Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Aortopulmonary window D. Patent ductus arteriosus 2 / 50 2. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 3 / 50 3. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Right ventricular failure C. Left-to-right shunt D. Left ventricular failure 4 / 50 4. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Multiple ectopics B. Atrial flutter C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Wenckebach block 5 / 50 5. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Should be ignored C. Related to diastolic BP D. As a result of venous distension 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Hyperthyroidism C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Nephrotic syndrome 7 / 50 7. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 C. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 8 / 50 8. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. LDH C. CPK D. SGOT 9 / 50 9. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. ASD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 10 / 50 10. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Chronic constrictive pericarditis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Rheumatic valve 11 / 50 11. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Athletes D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 12 / 50 12. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Aortitis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Unfolding of aorta 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Ascites B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Raised JVP 14 / 50 14. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. High ESR D. Splenomegaly 15 / 50 15. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Diuretics C. Calcium gluconate D. IV fluid 16 / 50 16. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Pericardial knock C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Elevated ASO titre C. Arthralgia D. Prolonged PR interval 18 / 50 18. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 40mmHg B. 60mmHg C. 80mmHg D. 30mmHg 19 / 50 19. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pulmonary thromboembolism B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Left-sided heart failure D. Pericardial effusion 20 / 50 20. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Atrial fibrillation C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Constrictive pericarditis 21 / 50 21. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Doxorubicin B. Chloramphenicol C. Allopurinol D. Methotrexate 22 / 50 22. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Disopyramide 23 / 50 23. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Aneurysm of subclavian artery C. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels D. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta 24 / 50 24. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 25 / 50 25. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. V-shaped 26 / 50 26. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial flutter C. Hypokalaemia D. Atrial fibrillation 27 / 50 27. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Aplastic anaemia C. Acute leukaemia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 28 / 50 28. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Obstructive mitral valve disease D. Pulmonary fibrosis 29 / 50 29. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Mobitz type II block C. Wenckebach block D. Ventricular bigeminy 30 / 50 30. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Arteriovenous nipping C. Papilloedema D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 31 / 50 31. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Left ventricular failure D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 32 / 50 32. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Factor-X assay C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Clotting time (CT) 33 / 50 33. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Streptoroccus viridans 34 / 50 34. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. Right ventricular pacing C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. ASD 35 / 50 35. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus bradycardia B. Low pulse pressure C. Hypotension D. Sinus tachycardia 36 / 50 36. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Right atrial myxoma D. Complete heart block 37 / 50 37. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. ASD D. VSD 38 / 50 38. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Atrioventricular septal defect 39 / 50 39. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Calcium 40 / 50 40. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Residual neurodeficit B. Gradual onset C. Rapid recovery D. Warning symptoms 41 / 50 41. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Tricuspid atresia D. Transposition of great vessels 42 / 50 42. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Aortic stenosis C. Endotoxic shock D. Mitral stenosis 43 / 50 43. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Intermittent claudication D. Systemic hypertension 44 / 50 44. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Extrasystoles D. 2nd degree heart block 45 / 50 45. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. Asplenia C. VSD D. Absent clavicle 46 / 50 46. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 47 / 50 47. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. High-pitched C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. Early diastolic 48 / 50 48. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Ischemic heart disease C. Severe anemia D. Coarctation of aorta 49 / 50 49. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Vasculitis C. Old age D. Afibrinogenaemia 50 / 50 50. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Methyldopa B. Labetalol C. Telmisartan D. Amlodipine LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology