Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Pericardial knock C. Opening snap D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 2 / 50 2. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Complete heart block B. Nodal rhythm C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation 3 / 50 3. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. MS C. VSD D. PS 4 / 50 4. All are true in severe PS except: A. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 B. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased C. The ejection click goes away from S1 D. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur 5 / 50 5. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis C. Systolic murmur in complete heart block D. Systolic innocent murmur 6 / 50 6. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Hyperkalaemia 7 / 50 7. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with tight PS B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. Acutely developing AR 8 / 50 8. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Atrioventricular septal defect 9 / 50 9. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Acute bacterial endocarditis B. Right-to-left shunt C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Left atrial myxoma 10 / 50 10. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Splenomegaly B. Clubbing C. High ESR D. Pyrexia 11 / 50 11. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Renal artery stenosis C. Eclampsia D. Phaeochromocytoma 12 / 50 12. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. Electrical cardioversion C. Carotid massage D. IV Lignocaine 13 / 50 13. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Mitral stenosis C. Myxoedema D. Carcinoid syndrome 14 / 50 14. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class I C. Class II D. Class IV 15 / 50 15. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. 2nd degree heart block B. Extrasystoles C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Atrial fibrillation 16 / 50 16. S4 is not associated with: A. Aortic stenosis B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Systemic hypertension D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 17 / 50 17. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. ST elevation in II, III, aVF D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Elevated ASO titre C. Increased ESR D. Arthralgia 19 / 50 19. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Angina Pectoris D. Congestive cardiac failure 20 / 50 20. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. PDA C. VSD D. Ostium primum ASD 21 / 50 21. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. PDA B. Coarctation of aorta C. MS D. Fallot's tetralogy 22 / 50 22. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Left bundle branch block 23 / 50 23. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Pulmonary stenosis 24 / 50 24. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Chronic obstructive airway disease C. Pulmonary thromboembolism D. Pericardial effusion 25 / 50 25. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Pulse deficit is > 10 26 / 50 26. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. Inverted V-shaped C. Inverted Y-shaped D. V-shaped 27 / 50 27. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Right atrial myxoma 28 / 50 28. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Severe menstrual bleeding C. Pregnancy D. Bacterial endocarditis 29 / 50 29. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Splenomegaly C. Clubbing D. Macroscopic hematuria 30 / 50 30. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. MS C. AS D. AR 31 / 50 31. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Prazosin C. Hydralazine D. Amiloride 32 / 50 32. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Berry aneurysm D. Aortic arch syndrome 33 / 50 33. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Acute severe asthma D. Constrictive pericarditis 34 / 50 34. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Aortic valve 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Chorea C. Polyarthritis D. Subcutaneous nodule 36 / 50 36. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Post-AMI C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Rhabdomyolysis 37 / 50 37. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Homocysteine C. Lipoprotein D. Transferrin 38 / 50 38. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 39 / 50 39. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Related to diastolic BP C. As a result of venous distension D. Should be ignored 40 / 50 40. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 6-9th rib B. 3-6th rib C. 1-12th rib D. 10-12th rib 41 / 50 41. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion B. Height of R wave maximum in V6 C. Deep Q wave D. Prominent ST elevation 42 / 50 42. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation B. PDA C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 43 / 50 43. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Rupture C. Infective endocarditis D. Embolism 44 / 50 44. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Ashen-grey pallor C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Peripheral cyanosis 45 / 50 45. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 46 / 50 46. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Sick sinus syndrome C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 47 / 50 47. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Spironolactone B. Propranolol C. Bucindolol D. Digoxin 48 / 50 48. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-diastole 49 / 50 49. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Asplenia B. Fingerization of thumb C. VSD D. Absent clavicle 50 / 50 50. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Ringing in character B. Accentuated C. Normal in character D. 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