Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) B. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap C. Diastolic shock D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 2 / 50 2. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Left-sided heart failure D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 3 / 50 3. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Left ventricular pacing B. LBBB C. RBBB D. Aortic regurgitation 4 / 50 4. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Angina Pectoris D. Systemic hypertension 5 / 50 5. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. More common in females D. Early systolic click 6 / 50 6. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Labetalol D. Methyldopa 7 / 50 7. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Floppy mitral valve 8 / 50 8. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. MS C. VSD D. AR 9 / 50 9. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D. Autoimmune reaction 10 / 50 10. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Pulsatile liver B. Orthopnoea C. Raised JVP D. Hypotension 11 / 50 11. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Buerger's disease D. Peripheral embolism 12 / 50 12. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Diuretics B. Calcium gluconate C. IV fluid D. Restriction of fluid 13 / 50 13. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Coarctation of aorta C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 14 / 50 14. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Pregnancy C. Athletes D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 15 / 50 15. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Right atrial myxoma C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Tricuspid incompetence 16 / 50 16. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 17 / 50 17. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable opening snap B. Palpable S3 C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable S4 18 / 50 18. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ventricular septal defect C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus 19 / 50 19. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MS B. ASD plus AR C. VSD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 20 / 50 20. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Anomalous origin of coronary artery C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Ebstein's anomaly 21 / 50 21. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen B. Pin-point mitral valve C. Occurs below 18 years D. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon 22 / 50 22. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Presystolic B. Early diastolic C. Mid-diastolic D. Systolic 23 / 50 23. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Trisomy 18 24 / 50 24. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. AR C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Pulmonary hypertension 25 / 50 25. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Microvascular angina B. Hyperuricemia C. Obstructive sleep apnoea D. Morbid obesity 26 / 50 26. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome 27 / 50 27. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Femoral C. Radial D. Brachial 28 / 50 28. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Arteriovenous nipping D. Retinal haemorrhage 29 / 50 29. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. As a result of venous distension B. Present in all hypertensives C. Should be ignored D. Related to diastolic BP 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Elevated ASO titre B. Increased ESR C. Prolonged PR interval D. Arthralgia 31 / 50 31. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Ashen-grey pallor D. S3 gallop rhythm 32 / 50 32. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Pregnancy C. H/O intraocular bleeding D. Severe menstrual bleeding 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Regular pulse rate 34 / 50 34. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Kussmaul's sign C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Pulsus paradoxus 35 / 50 35. All are true in severe PS except: A. The ejection click goes away from S1 B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased D. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur 36 / 50 36. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MR B. MS C. AR D. AS 37 / 50 37. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Reduced HDL B. Raised Lipoprotein (a) C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised VLDL 38 / 50 38. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic insufficiency C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral stenosis 39 / 50 39. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 60mmHg B. 80mmHg C. 30mmHg D. 40mmHg 40 / 50 40. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cardiomyopathy C. Emphysema D. Myocarditis 41 / 50 41. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. During inspiration C. Ostium primum ASD D. WPW syndrome 42 / 50 42. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Fine crepitations at lung bases B. Gallop rhythm C. Dependent oedema D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea 43 / 50 43. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Toxoplasma infection B. Ascariasis C. HIV infection D. Diphtheria 44 / 50 44. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Buerger's disease C. Lumbar canal stenosis D. Peripheral neuropathy 45 / 50 45. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Shock C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypertension 46 / 50 46. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Superior mediastinal syndrome C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Left ventricular failure 47 / 50 47. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. MR C. MS D. AR 48 / 50 48. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Pregnancy C. Myocarditis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 49 / 50 49. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Embolic phenomenon C. Hypertension D. Pyrexia 50 / 50 50. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Severe anemia C. Ischemic heart disease D. Coarctation of aorta LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology