CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Night-time single dosage 2 / 50 2. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. WPW syndrome C. Ostium primum ASD D. Hyperkalaemia 3 / 50 3. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Coffee C. Tapioca D. Bush tea 4 / 50 4. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Thoracic deformity D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 5 / 50 5. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class IV C. Class II D. Class I 6 / 50 6. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Mitral stenosis C. Myxoedema D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 7 / 50 7. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. After holding the breath C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. On the left side of lower sternum 8 / 50 8. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Isolated levocardia C. Addison's disease D. Sheehan's syndrome 9 / 50 9. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min 10 / 50 10. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Aortoarteritis B. Atherosclerosis of aorta C. Coarctation of aorta D. Unfolding of aorta 11 / 50 11. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. More common in females C. Early systolic click D. High-pitched late systolic murmur 12 / 50 12. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Left main coronary artery stenosis B. MR C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. MS 13 / 50 13. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV Lignocaine B. IV amiodarone C. Carotid massage D. Electrical cardioversion 14 / 50 14. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ventricular septal defect C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Patent ductus arteriosus 15 / 50 15. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis C. Aortopulmonary window D. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula 16 / 50 16. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Endotoxic shock D. Mitral stenosis 17 / 50 17. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 10-12th rib 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteoarthritis 19 / 50 19. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Atrioventricular septal defect 20 / 50 20. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 1 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 21 / 50 21. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Hypokalaemia C. Renal failure D. Old age 22 / 50 22. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased PR interval B. Increased QT interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Presence of J-wave 23 / 50 23. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Hypokalaemia C. Atrial flutter D. Atrial fibrillation 24 / 50 24. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Radial C. Brachial D. Femoral 25 / 50 25. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Aortic regurgitation B. RBBB C. Left ventricular pacing D. LBBB 26 / 50 26. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Diastole 27 / 50 27. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Systemic hypertension C. Takayasu's disease D. Diabetes mellitus 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Increased ESR C. Arthralgia D. Elevated ASO titre 29 / 50 29. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Central cyanosis D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 30 / 50 30. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Berry aneurysm C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Bicuspid aortic valve 31 / 50 31. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. ASD C. VSD D. PDA 32 / 50 32. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Transposition of great vessels D. Ebstein's anomaly 33 / 50 33. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Shows narrow split C. Having wide split D. Remains single 34 / 50 34. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Found in severe AR C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. Absence of thrill 35 / 50 35. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard in standing position 36 / 50 36. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Berry aneurysm 37 / 50 37. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Hydralazine C. Enalapril D. Methyldopa 38 / 50 38. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Labetalol C. Carvedilol D. Pindolol 39 / 50 39. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Factor-X assay C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Clotting time (CT) 40 / 50 40. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Arteriosclerosis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Pregnancy 42 / 50 42. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Lisinopril B. Amlodipine C. Amiodarone D. Amrinone 43 / 50 43. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Transposition of great vessels C. Coarctation of aorta D. Tetralogy of Fallot 44 / 50 44. The disease with male preponderance is: A. PDA B. Coarctation of aorta C. Primary pulmonary hypertension D. SLE 45 / 50 45. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Left-sided heart failure 46 / 50 46. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Lutembacher syndrome D. Infundibular PS 47 / 50 47. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Associated with thrill C. Commonly found in children D. Best heard over mitral area 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Endothelin C. Bradykinin D. Nitric oxide 49 / 50 49. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Afibrinogenaemia B. SLE C. Vasculitis D. Old age 50 / 50 50. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. VSD B. ASD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. 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