Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Osteoarthritis D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 2 / 50 2. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. ACE-inhibitors C. Propranolol D. Surgical myotomy of the septum 3 / 50 3. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. High-pitched C. Early diastolic D. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation 4 / 50 4. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Fine crepitations at lung bases B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Gallop rhythm D. Dependent oedema 5 / 50 5. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Acute mediastinitis B. Dissecting aneurysm C. Bornholm disease D. Unstable angina 6 / 50 6. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. PDA C. Aortic regurgitation D. Right-sided aortic arch 7 / 50 7. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Telmisartan C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine 8 / 50 8. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Marfan's syndrome C. Systemic hypertension D. Pregnancy 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Erythema nodosum C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Polyarthritis 10 / 50 10. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Associated with thrill C. Best heard over mitral area D. Commonly found in children 11 / 50 11. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. MS C. AS D. MR 12 / 50 12. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. Afibrinogenaemia C. SLE D. Old age 13 / 50 13. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Digitalis toxicity C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypothermia 14 / 50 14. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ebstein's anomaly C. VSD D. Transposition of great vessels 15 / 50 15. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Standing C. Leg raising D. Valsalva manoeuvre 16 / 50 16. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Haemothorax 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Hepatitis D. Photosensitivity 18 / 50 18. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Myxoedema C. Mitral stenosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Pitting oedema 20 / 50 20. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. VSD C. PDA D. Dextrocardia 21 / 50 21. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolaemic D. Neurogenic 22 / 50 22. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Mitral stenosis C. Endotoxic shock D. Aortic stenosis 23 / 50 23. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Rheumatic valve C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 24 / 50 24. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ischemic heart disease C. Severe anemia D. Cardiomyopathy 25 / 50 25. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. IV Lignocaine C. Electrical cardioversion D. Carotid massage 26 / 50 26. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Left-to-right shunt C. Right ventricular failure D. Left ventricular failure 27 / 50 27. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. MS C. AS D. MR 28 / 50 28. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Takayasu's disease C. Diabetes mellitus D. Systemic hypertension 29 / 50 29. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Diazoxide C. Methyldopa D. Sodium nitroprusside 30 / 50 30. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. MR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. AR 31 / 50 31. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MR B. MS C. AR D. AS 32 / 50 32. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. Rheumatic arthritis C. SLE D. Felty's syndrome 33 / 50 33. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus AR B. VSD plus MS C. ASD plus MR D. ASD plus MS 34 / 50 34. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. More common in females C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. High-pitched late systolic murmur 35 / 50 35. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 100 Joules 36 / 50 36. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 D. ST elevation in II, III, aVF 37 / 50 37. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. HIV C. Chlamydia D. H. pylori 38 / 50 38. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Pregnancy D. Sickle cell anemia 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Pregnancy C. Marfan's syndrome D. Arteriosclerosis 40 / 50 40. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Acute mitral regurgitation C. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction D. Right ventricular infarction 41 / 50 41. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. VSD B. ASD C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Fallot's tetralogy 42 / 50 42. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pneumococcus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Streptoroccus viridans 43 / 50 43. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Amrinone C. Lisinopril D. Amiodarone 44 / 50 44. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. As a result of venous distension C. Related to diastolic BP D. Should be ignored 45 / 50 45. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. Coarctation of aorta C. VSD D. ASD 46 / 50 46. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Pregnancy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 47 / 50 47. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Aflatoxin C. Bush tea D. Tapioca 48 / 50 48. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. Diuretics C. IV fluid D. Restriction of fluid 49 / 50 49. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MR D. MS 50 / 50 50. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Late and loud opening snap C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Graham Steel murmur LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology