CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Sudden death may occur in: A. PDA B. Constrictive pericarditis C. AS D. ASD 2 / 50 2. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ischemic heart disease D. Cardiomyopathy 3 / 50 3. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Aortic aneurysm C. Hyperdynamic circulatory states D. Coarctation of aorta 4 / 50 4. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Acrocyanosis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 5 / 50 5. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Diazoxide D. Methyldopa 6 / 50 6. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Right atrial myxoma C. Cardiac tamponade D. Ventricular tachycardia 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Orosomucoid C. Ceruloplasmin D. Haptoglobulin 8 / 50 8. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Severe menstrual bleeding B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Pregnancy D. Bacterial endocarditis 9 / 50 9. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 10 / 50 10. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Coarctation of aorta D. ASD 11 / 50 11. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Neurogenic C. Septic D. Cardiogenic 12 / 50 12. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. Surgical myotomy of the septum C. ACE-inhibitors D. Propranolol 13 / 50 13. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MS D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 14 / 50 14. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Superior mediastinal syndrome D. Left ventricular failure 15 / 50 15. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Night-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Twice daily dosage schedule 16 / 50 16. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Orthopnoea C. Hypotension D. Pulsatile liver 17 / 50 17. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Standing D. Valsalva maneuver 18 / 50 18. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised VLDL B. Raised small dense LDL C. Raised Lipoprotein (a) D. Reduced HDL 19 / 50 19. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Probucol C. Lovastatin D. Gemfibrozil 20 / 50 20. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Phenylephrin B. Amiodarone C. Morphine D. Propranolol 21 / 50 21. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows narrow split C. Remains single D. Shows reverse split 22 / 50 22. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 2 cm2 B. < 3 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 1 cm2 23 / 50 23. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. WPW syndrome B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. Rheumatic carditis D. Digitalis toxicity 24 / 50 24. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. Toxoplasma infection C. HIV infection D. Diphtheria 25 / 50 25. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Angina Pectoris C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 26 / 50 26. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 27 / 50 27. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Central cyanosis D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 28 / 50 28. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. VSD C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Dextrocardia 29 / 50 29. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hyperkinetic circulatory states B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Pregnancy D. Athletes 30 / 50 30. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Polycystic kidney D. Berry aneurysm 31 / 50 31. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Hyperthyroidism 32 / 50 32. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. MR C. AR D. AS 33 / 50 33. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Fine crepitations at lung bases B. Dependent oedema C. Gallop rhythm D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 34 / 50 34. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Disturbances in vision C. Diminished pulses in upper extremity D. Systemic hypertension 35 / 50 35. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. Beta-blockers C. Aspirin D. ACE inhibitors 36 / 50 36. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 37 / 50 37. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 38 / 50 38. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Prominent ST elevation D. Deep Q wave 39 / 50 39. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Myxoedema C. Mitral stenosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 40 / 50 40. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. AS C. MR D. MS 41 / 50 41. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. Early systolic click C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. More common in females 42 / 50 42. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent C. Moderate VSD D. A small fraction closes by the year 10 43 / 50 43. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle 44 / 50 44. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Wenckebach heart block D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 45 / 50 45. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hyponatraemia 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Hepatitis C. Tachyarrhythmias D. Photosensitivity 47 / 50 47. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Chronic renal failure C. Gonorrhoea D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 48 / 50 48. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Transferrin B. Homocysteine C. PAI-I D. Lipoprotein 49 / 50 49. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Hydralazine C. Prazosin D. Amiloride 50 / 50 50. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Atrial fibrillation D. 2nd degree heart block LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
