Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Prominent a-wave in neck veins B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 D. Central cyanosis 2 / 50 2. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Venous hum C. S2 D. Opening snap 3 / 50 3. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 3-6th rib 4 / 50 4. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. A small fraction closes by the year 10 B. Haemodynamically significant C. Moderate VSD D. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Nitric oxide C. Bradykinin D. Endothelin 6 / 50 6. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Deep Q wave C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Height of R wave maximum in V6 7 / 50 7. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 8 / 50 8. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 9 / 50 9. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Methyldopa B. Diazoxide C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Labetalol 10 / 50 10. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Verapamil C. Adenosine D. Amiodarone 11 / 50 11. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Standing C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Leg raising 12 / 50 12. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome D. Trisomy 18 13 / 50 13. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. Digitalis toxicity C. WPW syndrome D. Rheumatic carditis 14 / 50 14. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ischemic heart disease C. Cardiomyopathy D. Severe anemia 15 / 50 15. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Radial C. Femoral D. Dorsalis pedis 16 / 50 16. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Gonorrhoea C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Chronic renal failure 17 / 50 17. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Autoimmune reaction C. Protozoa D. Bacteria 18 / 50 18. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Standing C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Squatting 19 / 50 19. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Orthopnoea C. Pulsatile liver D. Hypotension 20 / 50 20. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Carvedilol B. Atenolol C. Labetalol D. Pindolol 21 / 50 21. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 22 / 50 22. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Buerger's disease C. Aortic stenosis D. Coarctation of aorta 23 / 50 23. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Systole C. Mid-diastole D. Diastole 24 / 50 24. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. MR B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. AS with AR D. AR 25 / 50 25. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 4 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 26 / 50 26. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Factor-X assay C. Clotting time (CT) D. Prothrombin time (PT) 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Arteriosclerosis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Pregnancy 28 / 50 28. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Thoracic deformity C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 29 / 50 29. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Rupture B. Embolism C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Infective endocarditis 30 / 50 30. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Raised JVP D. S3 gallop rhythm 31 / 50 31. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. WPW syndrome C. Hypothermia D. Hyperkalaemia 32 / 50 32. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. PDA C. ASD D. Constrictive pericarditis 33 / 50 33. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen B. Occurs below 18 years C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Pin-point mitral valve 34 / 50 34. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Renal failure C. Old age D. Hepatic encephalopathy 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Polyarthritis C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Chorea 36 / 50 36. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Hypokalaemia 37 / 50 37. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Aortopulmonary window C. Ventricular septal defect D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 38 / 50 38. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Kussmaul's sign C. Pulmonary congestion D. Increased JVP 39 / 50 39. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Infundibular PS D. Lutembacher syndrome 40 / 50 40. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Y-shaped 41 / 50 41. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers 42 / 50 42. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Low pulse pressure C. Sinus tachycardia D. Sinus bradycardia 43 / 50 43. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Bornholm disease B. Acute mediastinitis C. Unstable angina D. Dissecting aneurysm 44 / 50 44. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Flecainide C. Verapamil D. Quinidine 45 / 50 45. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Amiloride C. Prazosin D. Hydralazine 46 / 50 46. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent a-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Prominent y-descent D. Small v-wave 47 / 50 47. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Beta-blockers C. Diuretics D. ACE inhibitors 48 / 50 48. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial flutter C. Atrial fibrillation D. Hypokalaemia 49 / 50 49. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Digitalis toxicity C. Hypothermia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 50 / 50 50. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Pulmonary valve LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology