Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Left ventricular failure 2 / 50 2. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows narrow split C. Shows reverse split D. Remains single 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Chorea C. Erythema nodosum D. Subcutaneous nodule 4 / 50 4. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Right-to-left shunt D. Fallot's tetralogy 5 / 50 5. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. LBBB B. Left ventricular pacing C. Aortic regurgitation D. RBBB 6 / 50 6. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Late and loud opening snap C. Graham Steel murmur D. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur 7 / 50 7. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Myocarditis B. Emphysema C. Cardiomyopathy D. Acute myocardial infarction 8 / 50 8. Sudden death may occur in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. ASD C. AS D. PDA 9 / 50 9. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Renal failure D. Old age 10 / 50 10. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 11 / 50 11. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MR B. VSD plus MS C. ASD plus AR D. ASD plus MS 12 / 50 12. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Amiloride C. Hydralazine D. Prazosin 13 / 50 13. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Dextrocardia B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. Emphysema D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 14 / 50 14. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised Lipoprotein (a) C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised VLDL 15 / 50 15. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Aortic stenosis C. Unstable angina D. Buerger's disease 16 / 50 16. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. Right-sided aortic arch D. PDA 17 / 50 17. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 19 / 50 19. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. VSD B. MS C. PS D. Chronic cor-pulmonale 20 / 50 20. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Raised JVP D. Peripheral cyanosis 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Endothelin C. Nitric oxide D. Histamine 22 / 50 22. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Down's syndrome B. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome C. Holt-Oram syndrome D. Trisomy 18 23 / 50 23. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Diastolic shock 24 / 50 24. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Sinus arrhythmia 25 / 50 25. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Cat-like cry C. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 D. VSD 26 / 50 26. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 50 ml C. 15 ml D. 5 ml 27 / 50 27. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Protozoa B. Bacteria C. Autoimmune reaction D. Virus 28 / 50 28. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Pulmonary hypertension D. MS 29 / 50 29. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Calcium gluconate B. Diuretics C. IV fluid D. Restriction of fluid 30 / 50 30. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis D. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula 31 / 50 31. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Increased PR interval C. Diminished QT interval D. Tall T-waves 32 / 50 32. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 33 / 50 33. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. VSD C. ASD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 34 / 50 34. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Brachial C. Radial D. Femoral 35 / 50 35. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. After holding the breath B. On the left side of lower sternum C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. In lying down position 36 / 50 36. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Adenosine C. Amiodarone D. Verapamil 37 / 50 37. All are true in severe PS except: A. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 B. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur C. The ejection click goes away from S1 D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 38 / 50 38. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Right atrial myxoma D. Mitral valve prolapse 39 / 50 39. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Austin Flint murmur D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 40 / 50 40. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Valsalva maneuver C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Squatting 41 / 50 41. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Calcified aortic valve C. Aortitis D. Unfolding of aorta 42 / 50 42. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. VSD C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Dextrocardia 43 / 50 43. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Left ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Right ventricular failure 44 / 50 44. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 45 / 50 45. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Methyldopa B. Hydralazine C. Enalapril D. Labetalol 46 / 50 46. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Aortic valve D. Pulmonary valve 47 / 50 47. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left bundle branch block D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Arthralgia C. Prolonged PR interval D. Elevated ASO titre 49 / 50 49. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Aplastic anaemia C. Takayasu's disease D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 50 / 50 50. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus bigeminus B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Pulsus alternans D. 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