Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. WPW syndrome C. Digitalis toxicity D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 2 / 50 2. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Conn's syndrome 3 / 50 3. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Deep Q wave C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Prominent ST elevation 4 / 50 4. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Coronary osteal stenosis C. Berry aneurysm D. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta 5 / 50 5. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 6 / 50 6. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Marantic endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 7 / 50 7. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Y-shaped D. V-shaped 8 / 50 8. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Increased JVP B. Kussmaul's sign C. Pulmonary congestion D. Hypotension 9 / 50 9. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Obstructive mitral valve disease D. Pulmonary oedema 10 / 50 10. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Takayasu's disease C. Arteritis D. Diabetes mellitus 11 / 50 11. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Aortic arch syndrome C. Berry aneurysm D. Polycystic kidney 12 / 50 12. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Floppy mitral valve C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 13 / 50 13. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Myocarditis C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Post-AMI 14 / 50 14. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. ASD D. Left ventricular failure 15 / 50 15. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. In standing position 16 / 50 16. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. AS C. Coarctation of aorta D. VSD 17 / 50 17. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Gonorrhoea C. Acute pancreatitis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 18 / 50 18. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. MR C. MS D. AR 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Bradykinin B. Histamine C. Endothelin D. Nitric oxide 20 / 50 20. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. PDA D. Ostium primum ASD 21 / 50 21. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Systemic hypertension C. Pregnancy D. Marfan's syndrome 22 / 50 22. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Flecainide C. Quinidine D. Verapamil 23 / 50 23. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable S4 D. Palpable S3 24 / 50 24. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular failure 25 / 50 25. S4 is not associated with: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Aortic stenosis D. Systemic hypertension 26 / 50 26. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. PDA C. AS D. ASD 27 / 50 27. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Pregnancy C. Sickle cell anemia D. Polycythemia 28 / 50 28. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Ventricular septal defect C. Aortopulmonary window D. Patent ductus arteriosus 29 / 50 29. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Aortoarteritis B. Coarctation of aorta C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Unfolding of aorta 30 / 50 30. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's syndrome 31 / 50 31. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Cafe au lait pallor C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Splenomegaly 32 / 50 32. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Arteriosclerosis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 34 / 50 34. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Aortic insufficiency 35 / 50 35. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Night-time single dosage D. Morning-time single dosage 36 / 50 36. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Hypokalaemia C. Atrial flutter D. Atrial fibrillation 37 / 50 37. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Disturbances in vision C. Systemic hypertension D. Intermittent claudication 38 / 50 38. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Amiodarone C. Verapamil D. Adenosine 39 / 50 39. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Aortic stenosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Buerger's disease 40 / 50 40. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Restenosis cases C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Absence of valvular calcification 41 / 50 41. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 42 / 50 42. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. Pregnancy D. Bacterial endocarditis 43 / 50 43. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Aortic aneurysm D. Hyperdynamic circulatory states 44 / 50 44. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Collagen vascular disease D. Rheumatic heart disease 45 / 50 45. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. VSD D. Ebstein's anomaly 46 / 50 46. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Occurs below 18 years D. Pin-point mitral valve 47 / 50 47. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Amiodarone B. Morphine C. Phenylephrin D. Propranolol 48 / 50 48. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. Low atrial rhythm C. AV nodal rhythm D. First degree heart block 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Rotating tourniquets C. Trendelenburg position D. Morphine 50 / 50 50. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. 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