Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Methyldopa D. Diazoxide 2 / 50 2. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation C. Pulmonary stenosis D. PDA 3 / 50 3. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S4 D. Muscle tremor 4 / 50 4. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 5 / 50 5. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Late and loud opening snap B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Presence of S3 D. Graham Steel murmur 6 / 50 6. The murmur of MS is: A. Early diastolic B. With radiation towards left axilla C. High-pitched D. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Chorea D. Polyarthritis 8 / 50 8. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 9 / 50 9. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Morphine B. Phenylephrin C. Propranolol D. Amiodarone 10 / 50 10. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Methotrexate C. Doxorubicin D. Chloramphenicol 11 / 50 11. All are true in severe PS except: A. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 B. The ejection click goes away from S1 C. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased D. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur 12 / 50 12. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 13 / 50 13. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Cauda equina B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Popliteal artery 14 / 50 14. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Better felt than seen C. Becomes prominent on lying down D. Undulating 15 / 50 15. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Pulmonary hypertension C. MS D. AR 16 / 50 16. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 1-12th rib 17 / 50 17. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Transposition of great vessels D. Coarctation of aorta 18 / 50 18. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Unfolding of aorta C. Coarctation of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 19 / 50 19. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 20 / 50 20. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus bradycardia C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus tachycardia 21 / 50 21. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Nailbed B. Fundus C. Palate D. Palms 22 / 50 22. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Pulmonary oedema 23 / 50 23. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Ringing in character B. Diminished C. Accentuated D. Normal in character 24 / 50 24. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Shock 25 / 50 25. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 B. Mongoloid slant of eyes C. Cat-like cry D. VSD 26 / 50 26. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class IV B. Class III C. Class II D. Class I 27 / 50 27. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MS D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 28 / 50 28. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. Anywhere in the precordium D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 29 / 50 29. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular failure 30 / 50 30. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Hydralazine B. Amiloride C. Methyldopa D. Prazosin 31 / 50 31. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Mitral incompetence 32 / 50 32. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. As a result of venous distension B. Present in all hypertensives C. Related to diastolic BP D. Should be ignored 33 / 50 33. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Marfan's syndrome C. Pregnancy D. Systemic hypertension 34 / 50 34. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Left atrial myxoma C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Fallot's tetralogy 35 / 50 35. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Pericardial knock B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 36 / 50 36. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Pregnancy C. Right ventricular infarction D. Myocarditis 37 / 50 37. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Addison's disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Polycystic kidney disease 38 / 50 38. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Pyrexia C. Clubbing D. Splenomegaly 39 / 50 39. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MS B. ASD plus MR C. ASD plus AR D. VSD plus MS 40 / 50 40. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Found in severe AR B. Absence of thrill C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. Having loud S1 41 / 50 41. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Histamine C. Endothelin D. Nitric oxide 43 / 50 43. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Embolic phenomenon C. Pyrexia D. Hypertension 44 / 50 44. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Rapid recovery C. Gradual onset D. Residual neurodeficit 45 / 50 45. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. Bacterial endocarditis C. H/O intraocular bleeding D. Severe menstrual bleeding 46 / 50 46. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Quinidine therapy B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hypothermia D. Vagal stimulation 47 / 50 47. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and MR B. Combined MS and AS C. Combined AR and MR D. Combined AS and AR 48 / 50 48. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Athletes D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 49 / 50 49. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Embolism C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Rupture 50 / 50 50. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Hypokalaemia C. Atrial fibrillation D. Atrial flutter LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
