Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Squatting D. Valsalva maneuver 2 / 50 2. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Clubbing C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Cafe au lait pallor 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Cubbing B. Osler's node C. Murmur D. Splenomegaly 4 / 50 4. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Wenckebach block C. Mobitz type II block D. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block 5 / 50 5. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Systemic hypertension C. Takayasu's disease D. Arteritis 6 / 50 6. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Conn's syndrome D. Polycystic kidney disease 7 / 50 7. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Left atrial myxoma C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Right-to-left shunt 8 / 50 8. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Afibrinogenaemia C. Vasculitis D. Old age 9 / 50 9. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 10 / 50 10. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography D. Pulsus paradoxus 11 / 50 11. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Tricuspid atresia D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 12 / 50 12. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. VSD plus MS B. ASD plus MS C. ASD plus MR D. ASD plus AR 13 / 50 13. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. VSD B. ASD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Bicuspid aortic valve 14 / 50 14. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Mitral stenosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 15 / 50 15. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV amiodarone C. Electrical cardioversion D. IV Lignocaine 16 / 50 16. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Diastole D. Systole 17 / 50 17. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 10-12th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 6-9th rib D. 1-12th rib 18 / 50 18. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias B. Systemic hypertension C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Angina Pectoris 19 / 50 19. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Warning symptoms C. Rapid recovery D. Residual neurodeficit 20 / 50 20. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Floppy mitral valve D. Acute myocardial infarction 21 / 50 21. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Septic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 22 / 50 22. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Morning-time single dosage C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Eccentric dosage schedule 23 / 50 23. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Hypotension C. Orthopnoea D. Pulsatile liver 24 / 50 24. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 25 / 50 25. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Left ventricular failure C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 26 / 50 26. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Quinidine therapy B. Hypothermia C. Vagal stimulation D. Hypocalcaemia 27 / 50 27. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. MR C. AS D. AR 28 / 50 28. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Complete heart block B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Nodal rhythm 29 / 50 29. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. Coarctation of aorta C. ASD D. PDA 30 / 50 30. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Peripheral cyanosis D. Ashen-grey pallor 31 / 50 31. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Palpable S4 C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable S3 32 / 50 32. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 33 / 50 33. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Telmisartan C. Methyldopa D. Labetalol 34 / 50 34. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. V-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 35 / 50 35. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Presystolic C. Systolic D. Mid-diastolic 36 / 50 36. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight 37 / 50 37. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Collagen vascular disease D. Right ventricular dilatation 38 / 50 38. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Acrocyanosis C. Livedo reticularis D. Deep vein thrombosis 39 / 50 39. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Right ventricular pacing C. Left ventricular failure D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 40 / 50 40. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 41 / 50 41. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 42 / 50 42. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Late diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 43 / 50 43. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 40mmHg B. 30mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 80mmHg 44 / 50 44. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. PDA C. VSD D. AR 45 / 50 45. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Systemic hypertension D. Disturbances in vision 46 / 50 46. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 200 Joules D. 100 Joules 47 / 50 47. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. MS D. Fallot's tetralogy 48 / 50 48. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial fibrillation C. Atrial flutter D. Hypokalaemia 49 / 50 49. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Left-to-right shunt 50 / 50 50. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. HIV C. Chlamydia D. H. pylori LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology