Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers D. Rheumatic heart disease 2 / 50 2. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Presystolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Systolic 3 / 50 3. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Mitral stenosis C. Myxoedema D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 4 / 50 4. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Right ventricular pacing C. Left ventricular failure D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 5 / 50 5. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 6 / 50 6. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Left ventricular failure C. Wenckebach block D. Pericardial effusion 7 / 50 7. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Associated with thrill D. Best heard over mitral area 8 / 50 8. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Left atrial myxoma C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Right-to-left shunt 9 / 50 9. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. VSD B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. Cat-like cry 10 / 50 10. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MS D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 11 / 50 11. All are true in severe PS except: A. The ejection click goes away from S1 B. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased C. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur D. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 12 / 50 12. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Mitral valve 13 / 50 13. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Right atrial myxoma C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Mitral valve prolapse 14 / 50 14. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Mid-diastolic murmur B. Having loud S1 C. Found in severe AR D. Absence of thrill 15 / 50 15. JVP is usually increased in: A. Septic shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 16 / 50 16. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Rupture C. Infective endocarditis D. Embolism 17 / 50 17. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. ACE inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Aspirin 18 / 50 18. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Orthopnoea C. Raised JVP D. Hypotension 19 / 50 19. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Marantic endocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 20 / 50 20. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Massive myocardial infarction D. Ventricular fibrillation 21 / 50 21. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 1 cm2 B. < 2 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 4 cm2 22 / 50 22. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Mitral incompetence C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Aortic stenosis 23 / 50 23. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Multiple ectopics C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial flutter 24 / 50 24. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 18 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 8 inch long 25 / 50 25. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Tricuspid atresia D. Transposition of great vessels 26 / 50 26. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Papilloedema C. Arteriovenous nipping D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 27 / 50 27. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Anomalous origin of coronary artery D. Ebstein's anomaly 28 / 50 28. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. In standing position 29 / 50 29. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. MS is a recognised cause D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 30 / 50 30. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. AS C. MR D. MS 31 / 50 31. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Hypothermia B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Digitalis toxicity D. Chronic cor pulmonale 32 / 50 32. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Autoimmune reaction C. Protozoa D. Bacteria 33 / 50 33. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. AS C. MS D. MR 34 / 50 34. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Y-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 35 / 50 35. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Chlamydia C. HIV D. H. pylori 36 / 50 36. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 37 / 50 37. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AR B. MR C. AS D. MS 38 / 50 38. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Renal artery stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Phaeochromocytoma 39 / 50 39. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. Early diastolic C. With radiation towards left axilla D. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation 40 / 50 40. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Splenomegaly 41 / 50 41. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Labetalol D. Methyldopa 42 / 50 42. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. MR C. AS D. MS 43 / 50 43. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Deep Q wave C. Prominent ST elevation D. Height of R wave maximum in V6 44 / 50 44. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. During inspiration C. Hyperkalaemia D. WPW syndrome 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Starts in the dependent part D. Pitting oedema 46 / 50 46. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Diastolic shock 47 / 50 47. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Labetalol B. Carvedilol C. Pindolol D. Atenolol 48 / 50 48. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Tachycardia C. Digitalis overdose D. Mitral valve calcification 49 / 50 49. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MR B. ASD plus AR C. ASD plus MS D. VSD plus MS 50 / 50 50. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology