Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Diuretics C. Calcium gluconate D. IV fluid 2 / 50 2. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. MS C. VSD D. AR 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Endothelin B. Bradykinin C. Nitric oxide D. Histamine 4 / 50 4. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. After holding the breath C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. On the left side of lower sternum 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure B. Low volume pulse C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Regular pulse rate 6 / 50 6. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Raised JVP D. Ashen-grey pallor 7 / 50 7. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Presence of S3 B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Graham Steel murmur 8 / 50 8. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus alternans B. Pulsus bigeminus C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Water-hammer pulse 9 / 50 9. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Magnesium B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Potassium 10 / 50 10. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Methyldopa C. Telmisartan D. Labetalol 11 / 50 11. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Pyrexia C. Clubbing D. Splenomegaly 12 / 50 12. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Microvascular angina C. Hyperuricemia D. Obstructive sleep apnoea 13 / 50 13. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Acute severe asthma D. Constrictive pericarditis 14 / 50 14. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. With the diaphragm of stethoscope B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. In standing position D. Anywhere in the precordium 15 / 50 15. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Diastolic shock C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 16 / 50 16. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. Coarctation of aorta C. Primary pulmonary hypertension D. PDA 17 / 50 17. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Palpable S4 C. Palpable opening snap D. Muscle tremor 18 / 50 18. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Prominent a-wave in neck veins D. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 19 / 50 19. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Polycythemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Pregnancy 20 / 50 20. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta D. Coronary osteal stenosis 21 / 50 21. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. MR C. MS D. AR 22 / 50 22. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Digitalis overdose C. Mitral valve calcification D. Tachycardia 23 / 50 23. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Afibrinogenaemia B. Old age C. SLE D. Vasculitis 24 / 50 24. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. MR B. AS with AR C. AR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 25 / 50 25. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. PDA B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. Ostium primum ASD 26 / 50 26. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Hoover's sign B. Branham's sign C. Tinel's sign D. Bing sign 27 / 50 27. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. MS C. AR D. Acute rheumatic fever 28 / 50 28. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Residual neurodeficit C. Gradual onset D. Rapid recovery 29 / 50 29. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Transposition of great vessels C. VSD D. Ebstein's anomaly 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Morphine B. Rotating tourniquets C. Diuretics D. Trendelenburg position 31 / 50 31. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon B. Occurs below 18 years C. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen D. Pin-point mitral valve 32 / 50 32. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Mitral stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 33 / 50 33. The least common complication of MS is: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Cerebral thrombosis 34 / 50 34. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. VSD C. PDA D. ASD 35 / 50 35. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. MR C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 36 / 50 36. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. Sinus arrhythmia C. 2nd degree heart block D. Atrial fibrillation 37 / 50 37. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with tight PS D. AR with CCF 38 / 50 38. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Rupture C. Infective endocarditis D. Embolism 39 / 50 39. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. The ejection click goes away from S1 40 / 50 40. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Old age C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Hypokalaemia 41 / 50 41. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. VSD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. ASD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Photosensitivity D. Hepatitis 43 / 50 43. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Squatting C. Valsalva maneuver D. Standing 44 / 50 44. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulsus paradoxus 45 / 50 45. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Calcified aortic valve C. Aortitis D. Pulmonary hypertension 46 / 50 46. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Single ventricle D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 47 / 50 47. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Unstable angina C. Acute mediastinitis D. Bornholm disease 48 / 50 48. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Myocarditis C. Right ventricular infarction D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 49 / 50 49. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. AV nodal rhythm B. First degree heart block C. WPW syndrome D. Low atrial rhythm 50 / 50 50. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. MR C. MS D. AR LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
