Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Takayasu's disease D. Aplastic anaemia 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Elevated ASO titre B. Arthralgia C. Prolonged PR interval D. Increased ESR 3 / 50 3. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Propranolol B. Phenylephrin C. Morphine D. Amiodarone 4 / 50 4. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 5 / 50 5. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypothermia D. Vagal stimulation 6 / 50 6. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. Aortic regurgitation D. Right-sided aortic arch 7 / 50 7. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Presystolic D. Systolic 8 / 50 8. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Central cyanosis D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 9 / 50 9. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Propranolol C. Amiodarone D. ACE-inhibitors 10 / 50 10. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased PR interval B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased QT interval D. Increased duration of QRS complex 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Splenomegaly B. Osler's node C. Murmur D. Cubbing 12 / 50 12. The least common complication of MS is: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Atrial fibrillation 13 / 50 13. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Bacterial endocarditis 14 / 50 14. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Severe coarctation of aorta B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Pulmonary atresia 15 / 50 15. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Isolated levocardia D. Emphysema 16 / 50 16. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Diastolic shock C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 17 / 50 17. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 18 / 50 18. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus bradycardia C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus tachycardia 19 / 50 19. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Infective endocarditis C. Rupture D. Congestive cardiac failure 20 / 50 20. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Osler B. Laennec C. Korotkoff D. Babinski 21 / 50 21. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 22 / 50 22. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. VSD C. AS D. PS 23 / 50 23. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. MS C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. MR 24 / 50 24. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Clotting time (CT) D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 25 / 50 25. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Right atrial myxoma C. Complete heart block D. Constrictive pericarditis 26 / 50 26. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 27 / 50 27. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 15 ml C. 5 ml D. 50 ml 28 / 50 28. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. Felty's syndrome C. Rheumatic arthritis D. SLE 29 / 50 29. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Kussmaul's sign C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 30 / 50 30. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Haemothorax C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Cardiac tamponade 31 / 50 31. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 8 inch long 32 / 50 32. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Systemic hypertension 33 / 50 33. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic murmur in complete heart block B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 34 / 50 34. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Sickle cell anemia C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Polycythemia 35 / 50 35. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Dorsalis pedis D. Radial 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Marfan's syndrome C. Arteriosclerosis D. Pregnancy 37 / 50 37. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis 38 / 50 38. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Left ventricular failure B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Cirrhosis of liver 39 / 50 39. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Aortopulmonary window D. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis 40 / 50 40. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. PDA C. Associated LVH D. ASD 41 / 50 41. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ventricular septal defect 42 / 50 42. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Pulmonary hypertension D. MS 43 / 50 43. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Pregnancy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 44 / 50 44. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Methyldopa B. Labetalol C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Diazoxide 45 / 50 45. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea 46 / 50 46. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ventricular septal defect C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Patent ductus arteriosus 47 / 50 47. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Raised JVP C. Orthopnoea D. Hypotension 48 / 50 48. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Myocarditis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Pregnancy 49 / 50 49. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Severe pulmonary hypertension B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Tricuspid atresia D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 50 / 50 50. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. VSD D. MS LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology