CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Myocarditis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right ventricular infarction 2 / 50 2. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Fine crepitations at lung bases B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Dependent oedema D. Gallop rhythm 3 / 50 3. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Left ventricular failure C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Right ventricular failure 4 / 50 4. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right ventricle B. Left atrium C. Right atrium D. Left ventricle 5 / 50 5. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Eccentric dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Morning-time single dosage D. Twice daily dosage schedule 6 / 50 6. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral incompetence 7 / 50 7. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta B. Aneurysm of subclavian artery C. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels D. Takayasu's disease 8 / 50 8. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Myocarditis 9 / 50 9. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Arteriosclerosis 11 / 50 11. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Disturbances in vision B. Intermittent claudication C. Diminished pulses in upper extremity D. Systemic hypertension 12 / 50 12. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Athletes 13 / 50 13. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Marfan's syndrome C. Syphilitic aortitis D. Systemic hypertension 14 / 50 14. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Labetalol B. Atenolol C. Carvedilol D. Pindolol 15 / 50 15. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. AV nodal rhythm B. WPW syndrome C. Low atrial rhythm D. First degree heart block 16 / 50 16. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Acute myocardial infarction 17 / 50 17. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. V-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. Y-shaped 18 / 50 18. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Atrioventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ventricular septal defect 19 / 50 19. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Clubbing C. Splenomegaly D. Macroscopic hematuria 20 / 50 20. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. Coarctation of aorta C. ASD D. VSD 21 / 50 21. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. ACE-inhibitors B. Propranolol C. Surgical myotomy of the septum D. Amiodarone 22 / 50 22. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. Left ventricular failure C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. ASD 23 / 50 23. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Down's syndrome B. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Holt-Oram syndrome 24 / 50 24. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. Early systolic click C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. More common in females 25 / 50 25. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Diminished QT interval B. Tall T-waves C. Shortened PR interval D. Increased PR interval 26 / 50 26. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-systole 27 / 50 27. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Severe anemia B. Coarctation of aorta C. Cardiomyopathy D. Ischemic heart disease 28 / 50 28. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Conn's syndrome C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Addison's disease 29 / 50 29. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Coarctation of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Atherosclerosis of aorta 30 / 50 30. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent a-wave B. Prominent y-descent C. Prominent x-descent D. Small v-wave 31 / 50 31. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Left-to-right shunt 32 / 50 32. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Cardiac tamponade C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Tricuspid incompetence 33 / 50 33. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Takayasu's disease C. Aplastic anaemia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Endothelin B. Nitric oxide C. Histamine D. Bradykinin 35 / 50 35. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. VSD C. MS D. PDA 36 / 50 36. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Complete heart block 37 / 50 37. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Marantic endocarditis 38 / 50 38. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 C. Increased LDH3 D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 39 / 50 39. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Afibrinogenaemia B. SLE C. Old age D. Vasculitis 40 / 50 40. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Acute mediastinitis C. Unstable angina D. Bornholm disease 41 / 50 41. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Digitalis toxicity C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Hypothermia 42 / 50 42. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Methotrexate C. Chloramphenicol D. Doxorubicin 43 / 50 43. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Acute pancreatitis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Chronic renal failure 44 / 50 44. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Atrial fibrillation C. PSVT D. Atrial flutter 45 / 50 45. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. Hypokalaemia C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 46 / 50 46. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Dilated cardiomyopathy D. Acute severe asthma 47 / 50 47. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Autoimmune reaction D. Protozoa 48 / 50 48. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Bucindolol C. Digoxin D. Spironolactone 49 / 50 49. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. ASD C. Coarctation of aorta D. Transposition of great vessels 50 / 50 50. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Collagen vascular disease C. Right ventricular dilatation D. 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