Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised small dense LDL B. Raised VLDL C. Reduced HDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 2 / 50 2. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. VSD C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Transposition of great vessels 3 / 50 3. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Babinski B. Laennec C. Korotkoff D. Osler 4 / 50 4. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. ACE-inhibitors C. Propranolol D. Amiodarone 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Obstructive jaundice C. Hypothermia D. Myxoedema 6 / 50 6. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Standing B. Leg raising C. Valsalva manoeuvre D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 7 / 50 7. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Clubbing C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Cafe au lait pallor 8 / 50 8. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ischemic heart disease C. Severe anemia D. Cardiomyopathy 9 / 50 9. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Cardiomyopathy D. Thoracic deformity 10 / 50 10. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 22 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 8 inch long 11 / 50 11. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Methotrexate C. Doxorubicin D. Chloramphenicol 12 / 50 12. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Right ventricular infarction B. Cardiac tamponade C. Acute mitral regurgitation D. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction 13 / 50 13. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium 14 / 50 14. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Femoral artery B. Cauda equina C. Popliteal artery D. Inferior vena cava 15 / 50 15. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. Undulating D. Better felt than seen 16 / 50 16. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. MR B. ASD C. PDA D. VSD 17 / 50 17. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. MR C. AR D. MS 18 / 50 18. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-systole 19 / 50 19. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Infective endocarditis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Rupture 20 / 50 20. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. MS C. VSD D. Chronic cor-pulmonale 21 / 50 21. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. SGPT C. LDH D. CPK 22 / 50 22. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Holt-Oram syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 23 / 50 23. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Obstructive mitral valve disease D. Pulmonary fibrosis 24 / 50 24. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Right-to-left shunt D. Left atrial myxoma 25 / 50 25. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 26 / 50 26. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. In lying down position B. After holding the breath C. On the left side of lower sternum D. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope 27 / 50 27. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulsus paradoxus 28 / 50 28. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Systemic hypertension C. Takayasu's disease D. Arteritis 29 / 50 29. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted V-shaped B. Y-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. V-shaped 30 / 50 30. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Increased JVP C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulmonary congestion 31 / 50 31. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Best heard in standing position C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Present in late diastole 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Starts in the dependent part C. Pitting oedema D. Initially noticed in the morning 33 / 50 33. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Hypokalaemia C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Left bundle branch block 34 / 50 34. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Aortic valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitral valve 35 / 50 35. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Friedreich's ataxia B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Myotonic dystrophy 36 / 50 36. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Digitalis toxicity B. WPW syndrome C. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) D. Rheumatic carditis 37 / 50 37. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. ASD C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular pacing 38 / 50 38. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Early diastolic B. Systolic C. Presystolic D. Mid-diastolic 39 / 50 39. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MS B. ASD plus MR C. ASD plus AR D. VSD plus MS 40 / 50 40. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Nailbed C. Palms D. Fundus 41 / 50 41. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. MR D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Prolonged PR interval C. Arthralgia D. Elevated ASO titre 43 / 50 43. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Berry aneurysm B. Coronary osteal stenosis C. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta D. Pulmonary stenosis 44 / 50 44. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 C. Central cyanosis D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 45 / 50 45. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Buerger's disease B. Leriche's syndrome C. Peripheral embolism D. Coarctation of aorta 46 / 50 46. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Acute leukaemia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Aplastic anaemia D. Takayasu's disease 47 / 50 47. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Restenosis cases 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Splenomegaly B. Osler's node C. Murmur D. Cubbing 49 / 50 49. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 50 / 50 50. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Aortic stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. 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