Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. VSD C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Dextrocardia 2 / 50 2. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Pulmonary atresia C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Severe coarctation of aorta 3 / 50 3. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Coarctation of aorta C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Renal artery stenosis 4 / 50 4. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Complete heart block B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Right atrial myxoma 5 / 50 5. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 6 / 50 6. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Tinel's sign B. Branham's sign C. Bing sign D. Hoover's sign 7 / 50 7. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Gonorrhoea C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Acute pancreatitis 8 / 50 8. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Water-hammer pulse C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Pulsus paradoxus 9 / 50 9. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 100 Joules B. 400 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 50 Joules 10 / 50 10. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Stenosis is severe 11 / 50 11. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. ASD C. PDA D. AS 12 / 50 12. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 5 ml C. 25 ml D. 15 ml 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Regular pulse rate 14 / 50 14. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. MR 15 / 50 15. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 3 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Orosomucoid D. Haptoglobulin 17 / 50 17. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. Asplenia C. VSD D. Absent clavicle 18 / 50 18. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Morphine B. Propranolol C. Phenylephrin D. Amiodarone 19 / 50 19. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. Peripheral cyanosis C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Raised JVP 20 / 50 20. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. ASD B. VSD C. PDA D. Coarctation of aorta 21 / 50 21. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pneumococcus C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Streptoroccus viridans 22 / 50 22. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Tachycardia B. Left atrial failure C. Digitalis overdose D. Mitral valve calcification 23 / 50 23. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased PR interval B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased QT interval D. Increased duration of QRS complex 24 / 50 24. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pericardial effusion C. Pulmonary thromboembolism D. Chronic obstructive airway disease 25 / 50 25. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Valsalva manoeuvre C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Standing 26 / 50 26. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Undulating C. Becomes prominent on lying down D. There are two negative waves 27 / 50 27. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Graham Steel murmur D. Late and loud opening snap 28 / 50 28. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Complete heart block B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Nodal rhythm 29 / 50 29. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-diastole B. Diastole C. Mid-systole D. Systole 30 / 50 30. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 3-6th rib 31 / 50 31. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Ischemic heart disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Cardiomyopathy 32 / 50 32. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. AV nodal rhythm C. First degree heart block D. WPW syndrome 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Erythema nodosum C. Chorea D. Polyarthritis 34 / 50 34. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Increased JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulmonary congestion 35 / 50 35. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Tricuspid atresia D. Ebstein's anomaly 36 / 50 36. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Calcified aortic valve C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Aortitis 37 / 50 37. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Autoimmune reaction C. Bacteria D. Protozoa 38 / 50 38. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Chloramphenicol C. Doxorubicin D. Methotrexate 39 / 50 39. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Probucol B. Nicotinic acid C. Lovastatin D. Gemfibrozil 40 / 50 40. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 41 / 50 41. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypothermia C. Chronic cor pulmonale D. Digitalis toxicity 42 / 50 42. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Residual neurodeficit B. Warning symptoms C. Gradual onset D. Rapid recovery 43 / 50 43. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Left atrial myxoma C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Right-to-left shunt 44 / 50 44. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Single ventricle D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 45 / 50 45. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Increased PR interval C. Diminished QT interval D. Tall T-waves 46 / 50 46. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Orthopnoea B. Raised JVP C. Hypotension D. Pulsatile liver 47 / 50 47. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Pin-point mitral valve D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 48 / 50 48. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. With radiation towards left axilla C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. Early diastolic 49 / 50 49. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Wenckebach block B. Pericardial effusion C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular failure 50 / 50 50. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 85 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology