Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ventricular septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Atrioventricular septal defect 2 / 50 2. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. Electrical cardioversion C. IV Lignocaine D. IV amiodarone 3 / 50 3. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Tapioca B. Bush tea C. Aflatoxin D. Coffee 4 / 50 4. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Hypertension C. Clubbing D. Pyrexia 5 / 50 5. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Hyperuricemia C. Microvascular angina D. Obstructive sleep apnoea 6 / 50 6. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Coarctation of aorta C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Renal artery stenosis 7 / 50 7. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Transposition of great vessels D. Ebstein's anomaly 8 / 50 8. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. 'f ' waves in neck vein B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. Pulse deficit is > 10 D. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min 9 / 50 9. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. Surgical myotomy of the septum C. Amiodarone D. ACE-inhibitors 10 / 50 10. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) C. PDA D. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation 11 / 50 11. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Right ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Left-to-right shunt 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Ascites B. Pulmonary oedema C. Raised JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 13 / 50 13. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Austin Flint murmur 14 / 50 14. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Low pulse pressure D. Hypotension 15 / 50 15. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Metoprolol D. Amiodarone 16 / 50 16. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Pregnancy C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Bacterial endocarditis 17 / 50 17. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 18 / 50 18. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Berry aneurysm C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Coronary osteal stenosis 19 / 50 19. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Pulmonary congestion C. Kussmaul's sign D. Increased JVP 20 / 50 20. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. High ESR D. Splenomegaly 21 / 50 21. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. ASD C. AS D. PDA 22 / 50 22. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. Increased LDH3 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Hypothermia B. Complete heart block C. Myxoedema D. Obstructive jaundice 24 / 50 24. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Telmisartan B. Methyldopa C. Amlodipine D. Labetalol 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients C. Pitting oedema D. Starts in the dependent part 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Haptoglobulin D. Ceruloplasmin 27 / 50 27. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Hoover's sign B. Tinel's sign C. Bing sign D. Branham's sign 28 / 50 28. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Tapping apex C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Cardiomegaly 29 / 50 29. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 30 / 50 30. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Carvedilol B. Atenolol C. Pindolol D. Labetalol 31 / 50 31. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Sarcoidosis C. Trauma D. Cervical rib 32 / 50 32. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound D. Stenosis is severe 33 / 50 33. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. MR 34 / 50 34. Opening snap is: A. Present in late diastole B. Low-pitched C. Best heard in standing position D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 35 / 50 35. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Hypothermia C. Chronic cor pulmonale D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 36 / 50 36. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Increased PR interval C. Shortened PR interval D. Diminished QT interval 37 / 50 37. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Chloramphenicol C. Doxorubicin D. Methotrexate 38 / 50 38. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Severe pulmonary hypertension B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Tricuspid atresia 39 / 50 39. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Systemic hypertension B. Pregnancy C. Syphilitic aortitis D. Marfan's syndrome 40 / 50 40. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 41 / 50 41. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Beta-blockers C. Diuretics D. ACE inhibitors 42 / 50 42. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Morphine B. Phenylephrin C. Amiodarone D. Propranolol 43 / 50 43. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. AS C. MS D. AR 44 / 50 44. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Wenckebach block C. Pericardial effusion D. Digitalis toxicity 45 / 50 45. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S3 46 / 50 46. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Isolated levocardia D. Emphysema 47 / 50 47. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Chronic obstructive airway disease B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Left-sided heart failure D. Pericardial effusion 48 / 50 48. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. High-pitched C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. Early diastolic 49 / 50 49. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Late systole D. Late diastole 50 / 50 50. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Clotting time (CT) D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology