Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Arthralgia C. Prolonged PR interval D. Elevated ASO titre 2 / 50 2. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Sodium D. Potassium 3 / 50 3. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Hyperkalaemia C. During inspiration D. WPW syndrome 4 / 50 4. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. VSD 5 / 50 5. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Holt-Oram syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 6 / 50 6. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Verapamil C. Disopyramide D. Quinidine 7 / 50 7. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Graham Steel murmur C. Presence of S3 D. Late and loud opening snap 8 / 50 8. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised small dense LDL B. Reduced HDL C. Raised VLDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 9 / 50 9. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable opening snap 10 / 50 10. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Sick sinus syndrome 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Pregnancy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Marfan's syndrome 12 / 50 12. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Pure mitral stenosis 13 / 50 13. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 14 / 50 14. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. VSD B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. Cat-like cry 15 / 50 15. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Hyperdynamic circulatory states B. Coarctation of aorta C. Aortic aneurysm D. Budd-Chiari syndrome 16 / 50 16. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 17 / 50 17. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Intermittent claudication C. Diminished pulses in upper extremity D. Disturbances in vision 18 / 50 18. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. MS C. AR D. Acute rheumatic fever 19 / 50 19. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 100 Joules B. 200 Joules C. 400 Joules D. 50 Joules 20 / 50 20. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Supravalvular AS C. Infundibular PS D. Ebstein's anomaly 21 / 50 21. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. ECG was taken in deep inspiration C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. Dextrocardia 22 / 50 22. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. VSD C. PDA D. Dextrocardia 23 / 50 23. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. VSD C. AS D. Coarctation of aorta 24 / 50 24. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Left ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Right ventricular failure 25 / 50 25. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Unstable angina C. Aortic stenosis D. Buerger's disease 26 / 50 26. The least common complication of MS is: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Pulmonary hypertension 27 / 50 27. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Accentuated B. Ringing in character C. Normal in character D. Diminished 28 / 50 28. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Left ventricular failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Superior mediastinal syndrome D. Congestive cardiac failure 29 / 50 29. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Afibrinogenaemia B. SLE C. Old age D. Vasculitis 30 / 50 30. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. Diphtheria C. Toxoplasma infection D. HIV infection 31 / 50 31. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 D. Central cyanosis 32 / 50 32. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Mitral incompetence 33 / 50 33. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 34 / 50 34. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Right ventricular pacing C. ASD D. Left ventricular failure 35 / 50 35. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. VSD C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. MS 36 / 50 36. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. AS C. PDA D. Associated LVH 37 / 50 37. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. VSD C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 38 / 50 38. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Right atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Mitral valve prolapse 39 / 50 39. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Height of R wave maximum in V6 B. Prominent ST elevation C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Deep Q wave 40 / 50 40. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Chloramphenicol C. Methotrexate D. Doxorubicin 41 / 50 41. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 42 / 50 42. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 43 / 50 43. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Pulsus alternans 44 / 50 44. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent y-descent C. Prominent x-descent D. Prominent a-wave 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Osteoarthritis 46 / 50 46. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Dorsalis pedis D. Radial 47 / 50 47. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 48 / 50 48. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. Early diastolic D. With radiation towards left axilla 49 / 50 49. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. ASD 50 / 50 50. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Pyrexia C. Hypertension D. Clubbing LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology