Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Pneumococcus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptoroccus viridans 2 / 50 2. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 3 / 50 3. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. MS C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. VSD 4 / 50 4. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Bush tea C. Tapioca D. Aflatoxin 5 / 50 5. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Hypothermia B. Chronic cor pulmonale C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Digitalis toxicity 6 / 50 6. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Morbid obesity D. Microvascular angina 7 / 50 7. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-electrical cardioversion B. Myocarditis C. Post-AMI D. Rhabdomyolysis 8 / 50 8. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Massive myocardial infarction D. Ventricular fibrillation 9 / 50 9. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Aortic stenosis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 10 / 50 10. The least common complication of MS is: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Atrial fibrillation C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Pitting oedema B. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Starts in the dependent part 12 / 50 12. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Telmisartan C. Amlodipine D. Methyldopa 13 / 50 13. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Increased LDH3 B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L D. Inverted T wave in ECG 14 / 50 14. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Atrial fibrillation D. Angina Pectoris 15 / 50 15. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. WPW syndrome C. Hypothermia D. Hyperkalaemia 16 / 50 16. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Venous hum B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. S2 17 / 50 17. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Floppy mitral valve D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 18 / 50 18. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ventricular septal defect C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus 19 / 50 19. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. Early diastolic C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. High-pitched 20 / 50 20. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Amlodipine C. Amiodarone D. Lisinopril 21 / 50 21. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Dorsalis pedis C. Radial D. Femoral 22 / 50 22. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Increased duration of QRS complex C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased PR interval 23 / 50 23. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome B. Pulmonary atresia C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 24 / 50 24. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Ventricular tachycardia 25 / 50 25. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with CCF D. AR with tight PS 26 / 50 26. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Acrocyanosis D. Livedo reticularis 27 / 50 27. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Extrasystoles D. 2nd degree heart block 28 / 50 28. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Systole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 29 / 50 29. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Phaeochromocytoma 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 31 / 50 31. Sudden death may occur in: A. ASD B. AS C. PDA D. Constrictive pericarditis 32 / 50 32. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Acute mitral regurgitation C. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction D. Right ventricular infarction 33 / 50 33. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Right atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Cardiac tamponade 34 / 50 34. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 12 inch long D. 8 inch long 35 / 50 35. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Standing C. Squatting D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 36 / 50 36. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 37 / 50 37. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Cervical rib B. Tophaceous gout C. Trauma D. Sarcoidosis 38 / 50 38. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Increased JVP C. Pulmonary congestion D. Kussmaul's sign 39 / 50 39. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Bing sign C. Tinel's sign D. Hoover's sign 40 / 50 40. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 41 / 50 41. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. PDA B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ostium primum ASD D. VSD 42 / 50 42. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Related to diastolic BP B. Present in all hypertensives C. As a result of venous distension D. Should be ignored 43 / 50 43. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Acute severe asthma D. Constrictive pericarditis 44 / 50 44. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Atrial flutter C. Hypokalaemia D. PSVT 45 / 50 45. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Ringing in character B. Diminished C. Normal in character D. Accentuated 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Hepatitis C. Photosensitivity D. Alveolitis 47 / 50 47. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. AR C. VSD D. PDA 48 / 50 48. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep Q wave D. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion 49 / 50 49. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Doxorubicin C. Allopurinol D. Chloramphenicol 50 / 50 50. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. 'Silver-wire' arteries B. Retinal haemorrhage C. Arteriovenous nipping D. 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