Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 2 / 50 2. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of left atrial thrombus B. Pure mitral stenosis C. Restenosis cases D. Absence of valvular calcification 3 / 50 3. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve 4 / 50 4. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Water-hammer pulse C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Cardiomegaly 5 / 50 5. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Myxoedema C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Mitral stenosis 6 / 50 6. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Floppy mitral valve D. Acute rheumatic fever 7 / 50 7. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-electrical cardioversion B. Myocarditis C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Post-AMI 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Splenomegaly B. Cubbing C. Murmur D. Osler's node 9 / 50 9. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Tall T-waves C. Shortened PR interval D. Increased PR interval 10 / 50 10. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Atrial fibrillation D. Massive myocardial infarction 11 / 50 11. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. 'f ' waves in neck vein B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 12 / 50 12. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Pregnancy C. Sickle cell anemia D. Polycythemia 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein B. Regular pulse rate C. Low volume pulse D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 14 / 50 14. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Lipoprotein C. Homocysteine D. Transferrin 15 / 50 15. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Ostium primum ASD 16 / 50 16. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Amiodarone B. Phenylephrin C. Morphine D. Propranolol 17 / 50 17. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Becomes prominent on lying down B. Better felt than seen C. Undulating D. There are two negative waves 18 / 50 18. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 19 / 50 19. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. PDA C. Dextrocardia D. VSD 20 / 50 20. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Diminished C. Accentuated D. Ringing in character 21 / 50 21. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. PDA 22 / 50 22. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 40mmHg B. 30mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 80mmHg 23 / 50 23. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Wenckebach block B. Pericardial effusion C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular failure 24 / 50 24. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Nitric oxide C. Endothelin D. Histamine 25 / 50 25. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Conn's syndrome B. Addison's disease C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Phaeochromocytoma 26 / 50 26. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 100 Joules B. 400 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 50 Joules 27 / 50 27. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Night-time single dosage D. Twice daily dosage schedule 28 / 50 28. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. VSD C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 29 / 50 29. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Moderate VSD B. A small fraction closes by the year 10 C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. Haemodynamically significant 30 / 50 30. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Y-shaped 31 / 50 31. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Hypotension C. Increased JVP D. Pulmonary congestion 32 / 50 32. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Lumbar canal stenosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Buerger's disease D. Leriche's syndrome 33 / 50 33. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. HIV infection C. Diphtheria D. Toxoplasma infection 34 / 50 34. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Hypokalaemia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 35 / 50 35. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Stenosis is severe C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 36 / 50 36. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Acute left ventricular failure D. Angina Pectoris 37 / 50 37. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. PDA B. MS C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Coarctation of aorta 38 / 50 38. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Severe menstrual bleeding B. Bacterial endocarditis C. Pregnancy D. H/O intraocular bleeding 39 / 50 39. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Late diastole 40 / 50 40. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Systole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 41 / 50 41. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. AS C. MS D. MR 42 / 50 42. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 43 / 50 43. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. MS C. VSD D. Chronic cor-pulmonale 44 / 50 44. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Athletes C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 45 / 50 45. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. Tricuspid atresia 46 / 50 46. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Shows reverse split C. Remains single D. Having wide split 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Homocystinuria D. Hyperthyroidism 48 / 50 48. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers D. Collagen vascular disease 49 / 50 49. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Atrial fibrillation C. Complete heart block D. Ventricular tachycardia 50 / 50 50. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. PDA C. ASD D. 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