Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Pregnancy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 2 / 50 2. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral stenosis 3 / 50 3. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 4 / 50 4. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. ASD B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. VSD 5 / 50 5. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Berry aneurysm D. Coronary osteal stenosis 6 / 50 6. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Right atrial myxoma 7 / 50 7. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Hydralazine C. Amiloride D. Methyldopa 8 / 50 8. Opening snap is: A. Present in late diastole B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Best heard in standing position D. Low-pitched 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Hypothermia C. Myxoedema D. Obstructive jaundice 10 / 50 10. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Should be ignored C. As a result of venous distension D. Related to diastolic BP 11 / 50 11. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. MR 12 / 50 12. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers D. Rheumatic heart disease 13 / 50 13. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 14 / 50 14. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Single ventricle C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 15 / 50 15. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Laennec B. Korotkoff C. Babinski D. Osler 16 / 50 16. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 17 / 50 17. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Wenckebach block C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Ventricular bigeminy 18 / 50 18. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Y-shaped D. V-shaped 19 / 50 19. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Presystolic B. Systolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Early diastolic 20 / 50 20. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV Lignocaine B. Electrical cardioversion C. Carotid massage D. IV amiodarone 21 / 50 21. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. On the left side of lower sternum D. After holding the breath 22 / 50 22. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Arrhythmias C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypertension 23 / 50 23. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. VSD C. Asplenia D. Absent clavicle 24 / 50 24. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 25 / 50 25. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Venous hum 26 / 50 26. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. SGOT C. CPK D. LDH 27 / 50 27. Sudden death may occur in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. AS C. ASD D. PDA 28 / 50 28. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Aortic regurgitation B. Left ventricular pacing C. LBBB D. RBBB 29 / 50 29. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tricuspid incompetence 30 / 50 30. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound C. Stenosis is severe D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 31 / 50 31. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. In standing position D. Anywhere in the precordium 32 / 50 32. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Wenckebach heart block D. Sinus arrhythmia 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Nitric oxide C. Endothelin D. Bradykinin 34 / 50 34. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. MR C. AR D. AS with AR 35 / 50 35. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 36 / 50 36. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Pulmonary congestion C. Kussmaul's sign D. Increased JVP 37 / 50 37. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Raised JVP D. Peripheral cyanosis 38 / 50 38. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Arthralgia C. Increased ESR D. Elevated ASO titre 40 / 50 40. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Diuretics C. Morphine D. Trendelenburg position 42 / 50 42. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 43 / 50 43. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L C. Increased LDH3 D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 44 / 50 44. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. MS is a recognised cause C. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg D. Found in basal region 45 / 50 45. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Bacterial endocarditis 46 / 50 46. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Hypokalaemia D. Left bundle branch block 47 / 50 47. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 60mmHg C. 40mmHg D. 30mmHg 48 / 50 48. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. PDA C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. Right-sided aortic arch 49 / 50 49. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Raised JVP C. Orthopnoea D. Hypotension 50 / 50 50. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute pancreatitis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology