Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Clotting time (CT) C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Factor-X assay 2 / 50 2. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Athletes D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 3 / 50 3. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MS B. AS C. AR D. MR 4 / 50 4. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. Afibrinogenaemia C. SLE D. Old age 5 / 50 5. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex B. Anywhere in the precordium C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. In standing position 6 / 50 6. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Methyldopa B. Diazoxide C. Labetalol D. Sodium nitroprusside 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Orosomucoid C. Haptoglobulin D. Ceruloplasmin 8 / 50 8. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-diastole C. Diastole D. Mid-systole 9 / 50 9. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Isolated levocardia D. Emphysema 10 / 50 10. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Valsalva maneuver C. Squatting D. Standing 11 / 50 11. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Dextrocardia B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. PDA D. VSD 12 / 50 12. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen D. Occurs below 18 years 13 / 50 13. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypothermia C. Chronic cor pulmonale D. Digitalis toxicity 14 / 50 14. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 15 / 50 15. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. PDA C. Transposition of great vessels D. VSD 16 / 50 16. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Having loud S1 C. Found in severe AR D. Mid-diastolic murmur 17 / 50 17. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Rheumatic valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Mural thrombus D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 18 / 50 18. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Atherosclerosis of aorta C. Coarctation of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 19 / 50 19. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Quinidine therapy C. Vagal stimulation D. Hypothermia 20 / 50 20. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Y-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 21 / 50 21. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Protozoa B. Bacteria C. Autoimmune reaction D. Virus 22 / 50 22. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Pulmonary congestion B. Kussmaul's sign C. Increased JVP D. Hypotension 23 / 50 23. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Intermittent claudication D. Systemic hypertension 24 / 50 24. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Pure mitral stenosis C. Restenosis cases D. Absence of left atrial thrombus 25 / 50 25. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Emphysema C. Cardiomyopathy D. Acute myocardial infarction 26 / 50 26. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Rupture C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Infective endocarditis 27 / 50 27. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Laennec B. Korotkoff C. Osler D. Babinski 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Morphine B. Diuretics C. Trendelenburg position D. Rotating tourniquets 29 / 50 29. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Pericardial effusion C. Wenckebach block D. Left ventricular failure 30 / 50 30. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. On the left side of lower sternum C. In lying down position D. After holding the breath 31 / 50 31. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. WPW syndrome C. Hyperkalaemia D. Ostium primum ASD 32 / 50 32. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Rheumatic carditis C. WPW syndrome D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 33 / 50 33. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Standing C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Leg raising 34 / 50 34. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Propranolol C. Amiodarone D. ACE-inhibitors 35 / 50 35. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Left bundle branch block 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Hepatitis C. Alveolitis D. Tachyarrhythmias 37 / 50 37. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Unfolding of aorta C. Aortitis D. Calcified aortic valve 38 / 50 38. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. VSD B. PDA C. ASD D. MR 39 / 50 39. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Pulmonary atresia D. Severe coarctation of aorta 40 / 50 40. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Transposition of great vessels C. Coarctation of aorta D. Tetralogy of Fallot 41 / 50 41. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Metoprolol C. Adenosine D. Verapamil 42 / 50 42. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. PDA B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. Pulmonary stenosis 43 / 50 43. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Berry aneurysm C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta 44 / 50 44. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Wenckebach block B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Mobitz type II block 45 / 50 45. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. PDA 46 / 50 46. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Cardiac tamponade D. Right atrial myxoma 47 / 50 47. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. PS C. VSD D. MS 48 / 50 48. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Gallop rhythm D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 49 / 50 49. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. SLE 50 / 50 50. Sudden death may occur in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. PDA C. ASD D. AS LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology