Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Laennec B. Osler C. Babinski D. Korotkoff 2 / 50 2. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. SGOT C. CPK D. LDH 3 / 50 3. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Ostium primum ASD C. During inspiration D. WPW syndrome 4 / 50 4. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. Restriction of fluid C. IV fluid D. Diuretics 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Haptoglobulin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Orosomucoid 6 / 50 6. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. ASD C. PDA D. VSD 7 / 50 7. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Embolism C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Rupture 8 / 50 8. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Shock 9 / 50 9. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular pacing 10 / 50 10. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ventricular septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Splenomegaly B. Murmur C. Cubbing D. Osler's node 12 / 50 12. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. Tetralogy of Fallot 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Elevated ASO titre B. Increased ESR C. Arthralgia D. Prolonged PR interval 14 / 50 14. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Splenomegaly C. Clubbing D. Macroscopic hematuria 15 / 50 15. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic innocent murmur B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation D. Systolic murmur in complete heart block 16 / 50 16. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Gemfibrozil C. Lovastatin D. Probucol 17 / 50 17. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. VSD C. MS D. Chronic cor-pulmonale 18 / 50 18. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial flutter B. Atrial fibrillation C. Hypokalaemia D. PSVT 19 / 50 19. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MS B. AS C. AR D. MR 20 / 50 20. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. SLE C. Rheumatic arthritis D. Felty's syndrome 21 / 50 21. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Atrial fibrillation 22 / 50 22. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Supravalvular AS D. Infundibular PS 23 / 50 23. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 24 / 50 24. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Right-sided aortic arch C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. Aortic regurgitation 25 / 50 25. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Myocarditis C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Aortic stenosis 26 / 50 26. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Aortic valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 27 / 50 27. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Severe menstrual bleeding B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Pregnancy D. Bacterial endocarditis 28 / 50 28. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 18 inch long 29 / 50 29. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 4 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 30 / 50 30. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 1-12th rib B. 6-9th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 3-6th rib 31 / 50 31. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Left-to-right shunt 32 / 50 32. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Superior mediastinal syndrome B. Left ventricular failure C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Cirrhosis of liver 33 / 50 33. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Chronic cor pulmonale C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypothermia 34 / 50 34. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 35 / 50 35. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Cat-like cry B. Mongoloid slant of eyes C. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 D. VSD 36 / 50 36. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Gallop rhythm B. Dependent oedema C. Fine crepitations at lung bases D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 37 / 50 37. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Atenolol C. Carvedilol D. Labetalol 38 / 50 38. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 39 / 50 39. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine D. Amiloride 40 / 50 40. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Raised JVP D. Peripheral cyanosis 41 / 50 41. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Coarctation of aorta C. Unstable angina D. Buerger's disease 42 / 50 42. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. PDA D. VSD 43 / 50 43. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased QT interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased PR interval 44 / 50 44. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Related to diastolic BP B. Present in all hypertensives C. As a result of venous distension D. Should be ignored 45 / 50 45. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus bigeminus B. Pulsus alternans C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Water-hammer pulse 46 / 50 46. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 47 / 50 47. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Hydralazine B. Methyldopa C. Labetalol D. Enalapril 48 / 50 48. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. In standing position D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 49 / 50 49. Opening snap is: A. Present in late diastole B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Low-pitched D. Best heard in standing position 50 / 50 50. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Polycystic kidney disease C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Conn's syndrome LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology