Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Systole 2 / 50 2. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Lovastatin C. Gemfibrozil D. Probucol 3 / 50 3. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Ashen-grey pallor 4 / 50 4. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. Diphtheria C. Toxoplasma infection D. HIV infection 5 / 50 5. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 6 / 50 6. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. VSD C. AS D. PS 7 / 50 7. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent x-descent B. Prominent a-wave C. Prominent y-descent D. Small v-wave 8 / 50 8. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Systemic hypertension C. Takayasu's disease D. Arteritis 9 / 50 9. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. VSD 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Starts in the dependent part D. Pitting oedema 11 / 50 11. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. More common in females C. Early systolic click D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic 12 / 50 12. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. MS C. MR D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 13 / 50 13. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Radial C. Dorsalis pedis D. Brachial 14 / 50 14. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Pneumococcus D. Streptoroccus viridans 15 / 50 15. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 16 / 50 16. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Pulmonary atresia C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Severe coarctation of aorta 17 / 50 17. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Metoprolol C. Adenosine D. Verapamil 18 / 50 18. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Pyrexia B. High ESR C. Splenomegaly D. Clubbing 19 / 50 19. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. 'f ' waves in neck vein C. Pulse deficit is > 10 D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 20 / 50 20. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Systemic hypertension D. Intermittent claudication 21 / 50 21. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. PDA C. ASD D. Coarctation of aorta 22 / 50 22. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Ventricular septal defect C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Fallot's tetralogy 23 / 50 23. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. Dextrocardia D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 24 / 50 24. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Digitalis overdose B. Left atrial failure C. Tachycardia D. Mitral valve calcification 25 / 50 25. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-electrical cardioversion B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Post-AMI D. Myocarditis 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Morphine C. Rotating tourniquets D. Diuretics 27 / 50 27. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Renal artery stenosis B. Eclampsia C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Coarctation of aorta 28 / 50 28. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Fundus B. Nailbed C. Palms D. Palate 29 / 50 29. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Telmisartan B. Amlodipine C. Methyldopa D. Labetalol 30 / 50 30. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. Associated LVH C. ASD D. PDA 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Osler's node B. Cubbing C. Murmur D. Splenomegaly 32 / 50 32. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Arrhythmias C. Shock D. Diabetes mellitus 33 / 50 33. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Severe anemia C. Ischemic heart disease D. Cardiomyopathy 34 / 50 34. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Residual neurodeficit B. Gradual onset C. Rapid recovery D. Warning symptoms 35 / 50 35. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Hyperdynamic circulatory states 36 / 50 36. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Vasculitis C. Old age D. Afibrinogenaemia 37 / 50 37. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Pure mitral stenosis C. Restenosis cases D. Absence of left atrial thrombus 38 / 50 38. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Hyperparathyroidism 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Alveolitis D. Hepatitis 40 / 50 40. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Atrial fibrillation C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Massive myocardial infarction 41 / 50 41. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography 42 / 50 42. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Haemothorax B. Cardiac tamponade C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Constrictive pericarditis 43 / 50 43. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Aortic valve 44 / 50 44. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. HIV C. Chlamydia D. Cytomegalovirus 45 / 50 45. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Undulating C. Better felt than seen D. Becomes prominent on lying down 46 / 50 46. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Left ventricular failure C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Right ventricular pacing 47 / 50 47. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Aortic stenosis 48 / 50 48. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Amrinone C. Amiodarone D. Lisinopril 49 / 50 49. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. VSD B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. PDA D. Dextrocardia 50 / 50 50. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology