Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased PR interval D. Increased QT interval 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Arthralgia C. Elevated ASO titre D. Increased ESR 3 / 50 3. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. MS is a recognised cause C. Found in basal region D. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg 4 / 50 4. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Gonorrhoea C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute pancreatitis 5 / 50 5. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. Surgical myotomy of the septum C. ACE-inhibitors D. Amiodarone 6 / 50 6. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Chronic cor pulmonale C. Digitalis toxicity D. Hypothermia 7 / 50 7. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Low pulse pressure C. Sinus bradycardia D. Hypotension 8 / 50 8. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Mitral valve 9 / 50 9. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pericardial effusion C. Pulmonary thromboembolism D. Chronic obstructive airway disease 10 / 50 10. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 B. Cat-like cry C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. VSD 11 / 50 11. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Hypocalcaemia 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Myxoedema B. Complete heart block C. Obstructive jaundice D. Hypothermia 13 / 50 13. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined AR and MR D. Combined MS and MR 14 / 50 14. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Water-hammer pulse C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Pulsus alternans 15 / 50 15. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Systemic hypertension D. Marfan's syndrome 16 / 50 16. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Methyldopa D. Diazoxide 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Ascites B. Pulmonary oedema C. Raised JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 18 / 50 18. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine D. Prazosin 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Pitting oedema C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Starts in the dependent part 20 / 50 20. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Leg raising C. Standing D. Valsalva manoeuvre 21 / 50 21. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Telmisartan C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine 22 / 50 22. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Systole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 23 / 50 23. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Chlamydia C. HIV D. Cytomegalovirus 24 / 50 24. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation C. PDA D. Pulmonary stenosis 25 / 50 25. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Right atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence 26 / 50 26. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Austin Flint murmur B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Left atrial myxoma 27 / 50 27. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Having loud S1 C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. Found in severe AR 28 / 50 28. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Aortic arch syndrome C. Polycystic kidney D. Berry aneurysm 29 / 50 29. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Left ventricular pacing B. Aortic regurgitation C. RBBB D. LBBB 30 / 50 30. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. VSD C. Absent clavicle D. Asplenia 31 / 50 31. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised small dense LDL B. Reduced HDL C. Raised VLDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 32 / 50 32. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Remains single C. Having wide split D. Shows narrow split 33 / 50 33. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Height of R wave maximum in V6 B. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion C. Deep Q wave D. Prominent ST elevation 34 / 50 34. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Fallot's tetralogy C. PDA D. MS 35 / 50 35. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Down's syndrome D. Holt-Oram syndrome 36 / 50 36. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. Retinal haemorrhage C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Arteriovenous nipping 37 / 50 37. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 50 ml C. 5 ml D. 15 ml 38 / 50 38. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Commonly found in children C. Best heard over mitral area D. Associated with thrill 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Chorea C. Erythema nodosum D. Polyarthritis 40 / 50 40. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV Lignocaine C. Electrical cardioversion D. IV amiodarone 41 / 50 41. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable S4 C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable opening snap 42 / 50 42. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Peripheral embolism B. Coarctation of aorta C. Leriche's syndrome D. Buerger's disease 43 / 50 43. Loud A2 is present in: A. Aortitis B. Calcified aortic valve C. Unfolding of aorta D. Pulmonary hypertension 44 / 50 44. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Coarctation of aorta C. ASD D. Transposition of great vessels 45 / 50 45. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Splenomegaly C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Cafe au lait pallor 46 / 50 46. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. PDA C. Ostium primum ASD D. Fallot's tetralogy 47 / 50 47. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Cardiomyopathy D. Thoracic deformity 48 / 50 48. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Infundibular PS D. Lutembacher syndrome 49 / 50 49. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tophaceous gout C. Trauma D. Cervical rib 50 / 50 50. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Disturbances in vision C. Systemic hypertension D. Intermittent claudication LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology