Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Complete heart block B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Right atrial myxoma 2 / 50 2. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-systole B. Late diastole C. Mid-diastole D. Late systole 3 / 50 3. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Hypocalcaemia C. Quinidine therapy D. Hypothermia 4 / 50 4. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral stenosis C. Endotoxic shock D. Constrictive pericarditis 5 / 50 5. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Felty's syndrome B. Viral arthritis C. Rheumatic arthritis D. SLE 6 / 50 6. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with tight PS B. AR with CCF C. AR with systemic hypertension D. Acutely developing AR 7 / 50 7. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. V-shaped D. Inverted V-shaped 8 / 50 8. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Atrial fibrillation 9 / 50 9. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. ASD D. Left ventricular failure 10 / 50 10. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Clotting time (CT) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Prothrombin time (PT) 11 / 50 11. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ostium primum ASD C. VSD D. PDA 12 / 50 12. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Shock C. Hypertension D. Arrhythmias 13 / 50 13. S4 is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Aortic stenosis 14 / 50 14. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. PSVT C. Atrial flutter D. Hypokalaemia 15 / 50 15. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Pyrexia C. Clubbing D. Hypertension 16 / 50 16. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Moderate VSD B. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Haemodynamically significant 17 / 50 17. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Coarctation of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Unfolding of aorta 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Starts in the dependent part C. Initially noticed in the morning D. Pitting oedema 19 / 50 19. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation B. Diminished cardiac output C. Pericardial effusion D. Prolonged circulation time 20 / 50 20. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Hyperthyroidism 21 / 50 21. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Polycystic kidney disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Phaeochromocytoma 22 / 50 22. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class I C. Class III D. Class IV 23 / 50 23. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Gallop rhythm B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Dependent oedema D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 24 / 50 24. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 15 ml C. 25 ml D. 5 ml 25 / 50 25. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Tophaceous gout B. Trauma C. Cervical rib D. Sarcoidosis 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure C. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein D. Low volume pulse 27 / 50 27. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Pulmonary oedema C. Obstructive mitral valve disease D. Pulmonary fibrosis 28 / 50 28. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Brachial C. Femoral D. Radial 29 / 50 29. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 1 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 30 / 50 30. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. First degree heart block C. AV nodal rhythm D. WPW syndrome 31 / 50 31. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Lipoprotein B. PAI-I C. Homocysteine D. Transferrin 32 / 50 32. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. H. pylori C. HIV D. Chlamydia 33 / 50 33. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Left ventricular failure C. Wenckebach block D. Pericardial effusion 34 / 50 34. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. VSD B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. MS D. PS 35 / 50 35. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Allopurinol C. Methotrexate D. Doxorubicin 36 / 50 36. Sudden death may occur in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. PDA C. ASD D. AS 37 / 50 37. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased PR interval B. Increased QT interval C. Increased duration of QRS complex D. Presence of J-wave 38 / 50 38. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Ventricular tachycardia 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Homocystinuria C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Subcutaneous nodule C. Polyarthritis D. Chorea 41 / 50 41. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Systolic murmur in complete heart block C. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis D. Systolic innocent murmur 42 / 50 42. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Nodal rhythm D. Complete heart block 43 / 50 43. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Nailbed C. Palate D. Fundus 44 / 50 44. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. Fallot's tetralogy 45 / 50 45. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Absence of valvular calcification D. Restenosis cases 46 / 50 46. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Hypokalaemia C. Old age D. Renal failure 47 / 50 47. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 48 / 50 48. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 49 / 50 49. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Residual neurodeficit C. Warning symptoms D. Rapid recovery 50 / 50 50. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Telmisartan B. Methyldopa C. Labetalol D. Amlodipine LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology