Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Complete heart block C. Nodal rhythm D. Atrial fibrillation 2 / 50 2. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Beta-blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Diuretics 3 / 50 3. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. VSD C. PDA D. Ostium primum ASD 4 / 50 4. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. Raised JVP C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Peripheral cyanosis 5 / 50 5. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Arteritis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Systemic hypertension 6 / 50 6. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Lutembacher syndrome C. Supravalvular AS D. Infundibular PS 7 / 50 7. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Coarctation of aorta B. ASD C. VSD D. PDA 8 / 50 8. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Acrocyanosis D. Livedo reticularis 9 / 50 9. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 10 / 50 10. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. SLE 11 / 50 11. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 12 / 50 12. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Telmisartan C. Methyldopa D. Labetalol 13 / 50 13. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Prominent ST elevation C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep Q wave 14 / 50 14. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Presence of S3 D. Graham Steel murmur 15 / 50 15. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Single ventricle C. Anomalous origin of coronary artery D. Fallot's tetralogy 16 / 50 16. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. ASD C. PDA D. AS 17 / 50 17. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex B. In standing position C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Anywhere in the precordium 18 / 50 18. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Pericardial knock 19 / 50 19. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus tachycardia C. Sinus bradycardia D. Low pulse pressure 20 / 50 20. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. Arteriovenous nipping C. Retinal haemorrhage D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 21 / 50 21. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. MS is a recognised cause D. Found in basal region 22 / 50 22. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 23 / 50 23. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Verapamil B. Flecainide C. Disopyramide D. Quinidine 24 / 50 24. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 25 / 50 25. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 26 / 50 26. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Cauda equina B. Popliteal artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Femoral artery 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Arthralgia C. Elevated ASO titre D. Increased ESR 28 / 50 28. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Acute leukaemia C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Takayasu's disease 29 / 50 29. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Amiodarone C. ACE-inhibitors D. Propranolol 30 / 50 30. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Lumbar canal stenosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Buerger's disease D. Leriche's syndrome 31 / 50 31. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Commonly found in children C. Usually diastolic in timing D. Best heard over mitral area 32 / 50 32. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Spironolactone C. Digoxin D. Bucindolol 33 / 50 33. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. PDA C. ASD D. Constrictive pericarditis 34 / 50 34. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Presystolic B. Systolic C. Early diastolic D. Mid-diastolic 35 / 50 35. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Atrial fibrillation 36 / 50 36. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ventricular septal defect C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Patent ductus arteriosus 37 / 50 37. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Systemic hypertension C. Syphilitic aortitis D. Pregnancy 38 / 50 38. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. 2nd degree heart block B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Atrial fibrillation D. Extrasystoles 39 / 50 39. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 40 / 50 40. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Complete heart block 41 / 50 41. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area B. Water-hammer pulse C. Tapping apex D. Cardiomegaly 42 / 50 42. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Venous hum C. S2 D. Opening snap 43 / 50 43. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Atrial flutter C. Hypokalaemia D. PSVT 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Haptoglobulin C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Ceruloplasmin 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Endothelin C. Bradykinin D. Nitric oxide 46 / 50 46. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. Undulating D. Better felt than seen 47 / 50 47. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Acute severe asthma 48 / 50 48. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis 49 / 50 49. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Aortic stenosis 50 / 50 50. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. 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