Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. Atrial fibrillation C. Sinus arrhythmia D. 2nd degree heart block 2 / 50 2. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Endotoxic shock C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral stenosis 3 / 50 3. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Aortic regurgitation C. Right-sided aortic arch D. Persistent right-sided SVC 4 / 50 4. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Prazosin C. Amiloride D. Hydralazine 5 / 50 5. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Myotonic dystrophy 6 / 50 6. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Radial C. Femoral D. Dorsalis pedis 7 / 50 7. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Methyldopa D. Diazoxide 8 / 50 8. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Leg raising C. Standing D. Valsalva manoeuvre 9 / 50 9. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Floppy mitral valve D. Acute myocardial infarction 10 / 50 10. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Right ventricular failure B. Left-to-right shunt C. Left ventricular failure D. Pulmonary stenosis 11 / 50 11. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. ASD B. Coarctation of aorta C. VSD D. PDA 12 / 50 12. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 40mmHg C. 30mmHg D. 60mmHg 13 / 50 13. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Septic C. Hypovolaemic D. Cardiogenic 14 / 50 14. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Angina Pectoris D. Systemic hypertension 15 / 50 15. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Wenckebach heart block C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Ventricular tachycardia 16 / 50 16. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. PDA C. Primary pulmonary hypertension D. Coarctation of aorta 17 / 50 17. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. ASD C. Associated LVH D. PDA 18 / 50 18. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Mobitz type II block C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Wenckebach block 19 / 50 19. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Intermittent claudication D. Systemic hypertension 20 / 50 20. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. VSD B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. ASD D. Fallot's tetralogy 21 / 50 21. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-systole C. Diastole D. Mid-diastole 22 / 50 22. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent x-descent B. Prominent y-descent C. Prominent a-wave D. Small v-wave 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Morphine C. Rotating tourniquets D. Trendelenburg position 24 / 50 24. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Increased LDH3 B. Inverted T wave in ECG C. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 25 / 50 25. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic murmur in complete heart block B. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation C. Systolic innocent murmur D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 26 / 50 26. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Multiple ectopics C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial flutter 27 / 50 27. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. VSD C. MS D. AR 28 / 50 28. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Late and loud opening snap B. Graham Steel murmur C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Presence of S3 29 / 50 29. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Undulating C. Better felt than seen D. Becomes prominent on lying down 30 / 50 30. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Left-sided heart failure 31 / 50 31. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Transposition of great vessels D. Coarctation of aorta 32 / 50 32. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Aortopulmonary window D. Ventricular septal defect 33 / 50 33. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Coarctation of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 34 / 50 34. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection D. Pulmonary atresia 35 / 50 35. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Early diastolic D. Presystolic 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients C. Starts in the dependent part D. Pitting oedema 37 / 50 37. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Night-time single dosage 38 / 50 38. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Arteritis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Takayasu's disease 39 / 50 39. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Deep Q wave 40 / 50 40. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Branham's sign C. Tinel's sign D. Hoover's sign 41 / 50 41. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Ashen-grey pallor D. Raised JVP 42 / 50 42. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Atrial fibrillation 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Ascites 44 / 50 44. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 45 / 50 45. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypothermia D. Sick sinus syndrome 46 / 50 46. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Venous hum B. Ejection click C. Opening snap D. S2 47 / 50 47. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 22 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 8 inch long 48 / 50 48. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Aortic stenosis 49 / 50 49. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. H/O intraocular bleeding D. Pregnancy 50 / 50 50. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. 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