Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve 2 / 50 2. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Pulmonary hypertension 3 / 50 3. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Rheumatic arthritis B. Felty's syndrome C. Viral arthritis D. SLE 4 / 50 4. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 100 Joules 5 / 50 5. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Water-hammer pulse D. Pulsus alternans 6 / 50 6. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined AS and AR 7 / 50 7. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Supravalvular AS C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Infundibular PS 8 / 50 8. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 9 / 50 9. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. Diuretics C. IV fluid D. Restriction of fluid 10 / 50 10. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Stenosis is severe D. Occurs immediately after S1 11 / 50 11. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Leg raising C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Standing 12 / 50 12. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Leriche's syndrome C. Peripheral embolism D. Buerger's disease 13 / 50 13. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent B. Moderate VSD C. Haemodynamically significant D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 14 / 50 14. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 15 / 50 15. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Opening snap B. Ejection click C. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma D. Pericardial knock 16 / 50 16. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased PR interval D. Increased QT interval 17 / 50 17. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 18 / 50 18. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Old age C. Hypokalaemia D. Hepatic encephalopathy 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Pitting oedema D. Starts in the dependent part 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Trendelenburg position C. Morphine D. Diuretics 21 / 50 21. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. With the diaphragm of stethoscope B. Anywhere in the precordium C. In standing position D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 22 / 50 22. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. AS C. MR D. AR 23 / 50 23. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. LBBB B. Left ventricular pacing C. Aortic regurgitation D. RBBB 24 / 50 24. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Y-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Orosomucoid C. Haptoglobulin D. Ceruloplasmin 26 / 50 26. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Presystolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Systolic D. Early diastolic 27 / 50 27. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Severe coarctation of aorta 28 / 50 28. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Angina Pectoris D. Atrial fibrillation 29 / 50 29. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. AR C. VSD D. MS 30 / 50 30. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Water-hammer pulse C. Cardiomegaly D. Tapping apex 31 / 50 31. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 32 / 50 32. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolaemic D. Neurogenic 33 / 50 33. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Methyldopa B. Telmisartan C. Amlodipine D. Labetalol 34 / 50 34. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Single ventricle C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Hypothermia B. Myxoedema C. Complete heart block D. Obstructive jaundice 36 / 50 36. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. SGPT C. LDH D. SGOT 37 / 50 37. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Right atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 38 / 50 38. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. More common in females D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic 39 / 50 39. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome B. Holt-Oram syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Trisomy 18 40 / 50 40. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Aortoarteritis B. Unfolding of aorta C. Coarctation of aorta D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 41 / 50 41. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Amiloride C. Hydralazine D. Prazosin 42 / 50 42. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Haemothorax C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 43 / 50 43. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MR B. MS C. AR D. AS 44 / 50 44. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 45 / 50 45. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hypothermia 46 / 50 46. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. Increased LDH3 C. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 D. Inverted T wave in ECG 47 / 50 47. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Takayasu's disease D. Systemic hypertension 48 / 50 48. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard in standing position 49 / 50 49. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Presence of S3 C. Late and loud opening snap D. Graham Steel murmur 50 / 50 50. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 50 ml C. 15 ml D. 5 ml LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology