Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Thoracic deformity C. Cardiomyopathy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 2 / 50 2. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. IV fluid C. Diuretics D. Calcium gluconate 3 / 50 3. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Aortic insufficiency D. Aortic stenosis 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Osler's node C. Splenomegaly D. Cubbing 5 / 50 5. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Right atrial myxoma D. Complete heart block 6 / 50 6. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Having loud S1 D. Found in severe AR 7 / 50 7. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Should be ignored C. Related to diastolic BP D. As a result of venous distension 8 / 50 8. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Right-sided aortic arch C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. Aortic regurgitation 9 / 50 9. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 10-12th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 6-9th rib D. 1-12th rib 10 / 50 10. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. There are two negative waves C. Becomes prominent on lying down D. Undulating 11 / 50 11. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Acute rheumatic fever D. MS 12 / 50 12. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Shock D. Arrhythmias 13 / 50 13. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Arteritis C. Takayasu's disease D. Systemic hypertension 14 / 50 14. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 15 / 50 15. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 16 / 50 16. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Constrictive pericarditis 17 / 50 17. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 18 / 50 18. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Osler B. Korotkoff C. Laennec D. Babinski 19 / 50 19. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Systolic C. Presystolic D. Mid-diastolic 20 / 50 20. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Right atrial myxoma 21 / 50 21. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent B. Moderate VSD C. Haemodynamically significant D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 22 / 50 22. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Morbid obesity C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Microvascular angina 23 / 50 23. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Doxorubicin C. Chloramphenicol D. Allopurinol 24 / 50 24. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. Coarctation of aorta C. SLE D. PDA 25 / 50 25. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen B. Occurs below 18 years C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Pin-point mitral valve 26 / 50 26. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Myocarditis C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Post-AMI 27 / 50 27. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Late and loud opening snap B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Graham Steel murmur D. Presence of S3 28 / 50 28. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Trauma C. Cervical rib D. Tophaceous gout 29 / 50 29. Opening snap is: A. Present in late diastole B. Low-pitched C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Best heard in standing position 30 / 50 30. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. Associated LVH C. PDA D. AS 31 / 50 31. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 32 / 50 32. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Orthopnoea C. Pulsatile liver D. Hypotension 33 / 50 33. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 34 / 50 34. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Wenckebach block B. Digitalis toxicity C. Left ventricular failure D. Pericardial effusion 35 / 50 35. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Cat-like cry B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. VSD 36 / 50 36. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Standing C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Leg raising 37 / 50 37. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Renal failure C. Hypokalaemia D. Old age 38 / 50 38. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Standing D. Valsalva maneuver 39 / 50 39. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined MS and MR 40 / 50 40. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Multiple ectopics B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Wenckebach block D. Atrial flutter 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 42 / 50 42. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. PDA C. MS D. VSD 43 / 50 43. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Wenckebach block 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein C. Regular pulse rate D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 45 / 50 45. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. SGOT C. CPK D. LDH 46 / 50 46. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Amiodarone D. Metoprolol 47 / 50 47. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Systemic hypertension C. Disturbances in vision D. Intermittent claudication 48 / 50 48. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias B. Angina Pectoris C. Systemic hypertension D. Congestive cardiac failure 49 / 50 49. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. MR B. VSD C. PDA D. ASD 50 / 50 50. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Rheumatic valve D. Mural thrombus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology