Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 2 / 50 2. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 18 inch long 3 / 50 3. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 100 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 400 Joules D. 200 Joules 4 / 50 4. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Coronary osteal stenosis 5 / 50 5. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Angina Pectoris D. Systemic hypertension 6 / 50 6. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Chronic cor pulmonale D. Hypothermia 7 / 50 7. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Severe anemia C. Cardiomyopathy D. Ischemic heart disease 8 / 50 8. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Pericardial effusion B. Wenckebach block C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular failure 9 / 50 9. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. Absent clavicle C. Asplenia D. VSD 10 / 50 10. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Commonly found in children C. Associated with thrill D. Best heard over mitral area 11 / 50 11. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Right atrial myxoma D. Mitral valve prolapse 12 / 50 12. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Cardiac tamponade C. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction D. Acute mitral regurgitation 13 / 50 13. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Increased duration of QRS complex C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased PR interval 14 / 50 14. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Splenomegaly C. Pyrexia D. High ESR 15 / 50 15. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Diastolic shock B. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Nitric oxide B. Endothelin C. Histamine D. Bradykinin 17 / 50 17. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. Hyperkalaemia C. Ostium primum ASD D. WPW syndrome 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Obstructive jaundice C. Myxoedema D. Hypothermia 19 / 50 19. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard in standing position C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Present in late diastole 20 / 50 20. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. A small fraction closes by the year 10 C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. Moderate VSD 21 / 50 21. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. AV nodal rhythm C. First degree heart block D. Low atrial rhythm 22 / 50 22. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection D. Severe coarctation of aorta 23 / 50 23. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MS B. AS C. MR D. AR 24 / 50 24. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. MR C. VSD D. ASD 25 / 50 25. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Old age C. Renal failure D. Hepatic encephalopathy 26 / 50 26. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Severe pulmonary hypertension B. Tricuspid atresia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 27 / 50 27. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Post-AMI C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Post-electrical cardioversion 28 / 50 28. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Floppy mitral valve D. Acute myocardial infarction 29 / 50 29. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur C. The ejection click goes away from S1 D. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 30 / 50 30. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Buerger's disease C. Leriche's syndrome D. Peripheral embolism 31 / 50 31. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. Acute rheumatic fever C. MS D. Pulmonary hypertension 32 / 50 32. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 5 ml B. 50 ml C. 25 ml D. 15 ml 33 / 50 33. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Small v-wave C. Prominent a-wave D. Prominent x-descent 34 / 50 34. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Ventricular bigeminy C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Wenckebach block 35 / 50 35. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. PDA C. ASD D. VSD 36 / 50 36. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Residual neurodeficit C. Warning symptoms D. Gradual onset 37 / 50 37. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. Found in basal region C. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg D. MS is a recognised cause 38 / 50 38. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Cardiomegaly C. Tapping apex D. Water-hammer pulse 39 / 50 39. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Right atrial myxoma C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Cardiac tamponade 40 / 50 40. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. Transposition of great vessels 41 / 50 41. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Morning-time single dosage D. Eccentric dosage schedule 42 / 50 42. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Mid-diastole C. Diastole D. Systole 43 / 50 43. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. Dextrocardia C. VSD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 44 / 50 44. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Diazoxide B. Labetalol C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Methyldopa 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Increased ESR C. Arthralgia D. Elevated ASO titre 46 / 50 46. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Pregnancy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 47 / 50 47. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 48 / 50 48. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Deep Q wave C. Prominent ST elevation D. Height of R wave maximum in V6 49 / 50 49. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Accentuated C. Ringing in character D. Diminished 50 / 50 50. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
