Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Peripheral cyanosis D. Raised JVP 2 / 50 2. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography D. Pulsus paradoxus 3 / 50 3. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 400 Joules 4 / 50 4. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Dextrocardia C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 5 / 50 5. All are true in severe PS except: A. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur B. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. The ejection click goes away from S1 6 / 50 6. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta C. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels D. Aneurysm of subclavian artery 7 / 50 7. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Ischemic heart disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Severe anemia 8 / 50 8. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 9 / 50 9. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. ASD C. PDA D. Associated LVH 10 / 50 10. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Patent ductus arteriosus 11 / 50 11. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. Coarctation of aorta C. ASD D. VSD 12 / 50 12. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Branham's sign C. Hoover's sign D. Tinel's sign 13 / 50 13. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Verapamil C. Adenosine D. Amiodarone 14 / 50 14. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Hypothermia B. Digitalis toxicity C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Chronic cor pulmonale 15 / 50 15. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-systole C. Late systole D. Mid-diastole 16 / 50 16. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. AR C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Pulmonary hypertension 17 / 50 17. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Systemic hypertension C. Disturbances in vision D. Diminished pulses in upper extremity 18 / 50 18. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Low pulse pressure B. Sinus bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Sinus tachycardia 19 / 50 19. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-diastole C. Mid-systole D. Diastole 20 / 50 20. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Infundibular PS C. Supravalvular AS D. Lutembacher syndrome 21 / 50 21. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Sarcoidosis C. Trauma D. Cervical rib 22 / 50 22. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. As a result of venous distension B. Present in all hypertensives C. Related to diastolic BP D. Should be ignored 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Myxoedema B. Obstructive jaundice C. Complete heart block D. Hypothermia 24 / 50 24. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Wenckebach heart block 25 / 50 25. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Rheumatic valve 26 / 50 26. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 22 inch long 27 / 50 27. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. VSD C. PDA D. MR 28 / 50 28. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Massive myocardial infarction C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 29 / 50 29. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of left atrial thrombus B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Restenosis cases D. Pure mitral stenosis 30 / 50 30. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Wenckebach block B. Ventricular bigeminy C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Mobitz type II block 31 / 50 31. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Residual neurodeficit C. Warning symptoms D. Rapid recovery 32 / 50 32. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. VSD plus MS B. ASD plus AR C. ASD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 33 / 50 33. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. VSD C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. MS 34 / 50 34. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MR C. MS D. AS 35 / 50 35. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Transposition of great vessels C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 36 / 50 36. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptoroccus viridans B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Pneumococcus D. Staphylococcus aureus 37 / 50 37. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 6-9th rib D. 1-12th rib 38 / 50 38. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Pericardial effusion C. Wenckebach block D. Digitalis toxicity 39 / 50 39. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. Bacterial endocarditis D. Pregnancy 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Orosomucoid C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Haptoglobulin 41 / 50 41. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised small dense LDL C. Raised VLDL D. Reduced HDL 42 / 50 42. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Acute mediastinitis B. Bornholm disease C. Dissecting aneurysm D. Unstable angina 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Increased ESR C. Prolonged PR interval D. Elevated ASO titre 44 / 50 44. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Atrial fibrillation 45 / 50 45. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Unfolding of aorta C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 46 / 50 46. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus alternans C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulsus bigeminus 47 / 50 47. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. HIV B. H. pylori C. Chlamydia D. Cytomegalovirus 48 / 50 48. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with tight PS D. AR with CCF 49 / 50 49. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Marantic endocarditis 50 / 50 50. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic insufficiency LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology