Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Hypothermia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Quinidine therapy 2 / 50 2. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Pneumococcus D. Streptoroccus viridans 3 / 50 3. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Haemothorax D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 4 / 50 4. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Arteritis B. Systemic hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Takayasu's disease 5 / 50 5. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Low pulse pressure B. Hypotension C. Sinus bradycardia D. Sinus tachycardia 6 / 50 6. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) C. Diastolic shock D. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur 7 / 50 7. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Spironolactone C. Bucindolol D. Digoxin 8 / 50 8. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Digitalis overdose C. Tachycardia D. Left atrial failure 9 / 50 9. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Digitalis toxicity D. Hypothermia 10 / 50 10. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Unstable angina B. Buerger's disease C. Coarctation of aorta D. Aortic stenosis 11 / 50 11. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Intermittent claudication C. Diminished pulses in upper extremity D. Disturbances in vision 12 / 50 12. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level B. Stenosis is severe C. Occurs immediately after S1 D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 13 / 50 13. Heart valve commonly affected by IV drug abusers is: A. Mitral valve B. Aortic valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 14 / 50 14. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Rheumatic valve C. Chronic constrictive pericarditis D. Mural thrombus 15 / 50 15. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Rupture C. Embolism D. Congestive cardiac failure 16 / 50 16. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Lovastatin B. Gemfibrozil C. Probucol D. Nicotinic acid 17 / 50 17. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Clotting time (CT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Factor-X assay D. Prothrombin time (PT) 18 / 50 18. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Patent ductus arteriosus 19 / 50 19. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Popliteal artery B. Cauda equina C. Inferior vena cava D. Femoral artery 20 / 50 20. JVP is usually increased in: A. Septic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 21 / 50 21. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tricuspid incompetence 22 / 50 22. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Pyrexia B. Clubbing C. High ESR D. Splenomegaly 23 / 50 23. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Morphine B. Amiodarone C. Phenylephrin D. Propranolol 24 / 50 24. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Autoimmune reaction C. Virus D. Protozoa 25 / 50 25. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Mid-diastolic C. Presystolic D. Early diastolic 26 / 50 26. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Tinel's sign B. Bing sign C. Hoover's sign D. Branham's sign 27 / 50 27. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Accentuated B. Diminished C. Ringing in character D. Normal in character 28 / 50 28. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 29 / 50 29. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 B. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence C. Central cyanosis D. Prominent a-wave in neck veins 30 / 50 30. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV 31 / 50 31. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta B. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels C. Takayasu's disease D. Aneurysm of subclavian artery 32 / 50 32. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Systolic murmur in complete heart block C. Systolic innocent murmur D. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis 33 / 50 33. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Arrhythmias C. Shock D. Diabetes mellitus 34 / 50 34. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Most of the patients are asymptomatic B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. Early systolic click D. More common in females 35 / 50 35. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Systemic hypertension 36 / 50 36. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Found in severe AR D. Absence of thrill 37 / 50 37. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Prazosin B. Hydralazine C. Methyldopa D. Amiloride 38 / 50 38. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Allopurinol C. Chloramphenicol D. Doxorubicin 39 / 50 39. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. Transferrin C. PAI-I D. Lipoprotein 40 / 50 40. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Valsalva maneuver C. Standing D. Squatting 41 / 50 41. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Leriche's syndrome B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Buerger's disease D. Lumbar canal stenosis 42 / 50 42. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Cardiomegaly C. Water-hammer pulse D. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area 43 / 50 43. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary oedema B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Obstructive mitral valve disease 44 / 50 44. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. Digitalis toxicity D. WPW syndrome 45 / 50 45. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. MR B. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) C. AR D. AS with AR 46 / 50 46. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Emphysema B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. ECG was taken in deep inspiration D. Dextrocardia 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Photosensitivity C. Alveolitis D. Hepatitis 48 / 50 48. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. Arteriovenous nipping C. Papilloedema D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 49 / 50 49. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. PS C. MS D. VSD 50 / 50 50. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Sickle cell anemia D. Polycythemia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology