Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. WPW syndrome B. Digitalis toxicity C. Rheumatic carditis D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 2 / 50 2. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Hypokalaemia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Left bundle branch block 3 / 50 3. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Haemothorax C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Cardiac tamponade 4 / 50 4. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class IV C. Class II D. Class I 5 / 50 5. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Korotkoff B. Osler C. Laennec D. Babinski 6 / 50 6. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pericardial effusion 7 / 50 7. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial fibrillation C. Atrial flutter D. Hypokalaemia 8 / 50 8. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Probucol C. Gemfibrozil D. Lovastatin 9 / 50 9. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 5 ml C. 50 ml D. 25 ml 10 / 50 10. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome C. Austin Flint murmur D. Carey Coombs murmur 11 / 50 11. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Infundibular PS D. Lutembacher syndrome 12 / 50 12. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Right ventricular dilatation B. Collagen vascular disease C. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers D. Rheumatic heart disease 13 / 50 13. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Mitral stenosis C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 14 / 50 14. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Coronary osteal stenosis C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta 15 / 50 15. The least common complication of MS is: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 16 / 50 16. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 17 / 50 17. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Cauda equina 18 / 50 18. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Accentuated C. Ringing in character D. Diminished 19 / 50 19. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. Aortic regurgitation D. PDA 20 / 50 20. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Quinidine B. Flecainide C. Verapamil D. Disopyramide 21 / 50 21. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Right ventricular failure B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Left-to-right shunt D. Left ventricular failure 22 / 50 22. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. ASD C. VSD D. MR 23 / 50 23. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Bush tea B. Tapioca C. Aflatoxin D. Coffee 24 / 50 24. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Labetalol C. Methyldopa D. Telmisartan 25 / 50 25. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Should be ignored C. Related to diastolic BP D. As a result of venous distension 26 / 50 26. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 27 / 50 27. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hypokalaemia D. Hyponatraemia 28 / 50 28. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Candida albicans endocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis 29 / 50 29. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Twice daily dosage schedule C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 30 / 50 30. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Increased JVP B. Kussmaul's sign C. Hypotension D. Pulmonary congestion 31 / 50 31. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Moderate VSD B. A small fraction closes by the year 10 C. Haemodynamically significant D. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent 32 / 50 32. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Streptoroccus viridans C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus faecalis 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Arteriosclerosis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 34 / 50 34. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Right-to-left shunt 35 / 50 35. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard in standing position C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein C. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure D. Low volume pulse 37 / 50 37. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Coarctation of aorta C. Unfolding of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 38 / 50 38. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. ECG was taken in deep inspiration B. Dextrocardia C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. Emphysema 39 / 50 39. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Angina Pectoris D. Systemic hypertension 40 / 50 40. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. VSD plus MS B. ASD plus MR C. ASD plus AR D. ASD plus MS 41 / 50 41. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. Y-shaped C. V-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 42 / 50 42. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Addison's disease C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Isolated levocardia 43 / 50 43. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Ebstein's anomaly D. VSD 44 / 50 44. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus tachycardia C. Sinus bradycardia D. Low pulse pressure 45 / 50 45. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 46 / 50 46. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Tachycardia C. Digitalis overdose D. Left atrial failure 47 / 50 47. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Takayasu's disease C. Systemic hypertension D. Arteritis 48 / 50 48. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Acute severe asthma B. Cardiac tamponade C. Dilated cardiomyopathy D. Constrictive pericarditis 49 / 50 49. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Restenosis cases C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Absence of left atrial thrombus 50 / 50 50. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Aortic stenosis C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Myocarditis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology