Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 2 / 50 2. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. SGPT C. LDH D. SGOT 3 / 50 3. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Systemic hypertension C. Arteritis D. Takayasu's disease 4 / 50 4. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. PDA 5 / 50 5. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. Acute rheumatic fever C. AR D. Pulmonary hypertension 6 / 50 6. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Buerger's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Unstable angina D. Aortic stenosis 7 / 50 7. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 8 / 50 8. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Arrhythmias C. Hypertension D. Shock 9 / 50 9. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Small v-wave C. Prominent a-wave D. Prominent x-descent 10 / 50 10. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. Right ventricular pacing C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. ASD 11 / 50 11. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 12 / 50 12. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Peripheral embolism D. Leriche's syndrome 13 / 50 13. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Pregnancy D. Systemic hypertension 14 / 50 14. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Neurogenic 15 / 50 15. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. 'Silver-wire' arteries B. Papilloedema C. Retinal haemorrhage D. Arteriovenous nipping 16 / 50 16. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Haemothorax 17 / 50 17. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Inferior vena cava B. Popliteal artery C. Cauda equina D. Femoral artery 18 / 50 18. S4 is not associated with: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Systemic hypertension C. Aortic stenosis D. Chronic mitral regurgitation 19 / 50 19. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Methyldopa B. Telmisartan C. Amlodipine D. Labetalol 20 / 50 20. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. Tetralogy of Fallot 21 / 50 21. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. MS is a recognised cause C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg 22 / 50 22. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 10-12th rib B. 6-9th rib C. 3-6th rib D. 1-12th rib 23 / 50 23. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Morbid obesity D. Microvascular angina 24 / 50 24. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hyponatraemia 25 / 50 25. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Accentuated B. Ringing in character C. Diminished D. Normal in character 26 / 50 26. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Left-to-right shunt D. Transposition of great vessels 27 / 50 27. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Tapioca B. Aflatoxin C. Coffee D. Bush tea 28 / 50 28. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Lumbar canal stenosis B. Buerger's disease C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Leriche's syndrome 29 / 50 29. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. After holding the breath B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. In lying down position D. On the left side of lower sternum 30 / 50 30. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Tapping apex D. Water-hammer pulse 31 / 50 31. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. S2 C. Opening snap D. Venous hum 32 / 50 32. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Pulmonary atresia 33 / 50 33. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. 2nd degree heart block B. Extrasystoles C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Atrial fibrillation 34 / 50 34. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Increased LDH3 C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 35 / 50 35. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. AS with AR C. MR D. AR 36 / 50 36. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Tricuspid atresia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Severe pulmonary hypertension 37 / 50 37. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 100 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 50 Joules 38 / 50 38. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypothermia D. Vagal stimulation 39 / 50 39. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Diphtheria B. HIV infection C. Toxoplasma infection D. Ascariasis 40 / 50 40. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows narrow split 41 / 50 41. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Diuretics B. Restriction of fluid C. Calcium gluconate D. IV fluid 42 / 50 42. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Shortened PR interval C. Diminished QT interval D. Increased PR interval 43 / 50 43. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Acute leukaemia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Aplastic anaemia 44 / 50 44. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 8 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 12 inch long 45 / 50 45. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pulmonary thromboembolism B. Pericardial effusion C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Left-sided heart failure 46 / 50 46. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Peripheral cyanosis D. Ashen-grey pallor 47 / 50 47. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Tachycardia B. Mitral valve calcification C. Left atrial failure D. Digitalis overdose 48 / 50 48. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 4 cm2 49 / 50 49. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined AS and AR 50 / 50 50. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Palpable S4 C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable S3 LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology