CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Rheumatic arthritis B. SLE C. Felty's syndrome D. Viral arthritis 2 / 50 2. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypothermia C. WPW syndrome D. Sick sinus syndrome 3 / 50 3. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Hypertension B. Clubbing C. Pyrexia D. Embolic phenomenon 4 / 50 4. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Atrial flutter D. PSVT 5 / 50 5. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur D. The ejection click goes away from S1 6 / 50 6. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Aortopulmonary window C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 7 / 50 7. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Isolated levocardia D. Addison's disease 8 / 50 8. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Carey Coombs murmur B. Left atrial myxoma C. Austin Flint murmur D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 9 / 50 9. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Hoover's sign B. Bing sign C. Tinel's sign D. Branham's sign 10 / 50 10. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Myocarditis D. Aortic stenosis 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Ceruloplasmin D. Haptoglobulin 12 / 50 12. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Left-sided heart failure C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 13 / 50 13. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Left ventricular failure C. Wenckebach block D. Pericardial effusion 14 / 50 14. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Fallot's tetralogy 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Osler's node B. Splenomegaly C. Cubbing D. Murmur 16 / 50 16. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Atrial flutter B. Wenckebach block C. Multiple ectopics D. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia 17 / 50 17. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 15 ml C. 5 ml D. 50 ml 18 / 50 18. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Cardiomyopathy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ischemic heart disease 19 / 50 19. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Buerger's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Peripheral embolism 20 / 50 20. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. PDA C. VSD D. MS 21 / 50 21. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Homocysteine C. Lipoprotein D. Transferrin 22 / 50 22. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Pregnancy C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. H/O intraocular bleeding 23 / 50 23. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Systemic hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Arteritis 24 / 50 24. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Atrial fibrillation D. Complete heart block 25 / 50 25. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Babinski B. Osler C. Korotkoff D. Laennec 26 / 50 26. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Athletes 27 / 50 27. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. More common in females 28 / 50 28. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation B. Pulmonary stenosis C. PDA D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 29 / 50 29. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. AR C. MR D. MS 30 / 50 30. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. MS is a recognised cause D. Found in basal region 31 / 50 31. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. Transposition of great vessels C. PDA D. ASD 32 / 50 32. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Left ventricular failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Superior mediastinal syndrome D. Congestive cardiac failure 33 / 50 33. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. MR C. AR D. AS with AR 34 / 50 34. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Transposition of great vessels 35 / 50 35. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Pericardial knock C. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma D. Opening snap 36 / 50 36. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Ringing in character C. Accentuated D. Diminished 37 / 50 37. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Probucol C. Gemfibrozil D. Lovastatin 38 / 50 38. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Prominent x-descent in JVP B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulsus paradoxus 39 / 50 39. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Septic shock C. Hypovolaemic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 40 / 50 40. S4 is not associated with: A. Aortic stenosis B. Systemic hypertension C. Chronic mitral regurgitation D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Morphine B. Trendelenburg position C. Diuretics D. Rotating tourniquets 42 / 50 42. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Gradual onset C. Warning symptoms D. Residual neurodeficit 43 / 50 43. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Asplenia B. Fingerization of thumb C. Absent clavicle D. VSD 44 / 50 44. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex B. In standing position C. Anywhere in the precordium D. With the diaphragm of stethoscope 45 / 50 45. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Hypotension B. Orthopnoea C. Pulsatile liver D. Raised JVP 46 / 50 46. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. SGOT C. CPK D. LDH 47 / 50 47. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Y-shaped 48 / 50 48. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Radial C. Brachial D. Femoral 49 / 50 49. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Haemothorax D. Cardiac tamponade 50 / 50 50. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Ostium primum ASD C. Hyperkalaemia D. During inspiration LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
