Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Athletes C. Pregnancy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 2 / 50 2. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Floppy mitral valve C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Acute myocardial infarction 3 / 50 3. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. MR C. MS D. AR 4 / 50 4. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Acute left ventricular failure D. Atrial fibrillation 5 / 50 5. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Pericardial knock C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Haptoglobulin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Alpha-fetoprotein 7 / 50 7. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Buerger's disease C. Peripheral embolism D. Leriche's syndrome 8 / 50 8. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. ASD B. VSD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Bicuspid aortic valve 9 / 50 9. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Shortened PR interval 10 / 50 10. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Chronic renal failure D. Gonorrhoea 11 / 50 11. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Methyldopa C. Diazoxide D. Sodium nitroprusside 12 / 50 12. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Left atrial myxoma C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Fallot's tetralogy 13 / 50 13. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. LDH B. CPK C. SGOT D. SGPT 14 / 50 14. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Acute severe asthma D. Constrictive pericarditis 15 / 50 15. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Complete heart block B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Right atrial myxoma 16 / 50 16. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Afibrinogenaemia C. Vasculitis D. Old age 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Ascites 18 / 50 18. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Virus D. Autoimmune reaction 19 / 50 19. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. Felty's syndrome C. SLE D. Rheumatic arthritis 20 / 50 20. The murmur of MS is: A. Early diastolic B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. High-pitched D. With radiation towards left axilla 21 / 50 21. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Water-hammer pulse C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Tapping apex 22 / 50 22. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Endotoxic shock C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 23 / 50 23. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Verapamil C. Metoprolol D. Adenosine 24 / 50 24. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. AV nodal rhythm C. Low atrial rhythm D. First degree heart block 25 / 50 25. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Systole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 26 / 50 26. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Superior mediastinal syndrome B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Left ventricular failure D. Congestive cardiac failure 27 / 50 27. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. MS C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 28 / 50 28. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 29 / 50 29. All are true in severe PS except: A. The ejection click goes away from S1 B. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Pitting oedema B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Myxoedema C. Hypothermia D. Obstructive jaundice 32 / 50 32. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised VLDL C. Reduced HDL D. Raised small dense LDL 33 / 50 33. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Y-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 34 / 50 34. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Trauma B. Tophaceous gout C. Sarcoidosis D. Cervical rib 35 / 50 35. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class IV B. Class I C. Class II D. Class III 36 / 50 36. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. VSD B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. PDA D. Dextrocardia 37 / 50 37. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Morbid obesity C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Microvascular angina 38 / 50 38. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Pregnancy D. Sickle cell anemia 39 / 50 39. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Ringing in character C. Diminished D. Accentuated 40 / 50 40. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. MS C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. VSD 41 / 50 41. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Low pulse pressure D. Hypotension 42 / 50 42. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Night-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Twice daily dosage schedule 43 / 50 43. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ventricular septal defect 44 / 50 44. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Systemic hypertension C. Takayasu's disease D. Arteritis 45 / 50 45. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 46 / 50 46. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Complete heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular tachycardia 47 / 50 47. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Myxoedema C. Mitral stenosis D. Carcinoid syndrome 48 / 50 48. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Splenomegaly B. Pyrexia C. Clubbing D. High ESR 49 / 50 49. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Lovastatin C. Nicotinic acid D. Probucol 50 / 50 50. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. AR with tight PS C. Acutely developing AR D. AR with CCF LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology