Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence 2 / 50 2. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Right-to-left shunt D. Acute bacterial endocarditis 3 / 50 3. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 4 / 50 4. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Thoracic deformity C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 5 / 50 5. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Myocarditis C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Aortic stenosis 6 / 50 6. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 5 ml B. 15 ml C. 50 ml D. 25 ml 7 / 50 7. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Emphysema C. Cardiomyopathy D. Acute myocardial infarction 8 / 50 8. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Quinidine therapy B. Hypocalcaemia C. Vagal stimulation D. Hypothermia 9 / 50 9. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Presystolic C. Early diastolic D. Systolic 10 / 50 10. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 10-12th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 3-6th rib D. 6-9th rib 11 / 50 11. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Atrial fibrillation D. 2nd degree heart block 12 / 50 12. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 13 / 50 13. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Digitalis toxicity C. Hypothermia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 14 / 50 14. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Lisinopril B. Amiodarone C. Amlodipine D. Amrinone 15 / 50 15. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Presence of S3 16 / 50 16. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Water-hammer pulse 17 / 50 17. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Haemothorax 18 / 50 18. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Collagen vascular disease D. Rheumatic heart disease 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Arteriosclerosis D. Coarctation of aorta 20 / 50 20. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Unfolding of aorta D. Coarctation of aorta 21 / 50 21. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 22 / 50 22. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Mitral stenosis C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Aortic stenosis 23 / 50 23. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Bucindolol C. Digoxin D. Spironolactone 24 / 50 24. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ebstein's anomaly D. VSD 25 / 50 25. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Complete heart block C. Nodal rhythm D. Ventricular tachycardia 26 / 50 26. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Aplastic anaemia D. Acute leukaemia 27 / 50 27. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard in standing position 28 / 50 28. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Transposition of great vessels C. Coarctation of aorta D. ASD 29 / 50 29. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Renal failure D. Old age 30 / 50 30. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Digitalis overdose B. Tachycardia C. Mitral valve calcification D. Left atrial failure 31 / 50 31. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with tight PS B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. Acutely developing AR 32 / 50 32. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Splenomegaly B. Pyrexia C. Clubbing D. High ESR 33 / 50 33. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Clubbing C. Hypertension D. Embolic phenomenon 34 / 50 34. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Complete heart block 35 / 50 35. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Supravalvular AS D. Infundibular PS 36 / 50 36. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 C. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 D. ST elevation in II, III, aVF 37 / 50 37. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. MS is a recognised cause D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 38 / 50 38. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Addison's disease D. Isolated levocardia 39 / 50 39. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. PDA 40 / 50 40. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Kussmaul's sign C. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 41 / 50 41. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Hoover's sign C. Branham's sign D. Tinel's sign 42 / 50 42. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 4 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 43 / 50 43. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Flecainide C. Quinidine D. Verapamil 44 / 50 44. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Autoimmune reaction D. Virus 45 / 50 45. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Pulmonary atresia 46 / 50 46. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. Aspirin C. ACE inhibitors D. Beta-blockers 47 / 50 47. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 48 / 50 48. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. In lying down position C. After holding the breath D. On the left side of lower sternum 49 / 50 49. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Femoral artery B. Cauda equina C. Popliteal artery D. Inferior vena cava 50 / 50 50. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. ASD C. VSD D. 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