Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Cauda equina 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Myxoedema C. Obstructive jaundice D. Hypothermia 3 / 50 3. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. Pulmonary hypertension C. AR D. Acute rheumatic fever 4 / 50 4. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Phaeochromocytoma 5 / 50 5. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class I C. Class IV D. Class III 6 / 50 6. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Marantic endocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 7 / 50 7. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Diastolic shock B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 8 / 50 8. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Hyperuricemia C. Microvascular angina D. Morbid obesity 9 / 50 9. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Pulmonary oedema C. Obstructive mitral valve disease D. Pulmonary fibrosis 10 / 50 10. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Chronic obstructive airway disease B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Pericardial effusion D. Left-sided heart failure 11 / 50 11. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV Lignocaine B. Electrical cardioversion C. Carotid massage D. IV amiodarone 12 / 50 12. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 13 / 50 13. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 14 / 50 14. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Berry aneurysm B. Aortic arch syndrome C. Polycystic kidney D. Bicuspid aortic valve 15 / 50 15. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Hydralazine C. Prazosin D. Amiloride 16 / 50 16. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Autoimmune reaction C. Protozoa D. Bacteria 17 / 50 17. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Berry aneurysm D. Pulmonary stenosis 18 / 50 18. Sudden death may occur in: A. PDA B. Constrictive pericarditis C. AS D. ASD 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Cubbing C. Osler's node D. Splenomegaly 20 / 50 20. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Diminished cardiac output C. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation D. Prolonged circulation time 21 / 50 21. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Aortic stenosis C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Tricuspid incompetence 22 / 50 22. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. VSD C. MR D. PDA 23 / 50 23. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Hypokalaemia C. PSVT D. Atrial flutter 24 / 50 24. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left ventricle B. Right atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left atrium 25 / 50 25. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Should be ignored C. As a result of venous distension D. Related to diastolic BP 26 / 50 26. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Acrocyanosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Livedo reticularis 27 / 50 27. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. ACE inhibitors C. Aspirin D. Beta-blockers 28 / 50 28. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 10-12th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 29 / 50 29. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Atrial fibrillation C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 30 / 50 30. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 31 / 50 31. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Acute myocardial infarction 32 / 50 32. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Brachial C. Dorsalis pedis D. Radial 33 / 50 33. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-diastole 34 / 50 34. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. MR C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. MS 35 / 50 35. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. MS C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. VSD 36 / 50 36. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. During inspiration C. Ostium primum ASD D. Hyperkalaemia 37 / 50 37. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 38 / 50 38. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Peripheral cyanosis D. Raised JVP 39 / 50 39. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. VSD C. PDA D. Ostium primum ASD 40 / 50 40. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Systemic hypertension C. Angina Pectoris D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 41 / 50 41. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. Felty's syndrome C. Rheumatic arthritis D. SLE 42 / 50 42. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Digitalis overdose B. Left atrial failure C. Mitral valve calcification D. Tachycardia 43 / 50 43. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen D. Pin-point mitral valve 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Elevated ASO titre C. Arthralgia D. Prolonged PR interval 45 / 50 45. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Acute mitral regurgitation B. Cardiac tamponade C. Right ventricular infarction D. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction 46 / 50 46. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Night-time single dosage 47 / 50 47. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PS C. VSD D. AS 48 / 50 48. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Presence of J-wave 49 / 50 49. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard in standing position C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 50 / 50 50. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Rheumatic valve LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology