Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Systemic hypertension C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 2 / 50 2. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 3 / 50 3. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Chloramphenicol C. Doxorubicin D. Methotrexate 4 / 50 4. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 22 inch long 5 / 50 5. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. VSD D. ASD 6 / 50 6. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Ashen-grey pallor D. Raised JVP 7 / 50 7. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Right ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Left-to-right shunt 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Starts in the dependent part B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Pitting oedema 9 / 50 9. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Dorsalis pedis C. Femoral D. Radial 10 / 50 10. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Right ventricular infarction C. Myocarditis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 11 / 50 11. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Ejection click C. Pericardial knock D. Opening snap 12 / 50 12. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Massive myocardial infarction D. Ventricular fibrillation 13 / 50 13. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Renal artery stenosis C. Eclampsia D. Phaeochromocytoma 14 / 50 14. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Calcified aortic valve C. Aortitis D. Pulmonary hypertension 15 / 50 15. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. Increased LDH3 C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 16 / 50 16. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Acrocyanosis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Livedo reticularis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 17 / 50 17. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Pure mitral stenosis C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Absence of valvular calcification 18 / 50 18. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Coronary osteal stenosis C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta 19 / 50 19. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur C. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap D. Diastolic shock 20 / 50 20. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Digitalis toxicity C. Wenckebach block D. Pericardial effusion 21 / 50 21. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Cervical rib B. Sarcoidosis C. Trauma D. Tophaceous gout 22 / 50 22. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. LDH B. SGOT C. SGPT D. CPK 23 / 50 23. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 24 / 50 24. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Buerger's disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Aortic stenosis D. Unstable angina 25 / 50 25. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. MR C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. MS 26 / 50 26. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Pulsatile liver C. Orthopnoea D. Hypotension 27 / 50 27. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tricuspid incompetence 28 / 50 28. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Lovastatin B. Probucol C. Gemfibrozil D. Nicotinic acid 29 / 50 29. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 50 Joules B. 100 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 400 Joules 30 / 50 30. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Takayasu's disease C. Aplastic anaemia D. Acute leukaemia 31 / 50 31. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Hypothermia C. Quinidine therapy D. Hypocalcaemia 32 / 50 32. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Venous hum B. Ejection click C. S2 D. Opening snap 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Regular pulse rate D. Low volume pulse 34 / 50 34. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Left atrial myxoma D. Atrial fibrillation 35 / 50 35. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 4 cm2 36 / 50 36. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased QT interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Increased PR interval 37 / 50 37. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Unfolding of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 38 / 50 38. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised VLDL B. Raised small dense LDL C. Reduced HDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 39 / 50 39. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Pulmonary stenosis C. PDA D. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation 40 / 50 40. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Shock C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus 41 / 50 41. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 42 / 50 42. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight 43 / 50 43. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. MS C. Pulmonary hypertension D. AR 44 / 50 44. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Fine crepitations at lung bases D. Gallop rhythm 45 / 50 45. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. Transposition of great vessels C. PDA D. VSD 46 / 50 46. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. VSD D. Ostium primum ASD 47 / 50 47. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. Asplenia C. VSD D. Absent clavicle 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Hyperthyroidism C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Nephrotic syndrome 49 / 50 49. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-diastole B. Diastole C. Mid-systole D. Systole 50 / 50 50. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Pulmonary congestion B. Kussmaul's sign C. Increased JVP D. Hypotension LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology