Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Systemic hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Takayasu's disease 2 / 50 2. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias B. Angina Pectoris C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Systemic hypertension 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Hypothermia C. Complete heart block D. Myxoedema 4 / 50 4. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with tight PS D. AR with CCF 5 / 50 5. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Pneumococcus D. Streptoroccus viridans 6 / 50 6. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. AS B. PS C. VSD D. Coarctation of aorta 7 / 50 7. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Cat-like cry D. VSD 8 / 50 8. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence 9 / 50 9. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Myocarditis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Emphysema 10 / 50 10. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Acute mediastinitis C. Bornholm disease D. Unstable angina 11 / 50 11. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. MS is a recognised cause C. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 12 / 50 12. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. Old age C. SLE D. Afibrinogenaemia 13 / 50 13. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. PDA C. ASD D. VSD 14 / 50 14. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-AMI B. Myocarditis C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Post-electrical cardioversion 15 / 50 15. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Arteriovenous nipping C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Papilloedema 16 / 50 16. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Haemothorax C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Nitric oxide B. Histamine C. Endothelin D. Bradykinin 18 / 50 18. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Standing 19 / 50 19. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Myocarditis D. Right ventricular infarction 20 / 50 20. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. LDH B. CPK C. SGPT D. SGOT 21 / 50 21. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Best heard over mitral area C. Usually diastolic in timing D. Commonly found in children 22 / 50 22. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Beta-blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Diuretics 23 / 50 23. The least common complication of MS is: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 24 / 50 24. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Ischemic heart disease B. Severe anemia C. Coarctation of aorta D. Cardiomyopathy 25 / 50 25. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Factor-X assay C. Clotting time (CT) D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 26 / 50 26. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Berry aneurysm D. Coronary osteal stenosis 27 / 50 27. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. IV Lignocaine C. Carotid massage D. Electrical cardioversion 28 / 50 28. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Left atrial myxoma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Pulmonary hypertension 29 / 50 29. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. Embolic phenomenon D. Hypertension 30 / 50 30. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. MS C. AR D. VSD 31 / 50 31. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep Q wave D. Prominent ST elevation 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Arthralgia C. Increased ESR D. Elevated ASO titre 33 / 50 33. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 34 / 50 34. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV 35 / 50 35. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Aortopulmonary window D. Patent ductus arteriosus 36 / 50 36. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Disturbances in vision D. Intermittent claudication 37 / 50 37. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows narrow split C. Shows reverse split D. Remains single 38 / 50 38. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. VSD B. Dextrocardia C. PDA D. Bicuspid aortic valve 39 / 50 39. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Accentuated C. Ringing in character D. Normal in character 40 / 50 40. Sudden death may occur in: A. ASD B. Constrictive pericarditis C. PDA D. AS 41 / 50 41. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Low pulse pressure C. Sinus tachycardia D. Sinus bradycardia 42 / 50 42. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Atrial fibrillation D. Supraventricular tachycardia 43 / 50 43. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Mid-diastole C. Diastole D. Systole 44 / 50 44. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypokalaemia C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Left bundle branch block 45 / 50 45. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Present in late diastole C. Low-pitched D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 46 / 50 46. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. ECG was taken in deep inspiration D. Dextrocardia 47 / 50 47. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. PDA B. Ostium primum ASD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 48 / 50 48. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Homocystinuria 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Osteoarthritis D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology