Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 2 / 50 2. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Papilloedema D. Retinal haemorrhage 3 / 50 3. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Increased PR interval C. Shortened PR interval D. Tall T-waves 4 / 50 4. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. Rheumatic carditis C. WPW syndrome D. Digitalis toxicity 5 / 50 5. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. Dextrocardia C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. VSD 6 / 50 6. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 100 Joules C. 50 Joules D. 200 Joules 7 / 50 7. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Right ventricular pacing D. ASD 8 / 50 8. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Tricuspid atresia 9 / 50 9. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 10 / 50 10. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Acute left ventricular failure D. Atrial fibrillation 11 / 50 11. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MR B. AR C. AS D. MS 12 / 50 12. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Mitral stenosis C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Myxoedema 13 / 50 13. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Hyperdynamic circulatory states C. Aortic aneurysm D. Coarctation of aorta 14 / 50 14. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. MS D. VSD 15 / 50 15. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus tachycardia C. Sinus bradycardia D. Low pulse pressure 16 / 50 16. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ostium primum ASD D. PDA 17 / 50 17. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. SLE D. PDA 18 / 50 18. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PS C. AS D. VSD 19 / 50 19. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Aneurysm of subclavian artery B. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels C. Takayasu's disease D. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta 20 / 50 20. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Massive myocardial infarction D. Atrial fibrillation 21 / 50 21. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Residual neurodeficit C. Gradual onset D. Rapid recovery 22 / 50 22. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Macroscopic hematuria B. Splenomegaly C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Clubbing 23 / 50 23. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Sick sinus syndrome 24 / 50 24. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. With radiation towards left axilla C. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation D. Early diastolic 25 / 50 25. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. VSD B. Cat-like cry C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 26 / 50 26. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Pulmonary congestion C. Increased JVP D. Hypotension 27 / 50 27. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. MR C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. MS 28 / 50 28. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class IV B. Class I C. Class II D. Class III 29 / 50 29. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left bundle branch block D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 30 / 50 30. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pericardial effusion C. Pulmonary thromboembolism D. Chronic obstructive airway disease 31 / 50 31. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Doxorubicin C. Methotrexate D. Allopurinol 32 / 50 32. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Complete heart block C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Tricuspid incompetence 33 / 50 33. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 34 / 50 34. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Adenosine B. Amiodarone C. Verapamil D. Metoprolol 35 / 50 35. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Aortic stenosis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Ventricular fibrillation 36 / 50 36. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolaemic D. Septic 37 / 50 37. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. Diuretics D. IV fluid 38 / 50 38. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Aortopulmonary window C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 39 / 50 39. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased QT interval C. Increased PR interval D. Presence of J-wave 40 / 50 40. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. Increased LDH3 C. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 D. Inverted T wave in ECG 41 / 50 41. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Best heard in standing position C. Low-pitched D. Present in late diastole 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Morphine C. Diuretics D. Rotating tourniquets 43 / 50 43. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Tricuspid atresia C. Transposition of great vessels D. Fallot's tetralogy 44 / 50 44. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. 2nd degree heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Extrasystoles 45 / 50 45. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arteritis D. Takayasu's disease 46 / 50 46. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 47 / 50 47. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. On the left side of lower sternum D. After holding the breath 48 / 50 48. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. AR with tight PS C. AR with systemic hypertension D. Acutely developing AR 49 / 50 49. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Lutembacher syndrome D. Infundibular PS 50 / 50 50. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Amiodarone C. Amrinone D. Lisinopril LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology