Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. S4 is not associated with: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Systemic hypertension C. Aortic stenosis D. Chronic mitral regurgitation 2 / 50 2. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Diuretics B. Calcium gluconate C. Restriction of fluid D. IV fluid 3 / 50 3. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. In standing position D. With the diaphragm of stethoscope 4 / 50 4. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Systemic hypertension C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Congestive cardiac failure 5 / 50 5. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Acute severe asthma D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 6 / 50 6. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ventricular septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 7 / 50 7. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 40mmHg C. 30mmHg D. 60mmHg 8 / 50 8. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. MS D. VSD 9 / 50 9. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Central cyanosis D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 10 / 50 10. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Wenckebach block C. Left ventricular failure D. Pericardial effusion 11 / 50 11. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Palpable S4 C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable opening snap 12 / 50 12. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. MS C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 13 / 50 13. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 14 / 50 14. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Massive myocardial infarction D. Atrial fibrillation 15 / 50 15. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Standing C. Squatting D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 16 / 50 16. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic innocent murmur B. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 17 / 50 17. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Best heard in standing position C. Low-pitched D. Present in late diastole 18 / 50 18. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Hyperdynamic circulatory states D. Coarctation of aorta 19 / 50 19. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 1-12th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 6-9th rib D. 3-6th rib 20 / 50 20. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AR B. AS with AR C. MR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 21 / 50 21. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Methyldopa C. Diazoxide D. Sodium nitroprusside 22 / 50 22. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Mitral stenosis C. Myxoedema D. Carcinoid syndrome 23 / 50 23. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Haemothorax D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 24 / 50 24. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Mobitz type II block D. Wenckebach block 25 / 50 25. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Coarctation of aorta C. Transposition of great vessels D. Tetralogy of Fallot 26 / 50 26. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Polycythemia D. Sickle cell anemia 27 / 50 27. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. AR C. Pulmonary hypertension D. MS 28 / 50 28. The disease with male preponderance is: A. PDA B. Coarctation of aorta C. SLE D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 29 / 50 29. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Acute pancreatitis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Chronic renal failure 30 / 50 30. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 31 / 50 31. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea 32 / 50 32. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. Aspirin C. Beta-blockers D. ACE inhibitors 33 / 50 33. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Increased PR interval 34 / 50 34. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Berry aneurysm C. Polycystic kidney D. Aortic arch syndrome 35 / 50 35. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. Atrial fibrillation C. 2nd degree heart block D. Sinus arrhythmia 36 / 50 36. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Athletes 37 / 50 37. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Multiple ectopics B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Atrial flutter D. Wenckebach block 38 / 50 38. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Acute mediastinitis C. Unstable angina D. Bornholm disease 39 / 50 39. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Mitral incompetence 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Morphine C. Trendelenburg position D. Diuretics 41 / 50 41. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 100 Joules C. 50 Joules D. 400 Joules 42 / 50 42. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Tophaceous gout C. Cervical rib D. Trauma 43 / 50 43. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Valsalva manoeuvre B. Leg raising C. Standing D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 44 / 50 44. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-electrical cardioversion B. Post-AMI C. Myocarditis D. Rhabdomyolysis 45 / 50 45. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Felty's syndrome B. Viral arthritis C. SLE D. Rheumatic arthritis 46 / 50 46. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. During inspiration C. Hyperkalaemia D. WPW syndrome 47 / 50 47. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Diastolic shock C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 48 / 50 48. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. There are two negative waves C. Undulating D. Becomes prominent on lying down 49 / 50 49. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. PDA C. Associated LVH D. AS 50 / 50 50. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Rupture C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Embolism LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
