CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Tachycardia C. Mitral valve calcification D. Digitalis overdose 2 / 50 2. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Gallop rhythm C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein C. Regular pulse rate D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 4 / 50 4. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction B. Right ventricular infarction C. Cardiac tamponade D. Acute mitral regurgitation 5 / 50 5. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. SLE 6 / 50 6. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve 7 / 50 7. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Angina Pectoris 8 / 50 8. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Ostium primum ASD C. During inspiration D. Hyperkalaemia 9 / 50 9. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Acrocyanosis D. Deep vein thrombosis 10 / 50 10. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ostium primum ASD C. PDA D. VSD 11 / 50 11. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Mitral stenosis D. Myxoedema 12 / 50 12. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Peripheral embolism D. Leriche's syndrome 13 / 50 13. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised small dense LDL C. Raised Lipoprotein (a) D. Raised VLDL 14 / 50 14. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Systole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 15 / 50 15. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Complete heart block D. Nodal rhythm 16 / 50 16. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Coronary osteal stenosis C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 17 / 50 17. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Systemic hypertension C. Pregnancy D. Syphilitic aortitis 18 / 50 18. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable opening snap 19 / 50 19. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Adenosine C. Verapamil D. Metoprolol 20 / 50 20. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. PSVT C. Hypokalaemia D. Atrial flutter 21 / 50 21. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. VSD C. ASD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 22 / 50 22. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with tight PS D. AR with CCF 23 / 50 23. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. 2nd degree heart block B. Atrial fibrillation C. Extrasystoles D. Sinus arrhythmia 24 / 50 24. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Water-hammer pulse D. Pulsus alternans 25 / 50 25. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 12 inch long D. 22 inch long 26 / 50 26. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Diphtheria B. Toxoplasma infection C. Ascariasis D. HIV infection 27 / 50 27. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Dorsalis pedis C. Brachial D. Radial 28 / 50 28. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Floppy mitral valve 29 / 50 29. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Present in late diastole C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Best heard in standing position 30 / 50 30. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. VSD plus MS B. ASD plus AR C. ASD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 31 / 50 31. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Ventricular bigeminy C. Mobitz type II block D. Wenckebach block 32 / 50 32. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Hypertension C. Arrhythmias D. Diabetes mellitus 33 / 50 33. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Intermittent claudication C. Systemic hypertension D. Disturbances in vision 34 / 50 34. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Restenosis cases C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Absence of valvular calcification 35 / 50 35. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Cerebral thrombosis 36 / 50 36. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Hypokalaemia C. Left bundle branch block D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 37 / 50 37. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. High ESR C. Splenomegaly D. Pyrexia 38 / 50 38. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Pregnancy C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Sickle cell anemia 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Osler's node C. Cubbing D. Splenomegaly 40 / 50 40. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 41 / 50 41. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Microvascular angina D. Morbid obesity 42 / 50 42. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 43 / 50 43. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Hypotension C. Increased JVP D. Pulmonary congestion 44 / 50 44. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. A small fraction closes by the year 10 B. Haemodynamically significant C. Moderate VSD D. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent 45 / 50 45. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Venous hum C. Opening snap D. S2 46 / 50 46. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. VSD C. AS D. PS 47 / 50 47. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. MR C. PDA D. VSD 48 / 50 48. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Accentuated C. Ringing in character D. Normal in character 49 / 50 49. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. Bacterial endocarditis C. H/O intraocular bleeding D. Severe menstrual bleeding 50 / 50 50. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Left ventricular failure C. Wenckebach block D. Pericardial effusion LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology