CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Quinidine therapy C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hypothermia 2 / 50 2. S4 is not associated with: A. Chronic mitral regurgitation B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Aortic stenosis D. Systemic hypertension 3 / 50 3. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Pregnancy C. Athletes D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 4 / 50 4. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Graham Steel murmur C. Presence of S3 D. Late and loud opening snap 5 / 50 5. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 6 / 50 6. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. ASD C. AS D. PDA 7 / 50 7. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Aortopulmonary window C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis 8 / 50 8. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Digitalis toxicity C. Pericardial effusion D. Wenckebach block 9 / 50 9. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. MS C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Pulmonary hypertension 10 / 50 10. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. MS C. MR D. AR 11 / 50 11. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Carvedilol B. Labetalol C. Atenolol D. Pindolol 12 / 50 12. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. MR B. AS with AR C. AR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Hyperthyroidism C. Homocystinuria D. Nephrotic syndrome 14 / 50 14. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Diuretics C. ACE inhibitors D. Beta-blockers 15 / 50 15. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle 16 / 50 16. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Coarctation of aorta D. Hyperdynamic circulatory states 17 / 50 17. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. MS C. VSD D. AR 18 / 50 18. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Pure mitral stenosis 19 / 50 19. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Orthopnoea C. Hypotension D. Raised JVP 20 / 50 20. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Cervical rib B. Sarcoidosis C. Tophaceous gout D. Trauma 21 / 50 21. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Morphine B. Propranolol C. Phenylephrin D. Amiodarone 22 / 50 22. The least common complication of MS is: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Pulmonary hypertension 23 / 50 23. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Shortened PR interval D. Tall T-waves 24 / 50 24. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Low-pitched D. Present in late diastole 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Haptoglobulin D. Ceruloplasmin 26 / 50 26. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Myocarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 27 / 50 27. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. AR C. MR D. AS 28 / 50 28. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Inferior vena cava B. Popliteal artery C. Femoral artery D. Cauda equina 29 / 50 29. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Aortopulmonary window 30 / 50 30. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. Transposition of great vessels C. VSD D. PDA 31 / 50 31. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Aortitis C. Unfolding of aorta D. Pulmonary hypertension 32 / 50 32. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels B. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta C. Takayasu's disease D. Aneurysm of subclavian artery 33 / 50 33. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Complete heart block C. Atrial fibrillation D. Nodal rhythm 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Ascites C. Pulmonary oedema D. Pulsus paradoxus 35 / 50 35. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 36 / 50 36. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S4 D. Muscle tremor 37 / 50 37. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Patent ductus arteriosus 38 / 50 38. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Acute severe asthma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Cardiac tamponade D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 39 / 50 39. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Down's syndrome C. Holt-Oram syndrome D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 40 / 50 40. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. Surgical myotomy of the septum C. Amiodarone D. ACE-inhibitors 41 / 50 41. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Systolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Presystolic 42 / 50 42. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 43 / 50 43. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Femoral C. Radial D. Brachial 44 / 50 44. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Fundus C. Palate D. Nailbed 45 / 50 45. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptoroccus viridans 46 / 50 46. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Leg raising B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Standing D. Valsalva manoeuvre 47 / 50 47. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Having loud S1 C. Found in severe AR D. Mid-diastolic murmur 48 / 50 48. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. HIV B. H. pylori C. Cytomegalovirus D. Chlamydia 49 / 50 49. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AR C. MS D. AS 50 / 50 50. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Night-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Twice daily dosage schedule LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
