Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute rheumatic fever 2 / 50 2. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Left atrial myxoma 3 / 50 3. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Methyldopa C. Hydralazine D. Amiloride 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Haptoglobulin C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Ceruloplasmin 5 / 50 5. Sudden death may occur in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. AS C. PDA D. ASD 6 / 50 6. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypothermia D. Vagal stimulation 7 / 50 7. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased QT interval C. Increased PR interval D. Increased duration of QRS complex 8 / 50 8. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Verapamil B. Flecainide C. Disopyramide D. Quinidine 9 / 50 9. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Valsalva maneuver C. Squatting D. Standing 10 / 50 10. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 11 / 50 11. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Late systole 12 / 50 12. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Right ventricular dilatation B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Collagen vascular disease D. Rheumatic heart disease 13 / 50 13. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Severe coarctation of aorta B. Pulmonary atresia C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection 14 / 50 14. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Buerger's disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Lumbar canal stenosis D. Leriche's syndrome 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Rotating tourniquets C. Diuretics D. Morphine 16 / 50 16. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Acute rheumatic fever D. MS 17 / 50 17. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Coarctation of aorta C. Fallot's tetralogy D. PDA 18 / 50 18. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Erythema nodosum D. Chorea 20 / 50 20. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. H/O intraocular bleeding D. Bacterial endocarditis 21 / 50 21. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Papilloedema C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Arteriovenous nipping 22 / 50 22. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hyponatraemia 23 / 50 23. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Multiple ectopics B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Wenckebach block D. Atrial flutter 24 / 50 24. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Coarctation of aorta C. ASD D. Transposition of great vessels 25 / 50 25. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Berry aneurysm C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Polycystic kidney 26 / 50 26. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Morbid obesity D. Microvascular angina 27 / 50 27. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Restenosis cases C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Absence of valvular calcification 28 / 50 28. All are true in severe PS except: A. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur B. The ejection click goes away from S1 C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 29 / 50 29. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. PDA C. VSD D. MS 30 / 50 30. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. MS C. MR D. AS 31 / 50 31. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Clubbing C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Splenomegaly 32 / 50 32. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Cauda equina 33 / 50 33. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Related to diastolic BP B. Should be ignored C. Present in all hypertensives D. As a result of venous distension 34 / 50 34. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive myocardial infarction D. Atrial fibrillation 35 / 50 35. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Stenosis is severe 36 / 50 36. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Atrial fibrillation D. Supraventricular tachycardia 37 / 50 37. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Rupture B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Infective endocarditis D. Embolism 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Starts in the dependent part D. Pitting oedema 39 / 50 39. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Chloramphenicol C. Doxorubicin D. Methotrexate 40 / 50 40. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MS B. MR C. AR D. AS 41 / 50 41. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon B. Pin-point mitral valve C. Occurs below 18 years D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 42 / 50 42. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Left atrial myxoma C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Right-to-left shunt 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Bradykinin C. Nitric oxide D. Endothelin 44 / 50 44. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Renal failure C. Hypokalaemia D. Old age 45 / 50 45. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV Lignocaine C. IV amiodarone D. Electrical cardioversion 46 / 50 46. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Amiodarone C. Verapamil D. Adenosine 47 / 50 47. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Cardiogenic C. Neurogenic D. Hypovolaemic 48 / 50 48. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pericardial effusion 49 / 50 49. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Digitalis overdose C. Tachycardia D. Left atrial failure 50 / 50 50. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Cervical rib C. Trauma D. Sarcoidosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology