Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. HIV infection C. Diphtheria D. Toxoplasma infection 2 / 50 2. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Superior mediastinal syndrome B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Left ventricular failure 3 / 50 3. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Cervical rib C. Trauma D. Sarcoidosis 4 / 50 4. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Pregnancy C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. H/O intraocular bleeding 5 / 50 5. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Diastolic shock C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) 6 / 50 6. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Cat-like cry D. VSD 7 / 50 7. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. ASD C. VSD D. Transposition of great vessels 8 / 50 8. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Angina Pectoris C. Acute left ventricular failure D. Atrial fibrillation 9 / 50 9. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral regurgitation D. Mitral stenosis 10 / 50 10. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arteritis D. Systemic hypertension 11 / 50 11. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. First degree heart block B. Low atrial rhythm C. AV nodal rhythm D. WPW syndrome 12 / 50 12. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MR B. AS C. AR D. MS 13 / 50 13. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction B. Acute mitral regurgitation C. Cardiac tamponade D. Right ventricular infarction 14 / 50 14. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Arteriovenous nipping C. Papilloedema D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 15 / 50 15. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. MS C. MR D. AS 16 / 50 16. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Renal artery stenosis B. Eclampsia C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Coarctation of aorta 17 / 50 17. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. AS C. Associated LVH D. ASD 18 / 50 18. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. After holding the breath C. On the left side of lower sternum D. In lying down position 19 / 50 19. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Berry aneurysm 20 / 50 20. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Aortic regurgitation C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. Right-sided aortic arch 21 / 50 21. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Absence of thrill D. Found in severe AR 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 23 / 50 23. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 24 / 50 24. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Septic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 25 / 50 25. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Acrocyanosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Deep vein thrombosis 26 / 50 26. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Shortened PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Diminished QT interval 27 / 50 27. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Collagen vascular disease C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Right ventricular dilatation 28 / 50 28. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 85 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 70 ml/kg of body weight 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Osler's node B. Cubbing C. Splenomegaly D. Murmur 30 / 50 30. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Complete heart block D. Atrial fibrillation 31 / 50 31. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Mitral valve calcification C. Tachycardia D. Digitalis overdose 32 / 50 32. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Chloramphenicol C. Allopurinol D. Doxorubicin 33 / 50 33. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Pulmonary congestion C. Kussmaul's sign D. Increased JVP 34 / 50 34. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. AS B. VSD C. Coarctation of aorta D. PS 35 / 50 35. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Pulmonary oedema 36 / 50 36. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Unstable angina C. Aortic stenosis D. Buerger's disease 37 / 50 37. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MR B. ASD plus AR C. ASD plus MS D. VSD plus MS 38 / 50 38. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Sickle cell anemia C. Polycythemia D. Pregnancy 39 / 50 39. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 40 / 50 40. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Probucol C. Lovastatin D. Nicotinic acid 41 / 50 41. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 42 / 50 42. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Shock 43 / 50 43. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Cytomegalovirus C. HIV D. Chlamydia 44 / 50 44. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. Propranolol C. ACE-inhibitors D. Surgical myotomy of the septum 45 / 50 45. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Fundus C. Nailbed D. Palate 46 / 50 46. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Cardiomyopathy C. Severe anemia D. Ischemic heart disease 47 / 50 47. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypothermia D. Vagal stimulation 48 / 50 48. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pericardial effusion 49 / 50 49. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. MS D. Coarctation of aorta 50 / 50 50. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology