Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Hyperkalaemia 2 / 50 2. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Atrial flutter C. PSVT D. Hypokalaemia 3 / 50 3. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 4 / 50 4. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 5 / 50 5. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Berry aneurysm C. Polycystic kidney D. Aortic arch syndrome 6 / 50 6. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Absence of thrill D. Found in severe AR 7 / 50 7. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. MS C. PS D. VSD 8 / 50 8. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Presence of S3 9 / 50 9. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined MS and AS 10 / 50 10. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Infundibular PS B. Lutembacher syndrome C. Supravalvular AS D. Ebstein's anomaly 11 / 50 11. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised small dense LDL C. Raised VLDL D. Reduced HDL 12 / 50 12. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Haemothorax 13 / 50 13. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Aortic stenosis 14 / 50 14. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Down's syndrome D. Holt-Oram syndrome 15 / 50 15. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. AR C. PDA D. VSD 16 / 50 16. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 22 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 18 inch long 17 / 50 17. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Tricuspid atresia 18 / 50 18. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Propranolol C. Amiodarone D. ACE-inhibitors 19 / 50 19. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Aneurysm of subclavian artery B. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta C. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels D. Takayasu's disease 20 / 50 20. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Moderate VSD 21 / 50 21. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. Digitalis toxicity C. Rheumatic carditis D. WPW syndrome 22 / 50 22. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Myocarditis 23 / 50 23. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Infective endocarditis D. Rupture 24 / 50 24. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Peripheral cyanosis C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Ashen-grey pallor 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Pregnancy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Marfan's syndrome 26 / 50 26. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Right atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 27 / 50 27. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class IV C. Class III D. Class II 28 / 50 28. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. Increased LDH3 29 / 50 29. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Clubbing C. Pyrexia D. Splenomegaly 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Obstructive jaundice C. Myxoedema D. Hypothermia 31 / 50 31. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Stenosis is severe C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 32 / 50 32. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Mural thrombus B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Rheumatic valve D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 33 / 50 33. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 6-9th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 1-12th rib 34 / 50 34. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Tachycardia C. Left atrial failure D. Digitalis overdose 35 / 50 35. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Fingerization of thumb C. Asplenia D. Absent clavicle 36 / 50 36. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Venous hum B. S2 C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 37 / 50 37. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Orthopnoea B. Pulsatile liver C. Raised JVP D. Hypotension 38 / 50 38. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Acute severe asthma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 39 / 50 39. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Lumbar canal stenosis C. Buerger's disease D. Leriche's syndrome 40 / 50 40. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 41 / 50 41. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. PDA C. VSD D. Fallot's tetralogy 42 / 50 42. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Inferior vena cava B. Cauda equina C. Popliteal artery D. Femoral artery 43 / 50 43. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Systemic hypertension D. Syphilitic aortitis 44 / 50 44. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Mitral valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Aortic valve 45 / 50 45. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Massive myocardial infarction 46 / 50 46. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Transferrin B. Homocysteine C. Lipoprotein D. PAI-I 47 / 50 47. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. Embolic phenomenon D. Hypertension 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Rotating tourniquets C. Morphine D. Trendelenburg position 49 / 50 49. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Presence of J-wave 50 / 50 50. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Takayasu's disease C. Arteritis D. Systemic hypertension LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology