Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. On the left side of lower sternum C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. After holding the breath 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Elevated ASO titre C. Prolonged PR interval D. Arthralgia 3 / 50 3. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Having wide split C. Shows narrow split D. Shows reverse split 4 / 50 4. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Amiodarone B. Adenosine C. Verapamil D. Metoprolol 5 / 50 5. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypokalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 6 / 50 6. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 7 / 50 7. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. Inverted T wave in ECG C. Increased LDH3 D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 8 / 50 8. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Standing D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 9 / 50 9. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 10 / 50 10. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Absent clavicle B. Asplenia C. Fingerization of thumb D. VSD 11 / 50 11. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 12 / 50 12. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 13 / 50 13. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. VSD B. AS C. PS D. Coarctation of aorta 14 / 50 14. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Polycystic kidney disease B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Conn's syndrome D. Addison's disease 15 / 50 15. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Opening snap C. S2 D. Venous hum 16 / 50 16. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. PDA C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 17 / 50 17. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine D. Enalapril 18 / 50 18. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Wenckebach heart block 19 / 50 19. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 20 / 50 20. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Left-to-right shunt 21 / 50 21. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. Amiodarone C. Surgical myotomy of the septum D. ACE-inhibitors 22 / 50 22. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Hyperkalaemia C. Sick sinus syndrome D. Hypothermia 23 / 50 23. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. PDA C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. Aortic regurgitation 24 / 50 24. JVP is usually increased in: A. Septic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Hypovolaemic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Pitting oedema 26 / 50 26. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Atrial flutter B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Wenckebach block D. Multiple ectopics 27 / 50 27. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Angina Pectoris D. Atrial fibrillation 28 / 50 28. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. VSD plus MS B. ASD plus MS C. ASD plus MR D. ASD plus AR 29 / 50 29. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Femoral artery B. Popliteal artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Cauda equina 30 / 50 30. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 22 inch long 31 / 50 31. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Systemic hypertension D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 32 / 50 32. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Bacterial endocarditis D. Severe menstrual bleeding 33 / 50 33. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. As a result of venous distension B. Should be ignored C. Present in all hypertensives D. Related to diastolic BP 34 / 50 34. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Wenckebach block C. Mobitz type II block D. Ventricular bigeminy 35 / 50 35. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. MS C. AR D. MR 36 / 50 36. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Shortened PR interval 37 / 50 37. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Left-to-right shunt C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular failure 38 / 50 38. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Atrial fibrillation C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 39 / 50 39. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. V-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 40 / 50 40. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Dextrocardia B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. Emphysema D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 41 / 50 41. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 42 / 50 42. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Aortic valve D. Pulmonary valve 43 / 50 43. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Hypotension C. Increased JVP D. Pulmonary congestion 44 / 50 44. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Collagen vascular disease D. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers 45 / 50 45. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 46 / 50 46. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. Restriction of fluid C. Diuretics D. IV fluid 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Homocystinuria D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 48 / 50 48. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Wenckebach block B. Digitalis toxicity C. Pericardial effusion D. Left ventricular failure 49 / 50 49. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Hydralazine C. Methyldopa D. Amiloride 50 / 50 50. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Presystolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Early diastolic D. Systolic LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology