Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. Associated LVH B. AS C. PDA D. ASD 2 / 50 2. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. VSD C. PS D. Chronic cor-pulmonale 3 / 50 3. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Lutembacher syndrome C. Supravalvular AS D. Infundibular PS 4 / 50 4. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Cardiogenic B. Hypovolaemic C. Septic D. Neurogenic 5 / 50 5. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Labetalol C. Methyldopa D. Hydralazine 6 / 50 6. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Hydralazine C. Methyldopa D. Prazosin 7 / 50 7. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Right ventricular dilatation B. Rheumatic heart disease C. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers D. Collagen vascular disease 8 / 50 8. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Trauma C. Tophaceous gout D. Cervical rib 9 / 50 9. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Restenosis cases C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Absence of valvular calcification 10 / 50 10. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows reverse split 11 / 50 11. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Valsalva manoeuvre B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Standing D. Leg raising 12 / 50 12. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Retinal haemorrhage D. Arteriovenous nipping 13 / 50 13. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Inferior vena cava B. Popliteal artery C. Femoral artery D. Cauda equina 14 / 50 14. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Hyperdynamic circulatory states B. Coarctation of aorta C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Aortic aneurysm 15 / 50 15. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Down's syndrome C. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome D. Holt-Oram syndrome 16 / 50 16. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. Diuretics D. IV fluid 17 / 50 17. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 B. Cat-like cry C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. VSD 18 / 50 18. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Livedo reticularis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Acrocyanosis 19 / 50 19. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST elevation in II, III, aVF 20 / 50 20. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Transposition of great vessels C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 21 / 50 21. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Chronic renal failure C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Acute pancreatitis 22 / 50 22. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-diastole C. Mid-systole D. Late diastole 23 / 50 23. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-diastole B. Mid-systole C. Systole D. Diastole 24 / 50 24. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. Ashen-grey pallor C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Peripheral cyanosis 25 / 50 25. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Standing C. Valsalva maneuver D. Squatting 26 / 50 26. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Present in late diastole C. Low-pitched D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 27 / 50 27. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Adenosine B. Amiodarone C. Metoprolol D. Verapamil 28 / 50 28. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Atherosclerosis of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Unfolding of aorta 29 / 50 29. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Morbid obesity C. Hyperuricemia D. Microvascular angina 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Morphine C. Trendelenburg position D. Diuretics 31 / 50 31. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Prolonged circulation time C. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation D. Diminished cardiac output 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Cubbing B. Splenomegaly C. Osler's node D. Murmur 33 / 50 33. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. 2nd degree heart block C. Extrasystoles D. Atrial fibrillation 34 / 50 34. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Left ventricular failure C. Pericardial effusion D. Wenckebach block 35 / 50 35. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Acute mediastinitis B. Dissecting aneurysm C. Unstable angina D. Bornholm disease 36 / 50 36. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. Dextrocardia C. VSD D. PDA 37 / 50 37. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Night-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Twice daily dosage schedule 38 / 50 38. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Septic shock 39 / 50 39. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Left atrial failure B. Digitalis overdose C. Tachycardia D. Mitral valve calcification 40 / 50 40. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. Aortic regurgitation D. Right-sided aortic arch 41 / 50 41. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Lisinopril C. Amiodarone D. Amrinone 42 / 50 42. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S3 B. Muscle tremor C. Palpable opening snap D. Palpable S4 43 / 50 43. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 44 / 50 44. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AS and AR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined MS and MR 45 / 50 45. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 3-6th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 6-9th rib D. 1-12th rib 46 / 50 46. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap B. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur C. Diastolic shock D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) 47 / 50 47. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Systemic hypertension 48 / 50 48. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. MR B. VSD C. ASD D. PDA 49 / 50 49. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Associated with thrill C. Usually diastolic in timing D. Best heard over mitral area 50 / 50 50. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Isolated levocardia C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Addison's disease LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology