Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Acute pancreatitis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Gonorrhoea 2 / 50 2. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Diphtheria B. Ascariasis C. HIV infection D. Toxoplasma infection 3 / 50 3. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Transposition of great vessels D. Ebstein's anomaly 4 / 50 4. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Diastolic shock C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 5 / 50 5. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid atresia C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 6 / 50 6. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. ASD C. AS D. PDA 7 / 50 7. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Hypothermia B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Digitalis toxicity D. Chronic cor pulmonale 8 / 50 8. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg B. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage C. Found in basal region D. MS is a recognised cause 9 / 50 9. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. MS C. VSD D. PDA 10 / 50 10. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic insufficiency D. Mitral regurgitation 11 / 50 11. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. With the diaphragm of stethoscope B. Anywhere in the precordium C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. In standing position 12 / 50 12. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Hypothermia 13 / 50 13. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Radial C. Brachial D. Femoral 14 / 50 14. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Coronary osteal stenosis C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 15 / 50 15. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Pulmonary oedema D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 16 / 50 16. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Deep Q wave C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Height of R wave maximum in V6 17 / 50 17. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Acrocyanosis C. Livedo reticularis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 18 / 50 18. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Single ventricle D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 19 / 50 19. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Pulmonary congestion B. Increased JVP C. Hypotension D. Kussmaul's sign 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Osler's node B. Cubbing C. Murmur D. Splenomegaly 21 / 50 21. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Tapioca C. Bush tea D. Coffee 22 / 50 22. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. SGOT C. CPK D. LDH 23 / 50 23. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Central cyanosis C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 24 / 50 24. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. Arteriovenous nipping C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Retinal haemorrhage 25 / 50 25. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 26 / 50 26. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Prazosin C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 27 / 50 27. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. MR B. VSD C. PDA D. ASD 28 / 50 28. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Chlamydia B. Cytomegalovirus C. HIV D. H. pylori 29 / 50 29. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. ASD C. PDA D. Constrictive pericarditis 30 / 50 30. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Severe menstrual bleeding B. Pregnancy C. Bacterial endocarditis D. H/O intraocular bleeding 31 / 50 31. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. Asplenia C. Absent clavicle D. VSD 32 / 50 32. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Diminished cardiac output B. Prolonged circulation time C. Pericardial effusion D. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation 33 / 50 33. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Pericardial knock C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 34 / 50 34. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows narrow split 35 / 50 35. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. Pulmonary valve 36 / 50 36. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 50 ml C. 15 ml D. 5 ml 37 / 50 37. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Verapamil C. Adenosine D. Amiodarone 38 / 50 38. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Haemothorax B. Cardiac tamponade C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 39 / 50 39. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined MS and AS 40 / 50 40. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Coarctation of aorta C. Buerger's disease D. Unstable angina 41 / 50 41. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Late diastole D. Late systole 42 / 50 42. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Babinski B. Laennec C. Korotkoff D. Osler 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Alveolitis C. Hepatitis D. Photosensitivity 44 / 50 44. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Microvascular angina C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Hyperuricemia 45 / 50 45. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 30mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 40mmHg 46 / 50 46. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Commonly found in children C. Best heard over mitral area D. Usually diastolic in timing 47 / 50 47. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 48 / 50 48. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV amiodarone C. Electrical cardioversion D. IV Lignocaine 49 / 50 49. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. AS with AR C. MR D. AR 50 / 50 50. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Rheumatic valve B. Chronic constrictive pericarditis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Mural thrombus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology