Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Elevated ASO titre C. Increased ESR D. Arthralgia 2 / 50 2. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 1 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 3 / 50 3. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Systemic hypertension C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Angina Pectoris 4 / 50 4. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Pericardial knock C. Opening snap D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 5 / 50 5. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. IV fluid B. Restriction of fluid C. Calcium gluconate D. Diuretics 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Osteoarthritis C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 7 / 50 7. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Aplastic anaemia C. Takayasu's disease D. Acute leukaemia 8 / 50 8. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Myocarditis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Pregnancy D. Right ventricular infarction 9 / 50 9. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Old age B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Renal failure D. Hypokalaemia 10 / 50 10. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. MS C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. MR 11 / 50 11. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 30mmHg B. 60mmHg C. 40mmHg D. 80mmHg 12 / 50 12. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Endotoxic shock C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Mitral stenosis 13 / 50 13. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 5 ml C. 25 ml D. 15 ml 14 / 50 14. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Septic shock 15 / 50 15. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Clotting time (CT) C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Factor-X assay 16 / 50 16. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Beta-blockers C. Diuretics D. ACE inhibitors 17 / 50 17. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Valsalva maneuver C. Standing D. Squatting 18 / 50 18. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Present in late diastole C. Low-pitched D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 19 / 50 19. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus AR B. ASD plus MS C. VSD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 20 / 50 20. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptoroccus viridans B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Pneumococcus D. Staphylococcus aureus 21 / 50 21. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Aortic stenosis 22 / 50 22. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. More common in females C. Early systolic click D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic 23 / 50 23. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Palate C. Nailbed D. Fundus 24 / 50 24. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Systemic hypertension 25 / 50 25. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Night-time single dosage C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Eccentric dosage schedule 26 / 50 26. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Aortopulmonary window C. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis D. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula 27 / 50 27. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Post-electrical cardioversion C. Post-AMI D. Rhabdomyolysis 28 / 50 28. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Tricuspid atresia D. Ebstein's anomaly 29 / 50 29. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 3-6th rib 30 / 50 30. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 100 Joules C. 50 Joules D. 200 Joules 31 / 50 31. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 32 / 50 32. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Right atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence 33 / 50 33. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hyponatraemia 34 / 50 34. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Austin Flint murmur B. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome C. Left atrial myxoma D. Carey Coombs murmur 35 / 50 35. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation B. PDA C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) D. Pulmonary stenosis 36 / 50 36. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Tapioca C. Bush tea D. Coffee 37 / 50 37. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Best heard over mitral area D. Commonly found in children 38 / 50 38. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. S2 C. Venous hum D. Opening snap 39 / 50 39. The murmur of MS is: A. Early diastolic B. With radiation towards left axilla C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. High-pitched 40 / 50 40. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Rheumatic valve C. Mural thrombus D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 41 / 50 41. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Polycystic kidney disease B. Addison's disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Phaeochromocytoma 42 / 50 42. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Rheumatic carditis C. WPW syndrome D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 43 / 50 43. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep Q wave 44 / 50 44. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound C. Stenosis is severe D. Occurs immediately after S1 45 / 50 45. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Having loud S1 C. Found in severe AR D. Mid-diastolic murmur 46 / 50 46. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 47 / 50 47. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Protozoa B. Bacteria C. Autoimmune reaction D. Virus 48 / 50 48. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 49 / 50 49. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. First degree heart block C. AV nodal rhythm D. Low atrial rhythm 50 / 50 50. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Intermittent claudication C. Diminished pulses in upper extremity D. Systemic hypertension LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology