Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. 'f ' waves in neck vein C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. Pulse deficit is > 10 2 / 50 2. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Lisinopril B. Amrinone C. Amlodipine D. Amiodarone 3 / 50 3. All are true in severe PS except: A. The ejection click goes away from S1 B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 4 / 50 4. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Hypotension C. Orthopnoea D. Pulsatile liver 5 / 50 5. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. Coarctation of aorta 6 / 50 6. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial flutter B. Atrial fibrillation C. PSVT D. Hypokalaemia 7 / 50 7. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Austin Flint murmur B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Left atrial myxoma D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 8 / 50 8. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised small dense LDL C. Raised VLDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 9 / 50 9. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Bush tea B. Aflatoxin C. Tapioca D. Coffee 10 / 50 10. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Adenosine B. Verapamil C. Amiodarone D. Metoprolol 11 / 50 11. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Takayasu's disease D. Systemic hypertension 12 / 50 12. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Absent clavicle C. Fingerization of thumb D. Asplenia 13 / 50 13. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV amiodarone C. IV Lignocaine D. Electrical cardioversion 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Homocystinuria C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 15 / 50 15. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Right atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 16 / 50 16. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Hypertension B. Clubbing C. Embolic phenomenon D. Pyrexia 17 / 50 17. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Gonorrhoea D. Acute pancreatitis 18 / 50 18. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. In lying down position C. After holding the breath D. On the left side of lower sternum 19 / 50 19. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Pericardial knock B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Ejection click D. Opening snap 20 / 50 20. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Aortic stenosis C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Mitral stenosis 21 / 50 21. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. ASD C. MR D. VSD 22 / 50 22. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Right atrial myxoma 23 / 50 23. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Right ventricular pacing D. Left ventricular failure 24 / 50 24. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. Early diastolic D. With radiation towards left axilla 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Cubbing C. Osler's node D. Splenomegaly 26 / 50 26. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Shock 27 / 50 27. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Left bundle branch block C. Hypokalaemia D. True posterior myocardial infarction 28 / 50 28. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Pregnancy C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. H/O intraocular bleeding 29 / 50 29. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Marantic endocarditis 30 / 50 30. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. MR C. MS D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 31 / 50 31. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Microvascular angina C. Morbid obesity D. Obstructive sleep apnoea 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Haptoglobulin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Orosomucoid 33 / 50 33. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Trauma B. Sarcoidosis C. Cervical rib D. Tophaceous gout 34 / 50 34. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Old age B. Vasculitis C. SLE D. Afibrinogenaemia 35 / 50 35. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. First degree heart block B. WPW syndrome C. Low atrial rhythm D. AV nodal rhythm 36 / 50 36. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Acute bacterial endocarditis B. Right-to-left shunt C. Left atrial myxoma D. Fallot's tetralogy 37 / 50 37. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. VSD C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. MS 38 / 50 38. The disease with male preponderance is: A. PDA B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. Coarctation of aorta D. SLE 39 / 50 39. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Residual neurodeficit C. Rapid recovery D. Gradual onset 40 / 50 40. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. PDA C. Dextrocardia D. VSD 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Elevated ASO titre C. Prolonged PR interval D. Increased ESR 42 / 50 42. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Stenosis is severe 43 / 50 43. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Prominent a-wave in neck veins B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 D. Central cyanosis 44 / 50 44. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Aortic regurgitation C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. Right-sided aortic arch 45 / 50 45. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Aplastic anaemia D. Acute leukaemia 46 / 50 46. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 47 / 50 47. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Coarctation of aorta C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Transposition of great vessels 48 / 50 48. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Gallop rhythm B. Dependent oedema C. Fine crepitations at lung bases D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 49 / 50 49. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Disturbances in vision C. Systemic hypertension D. Intermittent claudication 50 / 50 50. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Complete heart block LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology