Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. SLE C. Felty's syndrome D. Rheumatic arthritis 2 / 50 2. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-diastole C. Diastole D. Mid-systole 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 4 / 50 4. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve 5 / 50 5. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Pulsus alternans D. Water-hammer pulse 6 / 50 6. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Lutembacher syndrome C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Infundibular PS 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Pitting oedema 8 / 50 8. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta C. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels D. Aneurysm of subclavian artery 9 / 50 9. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. Severe pulmonary hypertension 10 / 50 10. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Neurogenic C. Septic D. Cardiogenic 11 / 50 11. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Wenckebach block C. Mobitz type II block D. Ventricular bigeminy 12 / 50 12. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 13 / 50 13. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ischemic heart disease C. Cardiomyopathy D. Severe anemia 14 / 50 14. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MR D. MS 15 / 50 15. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Systemic hypertension 16 / 50 16. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. Left ventricular pacing C. Aortic regurgitation D. LBBB 17 / 50 17. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Graham Steel murmur C. Presence of S3 D. Late and loud opening snap 18 / 50 18. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Allopurinol C. Chloramphenicol D. Doxorubicin 19 / 50 19. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Standing C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Squatting 20 / 50 20. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Thoracic deformity C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Cardiomyopathy 21 / 50 21. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Acute rheumatic fever C. AR D. MS 22 / 50 22. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Cervical rib C. Trauma D. Sarcoidosis 23 / 50 23. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-AMI B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Myocarditis D. Post-electrical cardioversion 24 / 50 24. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Unfolding of aorta C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Aortitis 25 / 50 25. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. PDA C. VSD D. Fallot's tetralogy 26 / 50 26. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Right atrial myxoma C. Complete heart block D. Tricuspid incompetence 27 / 50 27. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Hyperdynamic circulatory states C. Aortic aneurysm D. Coarctation of aorta 28 / 50 28. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Wenckebach block B. Pericardial effusion C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular failure 29 / 50 29. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Shows narrow split C. Having wide split D. Remains single 30 / 50 30. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Morning-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Twice daily dosage schedule 31 / 50 31. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Autoimmune reaction B. Protozoa C. Virus D. Bacteria 32 / 50 32. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. ACE inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Diuretics 33 / 50 33. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Pulmonary atresia C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Severe coarctation of aorta 34 / 50 34. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Chronic renal failure C. Gonorrhoea D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 35 / 50 35. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 36 / 50 36. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Probucol C. Lovastatin D. Nicotinic acid 37 / 50 37. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. PDA C. VSD D. ASD 38 / 50 38. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. VSD D. MS 39 / 50 39. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Methyldopa B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Labetalol D. Diazoxide 40 / 50 40. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Amiodarone B. Phenylephrin C. Propranolol D. Morphine 41 / 50 41. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Clotting time (CT) D. Factor-X assay 42 / 50 42. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Becomes prominent on lying down B. Better felt than seen C. There are two negative waves D. Undulating 43 / 50 43. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Tricuspid atresia D. Transposition of great vessels 44 / 50 44. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Systemic hypertension 45 / 50 45. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Sodium 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Ceruloplasmin D. Haptoglobulin 47 / 50 47. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Orthopnoea C. Pulsatile liver D. Hypotension 48 / 50 48. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Diphtheria B. Toxoplasma infection C. Ascariasis D. HIV infection 49 / 50 49. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Opening snap B. Venous hum C. S2 D. Ejection click 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Alveolitis D. Hepatitis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology