Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. PDA C. ASD D. VSD 2 / 50 2. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. On the left side of lower sternum B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. In lying down position D. After holding the breath 3 / 50 3. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Pulmonary congestion C. Hypotension D. Increased JVP 4 / 50 4. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Hypertension C. Pyrexia D. Embolic phenomenon 5 / 50 5. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Diuretics B. Calcium gluconate C. Restriction of fluid D. IV fluid 6 / 50 6. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypokalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 7 / 50 7. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Atrial flutter D. PSVT 8 / 50 8. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Pulmonary valve 9 / 50 9. S4 is not associated with: A. Aortic stenosis B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Systemic hypertension 10 / 50 10. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic innocent murmur B. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation C. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis D. Systolic murmur in complete heart block 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Polyarthritis C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Erythema nodosum 12 / 50 12. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 13 / 50 13. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Best heard over mitral area C. Associated with thrill D. Usually diastolic in timing 14 / 50 14. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Addison's disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Polycystic kidney disease 15 / 50 15. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 16 / 50 16. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Autoimmune reaction C. Protozoa D. Bacteria 17 / 50 17. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. V-shaped 18 / 50 18. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Coarctation of aorta B. VSD C. ASD D. PDA 19 / 50 19. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Chlamydia B. H. pylori C. Cytomegalovirus D. HIV 20 / 50 20. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Clotting time (CT) C. Factor-X assay D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 21 / 50 21. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Amlodipine C. Amiodarone D. Lisinopril 22 / 50 22. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Nailbed C. Palms D. Fundus 23 / 50 23. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 24 / 50 24. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. ASD D. Right ventricular pacing 25 / 50 25. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Inferior vena cava C. Femoral artery D. Cauda equina 26 / 50 26. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 27 / 50 27. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. MS C. AS D. MR 28 / 50 28. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Nodal rhythm D. Complete heart block 29 / 50 29. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Diastolic shock B. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur C. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) 30 / 50 30. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Streptococcus faecalis 31 / 50 31. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. SGPT C. SGOT D. LDH 32 / 50 32. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 33 / 50 33. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Arteriovenous nipping C. Papilloedema D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 34 / 50 34. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 8 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 12 inch long 35 / 50 35. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. Associated LVH C. PDA D. AS 36 / 50 36. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Tricuspid atresia D. Severe pulmonary hypertension 37 / 50 37. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right ventricle B. Left atrium C. Right atrium D. Left ventricle 38 / 50 38. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 39 / 50 39. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. MS C. Acute rheumatic fever D. AR 40 / 50 40. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 41 / 50 41. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Transposition of great vessels C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. ASD 42 / 50 42. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Stenosis is severe C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 43 / 50 43. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Aortic stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Buerger's disease 44 / 50 44. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. VSD D. PS 45 / 50 45. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-systole B. Mid-diastole C. Late diastole D. Late systole 46 / 50 46. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Right-to-left shunt 47 / 50 47. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Coronary osteal stenosis C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 48 / 50 48. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. MR C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 49 / 50 49. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Shows reverse split C. Having wide split D. Remains single 50 / 50 50. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Aortic aneurysm C. Hyperdynamic circulatory states D. 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