Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Y-shaped 2 / 50 2. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. Increased LDH3 C. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 3 / 50 3. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Phaeochromocytoma 4 / 50 4. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulmonary oedema B. Ascites C. Raised JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 6 / 50 6. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Digitalis overdose B. Left atrial failure C. Tachycardia D. Mitral valve calcification 7 / 50 7. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. 'Silver-wire' arteries B. Retinal haemorrhage C. Papilloedema D. Arteriovenous nipping 8 / 50 8. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. MS C. VSD D. AR 9 / 50 9. The disease with male preponderance is: A. PDA B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. SLE D. Coarctation of aorta 10 / 50 10. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Transposition of great vessels C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 11 / 50 11. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Tricuspid atresia C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ebstein's anomaly 12 / 50 12. Sudden death may occur in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. AS C. ASD D. PDA 13 / 50 13. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Atrial fibrillation C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Right atrial myxoma 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Haptoglobulin B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Orosomucoid D. Ceruloplasmin 15 / 50 15. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left ventricle B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Right atrium 16 / 50 16. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. Wenckebach block C. Atrial flutter D. Multiple ectopics 17 / 50 17. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Commonly found in children C. Best heard over mitral area D. Usually diastolic in timing 18 / 50 18. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Supravalvular AS C. Infundibular PS D. Ebstein's anomaly 19 / 50 19. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Transposition of great vessels D. Left-to-right shunt 20 / 50 20. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Acute left ventricular failure B. Angina Pectoris C. Atrial fibrillation D. Supraventricular tachycardia 21 / 50 21. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Probucol B. Gemfibrozil C. Lovastatin D. Nicotinic acid 22 / 50 22. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Warning symptoms C. Gradual onset D. Residual neurodeficit 23 / 50 23. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hypothermia C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 24 / 50 24. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive myocardial infarction B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Atrial fibrillation 25 / 50 25. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Virus D. Autoimmune reaction 26 / 50 26. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Pin-point mitral valve D. Occurs below 18 years 27 / 50 27. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Starts in the dependent part B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Pitting oedema D. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients 29 / 50 29. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Undulating C. Better felt than seen D. Becomes prominent on lying down 30 / 50 30. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. SLE C. Old age D. Afibrinogenaemia 31 / 50 31. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. VSD C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. MS 32 / 50 32. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Acute rheumatic fever 33 / 50 33. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent B. Haemodynamically significant C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Moderate VSD 34 / 50 34. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Labetalol C. Telmisartan D. Methyldopa 35 / 50 35. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined MS and AS 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Erythema nodosum C. Chorea D. Polyarthritis 37 / 50 37. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis 38 / 50 38. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus alternans C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulsus bigeminus 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Morphine C. Trendelenburg position D. Rotating tourniquets 40 / 50 40. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Myocarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Ventricular fibrillation 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Myxoedema B. Hypothermia C. Obstructive jaundice D. Complete heart block 42 / 50 42. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Pulmonary atresia D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 43 / 50 43. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. Beta-blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Aspirin 44 / 50 44. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Chronic renal failure C. Acute pancreatitis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 45 / 50 45. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. The ejection click goes away from S1 C. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur D. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 46 / 50 46. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 47 / 50 47. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Thoracic deformity C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 48 / 50 48. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-AMI B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Myocarditis 49 / 50 49. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. VSD plus MS B. ASD plus AR C. ASD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 50 / 50 50. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Opening snap D. Pericardial knock LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology