CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 200 Joules 2 / 50 2. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Infundibular PS D. Lutembacher syndrome 3 / 50 3. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Elevated ASO titre B. Prolonged PR interval C. Increased ESR D. Arthralgia 5 / 50 5. Sudden death may occur in: A. PDA B. AS C. Constrictive pericarditis D. ASD 6 / 50 6. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. VSD D. Dextrocardia 7 / 50 7. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Night-time single dosage C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Eccentric dosage schedule 8 / 50 8. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Leriche's syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Peripheral embolism 9 / 50 9. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 1 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 10 / 50 10. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Trisomy 18 11 / 50 11. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Aortic stenosis D. Pulmonary stenosis 12 / 50 12. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ostium primum ASD D. PDA 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Hypothermia C. Complete heart block D. Myxoedema 14 / 50 14. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Tricuspid atresia D. Ebstein's anomaly 15 / 50 15. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 70 ml/kg of body weight 16 / 50 16. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Central cyanosis D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 17 / 50 17. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Magnesium B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Sodium 18 / 50 18. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Pericardial knock B. Opening snap C. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma D. Ejection click 19 / 50 19. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Cardiomegaly D. Tapping apex 20 / 50 20. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Acute left ventricular failure D. Angina Pectoris 21 / 50 21. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve 22 / 50 22. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. Early diastolic D. With radiation towards left axilla 23 / 50 23. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Septic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 24 / 50 24. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 25 / 50 25. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypokalaemia D. Hyponatraemia 26 / 50 26. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late diastole C. Late systole D. Mid-systole 27 / 50 27. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. WPW syndrome C. Hyperkalaemia D. During inspiration 28 / 50 28. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Embolic phenomenon C. Pyrexia D. Hypertension 29 / 50 29. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Hypokalaemia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 30 / 50 30. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Unstable angina C. Buerger's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 31 / 50 31. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Moderate VSD B. A small fraction closes by the year 10 C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. Haemodynamically significant 32 / 50 32. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Fingerization of thumb C. Absent clavicle D. Asplenia 33 / 50 33. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolaemic D. Septic 34 / 50 34. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Right atrial myxoma C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Cardiac tamponade 35 / 50 35. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Rupture C. Embolism D. Congestive cardiac failure 36 / 50 36. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. HIV B. H. pylori C. Chlamydia D. Cytomegalovirus 37 / 50 37. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Water-hammer pulse D. Pulsus alternans 38 / 50 38. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent x-descent B. Prominent y-descent C. Small v-wave D. Prominent a-wave 39 / 50 39. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Venous hum 40 / 50 40. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Myocarditis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Ventricular fibrillation 41 / 50 41. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Pin-point mitral valve D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 42 / 50 42. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Digitalis toxicity B. WPW syndrome C. Rheumatic carditis D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 43 / 50 43. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Accentuated C. Diminished D. Ringing in character 44 / 50 44. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Wenckebach block C. Left ventricular failure D. Pericardial effusion 45 / 50 45. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Complete heart block D. Tricuspid incompetence 46 / 50 46. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Raised JVP D. Peripheral cyanosis 47 / 50 47. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 48 / 50 48. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Squatting C. Standing D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 49 / 50 49. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. Aortic regurgitation C. PDA D. Right-sided aortic arch 50 / 50 50. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Doxorubicin C. Allopurinol D. Methotrexate LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology