Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Femoral artery B. Popliteal artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Cauda equina 2 / 50 2. All are true in severe PS except: A. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur B. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. The ejection click goes away from S1 3 / 50 3. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right ventricle D. Right atrium 4 / 50 4. Still’s murmur is: A. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis B. Systolic murmur in complete heart block C. Systolic innocent murmur D. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation 5 / 50 5. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Tricuspid atresia 6 / 50 6. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Trauma B. Sarcoidosis C. Cervical rib D. Tophaceous gout 7 / 50 7. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Haemothorax 8 / 50 8. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Mitral stenosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Myxoedema 9 / 50 9. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent x-descent B. Small v-wave C. Prominent a-wave D. Prominent y-descent 10 / 50 10. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Acute leukaemia C. Takayasu's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 11 / 50 11. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 12 / 50 12. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Rupture C. Infective endocarditis D. Embolism 13 / 50 13. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 14 / 50 14. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. MS C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 15 / 50 15. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV Lignocaine B. Electrical cardioversion C. IV amiodarone D. Carotid massage 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Starts in the dependent part B. Pitting oedema C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Initially noticed in the morning 17 / 50 17. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Hoover's sign B. Branham's sign C. Bing sign D. Tinel's sign 18 / 50 18. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pericardial effusion C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 19 / 50 19. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Nicotinic acid C. Probucol D. Lovastatin 20 / 50 20. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. AS C. PS D. VSD 21 / 50 21. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of left atrial thrombus B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Restenosis cases 22 / 50 22. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypothermia C. WPW syndrome D. Sick sinus syndrome 23 / 50 23. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Late systole D. Late diastole 24 / 50 24. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Massive myocardial infarction C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Ventricular fibrillation 25 / 50 25. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 26 / 50 26. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute rheumatic fever 27 / 50 27. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 28 / 50 28. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. First degree heart block B. Low atrial rhythm C. WPW syndrome D. AV nodal rhythm 29 / 50 29. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Residual neurodeficit C. Warning symptoms D. Gradual onset 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Polyarthritis C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Erythema nodosum 31 / 50 31. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. MS 32 / 50 32. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Beta-blockers B. Aspirin C. ACE inhibitors D. Diuretics 33 / 50 33. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 85 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 34 / 50 34. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. LDH C. SGPT D. CPK 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Endothelin B. Histamine C. Nitric oxide D. Bradykinin 36 / 50 36. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Shortened PR interval C. Diminished QT interval D. Increased PR interval 37 / 50 37. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min 38 / 50 38. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Water-hammer pulse 39 / 50 39. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 60mmHg C. 30mmHg D. 40mmHg 40 / 50 40. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 12 inch long 41 / 50 41. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Alveolitis C. Photosensitivity D. Hepatitis 43 / 50 43. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ostium primum ASD C. PDA D. VSD 44 / 50 44. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Dextrocardia B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. VSD D. PDA 45 / 50 45. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. ACE-inhibitors B. Amiodarone C. Propranolol D. Surgical myotomy of the septum 46 / 50 46. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Transposition of great vessels D. Coarctation of aorta 47 / 50 47. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Systemic hypertension C. Angina Pectoris D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 48 / 50 48. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Infundibular PS B. Supravalvular AS C. Lutembacher syndrome D. Ebstein's anomaly 49 / 50 49. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Splenomegaly D. Clubbing 50 / 50 50. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Acute severe asthma D. 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