Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Sodium 2 / 50 2. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Hydralazine B. Labetalol C. Enalapril D. Methyldopa 3 / 50 3. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. PS C. VSD D. MS 4 / 50 4. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Aortopulmonary window 5 / 50 5. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. MS D. Coarctation of aorta 6 / 50 6. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Gonorrhoea C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Chronic renal failure 7 / 50 7. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class IV B. Class I C. Class II D. Class III 8 / 50 8. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. HIV B. H. pylori C. Cytomegalovirus D. Chlamydia 9 / 50 9. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Ostium primum ASD 10 / 50 10. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-diastole B. Late systole C. Mid-systole D. Late diastole 11 / 50 11. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Myxoedema C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Mitral stenosis 12 / 50 12. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MR B. MS C. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis D. Left main coronary artery stenosis 13 / 50 13. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGPT B. CPK C. LDH D. SGOT 14 / 50 14. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Atrial flutter C. PSVT D. Hypokalaemia 15 / 50 15. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. MS C. AR D. AS 16 / 50 16. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Old age C. Renal failure D. Hepatic encephalopathy 17 / 50 17. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation B. Pericardial effusion C. Diminished cardiac output D. Prolonged circulation time 18 / 50 18. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Raised small dense LDL C. Raised VLDL D. Reduced HDL 19 / 50 19. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Clotting time (CT) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Factor-X assay 20 / 50 20. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Aortitis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Unfolding of aorta 21 / 50 21. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. With the diaphragm of stethoscope B. In standing position C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. Anywhere in the precordium 22 / 50 22. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Right atrial myxoma 23 / 50 23. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 5 ml C. 25 ml D. 50 ml 24 / 50 24. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Acute mediastinitis B. Dissecting aneurysm C. Bornholm disease D. Unstable angina 25 / 50 25. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. PDA C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 26 / 50 26. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent a-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Prominent y-descent D. Small v-wave 27 / 50 27. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Prominent x-descent in JVP B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Kussmaul's sign D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography 28 / 50 28. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Graham Steel murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur D. Presence of S3 29 / 50 29. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Carey Coombs murmur C. Austin Flint murmur D. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome 30 / 50 30. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Morning-time single dosage 31 / 50 31. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Shock D. Arrhythmias 32 / 50 32. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Complete heart block C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Right atrial myxoma 33 / 50 33. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 18 inch long 34 / 50 34. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 35 / 50 35. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Mid-diastolic murmur B. Found in severe AR C. Absence of thrill D. Having loud S1 36 / 50 36. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Conn's syndrome C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Phaeochromocytoma 37 / 50 37. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Central cyanosis B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 38 / 50 38. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 39 / 50 39. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D. Autoimmune reaction 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Histamine B. Bradykinin C. Nitric oxide D. Endothelin 41 / 50 41. Opening snap is: A. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope B. Low-pitched C. Present in late diastole D. Best heard in standing position 42 / 50 42. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Athletes C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 43 / 50 43. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Aortic arch syndrome C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. Berry aneurysm 44 / 50 44. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Pindolol C. Carvedilol D. Labetalol 45 / 50 45. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. There are two negative waves B. Undulating C. Becomes prominent on lying down D. Better felt than seen 46 / 50 46. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Candida albicans endocarditis 47 / 50 47. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Neurogenic C. Cardiogenic D. Hypovolaemic 48 / 50 48. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D. Haemothorax 49 / 50 49. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Left-sided heart failure D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein C. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure D. Low volume pulse LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology