Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Gallop rhythm B. Fine crepitations at lung bases C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Dependent oedema 2 / 50 2. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 18 inch long 3 / 50 3. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Acute severe asthma D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 4 / 50 4. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. SGOT C. SGPT D. LDH 5 / 50 5. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Myxoedema B. Complete heart block C. Obstructive jaundice D. Hypothermia 7 / 50 7. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Prazosin C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 8 / 50 8. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Phenylephrin B. Amiodarone C. Morphine D. Propranolol 9 / 50 9. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Shock D. Arrhythmias 10 / 50 10. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. Low atrial rhythm C. First degree heart block D. AV nodal rhythm 11 / 50 11. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 12 / 50 12. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Left-to-right shunt C. Right ventricular failure D. Left ventricular failure 13 / 50 13. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypokalaemia 14 / 50 14. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Doxorubicin B. Allopurinol C. Chloramphenicol D. Methotrexate 15 / 50 15. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Angina Pectoris C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Congestive cardiac failure 16 / 50 16. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Left atrial myxoma C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Right-to-left shunt 17 / 50 17. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. After holding the breath C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. On the left side of lower sternum 18 / 50 18. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Takayasu's disease D. Arteritis 19 / 50 19. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur 20 / 50 20. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. LBBB C. Aortic regurgitation D. Left ventricular pacing 21 / 50 21. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Coarctation of aorta B. SLE C. Primary pulmonary hypertension D. PDA 22 / 50 22. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Arteriovenous nipping D. Papilloedema 23 / 50 23. The murmur of MS is: A. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation B. With radiation towards left axilla C. High-pitched D. Early diastolic 24 / 50 24. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. S2 C. Opening snap D. Venous hum 25 / 50 25. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode B. Emphysema C. Dextrocardia D. ECG was taken in deep inspiration 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Chorea D. Erythema nodosum 27 / 50 27. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Shortened PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Diminished QT interval 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure B. Low volume pulse C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Regular pulse rate 29 / 50 29. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Austin Flint murmur D. Left atrial myxoma 30 / 50 30. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Fallot's tetralogy C. PDA D. Coarctation of aorta 31 / 50 31. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Coarctation of aorta C. Unstable angina D. Buerger's disease 32 / 50 32. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Phaeochromocytoma 33 / 50 33. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 34 / 50 34. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. ASD C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Left ventricular failure 35 / 50 35. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class IV C. Class II D. Class I 36 / 50 36. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Beta-blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Diuretics 37 / 50 37. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. VSD C. PDA D. Dextrocardia 38 / 50 38. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pulmonary thromboembolism B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Left-sided heart failure D. Pericardial effusion 39 / 50 39. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Mobitz type II block D. Wenckebach block 40 / 50 40. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta D. Berry aneurysm 41 / 50 41. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Moderate VSD B. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent C. Haemodynamically significant D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 42 / 50 42. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. AS C. MS D. AR 43 / 50 43. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. ASD 44 / 50 44. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Infective endocarditis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Rupture 45 / 50 45. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. During inspiration C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 46 / 50 46. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Post-AMI C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Myocarditis 47 / 50 47. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Digitalis overdose C. Left atrial failure D. Tachycardia 48 / 50 48. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Hypothermia C. Quinidine therapy D. Hypocalcaemia 49 / 50 49. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis B. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula C. Aortopulmonary window D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 50 / 50 50. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Prominent a-wave D. Prominent y-descent LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology