Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Multiple ectopics B. Wenckebach block C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial flutter 2 / 50 2. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 3 / 50 3. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Calcium 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Arteriosclerosis 5 / 50 5. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Haemothorax D. Constrictive pericarditis 6 / 50 6. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Central cyanosis C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 7 / 50 7. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. PDA B. VSD C. Ostium primum ASD D. Fallot's tetralogy 8 / 50 8. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. More common in females D. High-pitched late systolic murmur 9 / 50 9. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. AR with tight PS C. Acutely developing AR D. AR with systemic hypertension 10 / 50 10. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. Surgical myotomy of the septum C. Amiodarone D. ACE-inhibitors 11 / 50 11. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Pregnancy D. Polycythemia 12 / 50 12. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hyperkinetic circulatory states B. Pregnancy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Athletes 13 / 50 13. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S4 14 / 50 14. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Shows narrow split C. Shows reverse split D. Having wide split 15 / 50 15. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic insufficiency C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral regurgitation 16 / 50 16. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Tachycardia B. Left atrial failure C. Mitral valve calcification D. Digitalis overdose 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 18 / 50 18. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Intermittent claudication D. Systemic hypertension 19 / 50 19. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Lutembacher syndrome C. Infundibular PS D. Supravalvular AS 20 / 50 20. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Sarcoidosis C. Trauma D. Cervical rib 21 / 50 21. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Factor-X assay C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Clotting time (CT) 22 / 50 22. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation B. PDA C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 23 / 50 23. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 24 / 50 24. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid atresia 25 / 50 25. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. MR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. AR 26 / 50 26. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Dextrocardia B. PDA C. VSD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 27 / 50 27. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve 28 / 50 28. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Neurogenic 29 / 50 29. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Flecainide D. Verapamil 30 / 50 30. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Palms C. Nailbed D. Fundus 31 / 50 31. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased duration of QRS complex C. Increased QT interval D. Increased PR interval 32 / 50 32. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Pulsus alternans D. Pulsus paradoxus 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Myxoedema C. Complete heart block D. Hypothermia 34 / 50 34. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Right ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Left-to-right shunt 35 / 50 35. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 100 Joules 36 / 50 36. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 37 / 50 37. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Right atrial myxoma 38 / 50 38. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Tricuspid atresia D. Transposition of great vessels 39 / 50 39. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. MS C. AR D. PDA 40 / 50 40. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. MR C. AS D. AR 41 / 50 41. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Hydralazine C. Methyldopa D. Enalapril 42 / 50 42. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Found in severe AR C. Absence of thrill D. Mid-diastolic murmur 43 / 50 43. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Radial D. Dorsalis pedis 44 / 50 44. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus 45 / 50 45. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined AR and MR D. Combined MS and MR 46 / 50 46. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Right ventricular dilatation D. Rheumatic heart disease 47 / 50 47. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. WPW syndrome C. Hypothermia D. Hyperkalaemia 48 / 50 48. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Lisinopril C. Amiodarone D. Amlodipine 49 / 50 49. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Unfolding of aorta D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 50 / 50 50. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Digoxin B. Spironolactone C. Propranolol D. Bucindolol LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology