Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 2 / 50 2. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. LDH B. CPK C. SGOT D. SGPT 3 / 50 3. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. HIV infection B. Toxoplasma infection C. Ascariasis D. Diphtheria 4 / 50 4. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Tachycardia B. Mitral valve calcification C. Left atrial failure D. Digitalis overdose 5 / 50 5. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Systemic hypertension D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 6 / 50 6. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 7 / 50 7. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Intermittent claudication D. Systemic hypertension 8 / 50 8. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and MR B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined AR and MR 9 / 50 9. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Papilloedema D. Retinal haemorrhage 10 / 50 10. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve 11 / 50 11. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Old age C. Afibrinogenaemia D. Vasculitis 12 / 50 12. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. Electrical cardioversion C. IV Lignocaine D. IV amiodarone 13 / 50 13. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Autoimmune reaction B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Protozoa 14 / 50 14. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. Right-sided aortic arch C. Aortic regurgitation D. PDA 15 / 50 15. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Cardiogenic C. Neurogenic D. Hypovolaemic 16 / 50 16. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class IV C. Class II D. Class III 17 / 50 17. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 18 / 50 18. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Deep Q wave C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Prominent ST elevation 19 / 50 19. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 20 / 50 20. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Left ventricular failure 21 / 50 21. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Conn's syndrome D. Polycystic kidney disease 22 / 50 22. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Dilated cardiomyopathy D. Acute severe asthma 23 / 50 23. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Felty's syndrome B. Viral arthritis C. SLE D. Rheumatic arthritis 24 / 50 24. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) D. Diastolic shock 25 / 50 25. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Floppy mitral valve C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Acute rheumatic fever 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Hypothermia C. Complete heart block D. Myxoedema 27 / 50 27. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 29 / 50 29. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Mitral stenosis B. Myxoedema C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 30 / 50 30. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 31 / 50 31. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. Diuretics D. IV fluid 32 / 50 32. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 B. Mongoloid slant of eyes C. VSD D. Cat-like cry 33 / 50 33. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis D. Marantic endocarditis 34 / 50 34. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Warning symptoms C. Residual neurodeficit D. Rapid recovery 35 / 50 35. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. PDA C. VSD D. ASD 36 / 50 36. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Pin-point mitral valve C. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen D. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon 37 / 50 37. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. ASD C. VSD D. Coarctation of aorta 38 / 50 38. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Fallot's tetralogy 39 / 50 39. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Clubbing D. Splenomegaly 40 / 50 40. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Late systole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 41 / 50 41. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. ACE-inhibitors C. Surgical myotomy of the septum D. Propranolol 42 / 50 42. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased QT interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased PR interval 43 / 50 43. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Gonorrhoea C. Chronic renal failure D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 44 / 50 44. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Complete heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular tachycardia 45 / 50 45. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Low pulse pressure B. Hypotension C. Sinus tachycardia D. Sinus bradycardia 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Polyarthritis C. Chorea D. Subcutaneous nodule 47 / 50 47. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. ASD C. PDA D. Constrictive pericarditis 48 / 50 48. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Isolated levocardia B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Addison's disease D. Emphysema 49 / 50 49. JVP is usually increased in: A. Septic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 50 / 50 50. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Ventricular fibrillation D. 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