Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 1 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 2 / 50 2. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur B. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap C. Diastolic shock D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) 3 / 50 3. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Moderate VSD 4 / 50 4. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Unfolding of aorta D. Coarctation of aorta 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Homocystinuria D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 6 / 50 6. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Amiloride C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 7 / 50 7. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Cervical rib B. Trauma C. Tophaceous gout D. Sarcoidosis 8 / 50 8. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Splenomegaly B. High ESR C. Pyrexia D. Clubbing 9 / 50 9. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Beta-blockers B. Aspirin C. Diuretics D. ACE inhibitors 10 / 50 10. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptoroccus viridans B. Pneumococcus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Staphylococcus aureus 11 / 50 11. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 12 / 50 12. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Atrial flutter B. Multiple ectopics C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Wenckebach block 13 / 50 13. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Water-hammer pulse C. Tapping apex D. Cardiomegaly 14 / 50 14. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Found in severe AR B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Having loud S1 D. Absence of thrill 15 / 50 15. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. MS C. AS D. MR 16 / 50 16. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral regurgitation 17 / 50 17. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Berry aneurysm C. Polycystic kidney D. Bicuspid aortic valve 18 / 50 18. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Aortic stenosis D. Myocarditis 19 / 50 19. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Unstable angina B. Acute mediastinitis C. Dissecting aneurysm D. Bornholm disease 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Haptoglobulin B. Ceruloplasmin C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Orosomucoid 21 / 50 21. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. WPW syndrome C. First degree heart block D. AV nodal rhythm 22 / 50 22. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class IV C. Class II D. Class III 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Diuretics C. Morphine D. Trendelenburg position 24 / 50 24. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AR B. AS with AR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. MR 25 / 50 25. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Present in late diastole C. Best heard in standing position D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 26 / 50 26. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Reduced HDL C. Raised VLDL D. Raised small dense LDL 27 / 50 27. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Aortitis C. Unfolding of aorta D. Pulmonary hypertension 28 / 50 28. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Occurs below 18 years C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 29 / 50 29. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Rheumatic arthritis C. Viral arthritis D. Felty's syndrome 30 / 50 30. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. MS D. Fallot's tetralogy 31 / 50 31. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex B. In standing position C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Anywhere in the precordium 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Endothelin B. Bradykinin C. Nitric oxide D. Histamine 33 / 50 33. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Lutembacher syndrome C. Infundibular PS D. Supravalvular AS 34 / 50 34. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Pulmonary atresia D. Severe coarctation of aorta 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Myxoedema B. Hypothermia C. Obstructive jaundice D. Complete heart block 36 / 50 36. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. In lying down position C. On the left side of lower sternum D. After holding the breath 37 / 50 37. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Acrocyanosis D. Livedo reticularis 38 / 50 38. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Gradual onset C. Residual neurodeficit D. Warning symptoms 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Chorea D. Polyarthritis 40 / 50 40. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Arteriovenous nipping D. Retinal haemorrhage 41 / 50 41. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 42 / 50 42. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypothermia D. WPW syndrome 43 / 50 43. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Takayasu's disease D. Arteritis 44 / 50 44. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Isolated levocardia C. Emphysema D. Sheehan's syndrome 45 / 50 45. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. PDA 46 / 50 46. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Becomes prominent on lying down B. Better felt than seen C. There are two negative waves D. Undulating 47 / 50 47. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Palpable S3 C. Palpable S4 D. Muscle tremor 48 / 50 48. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Septic C. Cardiogenic D. Neurogenic 49 / 50 49. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. MS C. AS D. AR 50 / 50 50. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Buerger's disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Leriche's syndrome D. Lumbar canal stenosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
