Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. Surgical myotomy of the septum C. Amiodarone D. ACE-inhibitors 2 / 50 2. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Anomalous origin of coronary artery C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Single ventricle 3 / 50 3. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Methyldopa B. Amlodipine C. Labetalol D. Telmisartan 4 / 50 4. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. IV Lignocaine C. Carotid massage D. Electrical cardioversion 5 / 50 5. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Central cyanosis C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence 6 / 50 6. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Cardiac tamponade D. Acute severe asthma 7 / 50 7. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Increased JVP C. Pulmonary congestion D. Kussmaul's sign 8 / 50 8. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. Peripheral cyanosis C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Raised JVP 9 / 50 9. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulmonary fibrosis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 10 / 50 10. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Increased LDH3 D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 11 / 50 11. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. SLE B. Rheumatic arthritis C. Felty's syndrome D. Viral arthritis 12 / 50 12. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined AR and MR D. Combined MS and MR 13 / 50 13. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arrhythmias D. Shock 14 / 50 14. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Afibrinogenaemia B. SLE C. Old age D. Vasculitis 15 / 50 15. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis D. Marantic endocarditis 16 / 50 16. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. Constrictive pericarditis C. PDA D. ASD 17 / 50 17. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Mitral stenosis C. Myxoedema D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 18 / 50 18. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Haemothorax C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 19 / 50 19. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Acrocyanosis B. Livedo reticularis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Deep vein thrombosis 20 / 50 20. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Rupture D. Infective endocarditis 21 / 50 21. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Transposition of great vessels C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Coarctation of aorta 22 / 50 22. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Chlamydia C. HIV D. Cytomegalovirus 23 / 50 23. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 24 / 50 24. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Aortic regurgitation B. RBBB C. LBBB D. Left ventricular pacing 25 / 50 25. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Low volume pulse D. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein 27 / 50 27. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Leg raising C. Standing D. Valsalva manoeuvre 28 / 50 28. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. VSD C. Cat-like cry D. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 29 / 50 29. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Berry aneurysm D. Aortic arch syndrome 30 / 50 30. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Related to diastolic BP B. Should be ignored C. As a result of venous distension D. Present in all hypertensives 31 / 50 31. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Atrial fibrillation C. Acute left ventricular failure D. Supraventricular tachycardia 32 / 50 32. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class III C. Class II D. Class IV 33 / 50 33. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Acute pancreatitis C. Chronic renal failure D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 34 / 50 34. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Squatting D. Standing 35 / 50 35. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. MS C. MR D. AS 36 / 50 36. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. After holding the breath C. On the left side of lower sternum D. In lying down position 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Chorea C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Polyarthritis 38 / 50 38. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. PDA C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. Pulmonary stenosis 39 / 50 39. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Gallop rhythm B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Dependent oedema D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Alveolitis C. Photosensitivity D. Hepatitis 41 / 50 41. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 42 / 50 42. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Splenomegaly C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Clubbing 43 / 50 43. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. PDA C. VSD D. MS 44 / 50 44. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Hypothermia C. Sick sinus syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 45 / 50 45. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Renal artery stenosis B. Eclampsia C. Coarctation of aorta D. Phaeochromocytoma 46 / 50 46. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Coarctation of aorta B. ASD C. VSD D. PDA 47 / 50 47. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Femoral artery C. Cauda equina D. Inferior vena cava 48 / 50 48. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Tricuspid atresia C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 49 / 50 49. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. First degree heart block C. WPW syndrome D. AV nodal rhythm 50 / 50 50. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology