Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Aortopulmonary window 2 / 50 2. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Pregnancy C. Polycythemia D. Sickle cell anemia 3 / 50 3. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive myocardial infarction B. Atrial fibrillation C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Ventricular fibrillation 4 / 50 4. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. V-shaped D. Y-shaped 5 / 50 5. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Hypothermia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Digitalis toxicity 6 / 50 6. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis B. Left main coronary artery stenosis C. MS D. MR 7 / 50 7. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Intermittent claudication B. Systemic hypertension C. Diminished pulses in upper extremity D. Disturbances in vision 8 / 50 8. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea B. Fine crepitations at lung bases C. Dependent oedema D. Gallop rhythm 9 / 50 9. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Arteriovenous nipping C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Papilloedema 10 / 50 10. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Prominent a-wave in neck veins B. Central cyanosis C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 11 / 50 11. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Microvascular angina B. Hyperuricemia C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Morbid obesity 12 / 50 12. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. PDA B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Coarctation of aorta D. MS 13 / 50 13. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Systemic hypertension B. Pregnancy C. Marfan's syndrome D. Syphilitic aortitis 14 / 50 14. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis C. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease D. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Diuretics C. Morphine D. Rotating tourniquets 16 / 50 16. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Ventricular septal defect C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Patent ductus arteriosus 17 / 50 17. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Ostium primum ASD 18 / 50 18. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Cervical rib C. Trauma D. Tophaceous gout 19 / 50 19. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism 20 / 50 20. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Myxoedema C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Mitral stenosis 21 / 50 21. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Bush tea B. Aflatoxin C. Tapioca D. Coffee 22 / 50 22. Loud A2 is present in: A. Aortitis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Calcified aortic valve D. Unfolding of aorta 23 / 50 23. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Takayasu's disease C. Arteritis D. Diabetes mellitus 24 / 50 24. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Hypokalaemia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Left bundle branch block 25 / 50 25. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Peripheral embolism B. Leriche's syndrome C. Buerger's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 26 / 50 26. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Infective endocarditis C. Embolism D. Rupture 27 / 50 27. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. PDA B. Ostium primum ASD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Ceruloplasmin C. Orosomucoid D. Haptoglobulin 29 / 50 29. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. ACE-inhibitors B. Amiodarone C. Propranolol D. Surgical myotomy of the septum 30 / 50 30. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. PDA 31 / 50 31. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Cardiogenic B. Neurogenic C. Septic D. Hypovolaemic 32 / 50 32. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels B. Aneurysm of subclavian artery C. Takayasu's disease D. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta 33 / 50 33. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 25 ml B. 50 ml C. 15 ml D. 5 ml 34 / 50 34. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Down's syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 35 / 50 35. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Right-to-left shunt D. Left atrial myxoma 36 / 50 36. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Opening snap C. S2 D. Venous hum 37 / 50 37. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Labetalol B. Pindolol C. Carvedilol D. Atenolol 38 / 50 38. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral stenosis C. Endotoxic shock D. Constrictive pericarditis 39 / 50 39. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. VSD D. MS 40 / 50 40. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Diastolic shock C. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 41 / 50 41. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Acute leukaemia C. Aplastic anaemia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 42 / 50 42. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. AS C. AR D. MS 43 / 50 43. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hypokalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 44 / 50 44. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Severe coarctation of aorta B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Pulmonary atresia D. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome 45 / 50 45. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Sheehan's syndrome B. Emphysema C. Isolated levocardia D. Addison's disease 46 / 50 46. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Hypokalaemia C. Atrial flutter D. PSVT 47 / 50 47. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Systole C. Diastole D. Mid-diastole 48 / 50 48. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Pulsus alternans D. Pulsus bigeminus 49 / 50 49. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Left atrial myxoma C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Constrictive pericarditis 50 / 50 50. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Digitalis toxicity C. Wenckebach block D. 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