Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Loud A2 is present in: A. Aortitis B. Calcified aortic valve C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Unfolding of aorta 2 / 50 2. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Aortopulmonary window 3 / 50 3. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Pure mitral stenosis C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Absence of valvular calcification 4 / 50 4. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Aplastic anaemia C. Acute leukaemia D. Takayasu's disease 5 / 50 5. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. AS B. Coarctation of aorta C. VSD D. PS 6 / 50 6. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Y-shaped 7 / 50 7. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 8 / 50 8. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 9 / 50 9. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with tight PS D. Acutely developing AR 10 / 50 10. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Hyperdynamic circulatory states C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 11 / 50 11. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium 12 / 50 12. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Atrial fibrillation D. Right atrial myxoma 13 / 50 13. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Berry aneurysm C. Polycystic kidney D. Bicuspid aortic valve 14 / 50 14. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 15 / 50 15. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. ASD C. PDA D. Coarctation of aorta 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Haptoglobulin C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Ceruloplasmin 17 / 50 17. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Late and loud opening snap C. Graham Steel murmur D. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur 18 / 50 18. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. ASD C. PDA D. Transposition of great vessels 19 / 50 19. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Palms C. Nailbed D. Fundus 20 / 50 20. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class II C. Class IV D. Class I 21 / 50 21. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Cardiac tamponade 22 / 50 22. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Beta-blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Diuretics 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Hypothermia B. Complete heart block C. Obstructive jaundice D. Myxoedema 24 / 50 24. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. AS C. ASD D. PDA 25 / 50 25. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent B. Haemodynamically significant C. Moderate VSD D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 26 / 50 26. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Streptoroccus viridans C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Staphylococcus aureus 27 / 50 27. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Methyldopa B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Labetalol D. Diazoxide 28 / 50 28. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Hypocalcaemia C. Quinidine therapy D. Hypothermia 29 / 50 29. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Chronic cor pulmonale D. Hypothermia 30 / 50 30. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Ventricular septal defect D. Fallot's tetralogy 31 / 50 31. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Coarctation of aorta C. Buerger's disease D. Unstable angina 32 / 50 32. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 1-12th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 3-6th rib D. 6-9th rib 33 / 50 33. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. PS C. VSD D. MS 34 / 50 34. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Water-hammer pulse C. Cardiomegaly D. Tapping apex 35 / 50 35. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 36 / 50 36. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Late systole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 37 / 50 37. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Thoracic deformity C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 38 / 50 38. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 50 Joules B. 400 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 100 Joules 39 / 50 39. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. MR 40 / 50 40. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 22 inch long 41 / 50 41. All are true in severe PS except: A. The ejection click goes away from S1 B. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 42 / 50 42. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. AR C. MR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Cubbing C. Splenomegaly D. Osler's node 44 / 50 44. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Inferior vena cava C. Femoral artery D. Cauda equina 45 / 50 45. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Lisinopril C. Amrinone D. Amiodarone 46 / 50 46. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Occurs below 18 years C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 47 / 50 47. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. With the diaphragm of stethoscope B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. In standing position D. Anywhere in the precordium 48 / 50 48. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic insufficiency C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 49 / 50 49. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Propranolol C. Bucindolol D. Digoxin 50 / 50 50. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Cat-like cry D. 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