Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Coarctation of aorta C. Transposition of great vessels D. ASD 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Complete heart block C. Myxoedema D. Hypothermia 3 / 50 3. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Metoprolol C. Verapamil D. Adenosine 4 / 50 4. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Kussmaul's sign C. Pulmonary congestion D. Increased JVP 5 / 50 5. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. HIV infection C. Diphtheria D. Toxoplasma infection 6 / 50 6. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Amiloride C. Prazosin D. Hydralazine 7 / 50 7. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 8 / 50 8. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Chronic cor pulmonale C. Hypothermia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 9 / 50 9. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent a-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Small v-wave D. Prominent y-descent 10 / 50 10. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation C. Diminished cardiac output D. Prolonged circulation time 11 / 50 11. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. The ejection click goes away from S1 D. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur 12 / 50 12. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation C. Pulmonary stenosis D. PDA 13 / 50 13. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. MS is a recognised cause C. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg D. Found in basal region 14 / 50 14. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve 15 / 50 15. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Superior mediastinal syndrome B. Left ventricular failure C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Congestive cardiac failure 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Haptoglobulin D. Ceruloplasmin 17 / 50 17. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Atrial fibrillation 18 / 50 18. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Complete heart block 19 / 50 19. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 20 / 50 20. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Opening snap C. Venous hum D. S2 21 / 50 21. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. Retinal haemorrhage C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Papilloedema 22 / 50 22. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Labetalol C. Carvedilol D. Atenolol 23 / 50 23. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. MR C. AR D. MS 24 / 50 24. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Twice daily dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Eccentric dosage schedule 25 / 50 25. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. PDA C. AR D. VSD 26 / 50 26. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. VSD C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 27 / 50 27. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. ASD C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Osteoarthritis C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 29 / 50 29. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Central cyanosis 30 / 50 30. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. There are two negative waves D. Undulating 31 / 50 31. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. MR C. MS D. AR 32 / 50 32. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. LDH C. SGPT D. CPK 33 / 50 33. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypokalaemia C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Left bundle branch block 34 / 50 34. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. 2nd degree heart block C. Extrasystoles D. Atrial fibrillation 35 / 50 35. The murmur of MS is: A. Early diastolic B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. With radiation towards left axilla D. High-pitched 36 / 50 36. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Berry aneurysm B. Polycystic kidney C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Aortic arch syndrome 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Nitric oxide C. Endothelin D. Bradykinin 38 / 50 38. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Infective endocarditis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Rupture 39 / 50 39. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Pure mitral stenosis 40 / 50 40. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. PDA C. VSD D. Transposition of great vessels 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Splenomegaly C. Osler's node D. Cubbing 42 / 50 42. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-systole B. Mid-diastole C. Late diastole D. Late systole 43 / 50 43. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Cardiomyopathy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 44 / 50 44. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Tapping apex C. Water-hammer pulse D. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area 45 / 50 45. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. LBBB C. Aortic regurgitation D. Left ventricular pacing 46 / 50 46. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Addison's disease D. Isolated levocardia 47 / 50 47. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Hypertension C. Embolic phenomenon D. Clubbing 48 / 50 48. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 40mmHg B. 60mmHg C. 30mmHg D. 80mmHg 49 / 50 49. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Wenckebach block B. Pericardial effusion C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular failure 50 / 50 50. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Mitral stenosis B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Myxoedema D. Systemic lupus erythematosus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology