Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Found in severe AR C. Absence of thrill D. Mid-diastolic murmur 2 / 50 2. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 70 ml/kg of body weight 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Ascites B. Pulmonary oedema C. Raised JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 4 / 50 4. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. VSD B. PDA C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Dextrocardia 5 / 50 5. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. ECG was taken in deep inspiration D. Dextrocardia 6 / 50 6. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Ashen-grey pallor D. Peripheral cyanosis 7 / 50 7. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 8 / 50 8. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. ASD 9 / 50 9. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 10 / 50 10. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Ventricular tachycardia 11 / 50 11. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Water-hammer pulse C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Cardiomegaly 12 / 50 12. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Nailbed C. Fundus D. Palms 13 / 50 13. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Left-to-right shunt C. Right ventricular failure D. Left ventricular failure 14 / 50 14. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Trauma C. Cervical rib D. Sarcoidosis 15 / 50 15. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Right ventricular pacing C. Left ventricular failure D. ASD 16 / 50 16. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 17 / 50 17. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Diazoxide B. Methyldopa C. Labetalol D. Sodium nitroprusside 18 / 50 18. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. PDA C. ASD D. Constrictive pericarditis 19 / 50 19. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MR B. MS C. AR D. AS 20 / 50 20. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 21 / 50 21. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. MR C. MS D. AR 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Photosensitivity C. Tachyarrhythmias D. Hepatitis 23 / 50 23. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Lipoprotein B. Homocysteine C. PAI-I D. Transferrin 24 / 50 24. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Systemic hypertension C. Intermittent claudication D. Diminished pulses in upper extremity 25 / 50 25. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV Lignocaine C. Electrical cardioversion D. IV amiodarone 26 / 50 26. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Collagen vascular disease 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Chorea C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Erythema nodosum 28 / 50 28. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MR B. ASD plus AR C. ASD plus MS D. VSD plus MS 29 / 50 29. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Dorsalis pedis D. Femoral 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Nitric oxide B. Histamine C. Endothelin D. Bradykinin 31 / 50 31. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. More common in females C. High-pitched late systolic murmur D. Early systolic click 32 / 50 32. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Having wide split C. Shows reverse split D. Shows narrow split 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Morphine B. Rotating tourniquets C. Trendelenburg position D. Diuretics 34 / 50 34. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Old age C. Afibrinogenaemia D. Vasculitis 35 / 50 35. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels B. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta C. Takayasu's disease D. Aneurysm of subclavian artery 36 / 50 36. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Pulmonary valve 37 / 50 37. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 38 / 50 38. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Carey Coombs murmur B. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome C. Austin Flint murmur D. Left atrial myxoma 39 / 50 39. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. Moderate VSD C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Obstructive jaundice C. Hypothermia D. Myxoedema 41 / 50 41. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Tinel's sign C. Bing sign D. Hoover's sign 42 / 50 42. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. HIV infection B. Diphtheria C. Toxoplasma infection D. Ascariasis 43 / 50 43. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. VSD B. Mongoloid slant of eyes C. Cat-like cry D. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 44 / 50 44. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MS B. AR C. AS D. MR 45 / 50 45. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Accentuated B. Normal in character C. Diminished D. Ringing in character 46 / 50 46. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Takayasu's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute leukaemia 47 / 50 47. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 48 / 50 48. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AR B. AS with AR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. MR 49 / 50 49. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Quinidine therapy B. Hypocalcaemia C. Vagal stimulation D. Hypothermia 50 / 50 50. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Atrial fibrillation C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Constrictive pericarditis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
