CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 2 / 50 2. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. ACE-inhibitors C. Amiodarone D. Surgical myotomy of the septum 3 / 50 3. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Aortopulmonary window C. Ventricular septal defect D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 4 / 50 4. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Floppy mitral valve D. Acute rheumatic fever 5 / 50 5. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Beta-blockers B. Aspirin C. Diuretics D. ACE inhibitors 6 / 50 6. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MR B. AS C. AR D. MS 7 / 50 7. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ventricular septal defect 8 / 50 8. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. AV nodal rhythm B. Low atrial rhythm C. WPW syndrome D. First degree heart block 9 / 50 9. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Polycystic kidney disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Phaeochromocytoma 10 / 50 10. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left bundle branch block D. Hypokalaemia 11 / 50 11. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Cafe au lait pallor C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Splenomegaly 12 / 50 12. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperparathyroidism 13 / 50 13. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MR D. MS 14 / 50 14. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ostium primum ASD C. VSD D. PDA 15 / 50 15. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. Left ventricular pacing C. Aortic regurgitation D. LBBB 16 / 50 16. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Haemothorax 17 / 50 17. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. MS is a recognised cause C. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 18 / 50 18. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Aortic stenosis 19 / 50 19. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Rheumatic valve C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Mural thrombus 20 / 50 20. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Water-hammer pulse D. Pulsus bigeminus 21 / 50 21. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Absence of thrill D. Found in severe AR 22 / 50 22. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Pericardial effusion D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 23 / 50 23. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Diuretics B. Restriction of fluid C. Calcium gluconate D. IV fluid 24 / 50 24. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV amiodarone C. IV Lignocaine D. Electrical cardioversion 25 / 50 25. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Nailbed B. Fundus C. Palate D. Palms 26 / 50 26. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Phenylephrin B. Propranolol C. Amiodarone D. Morphine 27 / 50 27. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Graham Steel murmur C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Late and loud opening snap 28 / 50 28. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Digitalis overdose C. Tachycardia D. Left atrial failure 29 / 50 29. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Massive myocardial infarction C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Atrial fibrillation 30 / 50 30. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Athletes 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Polyarthritis C. Chorea D. Erythema nodosum 32 / 50 32. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Shock C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypertension 33 / 50 33. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amiodarone B. Lisinopril C. Amrinone D. Amlodipine 34 / 50 34. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Systolic innocent murmur D. Systolic murmur in complete heart block 35 / 50 35. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Aortitis C. Calcified aortic valve D. Unfolding of aorta 36 / 50 36. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex B. In standing position C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Anywhere in the precordium 37 / 50 37. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Osler B. Korotkoff C. Babinski D. Laennec 38 / 50 38. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic insufficiency C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral stenosis 39 / 50 39. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. SGPT C. LDH D. CPK 40 / 50 40. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased PR interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased QT interval 41 / 50 41. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Systemic hypertension B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Pregnancy D. Marfan's syndrome 42 / 50 42. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Orthopnoea B. Raised JVP C. Pulsatile liver D. Hypotension 43 / 50 43. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Acrocyanosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 44 / 50 44. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Present in late diastole C. Best heard in standing position D. Low-pitched 45 / 50 45. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Endotoxic shock C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Mitral stenosis 46 / 50 46. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Arteriovenous nipping D. Retinal haemorrhage 47 / 50 47. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Polycystic kidney C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Berry aneurysm 48 / 50 48. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Right ventricular dilatation 49 / 50 49. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Myxoedema C. Mitral stenosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 50 / 50 50. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Peripheral cyanosis D. 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