Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. MR B. AS with AR C. AR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 2 / 50 2. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Right ventricular dilatation 3 / 50 3. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Occurs below 18 years D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 4 / 50 4. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Carey Coombs murmur B. Left atrial myxoma C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Austin Flint murmur 5 / 50 5. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. Transposition of great vessels 6 / 50 6. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Pericardial knock C. Opening snap D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 7 / 50 7. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Present in late diastole C. Best heard in standing position D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 8 / 50 8. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Left atrial myxoma D. Acute bacterial endocarditis 9 / 50 9. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Flecainide C. Quinidine D. Verapamil 10 / 50 10. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep Q wave D. Prominent ST elevation 11 / 50 11. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Hypovolaemic shock D. Septic shock 12 / 50 12. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Mid-diastole C. Diastole D. Systole 13 / 50 13. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Should be ignored B. Related to diastolic BP C. As a result of venous distension D. Present in all hypertensives 14 / 50 14. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. Embolic phenomenon D. Hypertension 15 / 50 15. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. IV fluid B. Diuretics C. Calcium gluconate D. Restriction of fluid 16 / 50 16. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Chronic renal failure C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Acute pancreatitis 17 / 50 17. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 5 ml B. 15 ml C. 25 ml D. 50 ml 18 / 50 18. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased QT interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased PR interval 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Homocystinuria D. Hyperthyroidism 20 / 50 20. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Atrial flutter C. Hypokalaemia D. PSVT 21 / 50 21. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulsus alternans 22 / 50 22. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Cardiomyopathy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Thoracic deformity 23 / 50 23. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Osler B. Laennec C. Babinski D. Korotkoff 24 / 50 24. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Hypokalaemia 25 / 50 25. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of left atrial thrombus B. Restenosis cases C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Absence of valvular calcification 26 / 50 26. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. MS C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Pulmonary hypertension 27 / 50 27. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. PS C. VSD D. Chronic cor-pulmonale 28 / 50 28. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Dextrocardia B. Emphysema C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 29 / 50 29. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral regurgitation D. Mitral stenosis 30 / 50 30. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. On the left side of lower sternum C. After holding the breath D. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Obstructive jaundice C. Myxoedema D. Hypothermia 32 / 50 32. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. AR C. AS D. MR 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Haptoglobulin D. Orosomucoid 34 / 50 34. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Clotting time (CT) C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 35 / 50 35. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Hypothermia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Chronic cor pulmonale 36 / 50 36. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-AMI B. Myocarditis C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Rhabdomyolysis 37 / 50 37. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. LBBB B. Left ventricular pacing C. RBBB D. Aortic regurgitation 38 / 50 38. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Down's syndrome C. Holt-Oram syndrome D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 39 / 50 39. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised VLDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Reduced HDL 40 / 50 40. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Presystolic C. Early diastolic D. Mid-diastolic 41 / 50 41. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Transposition of great vessels 42 / 50 42. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Cat-like cry D. VSD 43 / 50 43. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Cardiac tamponade D. Haemothorax 44 / 50 44. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. VSD plus MS B. ASD plus AR C. ASD plus MR D. ASD plus MS 45 / 50 45. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amiodarone B. Amlodipine C. Lisinopril D. Amrinone 46 / 50 46. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Pneumococcus C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Staphylococcus aureus 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Pregnancy D. Arteriosclerosis 48 / 50 48. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. High ESR C. Splenomegaly D. Pyrexia 49 / 50 49. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. MS C. AR D. MR 50 / 50 50. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. Bacterial endocarditis C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. H/O intraocular bleeding LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology