CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Allopurinol C. Doxorubicin D. Methotrexate 2 / 50 2. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Systemic hypertension B. Pregnancy C. Marfan's syndrome D. Syphilitic aortitis 3 / 50 3. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 3-6th rib 4 / 50 4. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Unstable angina C. Coarctation of aorta D. Buerger's disease 5 / 50 5. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. Left ventricular pacing C. Aortic regurgitation D. LBBB 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Low volume pulse D. Regular pulse rate 7 / 50 7. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. ACE inhibitors B. Diuretics C. Aspirin D. Beta-blockers 8 / 50 8. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Haemothorax D. Constrictive pericarditis 9 / 50 9. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 10 / 50 10. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. 2nd degree heart block 11 / 50 11. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Restenosis cases D. Absence of valvular calcification 12 / 50 12. The murmur of MS is: A. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation B. High-pitched C. Early diastolic D. With radiation towards left axilla 13 / 50 13. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. Propranolol C. Surgical myotomy of the septum D. ACE-inhibitors 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Hepatitis D. Alveolitis 15 / 50 15. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Cardiomegaly C. Tapping apex D. Water-hammer pulse 16 / 50 16. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Hypokalaemia C. Left bundle branch block D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 17 / 50 17. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. WPW syndrome C. Rheumatic carditis D. Digitalis toxicity 18 / 50 18. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Occurs below 18 years D. Pin-point mitral valve 19 / 50 19. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised VLDL C. Raised Lipoprotein (a) D. Raised small dense LDL 20 / 50 20. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Chronic obstructive airway disease B. Left-sided heart failure C. Pericardial effusion D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Osler's node B. Murmur C. Splenomegaly D. Cubbing 22 / 50 22. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Increased LDH3 C. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L D. Inverted T wave in ECG 23 / 50 23. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Tachycardia C. Mitral valve calcification D. Digitalis overdose 24 / 50 24. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Old age C. Afibrinogenaemia D. Vasculitis 25 / 50 25. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. ASD C. Left ventricular failure D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 26 / 50 26. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Hoover's sign B. Tinel's sign C. Bing sign D. Branham's sign 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Starts in the dependent part B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients D. Pitting oedema 28 / 50 28. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Anomalous origin of coronary artery C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Single ventricle 29 / 50 29. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. HIV B. H. pylori C. Chlamydia D. Cytomegalovirus 30 / 50 30. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 31 / 50 31. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pneumococcus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Streptoroccus viridans 32 / 50 32. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve 33 / 50 33. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. VSD C. Transposition of great vessels D. ASD 34 / 50 34. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. MR B. AR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. AS with AR 35 / 50 35. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea B. Dependent oedema C. Gallop rhythm D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 36 / 50 36. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Increased JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulmonary congestion 37 / 50 37. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Labetalol B. Amlodipine C. Methyldopa D. Telmisartan 38 / 50 38. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Haptoglobulin C. Orosomucoid D. Ceruloplasmin 40 / 50 40. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Renal artery stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Eclampsia 41 / 50 41. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Rheumatic valve B. Chronic constrictive pericarditis C. Mural thrombus D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 42 / 50 42. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Present in late diastole C. Best heard in standing position D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 43 / 50 43. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Opening snap B. Ejection click C. S2 D. Venous hum 44 / 50 44. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma C. Pericardial knock D. Opening snap 45 / 50 45. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Digoxin C. Propranolol D. Bucindolol 46 / 50 46. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Leg raising C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Standing 47 / 50 47. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. MR C. MS D. AS 48 / 50 48. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Systemic hypertension D. Aortic stenosis 49 / 50 49. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation C. Prolonged circulation time D. Diminished cardiac output 50 / 50 50. JVP is usually increased in: A. Septic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Anaphylactic shock LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology