CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Right ventricular failure B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Left ventricular failure D. Left-to-right shunt 2 / 50 2. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Pindolol B. Carvedilol C. Labetalol D. Atenolol 3 / 50 3. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. AV nodal rhythm B. WPW syndrome C. Low atrial rhythm D. First degree heart block 4 / 50 4. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Complete heart block C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Right atrial myxoma 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Diuretics B. Trendelenburg position C. Morphine D. Rotating tourniquets 6 / 50 6. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Holt-Oram syndrome D. Down's syndrome 7 / 50 7. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Myocarditis B. Right ventricular infarction C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Pregnancy 8 / 50 8. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 9 / 50 9. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Becomes prominent on lying down B. Better felt than seen C. There are two negative waves D. Undulating 10 / 50 10. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Diastole 11 / 50 11. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) D. Clotting time (CT) 12 / 50 12. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Remains single C. Shows reverse split D. Having wide split 13 / 50 13. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 14 / 50 14. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. ASD B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. VSD 15 / 50 15. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. WPW syndrome D. Digitalis toxicity 16 / 50 16. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Mid-diastolic murmur B. Absence of thrill C. Having loud S1 D. Found in severe AR 17 / 50 17. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Floppy mitral valve C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 18 / 50 18. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Sick sinus syndrome D. WPW syndrome 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Marfan's syndrome C. Arteriosclerosis D. Pregnancy 20 / 50 20. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis D. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula 21 / 50 21. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Ashen-grey pallor 22 / 50 22. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Disopyramide C. Quinidine D. Verapamil 23 / 50 23. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MS C. AS D. MR 24 / 50 24. All are true in severe PS except: A. The ejection click goes away from S1 B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 25 / 50 25. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Systemic hypertension D. Angina Pectoris 26 / 50 26. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. VSD C. MR D. PDA 27 / 50 27. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea B. Fine crepitations at lung bases C. Gallop rhythm D. Dependent oedema 28 / 50 28. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Occurs immediately after S1 C. Stenosis is severe D. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level 29 / 50 29. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels C. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta D. Aneurysm of subclavian artery 30 / 50 30. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. PDA B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. VSD D. Dextrocardia 31 / 50 31. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. Associated LVH C. ASD D. AS 32 / 50 32. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Shock C. Arrhythmias D. Diabetes mellitus 33 / 50 33. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Prolonged circulation time B. Diminished cardiac output C. Pericardial effusion D. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation 34 / 50 34. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Late systole 35 / 50 35. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Magnesium 36 / 50 36. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Fundus C. Palate D. Nailbed 37 / 50 37. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Kussmaul's sign C. Pulmonary congestion D. Increased JVP 38 / 50 38. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. Absent clavicle C. Asplenia D. VSD 39 / 50 39. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Mitral valve 40 / 50 40. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 41 / 50 41. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class III C. Class IV D. Class I 42 / 50 42. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Ischemic heart disease B. Severe anemia C. Cardiomyopathy D. Coarctation of aorta 43 / 50 43. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Late and loud opening snap B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Presence of S3 D. Graham Steel murmur 44 / 50 44. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 30mmHg C. 40mmHg D. 60mmHg 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Regular pulse rate B. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein C. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure D. Low volume pulse 46 / 50 46. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Unstable angina C. Aortic stenosis D. Buerger's disease 47 / 50 47. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Right atrial myxoma D. Mitral valve prolapse 48 / 50 48. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Clubbing C. Embolic phenomenon D. Hypertension 49 / 50 49. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus alternans C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Pulsus paradoxus 50 / 50 50. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Bacterial endocarditis C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Pregnancy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology