Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with tight PS D. AR with CCF 2 / 50 2. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Lutembacher syndrome D. Infundibular PS 3 / 50 3. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Complete heart block C. Right atrial myxoma D. Constrictive pericarditis 4 / 50 4. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Prominent x-descent in JVP B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Kussmaul's sign 5 / 50 5. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. In standing position 6 / 50 6. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 2 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 7 / 50 7. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Peripheral embolism B. Buerger's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Leriche's syndrome 8 / 50 8. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Lipoprotein C. Homocysteine D. Transferrin 9 / 50 9. Sudden death may occur in: A. ASD B. PDA C. Constrictive pericarditis D. AS 10 / 50 10. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Aflatoxin C. Tapioca D. Bush tea 11 / 50 11. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Water-hammer pulse C. Cardiomegaly D. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area 12 / 50 12. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Absent clavicle B. Asplenia C. Fingerization of thumb D. VSD 13 / 50 13. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. WPW syndrome B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. Digitalis toxicity D. Rheumatic carditis 14 / 50 14. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Undulating B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. Better felt than seen D. There are two negative waves 15 / 50 15. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. PDA C. Aortic regurgitation D. Persistent right-sided SVC 16 / 50 16. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve 17 / 50 17. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. More common in females B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. Early systolic click D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic 18 / 50 18. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. MS C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. MR 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Hypothermia B. Myxoedema C. Complete heart block D. Obstructive jaundice 20 / 50 20. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Severe anemia C. Cardiomyopathy D. Ischemic heart disease 21 / 50 21. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial flutter B. Hypokalaemia C. PSVT D. Atrial fibrillation 22 / 50 22. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. 'Silver-wire' arteries B. Arteriovenous nipping C. Retinal haemorrhage D. Papilloedema 23 / 50 23. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Right atrial myxoma C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tricuspid incompetence 24 / 50 24. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Graham Steel murmur D. Presence of S3 25 / 50 25. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Aortic valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 26 / 50 26. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Acute left ventricular failure B. Angina Pectoris C. Supraventricular tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation 27 / 50 27. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. Hypokalaemia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. True posterior myocardial infarction 28 / 50 28. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. ASD C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Coarctation of aorta 29 / 50 29. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Remains single C. Shows narrow split D. Having wide split 30 / 50 30. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 31 / 50 31. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. ASD B. Coarctation of aorta C. VSD D. PDA 32 / 50 32. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Wenckebach heart block D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 33 / 50 33. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Anomalous origin of coronary artery D. Single ventricle 34 / 50 34. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Water-hammer pulse C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulsus bigeminus 35 / 50 35. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. AS C. PDA D. Associated LVH 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Ascites D. Raised JVP 37 / 50 37. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Presystolic D. Systolic 38 / 50 38. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. VSD B. MR C. PDA D. ASD 39 / 50 39. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. MS C. PDA D. VSD 40 / 50 40. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Massive myocardial infarction 41 / 50 41. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. ACE-inhibitors B. Amiodarone C. Surgical myotomy of the septum D. Propranolol 42 / 50 42. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. MS C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 43 / 50 43. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Syphilitic aortitis D. Systemic hypertension 44 / 50 44. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Streptoroccus viridans 45 / 50 45. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection D. Pulmonary atresia 46 / 50 46. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Arrhythmias C. Shock D. Hypertension 47 / 50 47. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Old age D. Renal failure 48 / 50 48. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Left ventricular failure 49 / 50 49. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Sickle cell anemia C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Pregnancy 50 / 50 50. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology