Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Systemic hypertension C. Diminished pulses in upper extremity D. Disturbances in vision 2 / 50 2. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 85 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 70 ml/kg of body weight 3 / 50 3. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Wenckebach block B. Ventricular bigeminy C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Mobitz type II block 4 / 50 4. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg B. Found in basal region C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. MS is a recognised cause 5 / 50 5. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with CCF D. AR with tight PS 6 / 50 6. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. VSD C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Dextrocardia 7 / 50 7. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Coarctation of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 8 / 50 8. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Asplenia B. Absent clavicle C. Fingerization of thumb D. VSD 9 / 50 9. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Pregnancy 10 / 50 10. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 11 / 50 11. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pneumococcus C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Streptococcus faecalis 12 / 50 12. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Probucol B. Gemfibrozil C. Nicotinic acid D. Lovastatin 13 / 50 13. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AS C. AR D. MS 14 / 50 14. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Acute severe asthma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 15 / 50 15. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Y-shaped 16 / 50 16. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Increased LDH3 B. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 17 / 50 17. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Acute mitral regurgitation B. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction C. Right ventricular infarction D. Cardiac tamponade 18 / 50 18. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Hydralazine C. Amiloride D. Methyldopa 19 / 50 19. The murmur of MS is: A. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation B. Early diastolic C. High-pitched D. With radiation towards left axilla 20 / 50 20. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Shortened PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Increased PR interval 21 / 50 21. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Labetalol C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 22 / 50 22. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Best heard in standing position D. Present in late diastole 23 / 50 23. The least common complication of MS is: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Pulmonary hypertension 24 / 50 24. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Quinidine B. Flecainide C. Disopyramide D. Verapamil 25 / 50 25. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. WPW syndrome C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypothermia 26 / 50 26. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Single ventricle D. Fallot's tetralogy 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Marfan's syndrome C. Arteriosclerosis D. Coarctation of aorta 28 / 50 28. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Digitalis toxicity C. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) D. WPW syndrome 29 / 50 29. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Increased JVP B. Pulmonary congestion C. Kussmaul's sign D. Hypotension 30 / 50 30. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Pulse deficit is > 10 31 / 50 31. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. After holding the breath D. On the left side of lower sternum 32 / 50 32. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Buerger's disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Leriche's syndrome D. Lumbar canal stenosis 33 / 50 33. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. ASD C. PDA D. AS 34 / 50 34. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. Anywhere in the precordium 35 / 50 35. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Atrial fibrillation C. Complete heart block D. Ventricular tachycardia 36 / 50 36. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Twice daily dosage schedule C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 37 / 50 37. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Pregnancy D. Myocarditis 38 / 50 38. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Allopurinol C. Doxorubicin D. Methotrexate 39 / 50 39. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Better felt than seen C. Undulating D. Becomes prominent on lying down 40 / 50 40. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 41 / 50 41. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Systolic C. Presystolic D. Mid-diastolic 42 / 50 42. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Arteritis C. Systemic hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus 43 / 50 43. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Neurogenic C. Hypovolaemic D. Cardiogenic 44 / 50 44. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MR B. MS C. AR D. AS 45 / 50 45. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Acute bacterial endocarditis B. Right-to-left shunt C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Left atrial myxoma 46 / 50 46. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Gonorrhoea C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute pancreatitis 47 / 50 47. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Coronary osteal stenosis C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta 48 / 50 48. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Angina Pectoris D. Atrial fibrillation 49 / 50 49. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve 50 / 50 50. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Right-sided aortic arch C. Aortic regurgitation D. Persistent right-sided SVC LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology