Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Cervical rib B. Sarcoidosis C. Tophaceous gout D. Trauma 2 / 50 2. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. During inspiration C. WPW syndrome D. Ostium primum ASD 3 / 50 3. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 4 / 50 4. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Femoral D. Dorsalis pedis 5 / 50 5. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Amiodarone C. Amlodipine D. Lisinopril 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Elevated ASO titre C. Increased ESR D. Prolonged PR interval 7 / 50 7. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolaemic D. Septic 8 / 50 8. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. IV fluid D. Diuretics 9 / 50 9. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased PR interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased QT interval 10 / 50 10. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Chlamydia B. Cytomegalovirus C. HIV D. H. pylori 11 / 50 11. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Hypertension B. Clubbing C. Embolic phenomenon D. Pyrexia 12 / 50 12. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Doxorubicin B. Methotrexate C. Allopurinol D. Chloramphenicol 13 / 50 13. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Homocysteine C. Transferrin D. Lipoprotein 14 / 50 14. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Shock C. Hypertension D. Arrhythmias 15 / 50 15. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Tricuspid atresia C. Transposition of great vessels D. Ebstein's anomaly 16 / 50 16. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Fingerization of thumb C. Asplenia D. Absent clavicle 17 / 50 17. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Wenckebach heart block 18 / 50 18. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Ringing in character C. Normal in character D. Accentuated 19 / 50 19. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Tapping apex C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Cardiomegaly 20 / 50 20. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Right atrial myxoma C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Atrial fibrillation 21 / 50 21. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 60mmHg B. 30mmHg C. 40mmHg D. 80mmHg 22 / 50 22. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Cushing's syndrome 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Osteoarthritis 24 / 50 24. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. PSVT C. Atrial flutter D. Hypokalaemia 25 / 50 25. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Quinidine therapy B. Hypothermia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Vagal stimulation 26 / 50 26. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. VSD D. Cat-like cry 27 / 50 27. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Pregnancy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Athletes 28 / 50 28. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Aortopulmonary window D. Ventricular septal defect 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Rotating tourniquets C. Morphine D. Trendelenburg position 30 / 50 30. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AR C. AS D. MS 31 / 50 31. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Early diastolic C. Systolic D. Presystolic 32 / 50 32. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right ventricle B. Left ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium 33 / 50 33. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine D. Prazosin 34 / 50 34. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Digoxin B. Propranolol C. Spironolactone D. Bucindolol 35 / 50 35. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Y-shaped 36 / 50 36. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Trisomy 18 37 / 50 37. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Ejection click C. Opening snap D. Venous hum 38 / 50 38. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Mitral stenosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Myxoedema 39 / 50 39. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Absence of valvular calcification 40 / 50 40. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Hyperdynamic circulatory states D. Aortic aneurysm 41 / 50 41. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 42 / 50 42. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Cardiomyopathy C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Emphysema 43 / 50 43. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Adenosine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone 44 / 50 44. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Leg raising C. Standing D. Valsalva manoeuvre 45 / 50 45. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Systemic hypertension D. Angina Pectoris 46 / 50 46. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Coarctation of aorta C. ASD D. Tetralogy of Fallot 47 / 50 47. All are true in severe PS except: A. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur B. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased C. The ejection click goes away from S1 D. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 48 / 50 48. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Night-time single dosage C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Eccentric dosage schedule 49 / 50 49. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Disturbances in vision D. Systemic hypertension 50 / 50 50. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Fine crepitations at lung bases D. 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