Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Haptoglobulin D. Orosomucoid 2 / 50 2. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 3 / 50 3. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Myocarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 4 / 50 4. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. 'f ' waves in neck vein C. Atrial rate is 350-400/min D. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min 5 / 50 5. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Systemic hypertension C. Arteritis D. Diabetes mellitus 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Complete heart block C. Hypothermia D. Myxoedema 7 / 50 7. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Prominent ST elevation C. Deep Q wave D. Height of R wave maximum in V6 8 / 50 8. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Valsalva maneuver D. Standing 9 / 50 9. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Methyldopa C. Labetalol D. Hydralazine 10 / 50 10. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. H. pylori B. Chlamydia C. HIV D. Cytomegalovirus 11 / 50 11. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Multiple ectopics B. Atrial flutter C. Wenckebach block D. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 13 / 50 13. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Microvascular angina B. Hyperuricemia C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Morbid obesity 14 / 50 14. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. More common in females D. High-pitched late systolic murmur 15 / 50 15. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised VLDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 16 / 50 16. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Wenckebach heart block 17 / 50 17. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. High ESR C. Pyrexia D. Splenomegaly 18 / 50 18. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Vagal stimulation C. Hypothermia D. Quinidine therapy 19 / 50 19. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Aortitis D. Calcified aortic valve 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Cubbing B. Osler's node C. Murmur D. Splenomegaly 21 / 50 21. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Hoover's sign C. Bing sign D. Tinel's sign 22 / 50 22. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta D. Berry aneurysm 23 / 50 23. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arrhythmias D. Hypertension 24 / 50 24. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. VSD C. Dextrocardia D. Bicuspid aortic valve 25 / 50 25. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MR C. MS D. AS 26 / 50 26. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Hyperkinetic circulatory states C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Pregnancy 27 / 50 27. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Accentuated B. Diminished C. Normal in character D. Ringing in character 28 / 50 28. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Low-pitched C. Best heard in standing position D. Present in late diastole 29 / 50 29. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Cardiomegaly C. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area D. Water-hammer pulse 30 / 50 30. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Valsalva manoeuvre B. Leg raising C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Standing 31 / 50 31. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Anomalous origin of coronary artery C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 32 / 50 32. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulsus paradoxus 33 / 50 33. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Myocarditis C. Right ventricular infarction D. Pregnancy 34 / 50 34. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. PDA C. ASD D. Transposition of great vessels 35 / 50 35. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Acute mediastinitis B. Dissecting aneurysm C. Bornholm disease D. Unstable angina 36 / 50 36. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Complete heart block D. Tricuspid incompetence 37 / 50 37. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Severe pulmonary hypertension D. Tricuspid atresia 38 / 50 38. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Hypokalaemia 39 / 50 39. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome C. Carey Coombs murmur D. Austin Flint murmur 40 / 50 40. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Diastolic shock C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 41 / 50 41. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium 42 / 50 42. Still’s murmur is: A. Associated with thrill B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Best heard over mitral area D. Commonly found in children 43 / 50 43. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Pneumococcus 44 / 50 44. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. MS 45 / 50 45. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive myocardial infarction B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Atrial fibrillation D. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism 46 / 50 46. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Cauda equina B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Popliteal artery 47 / 50 47. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Takayasu's disease C. Aplastic anaemia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 48 / 50 48. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Protozoa C. Bacteria D. Autoimmune reaction 49 / 50 49. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Absence of valvular calcification D. Restenosis cases 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Coarctation of aorta C. Pregnancy D. 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