Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Left bundle branch block C. Hypokalaemia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 2 / 50 2. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Aortic insufficiency D. Mitral stenosis 3 / 50 3. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 4 / 50 4. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 5 / 50 5. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Collagen vascular disease C. Right ventricular dilatation D. Rheumatic heart disease 6 / 50 6. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Digitalis overdose C. Left atrial failure D. Tachycardia 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Regular pulse rate D. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein 8 / 50 8. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 9 / 50 9. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Down's syndrome C. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome D. Holt-Oram syndrome 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulmonary oedema B. Raised JVP C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Ascites 11 / 50 11. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. Pulmonary valve 12 / 50 12. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid atresia C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 13 / 50 13. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Gallop rhythm B. Dependent oedema C. Fine crepitations at lung bases D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 14 / 50 14. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Nicotinic acid C. Probucol D. Lovastatin 15 / 50 15. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Hypovolaemic C. Neurogenic D. Cardiogenic 16 / 50 16. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. Ostium primum ASD C. Hyperkalaemia D. WPW syndrome 17 / 50 17. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Aneurysm of subclavian artery B. Takayasu's disease C. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta D. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels 18 / 50 18. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Homocysteine C. Lipoprotein D. Transferrin 19 / 50 19. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypothermia D. Chronic cor pulmonale 20 / 50 20. Still’s murmur is: A. Best heard over mitral area B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Commonly found in children D. Associated with thrill 21 / 50 21. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Hypotension C. Pulsatile liver D. Orthopnoea 22 / 50 22. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Digoxin C. Propranolol D. Bucindolol 23 / 50 23. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. Right-sided aortic arch C. Aortic regurgitation D. PDA 24 / 50 24. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Found in severe AR D. Absence of thrill 25 / 50 25. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Floppy mitral valve C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 26 / 50 26. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Systolic C. Presystolic D. Early diastolic 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Hypothermia C. Myxoedema D. Complete heart block 28 / 50 28. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AR B. AS C. MS D. MR 29 / 50 29. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Livedo reticularis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Acrocyanosis 30 / 50 30. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Coarctation of aorta 31 / 50 31. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Peripheral embolism C. Buerger's disease D. Leriche's syndrome 32 / 50 32. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Allopurinol C. Chloramphenicol D. Doxorubicin 33 / 50 33. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Rupture C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Infective endocarditis 34 / 50 34. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle 35 / 50 35. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 36 / 50 36. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Pulmonary fibrosis 37 / 50 37. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Verapamil C. Metoprolol D. Adenosine 38 / 50 38. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hyperkalaemia 39 / 50 39. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. AR C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Pulmonary hypertension 40 / 50 40. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased PR interval B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased QT interval D. Increased duration of QRS complex 41 / 50 41. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Labetalol C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 42 / 50 42. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg B. MS is a recognised cause C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. Found in basal region 43 / 50 43. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 44 / 50 44. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 15 ml C. 50 ml D. 5 ml 45 / 50 45. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Presence of S3 46 / 50 46. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Hypokalaemia C. PSVT D. Atrial flutter 47 / 50 47. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 B. Mongoloid slant of eyes C. Cat-like cry D. VSD 48 / 50 48. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Low pulse pressure 49 / 50 49. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Opening snap D. Pericardial knock 50 / 50 50. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. PDA C. ASD D. 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