Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Bacterial endocarditis 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Hypothermia B. Obstructive jaundice C. Complete heart block D. Myxoedema 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Ascites 4 / 50 4. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Bush tea C. Tapioca D. Coffee 5 / 50 5. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Carey Coombs murmur B. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome C. Left atrial myxoma D. Austin Flint murmur 6 / 50 6. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Complete heart block 7 / 50 7. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Unfolding of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Polyarthritis D. Erythema nodosum 9 / 50 9. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Hyperkalaemia C. Ostium primum ASD D. During inspiration 10 / 50 10. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Low pulse pressure 11 / 50 11. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Hydralazine C. Amiloride D. Prazosin 12 / 50 12. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. PDA 13 / 50 13. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Aortitis C. Unfolding of aorta D. Calcified aortic valve 14 / 50 14. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute pancreatitis 15 / 50 15. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Graham Steel murmur D. Presence of S3 16 / 50 16. The murmur of MS is: A. Early diastolic B. With radiation towards left axilla C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. High-pitched 17 / 50 17. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Septic shock D. Cardiogenic shock 18 / 50 18. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula B. Aortopulmonary window C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis 19 / 50 19. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 20 / 50 20. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Restenosis cases 21 / 50 21. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Amiodarone B. Propranolol C. Phenylephrin D. Morphine 22 / 50 22. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Myocarditis C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Aortic stenosis 23 / 50 23. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Gallop rhythm C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 24 / 50 24. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Cardiac tamponade D. Right atrial myxoma 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Marfan's syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Arteriosclerosis 26 / 50 26. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. SLE D. PDA 27 / 50 27. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 28 / 50 28. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 1-12th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 29 / 50 29. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus bigeminus B. Water-hammer pulse C. Pulsus alternans D. Pulsus paradoxus 30 / 50 30. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Microvascular angina C. Hyperuricemia D. Morbid obesity 31 / 50 31. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. Increased LDH3 32 / 50 32. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Pin-point mitral valve D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 33 / 50 33. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis D. Marantic endocarditis 34 / 50 34. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Livedo reticularis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Acrocyanosis 35 / 50 35. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. MR C. MS D. AS 36 / 50 36. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Systemic hypertension D. Aortic stenosis 37 / 50 37. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Takayasu's disease C. Arteritis D. Diabetes mellitus 38 / 50 38. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Superior mediastinal syndrome B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Left ventricular failure 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients C. Starts in the dependent part D. Pitting oedema 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Osler's node C. Splenomegaly D. Cubbing 41 / 50 41. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 1 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 42 / 50 42. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. AR C. MS D. PDA 43 / 50 43. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Becomes prominent on lying down B. Better felt than seen C. Undulating D. There are two negative waves 44 / 50 44. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Tricuspid atresia D. Transposition of great vessels 45 / 50 45. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. Early systolic click D. More common in females 46 / 50 46. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Embolic phenomenon C. Hypertension D. Clubbing 47 / 50 47. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Hoover's sign B. Bing sign C. Tinel's sign D. Branham's sign 48 / 50 48. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-systole 49 / 50 49. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. MR C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. MS 50 / 50 50. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Sheehan's syndrome B. Emphysema C. Isolated levocardia D. Addison's disease LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology