Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Allopurinol C. Methotrexate D. Doxorubicin 2 / 50 2. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Carvedilol B. Labetalol C. Atenolol D. Pindolol 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Homocystinuria 4 / 50 4. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Bucindolol C. Spironolactone D. Digoxin 5 / 50 5. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Arteritis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Systemic hypertension 6 / 50 6. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Amiodarone C. Adenosine D. Verapamil 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Nitric oxide B. Endothelin C. Histamine D. Bradykinin 8 / 50 8. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. ECG was taken in deep inspiration B. Dextrocardia C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. Emphysema 9 / 50 9. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Sheehan's syndrome B. Addison's disease C. Emphysema D. Isolated levocardia 10 / 50 10. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Magnesium B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Potassium 11 / 50 11. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Eccentric dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 12 / 50 12. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur 13 / 50 13. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. PDA B. MS C. Coarctation of aorta D. Fallot's tetralogy 14 / 50 14. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Bush tea C. Coffee D. Tapioca 15 / 50 15. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ostium primum ASD D. PDA 16 / 50 16. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptoroccus viridans B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Pneumococcus 17 / 50 17. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve 18 / 50 18. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. Transposition of great vessels C. VSD D. PDA 19 / 50 19. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PS C. VSD D. AS 20 / 50 20. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Rheumatic valve B. Mural thrombus C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 21 / 50 21. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. Increased LDH3 22 / 50 22. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Telmisartan B. Labetalol C. Amlodipine D. Methyldopa 23 / 50 23. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Unfolding of aorta D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 24 / 50 24. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Standing C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Leg raising 25 / 50 25. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Hypotension C. Raised JVP D. Orthopnoea 26 / 50 26. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Deep Q wave C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Height of R wave maximum in V6 27 / 50 27. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 28 / 50 28. Sudden death may occur in: A. ASD B. PDA C. Constrictive pericarditis D. AS 29 / 50 29. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Shock C. Diabetes mellitus D. Arrhythmias 30 / 50 30. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable S4 C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable opening snap 31 / 50 31. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Lipoprotein B. Transferrin C. PAI-I D. Homocysteine 32 / 50 32. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Residual neurodeficit C. Gradual onset D. Warning symptoms 33 / 50 33. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Septic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 34 / 50 34. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence 35 / 50 35. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Addison's disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Polycystic kidney disease 36 / 50 36. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Hypothermia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Digitalis toxicity 37 / 50 37. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 38 / 50 38. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Morbid obesity D. Microvascular angina 39 / 50 39. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Haptoglobulin D. Orosomucoid 41 / 50 41. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AS C. MS D. AR 42 / 50 42. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Opening snap B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Ejection click D. Pericardial knock 43 / 50 43. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows reverse split C. Shows narrow split D. Remains single 44 / 50 44. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Presystolic C. Systolic D. Early diastolic 45 / 50 45. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. ASD D. Left ventricular failure 46 / 50 46. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Best heard in standing position C. Low-pitched D. Present in late diastole 47 / 50 47. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Mobitz type II block C. Wenckebach block D. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block 48 / 50 48. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Livedo reticularis D. Acrocyanosis 49 / 50 49. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Electrical cardioversion B. IV amiodarone C. Carotid massage D. IV Lignocaine 50 / 50 50. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Methyldopa B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Diazoxide D. 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