CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Anomalous origin of coronary artery D. Ebstein's anomaly 2 / 50 2. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised small dense LDL C. Reduced HDL D. Raised VLDL 3 / 50 3. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Bing sign C. Hoover's sign D. Tinel's sign 4 / 50 4. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Low pulse pressure B. Sinus tachycardia C. Hypotension D. Sinus bradycardia 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Hepatitis D. Alveolitis 6 / 50 6. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Ringing in character C. Accentuated D. Normal in character 7 / 50 7. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Early diastolic D. Presystolic 8 / 50 8. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Hypotension C. Raised JVP D. Orthopnoea 9 / 50 9. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Telmisartan B. Labetalol C. Amlodipine D. Methyldopa 10 / 50 10. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic insufficiency 11 / 50 11. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 85 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 70 ml/kg of body weight 12 / 50 12. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. WPW syndrome C. Digitalis toxicity D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 13 / 50 13. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Ashen-grey pallor C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Peripheral cyanosis 14 / 50 14. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. ASD B. VSD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Bicuspid aortic valve 15 / 50 15. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Nicotinic acid C. Probucol D. Lovastatin 16 / 50 16. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late systole C. Mid-systole D. Late diastole 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Elevated ASO titre B. Increased ESR C. Prolonged PR interval D. Arthralgia 18 / 50 18. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. On the left side of lower sternum B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. After holding the breath D. In lying down position 19 / 50 19. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Systemic hypertension C. Pregnancy D. Marfan's syndrome 20 / 50 20. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Commonly found in children C. Best heard over mitral area D. Associated with thrill 21 / 50 21. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 1-12th rib 22 / 50 22. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 23 / 50 23. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Thoracic deformity 24 / 50 24. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 1 cm2 B. < 2 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 4 cm2 25 / 50 25. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent B. Haemodynamically significant C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Moderate VSD 26 / 50 26. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Splenomegaly C. Clubbing D. Pyrexia 27 / 50 27. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Gonorrhoea C. Chronic renal failure D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 28 / 50 28. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 29 / 50 29. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 B. VSD C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. Cat-like cry 30 / 50 30. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptoroccus viridans 31 / 50 31. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Doxorubicin C. Methotrexate D. Chloramphenicol 32 / 50 32. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Wenckebach block 33 / 50 33. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. IV fluid C. Restriction of fluid D. Diuretics 34 / 50 34. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Austin Flint murmur C. Carey Coombs murmur D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 35 / 50 35. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Hyperdynamic circulatory states B. Aortic aneurysm C. Coarctation of aorta D. Budd-Chiari syndrome 36 / 50 36. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. Anywhere in the precordium D. With the diaphragm of stethoscope 37 / 50 37. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea B. Dependent oedema C. Fine crepitations at lung bases D. Gallop rhythm 38 / 50 38. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Acute pulmonary oedema B. Transposition of great vessels C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Left-to-right shunt 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Marfan's syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Pregnancy 40 / 50 40. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Berry aneurysm B. Aortic arch syndrome C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Polycystic kidney 41 / 50 41. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. 'f ' waves in neck vein C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min 42 / 50 42. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial flutter B. PSVT C. Atrial fibrillation D. Hypokalaemia 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Hyperthyroidism C. Homocystinuria D. Nephrotic syndrome 44 / 50 44. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea 45 / 50 45. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Spironolactone D. Bucindolol 46 / 50 46. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent x-descent B. Small v-wave C. Prominent y-descent D. Prominent a-wave 47 / 50 47. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Chlamydia B. H. pylori C. HIV D. Cytomegalovirus 48 / 50 48. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. Transposition of great vessels C. PDA D. ASD 49 / 50 49. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Acute severe asthma C. Dilated cardiomyopathy D. Constrictive pericarditis 50 / 50 50. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology