Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Haemothorax C. Cardiac tamponade D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 2 / 50 2. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. Aortic regurgitation C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. PDA 3 / 50 3. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Radial B. Femoral C. Brachial D. Dorsalis pedis 4 / 50 4. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 5 / 50 5. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. PSVT C. Atrial flutter D. Hypokalaemia 6 / 50 6. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Rupture B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Infective endocarditis D. Embolism 7 / 50 7. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. WPW syndrome C. Ostium primum ASD D. During inspiration 8 / 50 8. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable S4 9 / 50 9. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Collagen vascular disease C. Right ventricular dilatation D. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers 10 / 50 10. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. AR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. MR 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Rotating tourniquets C. Morphine D. Diuretics 12 / 50 12. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Polycythemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Pregnancy 13 / 50 13. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Bornholm disease C. Acute mediastinitis D. Unstable angina 14 / 50 14. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased QT interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased PR interval 15 / 50 15. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Increased JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulmonary congestion 16 / 50 16. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 17 / 50 17. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Hypothermia C. Sick sinus syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 18 / 50 18. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Hypertension C. Embolic phenomenon D. Pyrexia 19 / 50 19. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. AR C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Acute rheumatic fever 20 / 50 20. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Prolonged circulation time C. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation D. Diminished cardiac output 21 / 50 21. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. AR with systemic hypertension C. Acutely developing AR D. AR with tight PS 22 / 50 22. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. HIV infection C. Toxoplasma infection D. Diphtheria 23 / 50 23. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Felty's syndrome B. Viral arthritis C. SLE D. Rheumatic arthritis 24 / 50 24. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula 25 / 50 25. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. Anywhere in the precordium D. With the diaphragm of stethoscope 26 / 50 26. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography 27 / 50 27. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. VSD C. PDA D. Transposition of great vessels 28 / 50 28. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. AR C. MR D. MS 29 / 50 29. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Sarcoidosis C. Trauma D. Cervical rib 30 / 50 30. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ventricular septal defect 31 / 50 31. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Splenomegaly D. Clubbing 32 / 50 32. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Atenolol C. Carvedilol D. Labetalol 33 / 50 33. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Present in late diastole D. Low-pitched 34 / 50 34. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. VSD B. MR C. PDA D. ASD 35 / 50 35. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. ECG was taken in deep inspiration B. Emphysema C. Dextrocardia D. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode 36 / 50 36. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Doxorubicin B. Allopurinol C. Chloramphenicol D. Methotrexate 37 / 50 37. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV amiodarone C. IV Lignocaine D. Electrical cardioversion 38 / 50 38. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea 39 / 50 39. The disease with male preponderance is: A. PDA B. Coarctation of aorta C. Primary pulmonary hypertension D. SLE 40 / 50 40. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Acute severe asthma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 41 / 50 41. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. WPW syndrome D. Digitalis toxicity 42 / 50 42. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Adenosine C. Metoprolol D. Verapamil 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 44 / 50 44. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 15 ml C. 5 ml D. 50 ml 45 / 50 45. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Myocarditis D. Emphysema 46 / 50 46. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve 47 / 50 47. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Cat-like cry B. VSD C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 48 / 50 48. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Lovastatin C. Probucol D. Nicotinic acid 49 / 50 49. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Athletes 50 / 50 50. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 22 inch long B. 8 inch long C. 12 inch long D. 18 inch long LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
