Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Ashen-grey pallor 2 / 50 2. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Presystolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Early diastolic 3 / 50 3. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Laennec B. Osler C. Babinski D. Korotkoff 4 / 50 4. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Mitral incompetence 5 / 50 5. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 30mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 40mmHg 6 / 50 6. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Sodium 7 / 50 7. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Complete heart block D. Right atrial myxoma 8 / 50 8. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Wenckebach heart block C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Sinus arrhythmia 9 / 50 9. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. VSD 10 / 50 10. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve 11 / 50 11. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. More common in females C. Early systolic click D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic 12 / 50 12. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Septic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Cardiogenic shock 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Myxoedema C. Complete heart block D. Hypothermia 14 / 50 14. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. With radiation towards left axilla D. Early diastolic 15 / 50 15. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Arrhythmias 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Starts in the dependent part C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Pitting oedema 17 / 50 17. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 18 / 50 18. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral stenosis 19 / 50 19. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Standing 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Osteoarthritis 21 / 50 21. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Eccentric dosage schedule B. Twice daily dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Night-time single dosage 22 / 50 22. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hypokalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 23 / 50 23. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Hypotension C. Increased JVP D. Pulmonary congestion 24 / 50 24. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Fingerization of thumb C. Absent clavicle D. Asplenia 25 / 50 25. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Left ventricular failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 26 / 50 26. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. ASD B. VSD C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 27 / 50 27. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Conn's syndrome B. Addison's disease C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Polycystic kidney disease 28 / 50 28. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Fine crepitations at lung bases B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Dependent oedema D. Gallop rhythm 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Haptoglobulin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Alpha-fetoprotein 30 / 50 30. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Lisinopril C. Amlodipine D. Amiodarone 31 / 50 31. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Bush tea B. Tapioca C. Aflatoxin D. Coffee 32 / 50 32. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class III C. Class I D. Class IV 33 / 50 33. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. Transferrin C. Lipoprotein D. PAI-I 34 / 50 34. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 35 / 50 35. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 36 / 50 36. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Nitric oxide C. Bradykinin D. Endothelin 38 / 50 38. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cardiomyopathy C. Myocarditis D. Emphysema 39 / 50 39. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Haemothorax D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 40 / 50 40. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Complete heart block B. Nodal rhythm C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular tachycardia 41 / 50 41. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Infundibular PS C. Supravalvular AS D. Ebstein's anomaly 42 / 50 42. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage C. MS is a recognised cause D. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg 43 / 50 43. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Multiple ectopics C. Atrial flutter D. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia 44 / 50 44. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. Coarctation of aorta C. SLE D. PDA 45 / 50 45. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. IV fluid B. Restriction of fluid C. Calcium gluconate D. Diuretics 46 / 50 46. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea 47 / 50 47. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Pregnancy D. Severe menstrual bleeding 48 / 50 48. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 3 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 49 / 50 49. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Hyperuricemia C. Microvascular angina D. Obstructive sleep apnoea 50 / 50 50. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. LDH B. SGOT C. SGPT D. CPK LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology