Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Trauma C. Cervical rib D. Tophaceous gout 2 / 50 2. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Systemic hypertension B. Marfan's syndrome C. Syphilitic aortitis D. Pregnancy 3 / 50 3. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MR C. AS D. MS 4 / 50 4. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. During inspiration C. Ostium primum ASD D. WPW syndrome 5 / 50 5. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Emphysema B. Cardiomyopathy C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Myocarditis 6 / 50 6. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Arrhythmias C. Shock D. Hypertension 7 / 50 7. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Raised JVP C. Ashen-grey pallor D. Peripheral cyanosis 8 / 50 8. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic murmur in complete heart block B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 9 / 50 9. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Pure mitral stenosis D. Absence of valvular calcification 10 / 50 10. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 100 Joules C. 50 Joules D. 400 Joules 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Pitting oedema B. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Starts in the dependent part 12 / 50 12. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Lisinopril B. Amrinone C. Amlodipine D. Amiodarone 13 / 50 13. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 14 / 50 14. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AR B. MR C. MS D. AS 15 / 50 15. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. High ESR D. Splenomegaly 16 / 50 16. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Bing sign C. Tinel's sign D. Hoover's sign 17 / 50 17. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Morbid obesity C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Microvascular angina 18 / 50 18. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. VSD D. MS 19 / 50 19. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Marantic endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 20 / 50 20. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. After holding the breath C. On the left side of lower sternum D. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope 21 / 50 21. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight 22 / 50 22. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Addison's disease C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Isolated levocardia 23 / 50 23. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Angina Pectoris C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 24 / 50 24. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute myocardial infarction 25 / 50 25. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Mural thrombus D. Rheumatic valve 26 / 50 26. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Aflatoxin C. Tapioca D. Bush tea 27 / 50 27. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 28 / 50 28. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. High-pitched late systolic murmur D. More common in females 29 / 50 29. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class IV C. Class II D. Class III 30 / 50 30. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 31 / 50 31. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Presystolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Systolic 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Elevated ASO titre B. Arthralgia C. Prolonged PR interval D. Increased ESR 33 / 50 33. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. VSD B. Dextrocardia C. PDA D. Bicuspid aortic valve 34 / 50 34. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block B. Wenckebach block C. Mobitz type II block D. Ventricular bigeminy 35 / 50 35. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Arteriosclerosis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Pregnancy 37 / 50 37. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Orthopnoea B. Raised JVP C. Hypotension D. Pulsatile liver 38 / 50 38. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 39 / 50 39. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Right-to-left shunt C. Left atrial myxoma D. Acute bacterial endocarditis 40 / 50 40. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. ASD B. Associated LVH C. PDA D. AS 41 / 50 41. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. MS C. MR D. AS 42 / 50 42. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. AR with tight PS 43 / 50 43. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Diuretics C. Beta-blockers D. ACE inhibitors 44 / 50 44. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. VSD D. ASD 45 / 50 45. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. PSVT C. Hypokalaemia D. Atrial flutter 46 / 50 46. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Embolic phenomenon C. Hypertension D. Clubbing 47 / 50 47. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Infundibular PS B. Supravalvular AS C. Lutembacher syndrome D. Ebstein's anomaly 48 / 50 48. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection D. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome 49 / 50 49. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Left atrial myxoma 50 / 50 50. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Old age B. Renal failure C. Hypokalaemia D. Hepatic encephalopathy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology