Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Amrinone C. Amiodarone D. Lisinopril 2 / 50 2. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Sick sinus syndrome C. Hypothermia D. WPW syndrome 3 / 50 3. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Arteritis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Systemic hypertension 4 / 50 4. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Aortoarteritis B. Atherosclerosis of aorta C. Unfolding of aorta D. Coarctation of aorta 5 / 50 5. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. The ejection click goes away from S1 C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur 6 / 50 6. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Pulmonary atresia D. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome 7 / 50 7. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 12 inch long 8 / 50 8. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. AR C. Pulmonary hypertension D. MS 9 / 50 9. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 5 ml C. 25 ml D. 15 ml 10 / 50 10. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. WPW syndrome D. Digitalis toxicity 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Polyarthritis C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Erythema nodosum 12 / 50 12. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Shock C. Arrhythmias D. Hypertension 13 / 50 13. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Diazoxide B. Labetalol C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Methyldopa 14 / 50 14. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Severe pulmonary hypertension B. Tricuspid atresia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 15 / 50 15. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Factor-X assay C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Clotting time (CT) 16 / 50 16. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Graham Steel murmur B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Presence of S3 17 / 50 17. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction C. Acute mitral regurgitation D. Right ventricular infarction 18 / 50 18. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Sinus arrhythmia C. 2nd degree heart block D. Extrasystoles 19 / 50 19. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Superior mediastinal syndrome B. Left ventricular failure C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Congestive cardiac failure 20 / 50 20. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 85 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 21 / 50 21. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Pericardial knock D. Opening snap 22 / 50 22. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with systemic hypertension D. AR with tight PS 23 / 50 23. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. MR C. AR D. AS with AR 24 / 50 24. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Raised JVP C. Hypotension D. Orthopnoea 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Hepatitis C. Photosensitivity D. Alveolitis 26 / 50 26. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Lutembacher syndrome C. Supravalvular AS D. Infundibular PS 27 / 50 27. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Complete heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Nodal rhythm 28 / 50 28. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Right atrial myxoma 29 / 50 29. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Inverted T wave in ECG C. Increased LDH3 D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 30 / 50 30. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Myocarditis C. Pregnancy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 31 / 50 31. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Post-electrical cardioversion C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Post-AMI 32 / 50 32. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Streptoroccus viridans 33 / 50 33. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable S4 34 / 50 34. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Tall T-waves C. Diminished QT interval D. Shortened PR interval 35 / 50 35. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Wenckebach heart block D. Sinus arrhythmia 36 / 50 36. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Pin-point mitral valve D. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon 37 / 50 37. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism 38 / 50 38. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Becomes prominent on lying down B. Undulating C. There are two negative waves D. Better felt than seen 39 / 50 39. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class IV C. Class III D. Class I 40 / 50 40. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. Transposition of great vessels C. VSD D. ASD 41 / 50 41. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. ECG was taken in deep inspiration D. Dextrocardia 42 / 50 42. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 43 / 50 43. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 44 / 50 44. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. VSD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ebstein's anomaly 45 / 50 45. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent a-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Small v-wave D. Prominent y-descent 46 / 50 46. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-diastole C. Diastole D. Mid-systole 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Myxoedema C. Hypothermia D. Obstructive jaundice 48 / 50 48. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. PDA C. ASD D. Coarctation of aorta 49 / 50 49. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. MS C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. VSD 50 / 50 50. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Carvedilol B. Labetalol C. Atenolol D. 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