Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Increased LDH3 B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L D. Inverted T wave in ECG 2 / 50 2. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypokalaemia 3 / 50 3. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. Electrical cardioversion C. IV Lignocaine D. Carotid massage 4 / 50 4. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pneumococcus C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Streptococcus faecalis 5 / 50 5. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Aortic regurgitation C. Right-sided aortic arch D. Persistent right-sided SVC 6 / 50 6. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Protozoa B. Autoimmune reaction C. Virus D. Bacteria 7 / 50 7. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Gradual onset C. Residual neurodeficit D. Rapid recovery 8 / 50 8. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. Y-shaped C. V-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 9 / 50 9. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. Atrial fibrillation C. 2nd degree heart block D. Sinus arrhythmia 10 / 50 10. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. MS C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. MR 11 / 50 11. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Infective endocarditis D. Rupture 12 / 50 12. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Right atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 13 / 50 13. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Digitalis toxicity C. Hypothermia D. Chronic cor pulmonale 14 / 50 14. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Pericardial effusion D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 15 / 50 15. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Afibrinogenaemia B. Old age C. Vasculitis D. SLE 16 / 50 16. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Acute mitral regurgitation C. Right ventricular infarction D. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction 17 / 50 17. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Verapamil B. Flecainide C. Disopyramide D. Quinidine 18 / 50 18. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Ejection click C. Venous hum D. Opening snap 19 / 50 19. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Mitral stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 20 / 50 20. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) C. Diastolic shock D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 21 / 50 21. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Acute bacterial endocarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Right-to-left shunt 22 / 50 22. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Systolic C. Presystolic D. Early diastolic 23 / 50 23. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Graham Steel murmur B. Presence of S3 C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Late and loud opening snap 24 / 50 24. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Phaeochromocytoma 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Polyarthritis C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Chorea 26 / 50 26. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis B. Aortopulmonary window C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula 27 / 50 27. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Transposition of great vessels C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 28 / 50 28. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. MR C. AR D. MS 29 / 50 29. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Right atrial myxoma D. Ventricular tachycardia 30 / 50 30. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. SLE 31 / 50 31. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. Acute rheumatic fever C. MS D. Pulmonary hypertension 32 / 50 32. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Post-AMI C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Post-electrical cardioversion 33 / 50 33. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Low pulse pressure 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Histamine C. Endothelin D. Nitric oxide 35 / 50 35. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Gonorrhoea C. Acute pancreatitis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 36 / 50 36. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Beta-blockers B. ACE inhibitors C. Aspirin D. Diuretics 37 / 50 37. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Asplenia C. Absent clavicle D. Fingerization of thumb 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Starts in the dependent part D. Pitting oedema 39 / 50 39. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised Lipoprotein (a) C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised VLDL 40 / 50 40. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Tall T-waves D. Increased PR interval 41 / 50 41. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Shows reverse split C. Having wide split D. Shows narrow split 42 / 50 42. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Femoral artery B. Popliteal artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Cauda equina 43 / 50 43. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Anywhere in the precordium 44 / 50 44. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Floppy mitral valve C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute myocardial infarction 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Ascites C. Pulmonary oedema D. Raised JVP 46 / 50 46. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hypothermia C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 47 / 50 47. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Commonly found in children C. Associated with thrill D. Best heard over mitral area 48 / 50 48. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Haemothorax B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Cardiac tamponade 49 / 50 49. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Radial D. Dorsalis pedis 50 / 50 50. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Late diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology