Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Probucol B. Lovastatin C. Nicotinic acid D. Gemfibrozil 2 / 50 2. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. More common in females C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. Early systolic click 3 / 50 3. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. AR with CCF C. AR with tight PS D. Acutely developing AR 4 / 50 4. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Transposition of great vessels D. Ebstein's anomaly 5 / 50 5. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Venous hum B. S2 C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 6 / 50 6. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Polycythemia C. Pregnancy D. Congestive cardiac failure 7 / 50 7. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve 8 / 50 8. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Pulmonary atresia D. Severe coarctation of aorta 9 / 50 9. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Leriche's syndrome C. Peripheral embolism D. Buerger's disease 10 / 50 10. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. H/O intraocular bleeding D. Pregnancy 11 / 50 11. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine D. Prazosin 12 / 50 12. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Aortic regurgitation C. Right-sided aortic arch D. Persistent right-sided SVC 13 / 50 13. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Trauma B. Sarcoidosis C. Cervical rib D. Tophaceous gout 14 / 50 14. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Left ventricular failure C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 15 / 50 15. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Mitral incompetence C. Aortic stenosis D. Pulmonary stenosis 16 / 50 16. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Streptococcus faecalis 17 / 50 17. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 85 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight 18 / 50 18. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. Coarctation of aorta 19 / 50 19. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve 20 / 50 20. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Diphtheria B. Ascariasis C. Toxoplasma infection D. HIV infection 21 / 50 21. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Tachycardia C. Mitral valve calcification D. Digitalis overdose 22 / 50 22. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Acrocyanosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 23 / 50 23. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. AV nodal rhythm B. WPW syndrome C. Low atrial rhythm D. First degree heart block 24 / 50 24. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. LDH C. SGOT D. CPK 25 / 50 25. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Diabetes mellitus C. Shock D. Hypertension 26 / 50 26. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Fine crepitations at lung bases C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Gallop rhythm 27 / 50 27. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Right atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Mitral valve prolapse 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein B. Regular pulse rate C. Low volume pulse D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 29 / 50 29. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Hyperuricemia D. Microvascular angina 30 / 50 30. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 400 Joules D. 100 Joules 31 / 50 31. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Systemic hypertension C. Disturbances in vision D. Diminished pulses in upper extremity 32 / 50 32. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. 2nd degree heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Extrasystoles 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulmonary oedema C. Ascites D. Pulsus paradoxus 34 / 50 34. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 40mmHg C. 30mmHg D. 60mmHg 35 / 50 35. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Pin-point mitral valve 36 / 50 36. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Methyldopa B. Amlodipine C. Telmisartan D. Labetalol 37 / 50 37. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Orthopnoea B. Pulsatile liver C. Raised JVP D. Hypotension 38 / 50 38. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Factor-X assay C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Clotting time (CT) 39 / 50 39. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. PDA B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. Pulmonary stenosis 40 / 50 40. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined MS and AS C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined MS and MR 41 / 50 41. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. ASD C. Associated LVH D. AS 42 / 50 42. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Takayasu's disease D. Systemic hypertension 43 / 50 43. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulsus paradoxus 44 / 50 44. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MS D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 45 / 50 45. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Hypovolaemic 46 / 50 46. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Conn's syndrome B. Polycystic kidney disease C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Addison's disease 47 / 50 47. Sudden death may occur in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. PDA C. AS D. ASD 48 / 50 48. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-systole C. Late systole D. Mid-diastole 49 / 50 49. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Standing D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 50 / 50 50. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Aortic stenosis C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology