Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Isolated levocardia B. Addison's disease C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Emphysema 2 / 50 2. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Morning-time single dosage D. Eccentric dosage schedule 3 / 50 3. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent a-wave B. Prominent y-descent C. Prominent x-descent D. Small v-wave 4 / 50 4. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Quinidine B. Verapamil C. Disopyramide D. Flecainide 5 / 50 5. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arteritis D. Systemic hypertension 6 / 50 6. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. Y-shaped D. V-shaped 7 / 50 7. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Wenckebach block 8 / 50 8. Still’s murmur is: A. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis B. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Systolic innocent murmur 9 / 50 9. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Systemic hypertension C. Pregnancy D. Marfan's syndrome 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteoarthritis 11 / 50 11. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. In standing position D. With the diaphragm of stethoscope 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Ascites B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Raised JVP 13 / 50 13. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Mid-diastole C. Mid-systole D. Systole 14 / 50 14. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Ringing in character C. Accentuated D. Normal in character 15 / 50 15. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 16 / 50 16. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Rupture C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Embolism 17 / 50 17. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Anomalous origin of coronary artery C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ebstein's anomaly 18 / 50 18. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. ASD B. VSD C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Fallot's tetralogy 19 / 50 19. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Clotting time (CT) D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 20 / 50 20. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Renal artery stenosis C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Eclampsia 21 / 50 21. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Radial C. Brachial D. Dorsalis pedis 22 / 50 22. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Diuretics C. ACE inhibitors D. Beta-blockers 23 / 50 23. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. VSD D. Dextrocardia 24 / 50 24. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with tight PS C. AR with CCF D. AR with systemic hypertension 25 / 50 25. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hypothermia C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 26 / 50 26. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-diastole 27 / 50 27. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 28 / 50 28. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Best heard over mitral area D. Associated with thrill 29 / 50 29. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus AR B. VSD plus MS C. ASD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 30 / 50 30. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Renal failure C. Old age D. Hypokalaemia 31 / 50 31. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased PR interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Increased QT interval 32 / 50 32. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 33 / 50 33. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Infundibular PS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Supravalvular AS D. Lutembacher syndrome 34 / 50 34. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. High ESR C. Pyrexia D. Splenomegaly 35 / 50 35. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Nodal rhythm D. Complete heart block 36 / 50 36. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Verapamil C. Adenosine D. Amiodarone 37 / 50 37. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised VLDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Reduced HDL 38 / 50 38. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Superior mediastinal syndrome B. Left ventricular failure C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Congestive cardiac failure 39 / 50 39. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Presystolic D. Early diastolic 40 / 50 40. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. ASD C. VSD D. MR 41 / 50 41. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Right ventricular infarction C. Myocarditis D. Pregnancy 42 / 50 42. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Cardiomegaly C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Tapping apex 43 / 50 43. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 1 cm2 B. < 2 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 4 cm2 44 / 50 44. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Hypovolaemic C. Cardiogenic D. Neurogenic 45 / 50 45. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Endothelin B. Histamine C. Nitric oxide D. Bradykinin 47 / 50 47. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Mitral stenosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Myxoedema D. Carcinoid syndrome 48 / 50 48. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Raised JVP D. Ashen-grey pallor 49 / 50 49. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Increased PR interval C. Diminished QT interval D. Shortened PR interval 50 / 50 50. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. IV fluid B. Restriction of fluid C. Diuretics D. Calcium gluconate LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology