Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Myocarditis C. Emphysema D. Cardiomyopathy 2 / 50 2. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Pulsus alternans 3 / 50 3. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Cardiomyopathy C. Ischemic heart disease D. Severe anemia 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Haptoglobulin B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Orosomucoid D. Ceruloplasmin 5 / 50 5. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Left bundle branch block 6 / 50 6. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus bradycardia B. Low pulse pressure C. Hypotension D. Sinus tachycardia 7 / 50 7. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Pulmonary fibrosis C. Pulmonary oedema D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 8 / 50 8. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Conn's syndrome 9 / 50 9. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Renal artery stenosis C. Eclampsia D. Phaeochromocytoma 10 / 50 10. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amiodarone B. Amlodipine C. Amrinone D. Lisinopril 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Chorea C. Polyarthritis D. Subcutaneous nodule 12 / 50 12. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Increased PR interval D. Tall T-waves 13 / 50 13. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. MR D. AR 14 / 50 14. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. PDA C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ostium primum ASD 15 / 50 15. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. Transposition of great vessels 16 / 50 16. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent B. Moderate VSD C. Haemodynamically significant D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 17 / 50 17. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 18 / 50 18. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Complete heart block D. Tricuspid incompetence 19 / 50 19. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Central cyanosis C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 20 / 50 20. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 400 Joules C. 50 Joules D. 100 Joules 21 / 50 21. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. Hyperkalaemia C. Ostium primum ASD D. WPW syndrome 22 / 50 22. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hyponatraemia 23 / 50 23. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Nailbed B. Palms C. Fundus D. Palate 24 / 50 24. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. HIV C. Cytomegalovirus D. Chlamydia 25 / 50 25. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Haemothorax C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 26 / 50 26. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Labetalol C. Carvedilol D. Atenolol 27 / 50 27. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Splenomegaly C. Clubbing D. Cafe au lait pallor 28 / 50 28. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Palpable S3 C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable S4 29 / 50 29. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. LDH B. CPK C. SGPT D. SGOT 30 / 50 30. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Isolated levocardia B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Addison's disease D. Emphysema 31 / 50 31. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Myotonic dystrophy 32 / 50 32. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Transposition of great vessels D. Tricuspid atresia 33 / 50 33. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. PDA D. Aortic regurgitation 34 / 50 34. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Cardiomegaly D. Water-hammer pulse 35 / 50 35. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised Lipoprotein (a) C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised VLDL 36 / 50 36. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 37 / 50 37. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. AR C. VSD D. MS 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure B. Regular pulse rate C. Low volume pulse D. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein 39 / 50 39. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Radial D. Dorsalis pedis 40 / 50 40. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Probucol C. Lovastatin D. Nicotinic acid 41 / 50 41. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Cauda equina B. Femoral artery C. Popliteal artery D. Inferior vena cava 42 / 50 42. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular pacing 43 / 50 43. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Occurs below 18 years C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 44 / 50 44. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Residual neurodeficit B. Rapid recovery C. Warning symptoms D. Gradual onset 45 / 50 45. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. VSD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ebstein's anomaly 46 / 50 46. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. AR with CCF C. Acutely developing AR D. AR with tight PS 47 / 50 47. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Bush tea C. Tapioca D. Aflatoxin 48 / 50 48. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Methyldopa B. Labetalol C. Hydralazine D. Enalapril 49 / 50 49. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MR B. VSD plus MS C. ASD plus MS D. ASD plus AR 50 / 50 50. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Collagen vascular disease D. 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