Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. After holding the breath C. On the left side of lower sternum D. In lying down position 2 / 50 2. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 3 / 50 3. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Present in late diastole C. Low-pitched D. Best heard in standing position 4 / 50 4. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. VSD D. Ostium primum ASD 5 / 50 5. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 6 / 50 6. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 22 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 12 inch long D. 8 inch long 7 / 50 7. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Right atrial myxoma C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Ventricular tachycardia 8 / 50 8. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Hypokalaemia C. Renal failure D. Old age 9 / 50 9. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Methyldopa D. Diazoxide 10 / 50 10. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Dorsalis pedis C. Brachial D. Radial 11 / 50 11. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. MS C. AR D. VSD 12 / 50 12. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. Splenomegaly D. High ESR 13 / 50 13. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right ventricle D. Right atrium 14 / 50 14. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. IV fluid B. Restriction of fluid C. Calcium gluconate D. Diuretics 15 / 50 15. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon B. Occurs below 18 years C. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen D. Pin-point mitral valve 16 / 50 16. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Tapioca C. Bush tea D. Coffee 17 / 50 17. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased PR interval D. Increased duration of QRS complex 18 / 50 18. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Amiodarone C. Propranolol D. ACE-inhibitors 19 / 50 19. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Clubbing C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Macroscopic hematuria 20 / 50 20. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Left ventricular failure C. Left-to-right shunt D. Right ventricular failure 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Myxoedema C. Complete heart block D. Hypothermia 22 / 50 22. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial flutter B. Hypokalaemia C. PSVT D. Atrial fibrillation 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Diuretics C. Trendelenburg position D. Morphine 24 / 50 24. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Hypotension C. Pulmonary congestion D. Increased JVP 25 / 50 25. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ventricular septal defect 26 / 50 26. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 1 cm2 B. < 3 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 4 cm2 27 / 50 27. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. Multiple ectopics C. Atrial flutter D. Wenckebach block 28 / 50 28. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Should be ignored C. As a result of venous distension D. Related to diastolic BP 29 / 50 29. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. H/O intraocular bleeding D. Pregnancy 30 / 50 30. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Digitalis toxicity B. WPW syndrome C. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) D. Rheumatic carditis 31 / 50 31. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Acute pancreatitis D. Gonorrhoea 32 / 50 32. All are true in severe PS except: A. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 B. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased C. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur D. The ejection click goes away from S1 33 / 50 33. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Opening snap B. Ejection click C. Pericardial knock D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 34 / 50 34. Still’s murmur is: A. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis B. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation C. Systolic innocent murmur D. Systolic murmur in complete heart block 35 / 50 35. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Buerger's disease B. Lumbar canal stenosis C. Leriche's syndrome D. Peripheral neuropathy 36 / 50 36. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. AR C. MR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 37 / 50 37. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 38 / 50 38. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Peripheral cyanosis D. Ashen-grey pallor 39 / 50 39. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. Right-sided aortic arch C. Aortic regurgitation D. PDA 40 / 50 40. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Aortic insufficiency C. Mitral regurgitation D. Mitral stenosis 41 / 50 41. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Intermittent claudication C. Diminished pulses in upper extremity D. Systemic hypertension 42 / 50 42. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class I C. Class III D. Class IV 43 / 50 43. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. MS C. MR D. AR 44 / 50 44. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography 45 / 50 45. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 46 / 50 46. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Acrocyanosis 47 / 50 47. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Myocarditis 48 / 50 48. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Takayasu's disease D. Aplastic anaemia 49 / 50 49. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Transferrin C. Homocysteine D. Lipoprotein 50 / 50 50. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Hypotension C. Sinus bradycardia D. 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