Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Clubbing C. Hypertension D. Pyrexia 2 / 50 2. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Complete heart block 3 / 50 3. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Mobitz type II block C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Wenckebach block 4 / 50 4. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Pulsus alternans D. Water-hammer pulse 5 / 50 5. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis 6 / 50 6. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Lovastatin C. Probucol D. Gemfibrozil 7 / 50 7. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Aplastic anaemia C. Takayasu's disease D. Acute leukaemia 8 / 50 8. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Tricuspid atresia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 9 / 50 9. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Right atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence 10 / 50 10. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L C. Increased LDH3 D. Inverted T wave in ECG 11 / 50 11. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MR D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 12 / 50 12. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-diastole C. Mid-systole D. Late diastole 13 / 50 13. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. MR C. AR D. MS 14 / 50 14. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. Coarctation of aorta 15 / 50 15. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Radial B. Dorsalis pedis C. Brachial D. Femoral 16 / 50 16. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Unstable angina B. Acute mediastinitis C. Dissecting aneurysm D. Bornholm disease 17 / 50 17. All are true in severe PS except: A. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. The ejection click goes away from S1 D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 18 / 50 18. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial flutter C. Atrial fibrillation D. Hypokalaemia 19 / 50 19. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. MS C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Acute rheumatic fever 20 / 50 20. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Buerger's disease C. Unstable angina D. Coarctation of aorta 21 / 50 21. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Septic shock 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 23 / 50 23. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Hyperdynamic circulatory states B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Aortic aneurysm 24 / 50 24. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Cardiac tamponade D. Acute severe asthma 25 / 50 25. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Residual neurodeficit C. Warning symptoms D. Rapid recovery 26 / 50 26. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Polycystic kidney disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Phaeochromocytoma 27 / 50 27. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Clotting time (CT) C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Factor-X assay 28 / 50 28. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Floppy mitral valve C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 29 / 50 29. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Angina Pectoris C. Atrial fibrillation D. Acute left ventricular failure 30 / 50 30. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Mitral valve 31 / 50 31. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Chlamydia B. HIV C. H. pylori D. Cytomegalovirus 32 / 50 32. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Sickle cell anemia C. Pregnancy D. Congestive cardiac failure 33 / 50 33. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. Raised JVP C. Peripheral cyanosis D. S3 gallop rhythm 34 / 50 34. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. Aortic regurgitation C. Left ventricular pacing D. LBBB 35 / 50 35. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Protozoa B. Virus C. Autoimmune reaction D. Bacteria 36 / 50 36. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Bucindolol B. Propranolol C. Spironolactone D. Digoxin 37 / 50 37. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Constrictive pericarditis 38 / 50 38. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. ASD C. VSD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 39 / 50 39. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode B. Dextrocardia C. Emphysema D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 40 / 50 40. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Palpable S3 C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable opening snap 41 / 50 41. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Hypothermia 42 / 50 42. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased QT interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Increased PR interval 43 / 50 43. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Transposition of great vessels 44 / 50 44. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Squatting C. Valsalva maneuver D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 45 / 50 45. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Hypotension B. Raised JVP C. Pulsatile liver D. Orthopnoea 46 / 50 46. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined AR and MR 47 / 50 47. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arteritis D. Takayasu's disease 48 / 50 48. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. Right ventricular pacing C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. ASD 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 50 / 50 50. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Cardiogenic B. Neurogenic C. Septic D. Hypovolaemic LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology