Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Diastole C. Mid-systole D. Mid-diastole 2 / 50 2. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV Lignocaine B. Electrical cardioversion C. IV amiodarone D. Carotid massage 3 / 50 3. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Systemic hypertension C. Angina Pectoris D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 4 / 50 4. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Methyldopa B. Labetalol C. Hydralazine D. Enalapril 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Erythema nodosum D. Polyarthritis 6 / 50 6. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. ASD D. Transposition of great vessels 7 / 50 7. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. Aortic regurgitation C. Left ventricular pacing D. LBBB 8 / 50 8. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Atrial fibrillation 9 / 50 9. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amiodarone B. Lisinopril C. Amlodipine D. Amrinone 10 / 50 10. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Tapioca B. Coffee C. Bush tea D. Aflatoxin 11 / 50 11. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Berry aneurysm C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Bicuspid aortic valve 12 / 50 12. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MS B. AR C. AS D. MR 13 / 50 13. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Shock D. Arrhythmias 14 / 50 14. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Occurs below 18 years D. Pin-point mitral valve 15 / 50 15. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Old age B. Vasculitis C. Afibrinogenaemia D. SLE 16 / 50 16. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. Found in basal region D. MS is a recognised cause 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Complete heart block C. Hypothermia D. Myxoedema 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Hepatitis C. Tachyarrhythmias D. Alveolitis 19 / 50 19. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. VSD C. MS D. PDA 20 / 50 20. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 21 / 50 21. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and MR B. Combined MS and AS C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined AR and MR 22 / 50 22. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Venous hum 23 / 50 23. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. PDA C. Transposition of great vessels D. VSD 24 / 50 24. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Austin Flint murmur C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Carey Coombs murmur 25 / 50 25. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 3-6th rib D. 10-12th rib 26 / 50 26. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Raised JVP C. Ascites D. Pulmonary oedema 28 / 50 28. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Atrioventricular septal defect 29 / 50 29. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Shortened PR interval D. Tall T-waves 30 / 50 30. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ostium primum ASD C. VSD D. PDA 31 / 50 31. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Low pulse pressure D. Hypotension 32 / 50 32. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Peripheral cyanosis D. Raised JVP 33 / 50 33. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Aortic aneurysm C. Hyperdynamic circulatory states D. Budd-Chiari syndrome 34 / 50 34. Sudden death may occur in: A. ASD B. PDA C. Constrictive pericarditis D. AS 35 / 50 35. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Allopurinol C. Methotrexate D. Doxorubicin 36 / 50 36. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Methyldopa B. Telmisartan C. Amlodipine D. Labetalol 37 / 50 37. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral incompetence C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Pulmonary stenosis 38 / 50 38. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Nailbed C. Fundus D. Palate 39 / 50 39. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Right-to-left shunt D. Acute bacterial endocarditis 40 / 50 40. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. Associated LVH C. PDA D. ASD 41 / 50 41. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. High-pitched late systolic murmur D. More common in females 42 / 50 42. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Wenckebach heart block C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 43 / 50 43. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Residual neurodeficit B. Warning symptoms C. Rapid recovery D. Gradual onset 44 / 50 44. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 45 / 50 45. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve 46 / 50 46. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Disopyramide C. Verapamil D. Quinidine 47 / 50 47. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Angina Pectoris D. Acute left ventricular failure 48 / 50 48. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 49 / 50 49. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Atrial flutter D. PSVT 50 / 50 50. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. ACE inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Aspirin LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology