Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. VSD B. MR C. ASD D. PDA 2 / 50 2. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Occurs below 18 years D. Pin-point mitral valve 3 / 50 3. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Aplastic anaemia C. Takayasu's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 4 / 50 4. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hypokalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 5 / 50 5. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. MS C. PS D. VSD 6 / 50 6. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MR B. MS C. AS D. AR 7 / 50 7. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Acute pulmonary oedema B. Left-to-right shunt C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients C. Starts in the dependent part D. Pitting oedema 9 / 50 9. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Calcium 10 / 50 10. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Standing C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Squatting 11 / 50 11. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 12 / 50 12. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Pericardial effusion C. Digitalis toxicity D. Wenckebach block 13 / 50 13. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound D. Stenosis is severe 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Hepatitis C. Tachyarrhythmias D. Photosensitivity 15 / 50 15. All are true in severe PS except: A. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. The ejection click goes away from S1 D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 16 / 50 16. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. Early systolic click C. High-pitched late systolic murmur D. More common in females 17 / 50 17. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Chlamydia B. HIV C. Cytomegalovirus D. H. pylori 18 / 50 18. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Isolated levocardia C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Addison's disease 19 / 50 19. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Berry aneurysm D. Bicuspid aortic valve 20 / 50 20. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. AS C. MS D. MR 21 / 50 21. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Associated with thrill C. Usually diastolic in timing D. Best heard over mitral area 22 / 50 22. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 23 / 50 23. S4 is not associated with: A. Aortic stenosis B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Systemic hypertension D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 24 / 50 24. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Prominent ST elevation C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep Q wave 25 / 50 25. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Rapid recovery C. Residual neurodeficit D. Gradual onset 26 / 50 26. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 12 inch long 27 / 50 27. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MS D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 28 / 50 28. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Hyperuricemia C. Microvascular angina D. Morbid obesity 29 / 50 29. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial flutter C. Hypokalaemia D. Atrial fibrillation 30 / 50 30. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Tachycardia C. Mitral valve calcification D. Digitalis overdose 31 / 50 31. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Reduced HDL C. Raised VLDL D. Raised small dense LDL 32 / 50 32. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Pindolol C. Labetalol D. Carvedilol 33 / 50 33. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Mobitz type II block C. Wenckebach block D. Ventricular bigeminy 34 / 50 34. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Polycythemia D. Pregnancy 35 / 50 35. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. MS C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Acute rheumatic fever 36 / 50 36. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Pure mitral stenosis C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Restenosis cases 37 / 50 37. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Shortened PR interval C. Increased PR interval D. Diminished QT interval 38 / 50 38. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Intermittent claudication C. Systemic hypertension D. Disturbances in vision 39 / 50 39. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Thoracic deformity D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 40 / 50 40. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. ACE-inhibitors B. Surgical myotomy of the septum C. Amiodarone D. Propranolol 41 / 50 41. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Single ventricle 42 / 50 42. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Systemic hypertension D. Congestive cardiac failure 43 / 50 43. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Toxoplasma infection B. HIV infection C. Diphtheria D. Ascariasis 44 / 50 44. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Ischemic heart disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Cardiomyopathy 45 / 50 45. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Related to diastolic BP C. Should be ignored D. As a result of venous distension 46 / 50 46. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Late diastole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 47 / 50 47. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Atrial fibrillation B. 2nd degree heart block C. Extrasystoles D. Sinus arrhythmia 48 / 50 48. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 49 / 50 49. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Verapamil B. Quinidine C. Flecainide D. Disopyramide 50 / 50 50. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Aortic valve D. 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