Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Systole C. Mid-diastole D. Diastole 2 / 50 2. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic insufficiency C. Mitral regurgitation D. Aortic stenosis 3 / 50 3. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tricuspid incompetence 4 / 50 4. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. ECG was taken in deep inspiration C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. Dextrocardia 5 / 50 5. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Spironolactone C. Bucindolol D. Digoxin 6 / 50 6. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea B. Fine crepitations at lung bases C. Gallop rhythm D. Dependent oedema 7 / 50 7. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MR B. MS C. AR D. AS 8 / 50 8. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. Transferrin C. PAI-I D. Lipoprotein 9 / 50 9. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Tachycardia C. Digitalis overdose D. Left atrial failure 10 / 50 10. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Absent clavicle B. Asplenia C. VSD D. Fingerization of thumb 11 / 50 11. Still’s murmur is: A. Best heard over mitral area B. Commonly found in children C. Associated with thrill D. Usually diastolic in timing 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Ceruloplasmin C. Orosomucoid D. Haptoglobulin 13 / 50 13. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Old age C. Hypokalaemia D. Hepatic encephalopathy 14 / 50 14. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Disopyramide 15 / 50 15. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Pulmonary atresia B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection D. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome 16 / 50 16. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Digitalis toxicity C. Hypothermia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 17 / 50 17. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. Aortic regurgitation C. PDA D. Right-sided aortic arch 18 / 50 18. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 70 ml/kg of body weight 19 / 50 19. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. IV fluid C. Calcium gluconate D. Diuretics 20 / 50 20. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 21 / 50 21. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Absence of thrill B. Found in severe AR C. Having loud S1 D. Mid-diastolic murmur 22 / 50 22. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Ventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus 23 / 50 23. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diminished pulses in upper extremity C. Disturbances in vision D. Intermittent claudication 24 / 50 24. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined MS and AS 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Osler's node B. Splenomegaly C. Cubbing D. Murmur 26 / 50 26. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Aortitis C. Calcified aortic valve D. Pulmonary hypertension 27 / 50 27. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Brachial C. Radial D. Dorsalis pedis 28 / 50 28. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. MS C. PS D. VSD 29 / 50 29. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. VSD C. PDA D. Dextrocardia 30 / 50 30. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 31 / 50 31. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Bacterial endocarditis 32 / 50 32. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Transposition of great vessels C. Acute pulmonary oedema D. Fallot's tetralogy 33 / 50 33. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Sodium nitroprusside B. Diazoxide C. Methyldopa D. Labetalol 34 / 50 34. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. VSD B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Fallot's tetralogy D. ASD 35 / 50 35. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. Arteriovenous nipping C. 'Silver-wire' arteries D. Retinal haemorrhage 36 / 50 36. Sudden death may occur in: A. AS B. PDA C. Constrictive pericarditis D. ASD 37 / 50 37. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Mitral valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Aortic valve 38 / 50 38. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Prominent x-descent in JVP B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Kussmaul's sign 39 / 50 39. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Cardiomyopathy 40 / 50 40. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta B. Takayasu's disease C. Aneurysm of subclavian artery D. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels 41 / 50 41. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Late and loud opening snap B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Presence of S3 D. Graham Steel murmur 42 / 50 42. Paroxysmal hypertension is classically found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Eclampsia C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Renal artery stenosis 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Osteoarthritis C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 44 / 50 44. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 45 / 50 45. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Morning-time single dosage D. Eccentric dosage schedule 46 / 50 46. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Complete heart block C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Right atrial myxoma 47 / 50 47. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 48 / 50 48. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. AR C. MS D. MR 49 / 50 49. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. SGPT C. SGOT D. LDH 50 / 50 50. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 3 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 4 cm2 LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology