Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Polyarthritis D. Chorea 2 / 50 2. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. ST elevation in II, III, aVF 3 / 50 3. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Arrhythmias 4 / 50 4. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Methyldopa C. Labetalol D. Telmisartan 5 / 50 5. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MR C. AS D. MS 6 / 50 6. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. Transposition of great vessels C. ASD D. PDA 7 / 50 7. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. Absent clavicle C. VSD D. Asplenia 8 / 50 8. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-diastole 9 / 50 9. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Diazoxide B. Labetalol C. Methyldopa D. Sodium nitroprusside 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Histamine C. Nitric oxide D. Endothelin 11 / 50 11. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MS D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 12 / 50 12. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Aortic regurgitation B. Left ventricular pacing C. LBBB D. RBBB 13 / 50 13. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. 2nd degree heart block B. Atrial fibrillation C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Extrasystoles 14 / 50 14. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Complete heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular tachycardia 15 / 50 15. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Pulmonary oedema 16 / 50 16. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. Pulmonary hypertension C. AR D. Acute rheumatic fever 17 / 50 17. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Aortic valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Mitral valve 18 / 50 18. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Acute myocardial infarction 19 / 50 19. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Labetalol C. Pindolol D. Carvedilol 20 / 50 20. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows reverse split C. Remains single D. Shows narrow split 21 / 50 21. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode B. ECG was taken in deep inspiration C. Dextrocardia D. Emphysema 22 / 50 22. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined AR and MR 23 / 50 23. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Shortened PR interval C. Increased PR interval D. Diminished QT interval 24 / 50 24. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Right-to-left shunt 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Morphine C. Rotating tourniquets D. Diuretics 26 / 50 26. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Present in late diastole D. Low-pitched 27 / 50 27. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulsus alternans 28 / 50 28. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypothermia B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypocalcaemia D. Vagal stimulation 29 / 50 29. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Livedo reticularis C. Acrocyanosis D. Deep vein thrombosis 30 / 50 30. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Pin-point mitral valve 31 / 50 31. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Left bundle branch block D. Hypokalaemia 32 / 50 32. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 33 / 50 33. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Polycystic kidney C. Berry aneurysm D. Aortic arch syndrome 34 / 50 34. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased QT interval C. Increased PR interval D. Presence of J-wave 35 / 50 35. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. During inspiration C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 36 / 50 36. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortic valve 37 / 50 37. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. PAI-I C. Transferrin D. Lipoprotein 38 / 50 38. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus AR B. VSD plus MS C. ASD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 39 / 50 39. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Embolic phenomenon C. Clubbing D. Hypertension 40 / 50 40. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Rapid recovery B. Gradual onset C. Residual neurodeficit D. Warning symptoms 41 / 50 41. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 42 / 50 42. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Acute severe asthma 43 / 50 43. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. PDA D. SLE 44 / 50 44. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Verapamil B. Amiodarone C. Metoprolol D. Adenosine 45 / 50 45. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 46 / 50 46. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Hypotension C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus bradycardia 47 / 50 47. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Ventricular septal defect D. Aortopulmonary window 48 / 50 48. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Hypokalaemia C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Old age 49 / 50 49. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. SLE C. Old age D. Afibrinogenaemia 50 / 50 50. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Doxorubicin B. Chloramphenicol C. Allopurinol D. Methotrexate LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology