Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Pulmonary hypertension 2 / 50 2. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 3 / 50 3. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. Anywhere in the precordium D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 4 / 50 4. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Laennec B. Babinski C. Osler D. Korotkoff 5 / 50 5. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Methyldopa B. Hydralazine C. Enalapril D. Labetalol 6 / 50 6. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. LDH C. SGPT D. SGOT 7 / 50 7. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Undulating C. There are two negative waves D. Becomes prominent on lying down 8 / 50 8. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Hypothermia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Chronic cor pulmonale 9 / 50 9. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. After holding the breath C. On the left side of lower sternum D. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope 10 / 50 10. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 11 / 50 11. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Aplastic anaemia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Takayasu's disease 12 / 50 12. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. PDA C. ASD D. Constrictive pericarditis 13 / 50 13. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Warning symptoms C. Residual neurodeficit D. Rapid recovery 14 / 50 14. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Aortitis D. Unfolding of aorta 15 / 50 15. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Aortic stenosis D. Myocarditis 16 / 50 16. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Amiodarone B. Morphine C. Phenylephrin D. Propranolol 17 / 50 17. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. PDA B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) D. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation 18 / 50 18. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 19 / 50 19. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. V-shaped C. Y-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 20 / 50 20. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Lisinopril C. Amiodarone D. Amrinone 21 / 50 21. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Digoxin B. Spironolactone C. Propranolol D. Bucindolol 22 / 50 22. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. PDA C. VSD D. MS 23 / 50 23. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Shock C. Diabetes mellitus D. Arrhythmias 24 / 50 24. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Angina Pectoris D. Systemic hypertension 25 / 50 25. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. PDA C. ASD D. VSD 26 / 50 26. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. MR C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 27 / 50 27. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Right ventricular pacing C. Left ventricular failure D. ASD 28 / 50 28. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Best heard in standing position C. Low-pitched D. Present in late diastole 29 / 50 29. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Venous hum C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 30 / 50 30. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Ashen-grey pallor 31 / 50 31. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve 32 / 50 32. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 30mmHg B. 40mmHg C. 80mmHg D. 60mmHg 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Hyperthyroidism C. Homocystinuria D. Nephrotic syndrome 34 / 50 34. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Chronic renal failure C. Acute pancreatitis D. Gonorrhoea 35 / 50 35. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypokalaemia 36 / 50 36. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV Lignocaine B. Carotid massage C. Electrical cardioversion D. IV amiodarone 37 / 50 37. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Coarctation of aorta 38 / 50 38. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Kussmaul's sign C. Increased JVP D. Pulmonary congestion 39 / 50 39. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Ventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus 40 / 50 40. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Embolic phenomenon C. Clubbing D. Hypertension 41 / 50 41. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 50 Joules B. 200 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 400 Joules 42 / 50 42. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Standing C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Leg raising 43 / 50 43. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. AR C. MR D. MS 44 / 50 44. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. First degree heart block B. Low atrial rhythm C. AV nodal rhythm D. WPW syndrome 45 / 50 45. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Aortic stenosis C. Unstable angina D. Buerger's disease 46 / 50 46. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. Retinal haemorrhage C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Papilloedema 47 / 50 47. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Wenckebach heart block D. Ventricular tachycardia 48 / 50 48. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Tricuspid atresia D. Severe pulmonary hypertension 49 / 50 49. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic murmur in complete heart block B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation D. Systolic innocent murmur 50 / 50 50. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Collagen vascular disease D. Right ventricular dilatation LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology