Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Nailbed C. Palate D. Fundus 2 / 50 2. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Acrocyanosis 3 / 50 3. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Amiodarone B. Phenylephrin C. Morphine D. Propranolol 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Morphine C. Diuretics D. Rotating tourniquets 5 / 50 5. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Related to diastolic BP B. As a result of venous distension C. Should be ignored D. Present in all hypertensives 6 / 50 6. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Lovastatin B. Probucol C. Gemfibrozil D. Nicotinic acid 7 / 50 7. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. Coarctation of aorta 8 / 50 8. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 9 / 50 9. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Ventricular bigeminy C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Wenckebach block 10 / 50 10. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Hypotension B. Pulsatile liver C. Raised JVP D. Orthopnoea 11 / 50 11. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Hypovolaemic 12 / 50 12. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Occurs below 18 years C. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen D. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon 13 / 50 13. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Diabetes mellitus C. Shock D. Hypertension 14 / 50 14. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Trauma C. Tophaceous gout D. Cervical rib 15 / 50 15. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. With the diaphragm of stethoscope B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. Anywhere in the precordium D. In standing position 16 / 50 16. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid atresia C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 17 / 50 17. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Myocarditis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular infarction D. Pregnancy 18 / 50 18. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Haptoglobulin B. Ceruloplasmin C. Orosomucoid D. Alpha-fetoprotein 20 / 50 20. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. AS B. PS C. Coarctation of aorta D. VSD 21 / 50 21. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Carvedilol C. Labetalol D. Pindolol 22 / 50 22. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. Diphtheria C. HIV infection D. Toxoplasma infection 23 / 50 23. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 24 / 50 24. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard in standing position C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Present in late diastole 25 / 50 25. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Arteritis C. Takayasu's disease D. Diabetes mellitus 26 / 50 26. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Post-AMI D. Post-electrical cardioversion 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Chorea C. Polyarthritis D. Subcutaneous nodule 28 / 50 28. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Amlodipine C. Telmisartan D. Methyldopa 29 / 50 29. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Unfolding of aorta C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 30 / 50 30. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Pulmonary oedema C. Obstructive mitral valve disease D. Pulmonary fibrosis 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Hepatitis C. Tachyarrhythmias D. Photosensitivity 32 / 50 32. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. After holding the breath D. On the left side of lower sternum 33 / 50 33. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Methyldopa C. Prazosin D. Hydralazine 34 / 50 34. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 35 / 50 35. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. PDA B. Fallot's tetralogy C. MS D. Coarctation of aorta 36 / 50 36. S4 is not associated with: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Systemic hypertension C. Aortic stenosis D. Chronic mitral regurgitation 37 / 50 37. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Atrial flutter B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Multiple ectopics D. Wenckebach block 38 / 50 38. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Prominent y-descent D. Prominent a-wave 39 / 50 39. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Anomalous origin of coronary artery C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Single ventricle 40 / 50 40. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Restenosis cases 41 / 50 41. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Splenomegaly C. Clubbing D. Pyrexia 42 / 50 42. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 43 / 50 43. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. PDA C. MR D. VSD 44 / 50 44. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Rheumatic valve C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 45 / 50 45. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Holt-Oram syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 46 / 50 46. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Becomes prominent on lying down B. There are two negative waves C. Better felt than seen D. Undulating 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Homocystinuria C. Hyperthyroidism D. Nephrotic syndrome 48 / 50 48. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Late diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 49 / 50 49. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Microvascular angina B. Morbid obesity C. Hyperuricemia D. Obstructive sleep apnoea 50 / 50 50. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. Electrical cardioversion C. Carotid massage D. 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