CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 50 ml C. 25 ml D. 5 ml 2 / 50 2. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. ASD C. Associated LVH D. AS 3 / 50 3. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Tricuspid valve B. Aortic valve C. Mitral valve D. Pulmonary valve 4 / 50 4. S4 is not associated with: A. Aortic stenosis B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Systemic hypertension D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 5 / 50 5. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Beta-blockers B. Aspirin C. Diuretics D. ACE inhibitors 6 / 50 6. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. Retinal haemorrhage C. Papilloedema D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 7 / 50 7. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Peripheral embolism C. Coarctation of aorta D. Buerger's disease 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Subcutaneous nodule B. Chorea C. Polyarthritis D. Erythema nodosum 9 / 50 9. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 10 / 50 10. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Dependent oedema B. Fine crepitations at lung bases C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Gallop rhythm 11 / 50 11. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Y-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Inverted Y-shaped 12 / 50 12. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Hyperdynamic circulatory states 13 / 50 13. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. LBBB C. Aortic regurgitation D. Left ventricular pacing 14 / 50 14. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 15 / 50 15. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Having wide split C. Shows reverse split D. Shows narrow split 16 / 50 16. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. VSD B. MS C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. PS 17 / 50 17. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Late systole 18 / 50 18. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 19 / 50 19. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 20 / 50 20. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class IV C. Class I D. Class II 21 / 50 21. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. ASD B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. VSD 22 / 50 22. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. AV nodal rhythm B. Low atrial rhythm C. First degree heart block D. WPW syndrome 23 / 50 23. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid atresia C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. Severe pulmonary hypertension 24 / 50 24. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Rheumatic arthritis B. SLE C. Felty's syndrome D. Viral arthritis 25 / 50 25. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Ventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus 26 / 50 26. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Twice daily dosage schedule C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 27 / 50 27. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Pregnancy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 28 / 50 28. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus bradycardia B. Sinus tachycardia C. Hypotension D. Low pulse pressure 29 / 50 29. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Shock 30 / 50 30. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Hyperuricemia C. Microvascular angina D. Morbid obesity 31 / 50 31. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Sodium 32 / 50 32. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Septic shock D. Cardiogenic shock 33 / 50 33. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Valsalva maneuver C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Standing 34 / 50 34. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Supravalvular AS C. Lutembacher syndrome D. Infundibular PS 35 / 50 35. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Hypertension C. Pyrexia D. Clubbing 36 / 50 36. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Old age D. Renal failure 37 / 50 37. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Right ventricular dilatation 38 / 50 38. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. Hyperkalaemia C. Ostium primum ASD D. WPW syndrome 39 / 50 39. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Pulmonary valve 40 / 50 40. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Acute mediastinitis B. Dissecting aneurysm C. Unstable angina D. Bornholm disease 41 / 50 41. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. MS C. MR D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 42 / 50 42. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 43 / 50 43. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Occurs immediately after S1 44 / 50 44. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. ACE-inhibitors C. Surgical myotomy of the septum D. Propranolol 45 / 50 45. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Right atrial myxoma 46 / 50 46. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Thoracic deformity 47 / 50 47. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Dorsalis pedis C. Brachial D. Radial 48 / 50 48. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Diastolic shock C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 49 / 50 49. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Down's syndrome D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 50 / 50 50. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Pregnancy C. Sickle cell anemia D. 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