Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Erythema nodosum C. Chorea D. Subcutaneous nodule 2 / 50 2. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Acute pancreatitis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Chronic renal failure 3 / 50 3. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic insufficiency B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral stenosis D. Mitral regurgitation 4 / 50 4. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 50 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 60 ml/kg of body weight 5 / 50 5. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. First degree heart block C. WPW syndrome D. AV nodal rhythm 6 / 50 6. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-diastole C. Mid-systole D. Diastole 7 / 50 7. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Palpable opening snap C. Muscle tremor D. Palpable S3 8 / 50 8. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Raised JVP D. Ashen-grey pallor 9 / 50 9. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Factor-X assay D. Clotting time (CT) 10 / 50 10. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. With the diaphragm of stethoscope C. Anywhere in the precordium D. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex 11 / 50 11. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Berry aneurysm C. Aortic arch syndrome D. Polycystic kidney 12 / 50 12. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Cardiac tamponade D. Ventricular tachycardia 13 / 50 13. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis B. Aortopulmonary window C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 14 / 50 14. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Lutembacher syndrome D. Infundibular PS 15 / 50 15. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Bucindolol B. Propranolol C. Digoxin D. Spironolactone 16 / 50 16. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Right atrial hypertrophy D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 17 / 50 17. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Inverted T wave in ECG C. Increased LDH3 D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 18 / 50 18. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Stenosis is severe C. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound D. Occurs immediately after S1 19 / 50 19. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Coarctation of aorta C. Fallot's tetralogy D. PDA 20 / 50 20. The murmur of MS is: A. Early diastolic B. With radiation towards left axilla C. High-pitched D. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation 21 / 50 21. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Found in severe AR C. Having loud S1 D. Mid-diastolic murmur 22 / 50 22. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Shock C. Diabetes mellitus D. Arrhythmias 23 / 50 23. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Transposition of great vessels C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Fallot's tetralogy 24 / 50 24. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 25 / 50 25. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Atrial flutter D. Multiple ectopics 26 / 50 26. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Transposition of great vessels 27 / 50 27. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. MR C. AR D. MS 28 / 50 28. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. LDH C. SGPT D. CPK 29 / 50 29. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus bradycardia B. Hypotension C. Sinus tachycardia D. Low pulse pressure 30 / 50 30. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 100 Joules C. 50 Joules D. 400 Joules 31 / 50 31. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Found in basal region B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage D. MS is a recognised cause 32 / 50 32. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 33 / 50 33. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Methyldopa B. Hydralazine C. Enalapril D. Labetalol 34 / 50 34. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Old age C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Hypokalaemia 35 / 50 35. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. VSD D. PS 36 / 50 36. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Tachycardia B. Mitral valve calcification C. Left atrial failure D. Digitalis overdose 37 / 50 37. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. AR B. MS C. MR D. AS 38 / 50 38. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Absence of valvular calcification C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Restenosis cases 39 / 50 39. Still’s murmur is: A. Systolic murmur in complete heart block B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 40 / 50 40. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Pulmonary hypertension 41 / 50 41. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Sheehan's syndrome B. Isolated levocardia C. Emphysema D. Addison's disease 42 / 50 42. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. On the left side of lower sternum B. After holding the breath C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. In lying down position 43 / 50 43. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Right atrial myxoma 44 / 50 44. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. Coarctation of aorta C. ASD D. PDA 45 / 50 45. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Aortic aneurysm D. Hyperdynamic circulatory states 46 / 50 46. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. During inspiration 47 / 50 47. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Clubbing B. Hypertension C. Embolic phenomenon D. Pyrexia 48 / 50 48. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Severe pulmonary hypertension 49 / 50 49. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows reverse split 50 / 50 50. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. Associated LVH C. ASD D. AS LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
