Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Polyarthritis D. Chorea 2 / 50 2. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Sodium 3 / 50 3. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Lovastatin C. Nicotinic acid D. Probucol 4 / 50 4. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Addison's disease C. Isolated levocardia D. Sheehan's syndrome 5 / 50 5. The least common complication of MS is: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Atrial fibrillation C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 6 / 50 6. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Hepatitis C. Tachyarrhythmias D. Alveolitis 8 / 50 8. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MR B. MS C. AR D. AS 9 / 50 9. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypothermia D. Vagal stimulation 10 / 50 10. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Pulmonary oedema D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 11 / 50 11. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable S4 D. Palpable S3 12 / 50 12. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Thoracic deformity 13 / 50 13. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Dorsalis pedis C. Femoral D. Radial 14 / 50 14. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Commonly found in children D. Best heard over mitral area 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Rotating tourniquets C. Morphine D. Diuretics 16 / 50 16. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Pregnancy D. Athletes 17 / 50 17. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. Anywhere in the precordium C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. With the diaphragm of stethoscope 18 / 50 18. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Sickle cell anemia C. Pregnancy D. Congestive cardiac failure 19 / 50 19. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Myocarditis D. Emphysema 20 / 50 20. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Gallop rhythm C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Haptoglobulin C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Orosomucoid 22 / 50 22. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Left atrial myxoma C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Acute bacterial endocarditis 23 / 50 23. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Wenckebach heart block 24 / 50 24. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Diastole 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Elevated ASO titre C. Prolonged PR interval D. Increased ESR 26 / 50 26. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Rapid recovery C. Residual neurodeficit D. Gradual onset 27 / 50 27. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Cardiac tamponade 28 / 50 28. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic murmur in complete heart block B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Systolic innocent murmur D. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation 29 / 50 29. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur B. Diastolic shock C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 30 / 50 30. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left atrium B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Left ventricle 31 / 50 31. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. There are two negative waves C. Undulating D. Becomes prominent on lying down 32 / 50 32. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. PSVT C. Atrial flutter D. Hypokalaemia 33 / 50 33. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Mobitz type II block D. Wenckebach block 34 / 50 34. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Femoral artery C. Cauda equina D. Inferior vena cava 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Osteoarthritis 36 / 50 36. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Supraventricular tachycardia D. Angina Pectoris 37 / 50 37. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 38 / 50 38. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Anomalous origin of coronary artery B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Single ventricle 39 / 50 39. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Verapamil C. Disopyramide D. Quinidine 40 / 50 40. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Asplenia B. Absent clavicle C. Fingerization of thumb D. VSD 41 / 50 41. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined MS and AS 42 / 50 42. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. AR C. MR D. AS with AR 43 / 50 43. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Felty's syndrome B. SLE C. Viral arthritis D. Rheumatic arthritis 44 / 50 44. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Early diastolic C. Presystolic D. Systolic 45 / 50 45. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. MS C. MR D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 46 / 50 46. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg B. Found in basal region C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. MS is a recognised cause 47 / 50 47. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Ascites D. Raised JVP 49 / 50 49. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Right ventricular failure B. Left-to-right shunt C. Left ventricular failure D. Pulmonary stenosis 50 / 50 50. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Raised JVP D. Ashen-grey pallor LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology