Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. With radiation towards left axilla C. Early diastolic D. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation 2 / 50 2. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. MR B. ASD C. VSD D. PDA 3 / 50 3. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Cardiomyopathy 4 / 50 4. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Rheumatic valve C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 5 / 50 5. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. PDA C. AR D. VSD 6 / 50 6. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Increased JVP C. Hypotension D. Pulmonary congestion 7 / 50 7. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Right ventricular failure B. Left ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Left-to-right shunt 8 / 50 8. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmune reaction C. Virus D. Protozoa 9 / 50 9. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Shortened PR interval 10 / 50 10. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. MS 11 / 50 11. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Eclampsia C. Renal artery stenosis D. Coarctation of aorta 12 / 50 12. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. VSD C. Transposition of great vessels D. ASD 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Erythema nodosum C. Polyarthritis D. Chorea 14 / 50 14. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Pericardial knock 15 / 50 15. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Tapioca C. Bush tea D. Coffee 16 / 50 16. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 17 / 50 17. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 18 / 50 18. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Verapamil B. Quinidine C. Disopyramide D. Flecainide 19 / 50 19. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. AR with tight PS C. Acutely developing AR D. AR with systemic hypertension 20 / 50 20. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Korotkoff B. Osler C. Babinski D. Laennec 21 / 50 21. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Massive myocardial infarction C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 22 / 50 22. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Left ventricular failure C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 23 / 50 23. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Left-sided heart failure D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 24 / 50 24. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Prominent a-wave D. Prominent y-descent 25 / 50 25. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Telmisartan B. Labetalol C. Amlodipine D. Methyldopa 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Photosensitivity C. Hepatitis D. Tachyarrhythmias 27 / 50 27. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Candida albicans endocarditis C. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 28 / 50 28. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class IV C. Class II D. Class I 29 / 50 29. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Mitral stenosis D. Carcinoid syndrome 30 / 50 30. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Hydralazine B. Methyldopa C. Enalapril D. Labetalol 31 / 50 31. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. 'f ' waves in neck vein B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. Pulse deficit is > 10 32 / 50 32. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Transposition of great vessels C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Coarctation of aorta 33 / 50 33. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Cauda equina C. Inferior vena cava D. Femoral artery 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Pitting oedema C. Starts in the dependent part D. Initially noticed in the morning 35 / 50 35. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography 36 / 50 36. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Splenomegaly C. Clubbing D. Pyrexia 37 / 50 37. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ventricular septal defect C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Patent ductus arteriosus 38 / 50 38. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. Left ventricular failure C. ASD D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 39 / 50 39. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Felty's syndrome C. Viral arthritis D. Rheumatic arthritis 40 / 50 40. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. H/O intraocular bleeding D. Pregnancy 41 / 50 41. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypothermia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Vagal stimulation D. Quinidine therapy 42 / 50 42. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Adenosine B. Metoprolol C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone 43 / 50 43. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-AMI B. Post-electrical cardioversion C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Myocarditis 44 / 50 44. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Valsalva maneuver D. Standing 45 / 50 45. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Systole D. Diastole 46 / 50 46. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 47 / 50 47. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Allopurinol C. Doxorubicin D. Methotrexate 48 / 50 48. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Takayasu's disease C. Acute leukaemia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Hyperthyroidism D. Nephrotic syndrome 50 / 50 50. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. Multiple ectopics C. Atrial flutter D. 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