Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Floppy mitral valve D. Acute rheumatic fever 2 / 50 2. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 3 / 50 3. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Verapamil B. Metoprolol C. Adenosine D. Amiodarone 4 / 50 4. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 5 / 50 5. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Tachycardia C. Digitalis overdose D. Mitral valve calcification 6 / 50 6. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Right ventricular pacing C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Left ventricular failure 7 / 50 7. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 15 ml C. 50 ml D. 5 ml 8 / 50 8. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Present in late diastole D. Low-pitched 9 / 50 9. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Aortopulmonary window C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Ventricular septal defect 10 / 50 10. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased duration of QRS complex 11 / 50 11. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Left bundle branch block 12 / 50 12. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Inferior vena cava B. Femoral artery C. Popliteal artery D. Cauda equina 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Starts in the dependent part B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Pitting oedema 14 / 50 14. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Lovastatin B. Probucol C. Gemfibrozil D. Nicotinic acid 15 / 50 15. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Addison's disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Polycystic kidney disease 16 / 50 16. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Hyperthyroidism 17 / 50 17. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Restenosis cases 18 / 50 18. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Pericardial knock B. Opening snap C. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma D. Ejection click 19 / 50 19. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulsus alternans C. Water-hammer pulse D. Pulsus bigeminus 20 / 50 20. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Disopyramide C. Verapamil D. Quinidine 21 / 50 21. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Hypotension C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus bradycardia 22 / 50 22. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Myocarditis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Ventricular fibrillation 23 / 50 23. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Water-hammer pulse C. Cardiomegaly D. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area 24 / 50 24. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class II C. Class IV D. Class III 25 / 50 25. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. Asplenia C. Absent clavicle D. VSD 26 / 50 26. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 27 / 50 27. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. MS C. PS D. VSD 28 / 50 28. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Transferrin B. PAI-I C. Homocysteine D. Lipoprotein 29 / 50 29. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. PDA C. AS D. Associated LVH 30 / 50 30. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Pneumococcus D. Streptoroccus viridans 31 / 50 31. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Kussmaul's sign D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 32 / 50 32. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Increased JVP C. Hypotension D. Pulmonary congestion 33 / 50 33. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Buerger's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Peripheral embolism 34 / 50 34. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Transposition of great vessels C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Coarctation of aorta 35 / 50 35. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Pregnancy 36 / 50 36. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. AV nodal rhythm C. Low atrial rhythm D. First degree heart block 37 / 50 37. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 38 / 50 38. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 22 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 18 inch long 39 / 50 39. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Old age C. Hypokalaemia D. Renal failure 40 / 50 40. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Right atrial myxoma C. Atrial fibrillation D. Mitral valve prolapse 41 / 50 41. S4 is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Aortic stenosis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 42 / 50 42. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Clubbing 43 / 50 43. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Hoover's sign C. Branham's sign D. Tinel's sign 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Myxoedema C. Complete heart block D. Hypothermia 45 / 50 45. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Aortic stenosis D. Aortic insufficiency 46 / 50 46. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Commonly found in children C. Associated with thrill D. Best heard over mitral area 47 / 50 47. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Hypothermia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Quinidine therapy 48 / 50 48. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Late and loud opening snap B. Graham Steel murmur C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Presence of S3 49 / 50 49. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. PDA C. Dextrocardia D. VSD 50 / 50 50. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Right ventricular infarction C. Acute mitral regurgitation D. 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