CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Homocystinuria D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 2 / 50 2. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Viral arthritis C. Rheumatic arthritis D. Felty's syndrome 3 / 50 3. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Berry aneurysm C. Polycystic kidney D. Aortic arch syndrome 4 / 50 4. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 5 / 50 5. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Unfolding of aorta C. Calcified aortic valve D. Aortitis 6 / 50 6. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Tachycardia B. Digitalis overdose C. Mitral valve calcification D. Left atrial failure 7 / 50 7. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis B. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Aortopulmonary window 8 / 50 8. Sudden death may occur in: A. ASD B. Constrictive pericarditis C. PDA D. AS 9 / 50 9. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pericardial effusion 10 / 50 10. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Allopurinol C. Chloramphenicol D. Doxorubicin 11 / 50 11. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. VSD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. ASD 12 / 50 12. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Right atrial myxoma C. Cardiac tamponade D. Ventricular tachycardia 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Starts in the dependent part B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Pitting oedema 14 / 50 14. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Peripheral embolism D. Leriche's syndrome 15 / 50 15. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 25 ml C. 5 ml D. 50 ml 16 / 50 16. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Livedo reticularis D. Acrocyanosis 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Haptoglobulin C. Orosomucoid D. Ceruloplasmin 18 / 50 18. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial flutter C. Hypokalaemia D. Atrial fibrillation 19 / 50 19. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. PDA C. ASD D. AS 20 / 50 20. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Chlamydia C. Cytomegalovirus D. HIV 21 / 50 21. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Tall T-waves C. Shortened PR interval D. Increased PR interval 22 / 50 22. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound D. Occurs immediately after S1 23 / 50 23. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. ACE inhibitors B. Aspirin C. Beta-blockers D. Diuretics 24 / 50 24. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Arthralgia C. Increased ESR D. Elevated ASO titre 25 / 50 25. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Orthopnoea B. Raised JVP C. Pulsatile liver D. Hypotension 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Hypothermia B. Complete heart block C. Obstructive jaundice D. Myxoedema 27 / 50 27. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Femoral D. Dorsalis pedis 28 / 50 28. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Left-to-right shunt 29 / 50 29. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent y-descent C. Prominent x-descent D. Prominent a-wave 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Low volume pulse D. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein 31 / 50 31. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 32 / 50 32. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Pulmonary oedema 33 / 50 33. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Quinidine therapy B. Vagal stimulation C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hypothermia 34 / 50 34. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Austin Flint murmur B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Left atrial myxoma D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 35 / 50 35. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve 36 / 50 36. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Nailbed C. Fundus D. Palate 37 / 50 37. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Prolonged circulation time B. Pericardial effusion C. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation D. Diminished cardiac output 38 / 50 38. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. Tetralogy of Fallot 39 / 50 39. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. 2nd degree heart block C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Atrial fibrillation 40 / 50 40. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Left atrial myxoma 41 / 50 41. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. Found in basal region C. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg D. MS is a recognised cause 42 / 50 42. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pneumococcus C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Streptococcus faecalis 43 / 50 43. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Autoimmune reaction D. Protozoa 44 / 50 44. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. PDA 45 / 50 45. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 46 / 50 46. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Acute pancreatitis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Gonorrhoea 47 / 50 47. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis 48 / 50 48. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Post-AMI C. Myocarditis D. Post-electrical cardioversion 49 / 50 49. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. Acute rheumatic fever C. AR D. Pulmonary hypertension 50 / 50 50. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Low pulse pressure C. Sinus tachycardia D. 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