Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MR C. MS D. AS 2 / 50 2. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Sick sinus syndrome C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 3 / 50 3. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Palms C. Nailbed D. Fundus 4 / 50 4. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Splenomegaly B. Pyrexia C. High ESR D. Clubbing 5 / 50 5. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Diuretics C. IV fluid D. Calcium gluconate 6 / 50 6. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Stenosis is severe 7 / 50 7. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus bradycardia C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus tachycardia 8 / 50 8. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Prominent y-descent D. Prominent a-wave 9 / 50 9. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Brachial C. Radial D. Dorsalis pedis 10 / 50 10. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Hydralazine C. Amiloride D. Prazosin 11 / 50 11. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Clubbing C. Hypertension D. Pyrexia 12 / 50 12. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Single ventricle C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ebstein's anomaly 13 / 50 13. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Cardiac tamponade C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Right atrial myxoma 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Pregnancy C. Marfan's syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 15 / 50 15. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Lipoprotein B. Homocysteine C. PAI-I D. Transferrin 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Increased ESR C. Elevated ASO titre D. Arthralgia 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Morphine C. Diuretics D. Rotating tourniquets 18 / 50 18. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Ischemic heart disease C. Cardiomyopathy D. Coarctation of aorta 19 / 50 19. The murmur of MS is: A. Early diastolic B. High-pitched C. With radiation towards left axilla D. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation 20 / 50 20. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Water-hammer pulse 21 / 50 21. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 22 / 50 22. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Orthopnoea C. Pulsatile liver D. Hypotension 23 / 50 23. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AR C. AS D. MS 24 / 50 24. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. ASD C. PDA D. Transposition of great vessels 25 / 50 25. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Rheumatic arthritis B. Viral arthritis C. Felty's syndrome D. SLE 26 / 50 26. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Propranolol C. Amiodarone D. ACE-inhibitors 27 / 50 27. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Leriche's syndrome C. Peripheral embolism D. Coarctation of aorta 28 / 50 28. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Occurs below 18 years 29 / 50 29. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 30 / 50 30. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. MS C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. MR 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Hyperthyroidism D. Nephrotic syndrome 32 / 50 32. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Pulmonary oedema 33 / 50 33. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Dextrocardia B. PDA C. VSD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 34 / 50 34. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of left atrial thrombus B. Restenosis cases C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Absence of valvular calcification 35 / 50 35. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Prominent a-wave in neck veins B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Central cyanosis D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 36 / 50 36. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Angina Pectoris C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 37 / 50 37. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Systemic hypertension D. Disturbances in vision 38 / 50 38. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Accentuated B. Diminished C. Normal in character D. Ringing in character 39 / 50 39. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Septic C. Cardiogenic D. Neurogenic 40 / 50 40. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Arrhythmias C. Hypertension D. Shock 41 / 50 41. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Toxoplasma infection B. Diphtheria C. HIV infection D. Ascariasis 42 / 50 42. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Y-shaped D. V-shaped 43 / 50 43. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Collagen vascular disease C. Right ventricular dilatation D. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers 44 / 50 44. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Takayasu's disease C. Systemic hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus 45 / 50 45. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Hyperdynamic circulatory states B. Aortic aneurysm C. Coarctation of aorta D. Budd-Chiari syndrome 46 / 50 46. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Papilloedema C. Arteriovenous nipping D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 47 / 50 47. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Factor-X assay D. Clotting time (CT) 48 / 50 48. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Left bundle branch block 49 / 50 49. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Adenosine B. Amiodarone C. Metoprolol D. Verapamil 50 / 50 50. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. There are two negative waves D. Undulating LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology