CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-electrical cardioversion B. Post-AMI C. Myocarditis D. Rhabdomyolysis 2 / 50 2. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Austin Flint murmur C. Carey Coombs murmur D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 3 / 50 3. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Right-to-left shunt C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Fallot's tetralogy 4 / 50 4. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Sodium nitroprusside B. Labetalol C. Diazoxide D. Methyldopa 5 / 50 5. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Prazosin C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 6 / 50 6. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Eclampsia C. Renal artery stenosis D. Phaeochromocytoma 7 / 50 7. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Clubbing C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Splenomegaly 8 / 50 8. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. After holding the breath C. On the left side of lower sternum D. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope 9 / 50 9. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic murmur in complete heart block B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis D. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation 10 / 50 10. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Rheumatic heart disease C. Collagen vascular disease D. Right ventricular dilatation 11 / 50 11. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Atrial flutter B. Multiple ectopics C. Wenckebach block D. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia 12 / 50 12. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Acute rheumatic fever C. MS D. AR 13 / 50 13. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Leg raising C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Standing 14 / 50 14. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Thoracic deformity D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 15 / 50 15. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Calcified aortic valve C. Aortitis D. Unfolding of aorta 16 / 50 16. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg B. MS is a recognised cause C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. Found in basal region 17 / 50 17. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Complete heart block D. Nodal rhythm 18 / 50 18. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Hyperdynamic circulatory states 19 / 50 19. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 8 inch long 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Cubbing B. Murmur C. Splenomegaly D. Osler's node 21 / 50 21. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Arteriovenous nipping D. Papilloedema 22 / 50 22. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Haemothorax 23 / 50 23. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Rupture B. Infective endocarditis C. Embolism D. Congestive cardiac failure 24 / 50 24. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Occurs below 18 years D. Pin-point mitral valve 25 / 50 25. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. A small fraction closes by the year 10 B. Haemodynamically significant C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. Moderate VSD 26 / 50 26. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Coarctation of aorta C. MS D. PDA 27 / 50 27. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 28 / 50 28. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Methyldopa C. Telmisartan D. Labetalol 29 / 50 29. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Hypotension C. Orthopnoea D. Pulsatile liver 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 31 / 50 31. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Lovastatin C. Probucol D. Gemfibrozil 32 / 50 32. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. SGPT C. CPK D. LDH 33 / 50 33. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Cardiomyopathy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ischemic heart disease 34 / 50 34. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Angina Pectoris D. Congestive cardiac failure 35 / 50 35. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Ebstein's anomaly D. VSD 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein C. Low volume pulse D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 37 / 50 37. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Lisinopril C. Amlodipine D. Amiodarone 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Nitric oxide B. Bradykinin C. Histamine D. Endothelin 39 / 50 39. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. AV nodal rhythm C. First degree heart block D. Low atrial rhythm 40 / 50 40. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Cardiac tamponade D. Ventricular tachycardia 41 / 50 41. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Night-time single dosage 42 / 50 42. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. Anywhere in the precordium C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 43 / 50 43. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Valsalva maneuver C. Standing D. Squatting 44 / 50 44. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Coffee C. Bush tea D. Tapioca 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Trendelenburg position C. Diuretics D. Morphine 46 / 50 46. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. VSD C. Absent clavicle D. Asplenia 47 / 50 47. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Right ventricular failure B. Left ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Left-to-right shunt 48 / 50 48. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Clotting time (CT) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Prothrombin time (PT) 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Ascites B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Raised JVP 50 / 50 50. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. 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