Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 5 ml B. 15 ml C. 50 ml D. 25 ml 2 / 50 2. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Verapamil C. Quinidine D. Disopyramide 3 / 50 3. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. AS C. VSD D. Coarctation of aorta 4 / 50 4. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. In standing position 5 / 50 5. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Extrasystoles C. Sinus arrhythmia D. 2nd degree heart block 6 / 50 6. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Arteritis C. Systemic hypertension D. Takayasu's disease 7 / 50 7. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Opening snap B. Ejection click C. Pericardial knock D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 8 / 50 8. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Systemic hypertension B. Pregnancy C. Syphilitic aortitis D. Marfan's syndrome 9 / 50 9. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 22 inch long 10 / 50 10. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Coarctation of aorta D. Transposition of great vessels 11 / 50 11. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Aortoarteritis B. Atherosclerosis of aorta C. Coarctation of aorta D. Unfolding of aorta 12 / 50 12. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. Rheumatic carditis C. Digitalis toxicity D. WPW syndrome 13 / 50 13. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Berry aneurysm 14 / 50 14. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. VSD B. ASD C. PDA D. Transposition of great vessels 15 / 50 15. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Addison's disease B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Conn's syndrome D. Polycystic kidney disease 16 / 50 16. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle 17 / 50 17. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Diminished QT interval C. Shortened PR interval D. Increased PR interval 18 / 50 18. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Phenylephrin B. Amiodarone C. Propranolol D. Morphine 19 / 50 19. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Down's syndrome D. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome 20 / 50 20. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Tachycardia C. Left atrial failure D. Digitalis overdose 21 / 50 21. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Gemfibrozil B. Nicotinic acid C. Probucol D. Lovastatin 22 / 50 22. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Mitral valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Pulmonary valve 23 / 50 23. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Ringing in character C. Normal in character D. Accentuated 24 / 50 24. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction B. Cardiac tamponade C. Acute mitral regurgitation D. Right ventricular infarction 25 / 50 25. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Squatting C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Valsalva maneuver 26 / 50 26. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Buerger's disease D. Peripheral embolism 27 / 50 27. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Chloramphenicol B. Methotrexate C. Allopurinol D. Doxorubicin 28 / 50 28. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 29 / 50 29. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 6-9th rib 30 / 50 30. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Carey Coombs murmur B. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome C. Austin Flint murmur D. Left atrial myxoma 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Pitting oedema C. Starts in the dependent part D. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients 32 / 50 32. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Multiple ectopics C. Atrial flutter D. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia 33 / 50 33. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Water-hammer pulse C. Cardiomegaly D. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area 34 / 50 34. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Hoover's sign B. Tinel's sign C. Branham's sign D. Bing sign 35 / 50 35. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep Q wave D. Prominent ST elevation 36 / 50 36. Which of the following does not produce ‘fleeting’ arthritis? A. Viral arthritis B. Rheumatic arthritis C. SLE D. Felty's syndrome 37 / 50 37. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Pyrexia C. Splenomegaly D. Clubbing 38 / 50 38. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Ventricular bigeminy D. Wenckebach block 39 / 50 39. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Old age C. Hypokalaemia D. Hepatic encephalopathy 40 / 50 40. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Palpable opening snap C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable S4 41 / 50 41. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. VSD B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Transposition of great vessels 42 / 50 42. All are true in severe PS except: A. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. The ejection click goes away from S1 D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 43 / 50 43. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Dextrocardia B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. PDA D. VSD 44 / 50 44. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 45 / 50 45. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. Raised JVP C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Peripheral cyanosis 46 / 50 46. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 47 / 50 47. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Femoral C. Radial D. Brachial 48 / 50 48. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Photosensitivity D. Hepatitis 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Ascites B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Raised JVP LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology