Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Propranolol B. Amiodarone C. Morphine D. Phenylephrin 2 / 50 2. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Eclampsia B. Coarctation of aorta C. Renal artery stenosis D. Phaeochromocytoma 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Pitting oedema C. Starts in the dependent part D. Initially noticed in the morning 4 / 50 4. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Endotoxic shock C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 5 / 50 5. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Floppy mitral valve 6 / 50 6. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. SGPT C. LDH D. CPK 7 / 50 7. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. PSVT C. Atrial flutter D. Hypokalaemia 8 / 50 8. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Trauma B. Sarcoidosis C. Cervical rib D. Tophaceous gout 9 / 50 9. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Pulmonary hypertension C. AR D. MS 10 / 50 10. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Friedreich's ataxia 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Cubbing C. Osler's node D. Splenomegaly 12 / 50 12. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 13 / 50 13. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Angina Pectoris C. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias D. Systemic hypertension 14 / 50 14. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. MS is a recognised cause B. Found in basal region C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg 15 / 50 15. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amiodarone B. Lisinopril C. Amrinone D. Amlodipine 16 / 50 16. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Systolic innocent murmur 17 / 50 17. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. High ESR C. Pyrexia D. Splenomegaly 18 / 50 18. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Tricuspid valve B. Mitral valve C. Aortic valve D. Pulmonary valve 19 / 50 19. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence D. Central cyanosis 20 / 50 20. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Left atrial myxoma 21 / 50 21. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. VSD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Transposition of great vessels 22 / 50 22. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Right atrial myxoma D. Atrial fibrillation 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Coarctation of aorta D. Arteriosclerosis 24 / 50 24. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. ASD 25 / 50 25. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Doxorubicin B. Allopurinol C. Methotrexate D. Chloramphenicol 26 / 50 26. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Polycystic kidney disease B. Conn's syndrome C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Addison's disease 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Hyperthyroidism C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 28 / 50 28. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction B. Cardiac tamponade C. Right ventricular infarction D. Acute mitral regurgitation 29 / 50 29. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Pregnancy C. Myocarditis D. Right ventricular infarction 30 / 50 30. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Splenomegaly 31 / 50 31. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation B. Diminished cardiac output C. Pericardial effusion D. Prolonged circulation time 32 / 50 32. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-systole B. Mid-diastole C. Late diastole D. Late systole 33 / 50 33. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute leukaemia D. Aplastic anaemia 34 / 50 34. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Rheumatic valve B. Mural thrombus C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Chronic constrictive pericarditis 35 / 50 35. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope C. Best heard in standing position D. Present in late diastole 36 / 50 36. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. MS B. AR C. AS D. MR 37 / 50 37. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined AR and MR D. Combined MS and AS 38 / 50 38. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Hypotension B. Raised JVP C. Pulsatile liver D. Orthopnoea 39 / 50 39. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Systemic hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Takayasu's disease 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Morphine B. Diuretics C. Trendelenburg position D. Rotating tourniquets 41 / 50 41. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Wenckebach block B. Mobitz type II block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block 42 / 50 42. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 43 / 50 43. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Dextrocardia B. ECG was taken in deep inspiration C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. Emphysema 44 / 50 44. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Right ventricular dilatation B. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers C. Collagen vascular disease D. Rheumatic heart disease 45 / 50 45. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Aortic stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Pulmonary stenosis 46 / 50 46. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Shortened PR interval D. Tall T-waves 47 / 50 47. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Buerger's disease C. Unstable angina D. Aortic stenosis 48 / 50 48. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with tight PS D. AR with systemic hypertension 49 / 50 49. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Berry aneurysm 50 / 50 50. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. PDA C. Right-sided aortic arch D. 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