Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Transposition of great vessels C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 2 / 50 2. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Shock C. Arrhythmias D. Hypertension 3 / 50 3. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 5 ml C. 25 ml D. 15 ml 4 / 50 4. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left bundle branch block C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. True posterior myocardial infarction 5 / 50 5. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Branham's sign C. Tinel's sign D. Hoover's sign 6 / 50 6. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Acute rheumatic fever 7 / 50 7. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Ostium primum ASD C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 8 / 50 8. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. SGOT C. LDH D. CPK 9 / 50 9. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Associated with thrill D. Best heard over mitral area 10 / 50 10. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. MS C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Acute rheumatic fever 11 / 50 11. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Diuretics C. IV fluid D. Calcium gluconate 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Histamine C. Nitric oxide D. Endothelin 13 / 50 13. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Chronic obstructive airway disease B. Pericardial effusion C. Left-sided heart failure D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 14 / 50 14. S4 is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Aortic stenosis 15 / 50 15. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Increased JVP C. Pulmonary congestion D. Hypotension 16 / 50 16. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Chronic renal failure C. Acute pancreatitis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 17 / 50 17. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Tricuspid atresia 18 / 50 18. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Complete heart block C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Right atrial myxoma 19 / 50 19. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Bucindolol C. Digoxin D. Propranolol 20 / 50 20. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. Carotid massage C. Electrical cardioversion D. IV Lignocaine 21 / 50 21. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Y-shaped D. V-shaped 22 / 50 22. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Early diastolic C. Presystolic D. Mid-diastolic 23 / 50 23. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Radial C. Brachial D. Dorsalis pedis 24 / 50 24. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Candida albicans endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis 25 / 50 25. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. First degree heart block B. Low atrial rhythm C. AV nodal rhythm D. WPW syndrome 26 / 50 26. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Clubbing C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Splenomegaly 27 / 50 27. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 28 / 50 28. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen D. Occurs below 18 years 29 / 50 29. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Mitral regurgitation C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 30 / 50 30. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Diastolic shock C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) 31 / 50 31. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MR D. MS 32 / 50 32. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Right-to-left shunt D. Left atrial myxoma 33 / 50 33. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. PDA C. MS D. AR 34 / 50 34. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypothermia B. Quinidine therapy C. Vagal stimulation D. Hypocalcaemia 35 / 50 35. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Lumbar canal stenosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Buerger's disease D. Leriche's syndrome 36 / 50 36. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Cat-like cry C. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 D. VSD 37 / 50 37. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Labetalol C. Telmisartan D. Methyldopa 38 / 50 38. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Found in severe AR B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Absence of thrill D. Having loud S1 39 / 50 39. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Doxorubicin C. Chloramphenicol D. Methotrexate 40 / 50 40. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Ventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Atrioventricular septal defect 41 / 50 41. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Tricuspid valve B. Aortic valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Mitral valve 42 / 50 42. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. SLE D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 43 / 50 43. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Chlamydia C. HIV D. Cytomegalovirus 44 / 50 44. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Unstable angina C. Bornholm disease D. Acute mediastinitis 45 / 50 45. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Opening snap B. Pericardial knock C. Ejection click D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 46 / 50 46. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Atherosclerosis of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Coarctation of aorta 47 / 50 47. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Shows reverse split C. Remains single D. Having wide split 48 / 50 48. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. Surgical myotomy of the septum C. ACE-inhibitors D. Amiodarone 49 / 50 49. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Labetalol B. Atenolol C. Carvedilol D. Pindolol 50 / 50 50. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Hypertension C. Pyrexia D. Clubbing LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology