Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Right atrial myxoma C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Atrial fibrillation 2 / 50 2. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. More common in females B. Early systolic click C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. High-pitched late systolic murmur 3 / 50 3. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. Constrictive pericarditis C. ASD D. PDA 4 / 50 4. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Right-to-left shunt 5 / 50 5. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Y-shaped D. V-shaped 6 / 50 6. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Autoimmune reaction B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Protozoa 7 / 50 7. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Aortopulmonary window D. Patent ductus arteriosus 8 / 50 8. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. 'Silver-wire' arteries B. Papilloedema C. Retinal haemorrhage D. Arteriovenous nipping 9 / 50 9. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Gallop rhythm B. Fine crepitations at lung bases C. Dependent oedema D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 10 / 50 10. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Systemic hypertension D. Disturbances in vision 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Pitting oedema 12 / 50 12. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Hypocalcaemia 13 / 50 13. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. ECG was taken in deep inspiration D. Dextrocardia 14 / 50 14. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 15 / 50 15. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Verapamil C. Amiodarone D. Adenosine 16 / 50 16. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Acute severe asthma C. Cardiac tamponade D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 17 / 50 17. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Digoxin B. Propranolol C. Bucindolol D. Spironolactone 18 / 50 18. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Buerger's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Unstable angina 19 / 50 19. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Pregnancy 20 / 50 20. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Found in severe AR B. Absence of thrill C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. Having loud S1 21 / 50 21. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 200 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 50 Joules 22 / 50 22. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 23 / 50 23. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 24 / 50 24. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. SLE C. Old age D. Afibrinogenaemia 25 / 50 25. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 22 inch long 26 / 50 26. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Patent ductus arteriosus 27 / 50 27. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Supraventricular tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation 28 / 50 28. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 29 / 50 29. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. 2nd degree heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Extrasystoles 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Nitric oxide C. Histamine D. Endothelin 31 / 50 31. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Stenosis is severe C. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 32 / 50 32. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. AS B. Associated LVH C. ASD D. PDA 33 / 50 33. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. Felty's syndrome C. Rheumatic arthritis D. SLE 34 / 50 34. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Cervical rib B. Tophaceous gout C. Trauma D. Sarcoidosis 35 / 50 35. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 36 / 50 36. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. ACE inhibitors B. Aspirin C. Diuretics D. Beta-blockers 37 / 50 37. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-diastole B. Diastole C. Mid-systole D. Systole 38 / 50 38. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Hyperthyroidism 39 / 50 39. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Mural thrombus D. Rheumatic valve 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Complete heart block C. Hypothermia D. Myxoedema 41 / 50 41. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Aortic aneurysm C. Hyperdynamic circulatory states D. Coarctation of aorta 42 / 50 42. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. MS is a recognised cause B. Found in basal region C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg 43 / 50 43. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Cardiac tamponade C. Right atrial myxoma D. Ventricular tachycardia 44 / 50 44. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Complete heart block D. Right atrial myxoma 45 / 50 45. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined MS and MR 46 / 50 46. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. PS D. VSD 47 / 50 47. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Amiloride C. Hydralazine D. Prazosin 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulmonary oedema C. Raised JVP D. Ascites 49 / 50 49. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome D. Austin Flint murmur 50 / 50 50. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. First degree heart block C. Low atrial rhythm D. AV nodal rhythm LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology