Cardiology

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Cardiology

Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions.

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1. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with:

2 / 50

2. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure?

3 / 50

3. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis?

4 / 50

4. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except:

5 / 50

5. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for:

6 / 50

6. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is:

7 / 50

7. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator?

8 / 50

8. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in:

9 / 50

9. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except:

10 / 50

10. The action of digitalis is augmented by:

11 / 50

11. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by:

12 / 50

12. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by:

13 / 50

13. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except:

14 / 50

14. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to:

15 / 50

15. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in:

16 / 50

16. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is:

17 / 50

17. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of:

18 / 50

18. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of:

19 / 50

19. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses:

20 / 50

20. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates:

21 / 50

21. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on:

22 / 50

22. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with:

23 / 50

23. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except:

24 / 50

24. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by:

25 / 50

25. All are features of pericardial tamponade except:

26 / 50

26. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings:

27 / 50

27. Which is false regarding dyspnoea?

28 / 50

28. Sudden death may occur in:

29 / 50

29. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat:

30 / 50

30. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to:

31 / 50

31. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD?

32 / 50

32. Cardiac syncope is characterised by:

33 / 50

33. JVP is usually increased in:

34 / 50

34. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have:

35 / 50

35. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except:

36 / 50

36. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in:

37 / 50

37. Osler’s node is classically seen in:

38 / 50

38. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with:

39 / 50

39. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of:

40 / 50

40. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant?

41 / 50

41. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat?

42 / 50

42. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1?

43 / 50

43. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy:

44 / 50

44. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except:

45 / 50

45. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2?

46 / 50

46. Opening snap is:

47 / 50

47. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except:

48 / 50

48. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder?

49 / 50

49. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by:

50 / 50

50. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy?

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