Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 2 / 50 2. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. AV nodal rhythm C. WPW syndrome D. First degree heart block 3 / 50 3. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Acute severe asthma B. Cardiac tamponade C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 4 / 50 4. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. AS C. PDA D. Associated LVH 5 / 50 5. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 6 / 50 6. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. AR C. MS D. Pulmonary hypertension 7 / 50 7. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Eccentric dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 8 / 50 8. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Haemothorax C. Cardiac tamponade D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 9 / 50 9. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Systemic hypertension D. Syphilitic aortitis 10 / 50 10. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 11 / 50 11. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Systemic hypertension D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 12 / 50 12. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Standing C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Valsalva manoeuvre 13 / 50 13. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Standing C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Valsalva maneuver 14 / 50 14. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 15 / 50 15. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Pyrexia B. Clubbing C. Splenomegaly D. High ESR 16 / 50 16. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with tight PS B. AR with systemic hypertension C. Acutely developing AR D. AR with CCF 17 / 50 17. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Wenckebach block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block 18 / 50 18. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Quinidine therapy B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hypothermia D. Vagal stimulation 19 / 50 19. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Osler B. Babinski C. Korotkoff D. Laennec 20 / 50 20. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine D. Enalapril 21 / 50 21. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Multiple ectopics C. Atrial flutter D. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia 22 / 50 22. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Aortopulmonary window D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 23 / 50 23. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Hypotension C. Orthopnoea D. Raised JVP 24 / 50 24. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Trendelenburg position C. Morphine D. Rotating tourniquets 25 / 50 25. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Complete heart block B. Nodal rhythm C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation 26 / 50 26. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus alternans C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Pulsus paradoxus 27 / 50 27. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Adenosine C. Amiodarone D. Verapamil 28 / 50 28. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Digitalis overdose C. Tachycardia D. Left atrial failure 29 / 50 29. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Left-to-right shunt C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular failure 30 / 50 30. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. Inverted T wave in ECG C. Increased LDH3 D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 31 / 50 31. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Having loud S1 D. Found in severe AR 32 / 50 32. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable S4 C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S3 33 / 50 33. The murmur of MS is: A. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation B. High-pitched C. With radiation towards left axilla D. Early diastolic 34 / 50 34. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Low pulse pressure 35 / 50 35. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right atrium B. Left ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right ventricle 36 / 50 36. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypokalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 37 / 50 37. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 38 / 50 38. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 39 / 50 39. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AR B. MR C. AS with AR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 40 / 50 40. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Left ventricular failure C. Superior mediastinal syndrome D. Cirrhosis of liver 41 / 50 41. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. VSD C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Ceruloplasmin C. Haptoglobulin D. Alpha-fetoprotein 43 / 50 43. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Graham Steel murmur 44 / 50 44. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class IV C. Class I D. Class III 45 / 50 45. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 46 / 50 46. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Gallop rhythm B. Fine crepitations at lung bases C. Dependent oedema D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 47 / 50 47. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Shock C. Hypertension D. Arrhythmias 48 / 50 48. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. Early systolic click D. More common in females 49 / 50 49. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 50 / 50 50. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Unstable angina C. Coarctation of aorta D. 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