Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Dextrocardia B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. VSD D. PDA 2 / 50 2. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Endotoxic shock C. Aortic stenosis D. Constrictive pericarditis 3 / 50 3. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. Electrical cardioversion C. IV amiodarone D. IV Lignocaine 4 / 50 4. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. On the left side of lower sternum D. After holding the breath 5 / 50 5. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Systemic hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Takayasu's disease 6 / 50 6. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with tight PS D. AR with systemic hypertension 7 / 50 7. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 8 / 50 8. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pericardial effusion 9 / 50 9. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. MS D. VSD 10 / 50 10. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. In standing position C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. With the diaphragm of stethoscope 11 / 50 11. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Allopurinol C. Doxorubicin D. Methotrexate 12 / 50 12. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Inferior vena cava B. Cauda equina C. Popliteal artery D. Femoral artery 13 / 50 13. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. ASD C. PDA D. Constrictive pericarditis 14 / 50 14. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Sickle cell anemia C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Polycythemia 15 / 50 15. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Collagen vascular disease C. Right ventricular dilatation D. Rheumatic heart disease 16 / 50 16. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Diastolic shock B. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Elevated ASO titre C. Increased ESR D. Prolonged PR interval 18 / 50 18. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 19 / 50 19. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. More common in females C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. High-pitched late systolic murmur 20 / 50 20. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Aortic regurgitation B. LBBB C. Left ventricular pacing D. RBBB 21 / 50 21. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Right atrial myxoma C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tricuspid incompetence 22 / 50 22. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Renal failure D. Old age 23 / 50 23. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Angina Pectoris 24 / 50 24. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. MS C. MR D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 25 / 50 25. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Right ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Left ventricular failure 26 / 50 26. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Lumbar canal stenosis B. Leriche's syndrome C. Buerger's disease D. Peripheral neuropathy 27 / 50 27. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Twice daily dosage schedule 28 / 50 28. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. VSD 29 / 50 29. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. HIV infection B. Toxoplasma infection C. Diphtheria D. Ascariasis 30 / 50 30. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Cardiomegaly D. Tapping apex 31 / 50 31. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Pyrexia B. High ESR C. Clubbing D. Splenomegaly 32 / 50 32. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction B. Acute mitral regurgitation C. Cardiac tamponade D. Right ventricular infarction 33 / 50 33. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Hypotension C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus bradycardia 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Haptoglobulin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Alpha-fetoprotein 35 / 50 35. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Cardiogenic B. Hypovolaemic C. Neurogenic D. Septic 36 / 50 36. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve 37 / 50 37. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Absence of thrill C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. Found in severe AR 38 / 50 38. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Hypertension B. Embolic phenomenon C. Pyrexia D. Clubbing 39 / 50 39. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Presystolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Early diastolic 40 / 50 40. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. Transposition of great vessels 41 / 50 41. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Clotting time (CT) 42 / 50 42. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. PDA C. Right-sided aortic arch D. Persistent right-sided SVC 43 / 50 43. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Floppy mitral valve 44 / 50 44. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Renal artery stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Phaeochromocytoma 45 / 50 45. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus AR B. ASD plus MS C. ASD plus MR D. VSD plus MS 46 / 50 46. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Cafe au lait pallor C. Clubbing D. Macroscopic hematuria 47 / 50 47. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Associated with thrill C. Best heard over mitral area D. Usually diastolic in timing 48 / 50 48. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised small dense LDL B. Raised VLDL C. Raised Lipoprotein (a) D. Reduced HDL 49 / 50 49. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Bacterial endocarditis C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Pregnancy 50 / 50 50. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Felty's syndrome B. SLE C. Viral arthritis D. Rheumatic arthritis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology