Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. Better felt than seen D. Undulating 2 / 50 2. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Cat-like cry C. VSD D. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 3 / 50 3. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Acute left ventricular failure C. Atrial fibrillation D. Supraventricular tachycardia 4 / 50 4. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Coarctation of aorta D. Renal artery stenosis 5 / 50 5. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Carotid massage B. IV Lignocaine C. IV amiodarone D. Electrical cardioversion 6 / 50 6. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Hydralazine C. Amiloride D. Methyldopa 7 / 50 7. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Aortic insufficiency 8 / 50 8. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Bucindolol C. Propranolol D. Digoxin 9 / 50 9. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. VSD C. Coarctation of aorta D. AS 10 / 50 10. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. VSD B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. ASD D. Fallot's tetralogy 11 / 50 11. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Atrial fibrillation C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 12 / 50 12. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. PDA D. Aortic regurgitation 13 / 50 13. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Right atrial myxoma C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Atrial fibrillation 14 / 50 14. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Found in severe AR C. Absence of thrill D. Mid-diastolic murmur 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulmonary oedema B. Raised JVP C. Ascites D. Pulsus paradoxus 16 / 50 16. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Complete heart block B. Right atrial myxoma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Tricuspid incompetence 17 / 50 17. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Protozoa D. Autoimmune reaction 18 / 50 18. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Aortic arch syndrome C. Polycystic kidney D. Berry aneurysm 19 / 50 19. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Myotonic dystrophy 20 / 50 20. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Conn's syndrome C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Phaeochromocytoma 21 / 50 21. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Metoprolol B. Adenosine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone 22 / 50 22. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left bundle branch block C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. True posterior myocardial infarction 23 / 50 23. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Systemic hypertension B. Pregnancy C. Marfan's syndrome D. Syphilitic aortitis 24 / 50 24. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Unfolding of aorta C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Aortitis 25 / 50 25. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard in standing position C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Present in late diastole 26 / 50 26. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 1-12th rib C. 10-12th rib D. 3-6th rib 27 / 50 27. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Cafe au lait pallor C. Splenomegaly D. Macroscopic hematuria 28 / 50 28. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Trauma B. Sarcoidosis C. Cervical rib D. Tophaceous gout 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Homocystinuria D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 30 / 50 30. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Late systole D. Late diastole 31 / 50 31. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Hypothermia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Sick sinus syndrome 32 / 50 32. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Radial D. Dorsalis pedis 33 / 50 33. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Labetalol C. Pindolol D. Carvedilol 34 / 50 34. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ventricular septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 35 / 50 35. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Babinski B. Korotkoff C. Laennec D. Osler 36 / 50 36. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) B. Pulmonary stenosis C. PDA D. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Elevated ASO titre C. Prolonged PR interval D. Increased ESR 38 / 50 38. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulsus alternans C. Water-hammer pulse D. Pulsus bigeminus 39 / 50 39. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Coarctation of aorta C. Atherosclerosis of aorta D. Aortoarteritis 40 / 50 40. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. More common in females C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. High-pitched late systolic murmur 41 / 50 41. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Old age B. Renal failure C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Hypokalaemia 42 / 50 42. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Aortic stenosis D. Systemic hypertension 43 / 50 43. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. Wenckebach block C. Atrial flutter D. Multiple ectopics 44 / 50 44. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Hoover's sign B. Bing sign C. Tinel's sign D. Branham's sign 45 / 50 45. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. MS C. PDA D. AR 46 / 50 46. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Cauda equina C. Femoral artery D. Inferior vena cava 47 / 50 47. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Opening snap C. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma D. Pericardial knock 48 / 50 48. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Wenckebach block B. Left ventricular failure C. Pericardial effusion D. Digitalis toxicity 49 / 50 49. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Presystolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Early diastolic 50 / 50 50. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation B. Prolonged circulation time C. Pericardial effusion D. Diminished cardiac output LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
