Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Sodium nitroprusside B. Methyldopa C. Labetalol D. Diazoxide 2 / 50 2. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Single ventricle D. Ebstein's anomaly 3 / 50 3. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Hypothermia C. Quinidine therapy D. Hypocalcaemia 4 / 50 4. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Left ventricular failure D. Congestive cardiac failure 5 / 50 5. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptoroccus viridans B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Pneumococcus D. Streptococcus faecalis 6 / 50 6. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Shows narrow split C. Having wide split D. Shows reverse split 7 / 50 7. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Valsalva manoeuvre B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Leg raising D. Standing 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Erythema nodosum C. Chorea D. Subcutaneous nodule 9 / 50 9. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. AS C. PS D. VSD 10 / 50 10. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. Wenckebach block C. Atrial flutter D. Multiple ectopics 11 / 50 11. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Opening snap C. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma D. Pericardial knock 12 / 50 12. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 13 / 50 13. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Acute severe asthma D. Constrictive pericarditis 14 / 50 14. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. PDA B. Ostium primum ASD C. VSD D. Fallot's tetralogy 15 / 50 15. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Flecainide D. Verapamil 16 / 50 16. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Tapping apex C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Water-hammer pulse 17 / 50 17. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 3-6th rib 18 / 50 18. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Occurs below 18 years 19 / 50 19. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Fine crepitations at lung bases B. Dependent oedema C. Gallop rhythm D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 20 / 50 20. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine D. Amiloride 21 / 50 21. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. 'Silver-wire' arteries B. Retinal haemorrhage C. Papilloedema D. Arteriovenous nipping 22 / 50 22. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 23 / 50 23. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Methyldopa B. Labetalol C. Enalapril D. Hydralazine 24 / 50 24. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 25 / 50 25. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Myocarditis C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 26 / 50 26. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. WPW syndrome C. Digitalis toxicity D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 27 / 50 27. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Probucol B. Gemfibrozil C. Lovastatin D. Nicotinic acid 28 / 50 28. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Right ventricular failure B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Left-to-right shunt D. Left ventricular failure 29 / 50 29. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome 30 / 50 30. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve 31 / 50 31. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. Aspirin C. Beta-blockers D. ACE inhibitors 32 / 50 32. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Old age B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Renal failure D. Hypokalaemia 33 / 50 33. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 34 / 50 34. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Bucindolol B. Spironolactone C. Digoxin D. Propranolol 35 / 50 35. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Pericardial effusion B. Left ventricular failure C. Wenckebach block D. Digitalis toxicity 36 / 50 36. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. AR C. MR D. MS 37 / 50 37. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Felty's syndrome B. Rheumatic arthritis C. Viral arthritis D. SLE 38 / 50 38. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Acute bacterial endocarditis B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Right-to-left shunt D. Left atrial myxoma 39 / 50 39. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. PDA C. AR D. MS 40 / 50 40. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard in standing position C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 41 / 50 41. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Squatting C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Standing 42 / 50 42. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. Right-sided aortic arch C. Aortic regurgitation D. PDA 43 / 50 43. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. As a result of venous distension B. Present in all hypertensives C. Related to diastolic BP D. Should be ignored 44 / 50 44. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Fundus B. Palate C. Nailbed D. Palms 45 / 50 45. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Splenomegaly C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Clubbing 46 / 50 46. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Aortic stenosis D. Systemic hypertension 47 / 50 47. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Deep Q wave 48 / 50 48. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Obstructive mitral valve disease D. Pulmonary oedema 49 / 50 49. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Raised JVP D. S3 gallop rhythm 50 / 50 50. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology