Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Lipoprotein B. Transferrin C. PAI-I D. Homocysteine 2 / 50 2. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows reverse split C. Shows narrow split D. Remains single 3 / 50 3. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Residual neurodeficit B. Warning symptoms C. Rapid recovery D. Gradual onset 4 / 50 4. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Left-to-right shunt D. Acute pulmonary oedema 5 / 50 5. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. AR with CCF C. AR with tight PS D. Acutely developing AR 6 / 50 6. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 7 / 50 7. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Chronic renal failure C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Acute pancreatitis 8 / 50 8. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Raised JVP D. Peripheral cyanosis 9 / 50 9. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MS D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 10 / 50 10. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Dorsalis pedis D. Femoral 11 / 50 11. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 30mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 40mmHg 12 / 50 12. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Aortic stenosis C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Mitral incompetence 13 / 50 13. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Eccentric dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 14 / 50 14. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Acute severe asthma D. Cardiac tamponade 15 / 50 15. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Chronic constrictive pericarditis C. Mural thrombus D. Rheumatic valve 16 / 50 16. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Verapamil C. Quinidine D. Flecainide 17 / 50 17. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea 18 / 50 18. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Pulmonary atresia D. Severe coarctation of aorta 19 / 50 19. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Right atrial myxoma C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 20 / 50 20. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Systemic hypertension C. Marfan's syndrome D. Syphilitic aortitis 21 / 50 21. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve 22 / 50 22. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of left atrial thrombus B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Restenosis cases D. Pure mitral stenosis 23 / 50 23. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Sheehan's syndrome B. Emphysema C. Isolated levocardia D. Addison's disease 24 / 50 24. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula B. Aortopulmonary window C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis 25 / 50 25. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Pulsus alternans D. Pulsus bigeminus 26 / 50 26. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypothermia D. Digitalis toxicity 27 / 50 27. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Buerger's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Aortic stenosis 28 / 50 28. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arrhythmias D. Hypertension 29 / 50 29. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Verapamil B. Amiodarone C. Adenosine D. Metoprolol 30 / 50 30. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. Early systolic click D. More common in females 31 / 50 31. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Diastole C. Systole D. Mid-diastole 32 / 50 32. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Standing B. Leg raising C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 33 / 50 33. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Old age B. SLE C. Vasculitis D. Afibrinogenaemia 34 / 50 34. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Asplenia C. Absent clavicle D. Fingerization of thumb 35 / 50 35. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Babinski B. Korotkoff C. Osler D. Laennec 36 / 50 36. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Coarctation of aorta D. ASD 37 / 50 37. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent y-descent B. Prominent a-wave C. Small v-wave D. Prominent x-descent 38 / 50 38. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Bornholm disease C. Acute mediastinitis D. Unstable angina 39 / 50 39. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight 40 / 50 40. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Aortic stenosis C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Myocarditis 41 / 50 41. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised VLDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Reduced HDL 42 / 50 42. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. Rheumatic carditis C. Digitalis toxicity D. WPW syndrome 43 / 50 43. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Austin Flint murmur C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Carey Coombs murmur 44 / 50 44. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Stenosis is severe D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 45 / 50 45. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. ASD C. MR D. VSD 46 / 50 46. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Lutembacher syndrome C. Supravalvular AS D. Infundibular PS 47 / 50 47. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Absence of thrill C. Found in severe AR D. Mid-diastolic murmur 48 / 50 48. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Gallop rhythm C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 49 / 50 49. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 50 / 50 50. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology