Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. ASD C. PDA D. AS 2 / 50 2. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial fibrillation C. Hypokalaemia D. Atrial flutter 3 / 50 3. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus AR B. VSD plus MS C. ASD plus MR D. ASD plus MS 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Polyarthritis C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Erythema nodosum 5 / 50 5. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 6 / 50 6. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Systemic hypertension C. Syphilitic aortitis D. Pregnancy 7 / 50 7. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Acute severe asthma B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 8 / 50 8. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic innocent murmur B. Systolic murmur in complete heart block C. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis D. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation 9 / 50 9. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. Moderate VSD C. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 10 / 50 10. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Papilloedema D. Arteriovenous nipping 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Ascites 12 / 50 12. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Berry aneurysm C. Polycystic kidney D. Aortic arch syndrome 13 / 50 13. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hyperkinetic circulatory states B. Athletes C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Pregnancy 14 / 50 14. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Standing C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Valsalva maneuver 15 / 50 15. The least common complication of MS is: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Atrial fibrillation 16 / 50 16. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Morning-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Night-time single dosage 17 / 50 17. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Wenckebach block C. Pericardial effusion D. Left ventricular failure 18 / 50 18. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon B. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen C. Pin-point mitral valve D. Occurs below 18 years 19 / 50 19. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 20 / 50 20. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased PR interval B. Increased QT interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Presence of J-wave 21 / 50 21. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Atrial fibrillation D. Supraventricular tachycardia 22 / 50 22. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Venous hum C. S2 D. Opening snap 23 / 50 23. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Septic C. Cardiogenic D. Neurogenic 24 / 50 24. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Trauma C. Sarcoidosis D. Cervical rib 25 / 50 25. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Late diastole D. Late systole 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Hepatitis C. Alveolitis D. Tachyarrhythmias 27 / 50 27. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Right ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Left-to-right shunt 28 / 50 28. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined AR and MR 29 / 50 29. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. Toxoplasma infection C. Diphtheria D. HIV infection 30 / 50 30. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Telmisartan B. Labetalol C. Amlodipine D. Methyldopa 31 / 50 31. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Haemothorax C. Cardiac tamponade D. Constrictive pericarditis 32 / 50 32. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. PDA 33 / 50 33. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. ECG was taken in deep inspiration B. Dextrocardia C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. Emphysema 34 / 50 34. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Hydralazine C. Amiloride D. Prazosin 35 / 50 35. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. Beta-blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Aspirin 36 / 50 36. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptoroccus viridans B. Pneumococcus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus faecalis 37 / 50 37. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Palms C. Fundus D. Nailbed 38 / 50 38. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Austin Flint murmur C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Carey Coombs murmur 39 / 50 39. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S4 40 / 50 40. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Septic shock C. Hypovolaemic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 41 / 50 41. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Coarctation of aorta B. SLE C. PDA D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Pitting oedema C. Starts in the dependent part D. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients 43 / 50 43. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ventricular septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 44 / 50 44. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Clotting time (CT) C. Factor-X assay D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 45 / 50 45. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right ventricle B. Left atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right atrium 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Arteriosclerosis 47 / 50 47. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Renal artery stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Phaeochromocytoma 48 / 50 48. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Mid-diastolic murmur B. Absence of thrill C. Found in severe AR D. Having loud S1 49 / 50 49. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 50 / 50 50. Sudden death may occur in: A. ASD B. Constrictive pericarditis C. AS D. 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