Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Right ventricular pacing D. ASD 2 / 50 2. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Pregnancy D. Severe menstrual bleeding 3 / 50 3. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. PDA B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. Ostium primum ASD 4 / 50 4. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 10-12th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 6-9th rib D. 3-6th rib 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Pitting oedema 6 / 50 6. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MS D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 7 / 50 7. The least common complication of MS is: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Atrial fibrillation 8 / 50 8. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Height of R wave maximum in V6 B. Prominent ST elevation C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Deep Q wave 9 / 50 9. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Peripheral embolism D. Leriche's syndrome 10 / 50 10. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Protozoa C. Autoimmune reaction D. Bacteria 11 / 50 11. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Mitral stenosis B. Myxoedema C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Carcinoid syndrome 12 / 50 12. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Splenomegaly 13 / 50 13. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Single ventricle D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 14 / 50 14. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Marfan's syndrome C. Pregnancy D. Systemic hypertension 15 / 50 15. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. PDA C. Transposition of great vessels D. ASD 16 / 50 16. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Unfolding of aorta C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Aortitis 17 / 50 17. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Prominent a-wave C. Prominent x-descent D. Small v-wave 18 / 50 18. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Systemic hypertension C. Disturbances in vision D. Intermittent claudication 19 / 50 19. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 22 inch long 20 / 50 20. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. More common in females 21 / 50 21. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Kussmaul's sign C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 22 / 50 22. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Streptoroccus viridans C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Staphylococcus aureus 23 / 50 23. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hyperkinetic circulatory states B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Pregnancy D. Athletes 24 / 50 24. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Buerger's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Unstable angina D. Aortic stenosis 25 / 50 25. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 26 / 50 26. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral incompetence C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Pulmonary stenosis 27 / 50 27. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Mural thrombus D. Rheumatic valve 28 / 50 28. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Renal failure C. Hypokalaemia D. Old age 29 / 50 29. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Gonorrhoea D. Chronic renal failure 30 / 50 30. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Thoracic deformity 31 / 50 31. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. Constrictive pericarditis C. ASD D. PDA 32 / 50 32. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 33 / 50 33. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. V-shaped D. Y-shaped 34 / 50 34. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Presystolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Systolic 35 / 50 35. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Severe coarctation of aorta 36 / 50 36. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 37 / 50 37. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. MS C. AR D. PDA 38 / 50 38. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 39 / 50 39. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Hypertension C. Clubbing D. Pyrexia 40 / 50 40. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised small dense LDL C. Raised VLDL D. Reduced HDL 41 / 50 41. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Floppy mitral valve 42 / 50 42. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Mid-systole C. Systole D. Mid-diastole 43 / 50 43. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-electrical cardioversion B. Myocarditis C. Post-AMI D. Rhabdomyolysis 44 / 50 44. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Berry aneurysm D. Aortic arch syndrome 45 / 50 45. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Gradual onset C. Warning symptoms D. Residual neurodeficit 46 / 50 46. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Acute left ventricular failure B. Atrial fibrillation C. Angina Pectoris D. Supraventricular tachycardia 47 / 50 47. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome D. Down's syndrome 48 / 50 48. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. ASD C. Associated LVH D. AS 49 / 50 49. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Quinidine B. Disopyramide C. Flecainide D. Verapamil 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Myxoedema B. Obstructive jaundice C. Complete heart block D. Hypothermia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology