Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Wenckebach heart block 2 / 50 2. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Peripheral embolism C. Buerger's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 3 / 50 3. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 4 / 50 4. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Floppy mitral valve 5 / 50 5. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Absence of left atrial thrombus 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Chorea C. Polyarthritis D. Subcutaneous nodule 7 / 50 7. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Central cyanosis D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 8 / 50 8. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Pregnancy C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Bacterial endocarditis 9 / 50 9. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min 10 / 50 10. S4 is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Aortic stenosis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Chronic mitral regurgitation 11 / 50 11. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Protozoa B. Autoimmune reaction C. Bacteria D. Virus 12 / 50 12. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Propranolol C. ACE-inhibitors D. Amiodarone 13 / 50 13. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Tricuspid atresia C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Transposition of great vessels 14 / 50 14. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Multiple ectopics B. Wenckebach block C. Atrial flutter D. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia 15 / 50 15. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Diazoxide B. Methyldopa C. Labetalol D. Sodium nitroprusside 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Morphine B. Diuretics C. Rotating tourniquets D. Trendelenburg position 17 / 50 17. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Methyldopa B. Telmisartan C. Amlodipine D. Labetalol 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Osteoarthritis D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 19 / 50 19. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Digitalis toxicity C. Hypothermia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 20 / 50 20. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Acute leukaemia C. Aplastic anaemia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 21 / 50 21. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Atrial fibrillation 22 / 50 22. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. MS 23 / 50 23. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Ejection click C. Venous hum D. Opening snap 24 / 50 24. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Arrhythmias C. Shock D. Hypertension 25 / 50 25. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Fallot's tetralogy 26 / 50 26. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Left ventricular pacing B. LBBB C. Aortic regurgitation D. RBBB 27 / 50 27. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Addison's disease C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Conn's syndrome 28 / 50 28. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Brachial C. Radial D. Femoral 29 / 50 29. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 50 ml C. 25 ml D. 5 ml 30 / 50 30. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Cardiac tamponade C. Right atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence 31 / 50 31. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 10-12th rib B. 6-9th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 3-6th rib 32 / 50 32. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Isolated levocardia D. Addison's disease 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Cubbing C. Splenomegaly D. Osler's node 34 / 50 34. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Hydralazine C. Amiloride D. Methyldopa 35 / 50 35. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Old age B. SLE C. Vasculitis D. Afibrinogenaemia 36 / 50 36. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Right ventricular pacing C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Left ventricular failure 37 / 50 37. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Standing C. Leg raising D. Valsalva manoeuvre 38 / 50 38. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Carey Coombs murmur B. Left atrial myxoma C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Austin Flint murmur 39 / 50 39. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Related to diastolic BP B. Should be ignored C. Present in all hypertensives D. As a result of venous distension 40 / 50 40. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised small dense LDL C. Reduced HDL D. Raised VLDL 41 / 50 41. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Tapioca C. Aflatoxin D. Bush tea 42 / 50 42. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Right-to-left shunt D. Fallot's tetralogy 43 / 50 43. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. MR B. AS with AR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. AR 44 / 50 44. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. SGOT C. CPK D. LDH 45 / 50 45. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Transposition of great vessels C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 46 / 50 46. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Bucindolol B. Spironolactone C. Propranolol D. Digoxin 47 / 50 47. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Complete heart block 48 / 50 48. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 49 / 50 49. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. PDA D. Right-sided aortic arch 50 / 50 50. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon B. Occurs below 18 years C. Pin-point mitral valve D. 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