Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Leriche's syndrome C. Lumbar canal stenosis D. Buerger's disease 2 / 50 2. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Systemic hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Arteritis 3 / 50 3. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left ventricle B. Left atrium C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle 4 / 50 4. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Mobitz type II block D. Wenckebach block 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Regular pulse rate D. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein 6 / 50 6. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. There are two negative waves D. Undulating 7 / 50 7. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV Lignocaine B. IV amiodarone C. Carotid massage D. Electrical cardioversion 8 / 50 8. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. AS C. AR D. MS 9 / 50 9. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. MR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. AR 10 / 50 10. Still’s murmur is: A. Best heard over mitral area B. Commonly found in children C. Usually diastolic in timing D. Associated with thrill 11 / 50 11. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. ASD C. Constrictive pericarditis D. PDA 12 / 50 12. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Systole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 13 / 50 13. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Chloramphenicol C. Methotrexate D. Doxorubicin 14 / 50 14. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. 'f ' waves in neck vein B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. Pulse deficit is > 10 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Chorea C. Erythema nodosum D. Subcutaneous nodule 16 / 50 16. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Central cyanosis 17 / 50 17. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Labetalol B. Carvedilol C. Atenolol D. Pindolol 18 / 50 18. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Hypothermia B. Obstructive jaundice C. Complete heart block D. Myxoedema 20 / 50 20. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. VSD C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. PS 21 / 50 21. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased PR interval B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Increased QT interval 22 / 50 22. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Clotting time (CT) D. Factor-X assay 23 / 50 23. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Lisinopril C. Amrinone D. Amiodarone 24 / 50 24. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Acute severe asthma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 25 / 50 25. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Splenomegaly C. Pyrexia D. High ESR 26 / 50 26. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Transposition of great vessels 27 / 50 27. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Diastolic shock C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 28 / 50 28. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 29 / 50 29. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. AV nodal rhythm C. WPW syndrome D. First degree heart block 30 / 50 30. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ventricular septal defect 31 / 50 31. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised VLDL C. Raised Lipoprotein (a) D. Raised small dense LDL 32 / 50 32. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Massive myocardial infarction 33 / 50 33. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined AR and MR 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Starts in the dependent part B. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Pitting oedema 35 / 50 35. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 36 / 50 36. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Standing B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Leg raising D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 37 / 50 37. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 50 Joules B. 100 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 400 Joules 38 / 50 38. S4 is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Aortic stenosis 39 / 50 39. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 40 / 50 40. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Bornholm disease C. Acute mediastinitis D. Unstable angina 41 / 50 41. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Complete heart block D. Nodal rhythm 42 / 50 42. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Pulmonary congestion B. Kussmaul's sign C. Increased JVP D. Hypotension 43 / 50 43. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Diminished QT interval C. Increased PR interval D. Shortened PR interval 44 / 50 44. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Aortic valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 45 / 50 45. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 12 inch long 46 / 50 46. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. Right-sided aortic arch C. PDA D. Aortic regurgitation 47 / 50 47. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. ASD C. VSD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 48 / 50 48. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Sick sinus syndrome C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypothermia 49 / 50 49. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Tricuspid atresia C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 50 / 50 50. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. 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