Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Morning-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Night-time single dosage 2 / 50 2. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Nicotinic acid B. Lovastatin C. Probucol D. Gemfibrozil 3 / 50 3. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 1 cm2 B. < 3 cm2 C. < 4 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 4 / 50 4. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. VSD B. ASD C. Coarctation of aorta D. PDA 5 / 50 5. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Papilloedema B. Retinal haemorrhage C. Arteriovenous nipping D. 'Silver-wire' arteries 6 / 50 6. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Pulsus alternans C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Pulsus bigeminus 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Myxoedema C. Obstructive jaundice D. Hypothermia 8 / 50 8. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Pyrexia B. Clubbing C. Hypertension D. Embolic phenomenon 9 / 50 9. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Mobitz type II block C. Wenckebach block D. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block 10 / 50 10. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypokalaemia 11 / 50 11. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. High-pitched late systolic murmur B. Early systolic click C. Most of the patients are asymptomatic D. More common in females 12 / 50 12. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Graham Steel murmur B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Presence of S3 13 / 50 13. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium 14 / 50 14. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Flecainide B. Verapamil C. Quinidine D. Disopyramide 15 / 50 15. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MS B. ASD plus AR C. VSD plus MS D. ASD plus MR 16 / 50 16. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. Aortic regurgitation C. Left ventricular pacing D. LBBB 17 / 50 17. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Massive myocardial infarction 18 / 50 18. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Transposition of great vessels D. VSD 19 / 50 19. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Morphine B. Trendelenburg position C. Rotating tourniquets D. Diuretics 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Arteriosclerosis D. Pregnancy 22 / 50 22. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Pregnancy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 23 / 50 23. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Acute left ventricular failure D. Atrial fibrillation 24 / 50 24. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Aortic stenosis B. Unstable angina C. Coarctation of aorta D. Buerger's disease 25 / 50 25. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Atrial flutter B. Wenckebach block C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Multiple ectopics 26 / 50 26. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Takayasu's disease D. Arteritis 27 / 50 27. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Aortic regurgitation C. Right-sided aortic arch D. Persistent right-sided SVC 28 / 50 28. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Autoimmune reaction D. Protozoa 29 / 50 29. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S3 D. Muscle tremor 30 / 50 30. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 50 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 31 / 50 31. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypothermia C. Sick sinus syndrome D. WPW syndrome 32 / 50 32. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Having loud S1 B. Absence of thrill C. Mid-diastolic murmur D. Found in severe AR 33 / 50 33. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 100 Joules C. 50 Joules D. 400 Joules 34 / 50 34. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction B. Right ventricular infarction C. Acute mitral regurgitation D. Cardiac tamponade 35 / 50 35. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Aortic stenosis D. Aortic insufficiency 36 / 50 36. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Nailbed B. Fundus C. Palms D. Palate 37 / 50 37. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Pure mitral stenosis B. Restenosis cases C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Absence of valvular calcification 38 / 50 38. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. AS C. VSD D. Coarctation of aorta 39 / 50 39. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. Increased LDH3 C. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 40 / 50 40. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Gonorrhoea B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Acute pancreatitis D. Chronic renal failure 41 / 50 41. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Aortic stenosis C. Endotoxic shock D. Mitral stenosis 42 / 50 42. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised Lipoprotein (a) B. Reduced HDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised VLDL 43 / 50 43. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Hypokalaemia B. PSVT C. Atrial flutter D. Atrial fibrillation 44 / 50 44. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Mid-systole B. Late diastole C. Late systole D. Mid-diastole 45 / 50 45. Loud A2 is present in: A. Unfolding of aorta B. Calcified aortic valve C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Aortitis 46 / 50 46. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Leriche's syndrome C. Buerger's disease D. Lumbar canal stenosis 47 / 50 47. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea B. Dependent oedema C. Gallop rhythm D. Fine crepitations at lung bases 48 / 50 48. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Enalapril B. Methyldopa C. Labetalol D. Hydralazine 49 / 50 49. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. MR C. AS with AR D. AR 50 / 50 50. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Ascariasis B. HIV infection C. Toxoplasma infection D. Diphtheria LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology