Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. H. pylori C. Chlamydia D. HIV 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Splenomegaly C. Cubbing D. Osler's node 3 / 50 3. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised VLDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 4 / 50 4. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Mobitz type II block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Wenckebach block 5 / 50 5. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Splenomegaly 6 / 50 6. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Aortic stenosis C. Myocarditis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 7 / 50 7. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Acute mediastinitis B. Unstable angina C. Dissecting aneurysm D. Bornholm disease 8 / 50 8. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Myocarditis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Emphysema 9 / 50 9. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Transferrin B. Lipoprotein C. Homocysteine D. PAI-I 10 / 50 10. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Acute pancreatitis D. Gonorrhoea 11 / 50 11. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Severe pulmonary hypertension B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid atresia 12 / 50 12. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Candida albicans endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 13 / 50 13. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Pericardial effusion D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 14 / 50 14. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 15 / 50 15. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. PDA B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. Ostium primum ASD 16 / 50 16. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. LDH C. SGOT D. SGPT 17 / 50 17. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. 'f ' waves in neck vein C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. Pulse deficit is > 10 18 / 50 18. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Neurogenic C. Cardiogenic D. Septic 19 / 50 19. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. PDA B. Fallot's tetralogy C. MS D. Coarctation of aorta 20 / 50 20. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Pericardial knock B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 21 / 50 21. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 30mmHg B. 60mmHg C. 40mmHg D. 80mmHg 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Starts in the dependent part B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Pitting oedema 23 / 50 23. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. VSD B. MS C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. PS 24 / 50 24. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Autoimmune reaction C. Protozoa D. Bacteria 25 / 50 25. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus tachycardia C. Sinus bradycardia D. Low pulse pressure 26 / 50 26. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. MR C. AR D. AS 27 / 50 27. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Old age B. Afibrinogenaemia C. Vasculitis D. SLE 28 / 50 28. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. Restriction of fluid C. Diuretics D. IV fluid 29 / 50 29. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 30 / 50 30. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Labetalol C. Carvedilol D. Atenolol 31 / 50 31. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Accentuated C. Ringing in character D. Diminished 32 / 50 32. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle 33 / 50 33. All are true in severe PS except: A. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 B. The ejection click goes away from S1 C. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 34 / 50 34. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve 35 / 50 35. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 36 / 50 36. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Y-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Hepatitis B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Alveolitis D. Photosensitivity 38 / 50 38. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Aortic stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Buerger's disease 39 / 50 39. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Ostium primum ASD C. During inspiration D. WPW syndrome 40 / 50 40. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. MR 41 / 50 41. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic insufficiency C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral stenosis 42 / 50 42. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. Amiodarone C. ACE-inhibitors D. Surgical myotomy of the septum 43 / 50 43. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows narrow split C. Shows reverse split D. Remains single 44 / 50 44. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Mid-diastolic murmur B. Having loud S1 C. Found in severe AR D. Absence of thrill 45 / 50 45. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Water-hammer pulse C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Tapping apex 46 / 50 46. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Amiodarone B. Morphine C. Propranolol D. Phenylephrin 47 / 50 47. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Unfolding of aorta C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 48 / 50 48. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Tall T-waves C. Increased PR interval D. Diminished QT interval 49 / 50 49. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Palms C. Nailbed D. Fundus 50 / 50 50. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Hyperdynamic circulatory states C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Aortic aneurysm LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
