Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. PDA C. AR D. VSD 2 / 50 2. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive myocardial infarction B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Atrial fibrillation 3 / 50 3. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Systemic hypertension C. Aortic stenosis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 4 / 50 4. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Acute mitral regurgitation B. Right ventricular infarction C. Cardiac tamponade D. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction 5 / 50 5. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus bradycardia B. Hypotension C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus tachycardia 6 / 50 6. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Diminished cardiac output B. Pericardial effusion C. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation D. Prolonged circulation time 7 / 50 7. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Prominent a-wave C. Prominent x-descent D. Small v-wave 8 / 50 8. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. AR C. MR D. AS 9 / 50 9. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Tricuspid atresia D. Severe pulmonary hypertension 10 / 50 10. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Fine crepitations at lung bases B. Dependent oedema C. Gallop rhythm D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 11 / 50 11. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. First degree heart block B. Low atrial rhythm C. AV nodal rhythm D. WPW syndrome 12 / 50 12. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. 2nd degree heart block C. Extrasystoles D. Atrial fibrillation 13 / 50 13. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Cardiomegaly C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Tapping apex 14 / 50 14. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Hypokalaemia B. PSVT C. Atrial fibrillation D. Atrial flutter 15 / 50 15. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. SGOT C. LDH D. CPK 16 / 50 16. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hypothermia C. Hyperkalaemia D. WPW syndrome 17 / 50 17. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Emphysema C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Isolated levocardia 18 / 50 18. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Aortic arch syndrome C. Berry aneurysm D. Bicuspid aortic valve 19 / 50 19. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Old age D. Renal failure 20 / 50 20. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Leg raising D. Standing 21 / 50 21. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Right atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Ventricular tachycardia 22 / 50 22. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. AS C. Associated LVH D. PDA 23 / 50 23. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Graham Steel murmur D. Late and loud opening snap 24 / 50 24. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. Electrical cardioversion C. IV Lignocaine D. Carotid massage 25 / 50 25. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Labetalol C. Carvedilol D. Atenolol 26 / 50 26. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Right ventricular dilatation B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Collagen vascular disease 27 / 50 27. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 28 / 50 28. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. PDA C. Aortic regurgitation D. Right-sided aortic arch 29 / 50 29. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined MS and AS 30 / 50 30. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. Restriction of fluid C. Diuretics D. IV fluid 31 / 50 31. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Radial C. Dorsalis pedis D. Brachial 32 / 50 32. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 33 / 50 33. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. WPW syndrome C. Hyperkalaemia D. Ostium primum ASD 34 / 50 34. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. PDA B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Coarctation of aorta D. MS 35 / 50 35. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Hypotension C. Orthopnoea D. Raised JVP 36 / 50 36. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Trauma C. Sarcoidosis D. Cervical rib 37 / 50 37. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Lisinopril C. Amrinone D. Amiodarone 38 / 50 38. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Renal artery stenosis D. Coarctation of aorta 39 / 50 39. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Left atrial myxoma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Pulmonary hypertension 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Ascites D. Raised JVP 41 / 50 41. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis C. Aortopulmonary window D. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula 42 / 50 42. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Unfolding of aorta 43 / 50 43. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Restenosis cases 44 / 50 44. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Down's syndrome B. Holt-Oram syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 45 / 50 45. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. Digitalis toxicity C. Rheumatic carditis D. WPW syndrome 46 / 50 46. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Left bundle branch block C. Hypokalaemia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 47 / 50 47. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Septic shock 48 / 50 48. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. ASD C. Coarctation of aorta D. VSD 49 / 50 49. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. LBBB C. Left ventricular pacing D. Aortic regurgitation 50 / 50 50. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology