Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Multiple ectopics C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial flutter 2 / 50 2. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Hyperkalaemia C. Ostium primum ASD D. During inspiration 3 / 50 3. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Hoover's sign C. Tinel's sign D. Bing sign 4 / 50 4. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon B. Pin-point mitral valve C. Occurs below 18 years D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 5 / 50 5. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Wenckebach heart block C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein B. Regular pulse rate C. Low volume pulse D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 7 / 50 7. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. VSD B. PS C. Coarctation of aorta D. AS 8 / 50 8. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Renal artery stenosis D. Coarctation of aorta 9 / 50 9. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Rupture B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Embolism D. Infective endocarditis 10 / 50 10. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 5 ml C. 15 ml D. 50 ml 11 / 50 11. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. WPW syndrome C. Digitalis toxicity D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 12 / 50 12. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-systole B. Late systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-diastole 13 / 50 13. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 14 / 50 14. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Systole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 15 / 50 15. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Cardiomyopathy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ischemic heart disease 16 / 50 16. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 17 / 50 17. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Rheumatic valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Mural thrombus D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 18 / 50 18. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 19 / 50 19. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 20 / 50 20. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Aneurysm of subclavian artery B. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta C. Takayasu's disease D. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels 21 / 50 21. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Left ventricular pacing B. RBBB C. Aortic regurgitation D. LBBB 22 / 50 22. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Old age B. Afibrinogenaemia C. SLE D. Vasculitis 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Increased ESR C. Elevated ASO titre D. Arthralgia 24 / 50 24. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Diuretics C. ACE inhibitors D. Beta-blockers 25 / 50 25. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Anomalous origin of coronary artery D. Ebstein's anomaly 26 / 50 26. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Y-shaped 27 / 50 27. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 28 / 50 28. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. With radiation towards left axilla D. Early diastolic 29 / 50 29. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Pindolol C. Carvedilol D. Labetalol 30 / 50 30. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Holt-Oram syndrome 31 / 50 31. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hyponatraemia 32 / 50 32. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Late and loud opening snap B. Presence of S3 C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Graham Steel murmur 33 / 50 33. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. MS C. PDA D. Coarctation of aorta 34 / 50 34. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Acute pulmonary oedema B. Left-to-right shunt C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 35 / 50 35. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Korotkoff B. Babinski C. Osler D. Laennec 36 / 50 36. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Myocarditis C. Post-AMI D. Post-electrical cardioversion 37 / 50 37. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Right ventricular infarction C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 38 / 50 38. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. Coarctation of aorta C. Primary pulmonary hypertension D. PDA 39 / 50 39. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Ventricular septal defect D. Aortopulmonary window 40 / 50 40. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 41 / 50 41. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Lisinopril B. Amiodarone C. Amlodipine D. Amrinone 42 / 50 42. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral regurgitation 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Hepatitis C. Photosensitivity D. Tachyarrhythmias 44 / 50 44. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Remains single C. Having wide split D. Shows narrow split 45 / 50 45. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Acrocyanosis 46 / 50 46. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Valsalva manoeuvre B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Standing D. Leg raising 47 / 50 47. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Tapping apex C. Water-hammer pulse D. Cardiomegaly 48 / 50 48. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Acute severe asthma B. Cardiac tamponade C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 49 / 50 49. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. Diuretics D. IV fluid 50 / 50 50. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Left-sided heart failure C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pulmonary thromboembolism LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology