Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Coarctation of aorta C. ASD D. Transposition of great vessels 2 / 50 2. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. SLE C. Rheumatic arthritis D. Felty's syndrome 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Arteriosclerosis 4 / 50 4. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 5 / 50 5. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows narrow split 6 / 50 6. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Transposition of great vessels D. VSD 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Raised JVP C. Ascites D. Pulmonary oedema 8 / 50 8. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Cardiomyopathy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 9 / 50 9. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Bing sign C. Hoover's sign D. Tinel's sign 10 / 50 10. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Right atrial myxoma 11 / 50 11. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pericardial effusion C. Pulmonary thromboembolism D. Chronic obstructive airway disease 12 / 50 12. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep Q wave D. Prominent ST elevation 13 / 50 13. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Pulmonary valve 14 / 50 14. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Rheumatic valve C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 15 / 50 15. Still’s murmur is: A. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation 16 / 50 16. S4 is not associated with: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Aortic stenosis C. Systemic hypertension D. Chronic mitral regurgitation 17 / 50 17. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Left bundle branch block D. True posterior myocardial infarction 18 / 50 18. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Berry aneurysm C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta 19 / 50 19. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Down's syndrome D. Holt-Oram syndrome 20 / 50 20. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Severe pulmonary hypertension B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid atresia 21 / 50 21. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right ventricle B. Left ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium 22 / 50 22. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 23 / 50 23. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Buerger's disease C. Aortic stenosis D. Coarctation of aorta 24 / 50 24. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Pregnancy 25 / 50 25. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Supravalvular AS C. Infundibular PS D. Ebstein's anomaly 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Alveolitis C. Hepatitis D. Photosensitivity 27 / 50 27. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 28 / 50 28. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. PDA C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. Right-sided aortic arch 29 / 50 29. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Pregnancy C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Sickle cell anemia 30 / 50 30. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Athletes 31 / 50 31. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. ACE inhibitors B. Diuretics C. Beta-blockers D. Aspirin 32 / 50 32. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Emphysema B. Cardiomyopathy C. Myocarditis D. Acute myocardial infarction 33 / 50 33. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. A small fraction closes by the year 10 C. Moderate VSD D. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent 34 / 50 34. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. As a result of venous distension B. Related to diastolic BP C. Present in all hypertensives D. Should be ignored 35 / 50 35. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Probucol B. Lovastatin C. Nicotinic acid D. Gemfibrozil 36 / 50 36. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. 'f ' waves in neck vein C. Pulse deficit is > 10 D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 37 / 50 37. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Kussmaul's sign D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Homocystinuria C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Nephrotic syndrome 39 / 50 39. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined MS and AS 40 / 50 40. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Digitalis overdose B. Mitral valve calcification C. Left atrial failure D. Tachycardia 41 / 50 41. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Enalapril C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 42 / 50 42. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Afibrinogenaemia C. Vasculitis D. Old age 43 / 50 43. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Pulmonary congestion B. Hypotension C. Increased JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 44 / 50 44. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Unstable angina B. Acute mediastinitis C. Dissecting aneurysm D. Bornholm disease 45 / 50 45. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Left atrial myxoma D. Acute bacterial endocarditis 46 / 50 46. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Stenosis is severe D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 47 / 50 47. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypothermia C. Chronic cor pulmonale D. Digitalis toxicity 48 / 50 48. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Right atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Complete heart block 49 / 50 49. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Nailbed B. Palate C. Fundus D. Palms 50 / 50 50. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. PDA B. Coarctation of aorta C. Fallot's tetralogy D. MS LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology