmur of MS is: A. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation B. With radiation towards left axilla C. Early diastolic D. High-pitched 8 / 50 8. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. VSD B. AS C. Coarctation of aorta D. PS 9 / 50 9. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Berry aneurysm C. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta D. Coronary osteal stenosis 10 / 50 10. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. MR B. VSD C. ASD D. PDA 11 / 50 11. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined MS and AS C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined AS and AR 12 / 50 12. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypokalaemia 13 / 50 13. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Austin Flint murmur B. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome C. Left atrial myxoma D. Carey Coombs murmur 14 / 50 14. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Pulmonary congestion B. Increased JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Hypotension 15 / 50 15. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Hyperdynamic circulatory states C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Aortic aneurysm 16 / 50 16. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Buerger's disease B. Unstable angina C. Aortic stenosis D. Coarctation of aorta 17 / 50 17. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 18 / 50 18. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Polycythemia D. Pregnancy 19 / 50 19. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 20 / 50 20. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Night-time single dosage 21 / 50 21. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Clubbing 22 / 50 22. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Peripheral cyanosis D. Raised JVP 23 / 50 23. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Shows narrow split C. Having wide split D. Remains single 24 / 50 24. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Leriche's syndrome C. Buerger's disease D. Peripheral embolism 25 / 50 25. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Haemothorax 26 / 50 26. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Aplastic anaemia C. Takayasu's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 27 / 50 27. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral incompetence 28 / 50 28. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late diastole C. Mid-systole D. Late systole 29 / 50 29. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypothermia B. Vagal stimulation C. Hypocalcaemia D. Quinidine therapy 30 / 50 30. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Cardiomyopathy C. Ischemic heart disease D. Severe anemia 31 / 50 31. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Rheumatic arthritis B. Felty's syndrome C. Viral arthritis D. SLE 32 / 50 32. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Water-hammer pulse C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Pulsus alternans 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 34 / 50 34. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Old age B. Hypokalaemia C. Renal failure D. Hepatic encephalopathy 35 / 50 35. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Gonorrhoea C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Acute pancreatitis 36 / 50 36. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Undulating B. There are two negative waves C. Better felt than seen D. Becomes prominent on lying down 37 / 50 37. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 38 / 50 38. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Valsalva maneuver C. Standing D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 39 / 50 39. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta B. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels C. Aneurysm of subclavian artery D. Takayasu's disease 40 / 50 40. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. AR C. PDA D. VSD 41 / 50 41. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 22 inch long 42 / 50 42. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Pulmonary valve 43 / 50 43. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. MS is a recognised cause B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. Found in basal region D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 44 / 50 44. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. First degree heart block B. Low atrial rhythm C. AV nodal rhythm D. WPW syndrome 45 / 50 45. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 40mmHg B. 30mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 80mmHg 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Elevated ASO titre B. Prolonged PR interval C. Arthralgia D. Increased ESR 47 / 50 47. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Y-shaped 48 / 50 48. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amiodarone B. Lisinopril C. Amrinone D. Amlodipine 49 / 50 49. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Best heard in standing position D. Present in late diastole 50 / 50 50. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Increased PR interval C. Shortened PR interval D. Diminished QT interval LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology