Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Osler's node B. Murmur C. Cubbing D. Splenomegaly 2 / 50 2. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg B. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage C. MS is a recognised cause D. Found in basal region 3 / 50 3. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Diminished C. Ringing in character D. Accentuated 4 / 50 4. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Embolism C. Rupture D. Congestive cardiac failure 5 / 50 5. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. 2nd degree heart block B. Atrial fibrillation C. Extrasystoles D. Sinus arrhythmia 6 / 50 6. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class III C. Class II D. Class IV 7 / 50 7. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Stenosis is severe D. Occurs immediately after S1 8 / 50 8. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Hoover's sign C. Branham's sign D. Tinel's sign 9 / 50 9. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Best heard over mitral area D. Commonly found in children 10 / 50 10. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Acrocyanosis D. Livedo reticularis 11 / 50 11. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 22 inch long 12 / 50 12. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Myocarditis C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 13 / 50 13. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Athletes 14 / 50 14. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased QT interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Increased PR interval 15 / 50 15. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Wenckebach heart block C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Ventricular tachycardia 16 / 50 16. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Afibrinogenaemia B. SLE C. Old age D. Vasculitis 17 / 50 17. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. PDA C. VSD D. MS 18 / 50 18. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium 19 / 50 19. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. MR C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 20 / 50 20. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Carvedilol C. Labetalol D. Atenolol 21 / 50 21. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. Multiple ectopics C. Atrial flutter D. Wenckebach block 22 / 50 22. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Systolic C. Presystolic D. Mid-diastolic 23 / 50 23. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Absence of valvular calcification 24 / 50 24. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. MR C. AS D. MS 25 / 50 25. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Rheumatic arthritis B. Felty's syndrome C. SLE D. Viral arthritis 26 / 50 26. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Squatting C. Standing D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 27 / 50 27. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Aortopulmonary window D. Ventricular septal defect 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Elevated ASO titre C. Increased ESR D. Arthralgia 29 / 50 29. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. ASD C. PDA D. Coarctation of aorta 30 / 50 30. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Left-to-right shunt D. Acute pulmonary oedema 31 / 50 31. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. ECG was taken in deep inspiration B. Dextrocardia C. Emphysema D. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode 32 / 50 32. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Chlamydia B. Cytomegalovirus C. H. pylori D. HIV 33 / 50 33. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. Right-sided aortic arch C. PDA D. Persistent right-sided SVC 34 / 50 34. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Neurogenic C. Septic D. Cardiogenic 35 / 50 35. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. More common in females C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. Early systolic click 36 / 50 36. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. AR with tight PS 37 / 50 37. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Isolated levocardia C. Addison's disease D. Sheehan's syndrome 38 / 50 38. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur C. Diastolic shock D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Myxoedema C. Complete heart block D. Hypothermia 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Homocystinuria D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 41 / 50 41. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Pulmonary stenosis 42 / 50 42. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Kussmaul's sign D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 43 / 50 43. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. On the left side of lower sternum C. In lying down position D. After holding the breath 44 / 50 44. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Chronic renal failure C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Acute pancreatitis 45 / 50 45. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Calcified aortic valve C. Unfolding of aorta D. Aortitis 46 / 50 46. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 47 / 50 47. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Disturbances in vision D. Systemic hypertension 48 / 50 48. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Digitalis overdose C. Tachycardia D. Left atrial failure 49 / 50 49. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Atrioventricular septal defect 50 / 50 50. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. WPW syndrome D. Digitalis toxicity LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
