Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Chronic cor pulmonale C. Digitalis toxicity D. Hypothermia 2 / 50 2. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Haemothorax B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 3 / 50 3. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Acrocyanosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Livedo reticularis 4 / 50 4. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Buerger's disease C. Aortic stenosis D. Coarctation of aorta 5 / 50 5. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Pyrexia C. Splenomegaly D. High ESR 6 / 50 6. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. VSD C. PDA D. Dextrocardia 7 / 50 7. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 12 inch long 8 / 50 8. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 400 Joules B. 200 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 50 Joules 9 / 50 9. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Carvedilol C. Labetalol D. Pindolol 10 / 50 10. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Superior mediastinal syndrome D. Left ventricular failure 11 / 50 11. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S4 12 / 50 12. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Aortic aneurysm D. Hyperdynamic circulatory states 13 / 50 13. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Diuretics B. Restriction of fluid C. Calcium gluconate D. IV fluid 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Polyarthritis C. Erythema nodosum D. Subcutaneous nodule 15 / 50 15. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Hypothermia C. Hyperkalaemia D. WPW syndrome 16 / 50 16. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. ASD C. PDA D. VSD 17 / 50 17. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 85 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 18 / 50 18. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 19 / 50 19. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Acute severe asthma B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 20 / 50 20. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Kussmaul's sign B. Increased JVP C. Pulmonary congestion D. Hypotension 21 / 50 21. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-electrical cardioversion B. Myocarditis C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Post-AMI 22 / 50 22. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Myocarditis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Aortic stenosis 23 / 50 23. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Berry aneurysm 24 / 50 24. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Elevated ASO titre C. Arthralgia D. Increased ESR 25 / 50 25. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Bing sign B. Tinel's sign C. Hoover's sign D. Branham's sign 26 / 50 26. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. ASD B. Left ventricular failure C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Right ventricular pacing 27 / 50 27. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. As a result of venous distension C. Related to diastolic BP D. Should be ignored 28 / 50 28. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Streptococcus faecalis 29 / 50 29. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Pregnancy D. Myocarditis 30 / 50 30. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. MS B. AR C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Acute rheumatic fever 31 / 50 31. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Prazosin C. Hydralazine D. Amiloride 32 / 50 32. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Aortic stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 33 / 50 33. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Left atrial myxoma D. Constrictive pericarditis 34 / 50 34. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Wenckebach block B. Left ventricular failure C. Digitalis toxicity D. Pericardial effusion 35 / 50 35. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 36 / 50 36. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Occurs below 18 years B. Pin-point mitral valve C. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 37 / 50 37. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased duration of QRS complex B. Increased PR interval C. Presence of J-wave D. Increased QT interval 38 / 50 38. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. The ejection click goes away from S1 39 / 50 39. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. MS D. VSD 40 / 50 40. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. AR with tight PS 41 / 50 41. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Nodal rhythm C. Atrial fibrillation D. Complete heart block 42 / 50 42. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Mitral stenosis B. Myxoedema C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 43 / 50 43. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Morbid obesity C. Hyperuricemia D. Microvascular angina 44 / 50 44. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Clotting time (CT) B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Factor-X assay 45 / 50 45. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Opening snap B. S2 C. Venous hum D. Ejection click 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Low volume pulse C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 47 / 50 47. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. MS B. VSD C. PDA D. AR 48 / 50 48. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. More common in females D. Early systolic click 49 / 50 49. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Pregnancy 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Haptoglobulin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Orosomucoid LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology