Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 2 / 50 2. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) C. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur D. Diastolic shock 3 / 50 3. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Acute mediastinitis B. Bornholm disease C. Unstable angina D. Dissecting aneurysm 4 / 50 4. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 5 ml C. 15 ml D. 25 ml 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Ascites 6 / 50 6. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Streptoroccus viridans C. Pneumococcus D. Staphylococcus aureus 7 / 50 7. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hypothermia C. Vagal stimulation D. Quinidine therapy 8 / 50 8. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-diastole C. Mid-systole D. Late diastole 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Prolonged PR interval C. Elevated ASO titre D. Increased ESR 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Low volume pulse C. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure D. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein 11 / 50 11. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Neurogenic C. Cardiogenic D. Septic 12 / 50 12. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Arrhythmias C. Hypertension D. Shock 13 / 50 13. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard in standing position 14 / 50 14. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Pregnancy D. Systemic hypertension 15 / 50 15. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Allopurinol C. Doxorubicin D. Chloramphenicol 16 / 50 16. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. HIV C. H. pylori D. Chlamydia 17 / 50 17. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Night-time single dosage C. Twice daily dosage schedule D. Eccentric dosage schedule 18 / 50 18. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. Acute rheumatic fever C. AR D. Pulmonary hypertension 19 / 50 19. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Severe menstrual bleeding B. Bacterial endocarditis C. Pregnancy D. H/O intraocular bleeding 20 / 50 20. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. PDA C. Aortic regurgitation D. Persistent right-sided SVC 21 / 50 21. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Increased JVP C. Hypotension D. Pulmonary congestion 22 / 50 22. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. MR C. PDA D. VSD 23 / 50 23. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Hyperuricemia B. Microvascular angina C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Morbid obesity 24 / 50 24. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Mitral incompetence 25 / 50 25. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Normal in character B. Ringing in character C. Diminished D. Accentuated 26 / 50 26. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Low pulse pressure B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Hypotension 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 28 / 50 28. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. WPW syndrome C. Ostium primum ASD D. Hyperkalaemia 29 / 50 29. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Haemothorax D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 30 / 50 30. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Residual neurodeficit C. Rapid recovery D. Warning symptoms 31 / 50 31. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MS D. MR 32 / 50 32. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Pericardial effusion B. Wenckebach block C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular failure 33 / 50 33. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. After holding the breath B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. In lying down position D. On the left side of lower sternum 34 / 50 34. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Pyrexia C. Clubbing D. Splenomegaly 35 / 50 35. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Right ventricular pacing D. ASD 36 / 50 36. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Complete heart block B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Right atrial myxoma 37 / 50 37. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Absent clavicle B. Asplenia C. Fingerization of thumb D. VSD 38 / 50 38. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Clubbing C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Splenomegaly 39 / 50 39. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Starts in the dependent part B. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients C. Pitting oedema D. Initially noticed in the morning 41 / 50 41. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Radial D. Dorsalis pedis 42 / 50 42. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Systemic hypertension D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 43 / 50 43. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. ECG was taken in deep inspiration B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. Dextrocardia D. Emphysema 44 / 50 44. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Stenosis is severe B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound D. Occurs immediately after S1 45 / 50 45. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Wenckebach heart block 46 / 50 46. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Myxoedema B. Hypothermia C. Obstructive jaundice D. Complete heart block 48 / 50 48. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Hypothermia C. Digitalis toxicity D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 49 / 50 49. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Pregnancy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 50 / 50 50. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Pulse deficit is > 10 C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology