Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. VSD B. PDA C. Dextrocardia D. Bicuspid aortic valve 2 / 50 2. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Ringing in character C. Accentuated D. Normal in character 3 / 50 3. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Deep Q wave 4 / 50 4. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Buerger's disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Leriche's syndrome D. Lumbar canal stenosis 5 / 50 5. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 6 / 50 6. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Lipoprotein B. Homocysteine C. PAI-I D. Transferrin 7 / 50 7. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Floppy mitral valve D. Acute myocardial infarction 8 / 50 8. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. ASD B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. VSD 9 / 50 9. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome D. Trisomy 18 10 / 50 10. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased duration of QRS complex C. Increased QT interval D. Increased PR interval 11 / 50 11. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Shortened PR interval 12 / 50 12. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Cubbing B. Splenomegaly C. Murmur D. Osler's node 14 / 50 14. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Digoxin B. Spironolactone C. Propranolol D. Bucindolol 15 / 50 15. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. AS B. PS C. Coarctation of aorta D. VSD 16 / 50 16. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. ASD 17 / 50 17. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Athletes D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 18 / 50 18. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. AR with tight PS 19 / 50 19. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 400 Joules D. 100 Joules 20 / 50 20. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 12 inch long D. 8 inch long 21 / 50 21. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Wenckebach heart block 22 / 50 22. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Coffee C. Bush tea D. Tapioca 23 / 50 23. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Right ventricular dilatation B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Collagen vascular disease D. Rheumatic heart disease 24 / 50 24. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Gonorrhoea C. Chronic renal failure D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Arteriosclerosis C. Pregnancy D. Marfan's syndrome 26 / 50 26. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. LBBB B. Aortic regurgitation C. RBBB D. Left ventricular pacing 27 / 50 27. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MR B. AS C. MS D. AR 28 / 50 28. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Rheumatic carditis C. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) D. WPW syndrome 29 / 50 29. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 30 / 50 30. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Candida albicans endocarditis C. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 31 / 50 31. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Calcified aortic valve C. Aortitis D. Unfolding of aorta 32 / 50 32. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. VSD C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. PS 33 / 50 33. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Vagal stimulation C. Hypothermia D. Quinidine therapy 34 / 50 34. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Labetalol C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 35 / 50 35. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Shock D. Arrhythmias 36 / 50 36. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Anomalous origin of coronary artery D. Single ventricle 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Erythema nodosum C. Polyarthritis D. Subcutaneous nodule 38 / 50 38. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Sodium D. Calcium 39 / 50 39. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Cardiomyopathy 40 / 50 40. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. Aortic regurgitation C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. PDA 41 / 50 41. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound D. Stenosis is severe 42 / 50 42. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Pregnancy D. Severe menstrual bleeding 43 / 50 43. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Right atrial myxoma C. Complete heart block D. Constrictive pericarditis 44 / 50 44. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 45 / 50 45. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. ASD C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Transposition of great vessels 46 / 50 46. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Pregnancy C. Myocarditis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 47 / 50 47. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Angina Pectoris C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Congestive cardiac failure 48 / 50 48. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Low pulse pressure B. Sinus tachycardia C. Hypotension D. Sinus bradycardia 49 / 50 49. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Pneumococcus D. Streptoroccus viridans 50 / 50 50. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Absence of thrill C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. 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