Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Amlodipine C. Telmisartan D. Methyldopa 2 / 50 2. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L D. Increased LDH3 3 / 50 3. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Associated with thrill C. Usually diastolic in timing D. Best heard over mitral area 4 / 50 4. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Emphysema C. Myocarditis D. Cardiomyopathy 5 / 50 5. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hypothermia C. Hyperkalaemia D. WPW syndrome 6 / 50 6. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Tricuspid atresia C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 7 / 50 7. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Shock C. Arrhythmias D. Hypertension 8 / 50 8. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. ASD C. VSD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 9 / 50 9. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. Digitalis toxicity C. WPW syndrome D. Rheumatic carditis 10 / 50 10. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Kussmaul's sign C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 11 / 50 11. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. WPW syndrome C. During inspiration D. Ostium primum ASD 12 / 50 12. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. VSD C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 13 / 50 13. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Clotting time (CT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Factor-X assay D. Prothrombin time (PT) 14 / 50 14. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Gonorrhoea C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Chronic renal failure 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Ascites D. Pulmonary oedema 16 / 50 16. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Tachycardia C. Digitalis overdose D. Mitral valve calcification 17 / 50 17. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 18 / 50 18. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. ACE-inhibitors C. Amiodarone D. Propranolol 19 / 50 19. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Increased JVP B. Kussmaul's sign C. Hypotension D. Pulmonary congestion 20 / 50 20. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Coarctation of aorta C. Fallot's tetralogy D. PDA 21 / 50 21. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 22 / 50 22. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Isolated levocardia C. Emphysema D. Sheehan's syndrome 23 / 50 23. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. Associated LVH C. PDA D. ASD 24 / 50 24. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. PAI-I C. Lipoprotein D. Transferrin 25 / 50 25. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 5 ml C. 50 ml D. 25 ml 26 / 50 26. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Chlamydia B. HIV C. H. pylori D. Cytomegalovirus 27 / 50 27. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Takayasu's disease D. Arteritis 28 / 50 28. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 29 / 50 29. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class III C. Class IV D. Class II 30 / 50 30. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Acute mitral regurgitation B. Right ventricular infarction C. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction D. Cardiac tamponade 31 / 50 31. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. V-shaped D. Y-shaped 32 / 50 32. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. ASD C. Left ventricular failure D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 33 / 50 33. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur C. The ejection click goes away from S1 D. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 34 / 50 34. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Found in severe AR C. Absence of thrill D. Mid-diastolic murmur 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Erythema nodosum C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Polyarthritis 36 / 50 36. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Ringing in character C. Accentuated D. Diminished 37 / 50 37. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pulmonary thromboembolism B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Pericardial effusion D. Left-sided heart failure 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Pitting oedema B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients 39 / 50 39. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Opening snap C. Pericardial knock D. Ejection click 40 / 50 40. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows reverse split 41 / 50 41. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Berry aneurysm D. Coronary osteal stenosis 42 / 50 42. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Polycythemia D. Sickle cell anemia 43 / 50 43. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Presystolic C. Systolic D. Early diastolic 44 / 50 44. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Pulse deficit is > 10 45 / 50 45. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard in standing position 46 / 50 46. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined AR and MR 47 / 50 47. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Massive myocardial infarction C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 48 / 50 48. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Cardiomegaly D. Tapping apex 49 / 50 49. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Angina Pectoris C. Acute left ventricular failure D. Atrial fibrillation 50 / 50 50. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. ASD C. VSD D. PDA LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
