CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Acrocyanosis D. Livedo reticularis 2 / 50 2. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. On the left side of lower sternum C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. After holding the breath 3 / 50 3. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Hyperdynamic circulatory states C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 4 / 50 4. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Presystolic D. Systolic 5 / 50 5. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Hoover's sign B. Bing sign C. Branham's sign D. Tinel's sign 6 / 50 6. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Orosomucoid D. Haptoglobulin 8 / 50 8. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Hydralazine C. Labetalol D. Methyldopa 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Arteriosclerosis D. Coarctation of aorta 10 / 50 10. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 8 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 22 inch long 11 / 50 11. JVP is usually increased in: A. Septic shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Hypovolaemic shock D. Cardiogenic shock 12 / 50 12. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Acute severe asthma B. Cardiac tamponade C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 13 / 50 13. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Left ventricular failure C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 14 / 50 14. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. AR C. PDA D. VSD 15 / 50 15. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. Papilloedema C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Retinal haemorrhage 16 / 50 16. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. Right-sided aortic arch C. Persistent right-sided SVC D. PDA 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure B. Regular pulse rate C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Low volume pulse 18 / 50 18. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 4 cm2 B. < 2 cm2 C. < 1 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 19 / 50 19. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Cervical rib C. Trauma D. Sarcoidosis 20 / 50 20. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. VSD B. Mongoloid slant of eyes C. Cat-like cry D. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 21 / 50 21. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Bush tea B. Coffee C. Aflatoxin D. Tapioca 22 / 50 22. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Standing C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Valsalva maneuver 23 / 50 23. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Right atrial hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 24 / 50 24. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. LBBB B. RBBB C. Left ventricular pacing D. Aortic regurgitation 25 / 50 25. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Conn's syndrome B. Addison's disease C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Polycystic kidney disease 26 / 50 26. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Diastolic shock C. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteoarthritis B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 28 / 50 28. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Wenckebach heart block 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Myxoedema C. Complete heart block D. Hypothermia 30 / 50 30. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Left atrial myxoma 31 / 50 31. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Hypotension B. Pulsatile liver C. Raised JVP D. Orthopnoea 32 / 50 32. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Atrioventricular septal defect 33 / 50 33. Sudden death may occur in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. PDA C. ASD D. AS 34 / 50 34. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Athletes C. Pregnancy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 35 / 50 35. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. Electrical cardioversion B. Carotid massage C. IV Lignocaine D. IV amiodarone 36 / 50 36. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Protozoa D. Autoimmune reaction 37 / 50 37. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Berry aneurysm C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Bicuspid aortic valve 38 / 50 38. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Pulmonary valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 39 / 50 39. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Transposition of great vessels 40 / 50 40. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 41 / 50 41. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. 'f ' waves in neck vein C. Pulse deficit is > 10 D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 42 / 50 42. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late diastole C. Mid-systole D. Late systole 43 / 50 43. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Haemothorax B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Cardiac tamponade 44 / 50 44. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. V-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. Y-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 45 / 50 45. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Myxoedema B. Mitral stenosis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Carcinoid syndrome 46 / 50 46. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Austin Flint murmur B. Left atrial myxoma C. Carey Coombs murmur D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 47 / 50 47. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 400 Joules 48 / 50 48. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Aortic valve D. Tricuspid valve 49 / 50 49. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep Q wave B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Prominent ST elevation D. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion 50 / 50 50. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen D. Pin-point mitral valve LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology