Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Raised JVP D. Ashen-grey pallor 2 / 50 2. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Digitalis toxicity C. Hypothermia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 3 / 50 3. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve 4 / 50 4. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. PDA C. MR D. VSD 5 / 50 5. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Fundus B. Palate C. Palms D. Nailbed 6 / 50 6. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. 2nd degree heart block C. Extrasystoles D. Atrial fibrillation 7 / 50 7. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Late and loud opening snap C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Graham Steel murmur 8 / 50 8. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Cardiogenic B. Neurogenic C. Hypovolaemic D. Septic 9 / 50 9. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Central cyanosis D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 10 / 50 10. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased QT interval D. Increased PR interval 11 / 50 11. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Infundibular PS C. Supravalvular AS D. Lutembacher syndrome 12 / 50 12. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. Early diastolic C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. With radiation towards left axilla 13 / 50 13. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Septic shock 14 / 50 14. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. WPW syndrome C. Sick sinus syndrome D. Hypothermia 15 / 50 15. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Complete heart block D. Tricuspid incompetence 16 / 50 16. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Hyperkalaemia C. During inspiration D. WPW syndrome 17 / 50 17. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial flutter C. Wenckebach block D. Multiple ectopics 18 / 50 18. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Left-to-right shunt 19 / 50 19. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. IV fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. Diuretics D. Restriction of fluid 20 / 50 20. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Cardiomegaly C. Water-hammer pulse D. Tapping apex 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteoarthritis 22 / 50 22. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Telmisartan B. Methyldopa C. Labetalol D. Amlodipine 23 / 50 23. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. MS C. AR D. MR 24 / 50 24. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Collagen vascular disease D. Rheumatic heart disease 25 / 50 25. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 50 Joules B. 400 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 200 Joules 26 / 50 26. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Aortic regurgitation C. Right-sided aortic arch D. Persistent right-sided SVC 27 / 50 27. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Hypocalcaemia C. Quinidine therapy D. Hypothermia 28 / 50 28. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Standing 29 / 50 29. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 30 / 50 30. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ostium primum ASD D. PDA 31 / 50 31. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Hypokalaemia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 32 / 50 32. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 33 / 50 33. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Right ventricular failure B. Left ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Left-to-right shunt 34 / 50 34. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 22 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 8 inch long 35 / 50 35. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Chlamydia C. HIV D. H. pylori 36 / 50 36. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. AS C. MR D. AR 37 / 50 37. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve 38 / 50 38. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Acute bacterial endocarditis B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Right-to-left shunt D. Left atrial myxoma 39 / 50 39. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Chronic renal failure D. Gonorrhoea 40 / 50 40. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Systemic hypertension C. Intermittent claudication D. Diminished pulses in upper extremity 41 / 50 41. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-AMI B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Myocarditis D. Post-electrical cardioversion 42 / 50 42. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined MS and AS 43 / 50 43. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Isolated levocardia D. Emphysema 44 / 50 44. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Systolic D. Presystolic 45 / 50 45. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode B. Dextrocardia C. Emphysema D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 46 / 50 46. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Systemic hypertension B. Marfan's syndrome C. Syphilitic aortitis D. Pregnancy 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Increased ESR C. Elevated ASO titre D. Arthralgia 48 / 50 48. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Livedo reticularis C. Acrocyanosis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 49 / 50 49. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Rheumatic arthritis B. Viral arthritis C. Felty's syndrome D. SLE 50 / 50 50. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Lisinopril C. Amrinone D. 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