Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Transferrin C. Lipoprotein D. Homocysteine 2 / 50 2. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. VSD C. AR D. MS 3 / 50 3. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Polycythemia C. Pregnancy D. Congestive cardiac failure 4 / 50 4. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) B. Digitalis toxicity C. WPW syndrome D. Rheumatic carditis 5 / 50 5. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Coarctation of aorta C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Hyperdynamic circulatory states 6 / 50 6. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 7 / 50 7. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Multiple ectopics B. Wenckebach block C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial flutter 8 / 50 8. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Right atrial myxoma C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Cardiac tamponade 9 / 50 9. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. MR C. AR D. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) 10 / 50 10. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. LDH C. SGOT D. SGPT 11 / 50 11. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Doxorubicin B. Allopurinol C. Chloramphenicol D. Methotrexate 12 / 50 12. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class III B. Class II C. Class IV D. Class I 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Hepatitis B. Photosensitivity C. Alveolitis D. Tachyarrhythmias 14 / 50 14. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined MS and AS C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined AS and AR 15 / 50 15. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta-blockers C. Diuretics D. Aspirin 16 / 50 16. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L B. Increased LDH3 C. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 D. Inverted T wave in ECG 17 / 50 17. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Chronic obstructive airway disease B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Pericardial effusion D. Left-sided heart failure 18 / 50 18. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Trisomy 18 B. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Holt-Oram syndrome 19 / 50 19. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Dorsalis pedis D. Femoral 20 / 50 20. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Spironolactone C. Bucindolol D. Digoxin 21 / 50 21. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Systolic B. Presystolic C. Early diastolic D. Mid-diastolic 22 / 50 22. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Embolism C. Rupture D. Infective endocarditis 23 / 50 23. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. On the left side of lower sternum B. After holding the breath C. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope D. In lying down position 24 / 50 24. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Ostium primum ASD 25 / 50 25. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Carvedilol B. Labetalol C. Pindolol D. Atenolol 26 / 50 26. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Mitral incompetence 27 / 50 27. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. Undulating D. There are two negative waves 28 / 50 28. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV Lignocaine B. Electrical cardioversion C. Carotid massage D. IV amiodarone 29 / 50 29. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Accentuated B. Diminished C. Normal in character D. Ringing in character 30 / 50 30. All are examples of congenital cyanotic heart disease except: A. Single ventricle B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Anomalous origin of coronary artery 31 / 50 31. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Disturbances in vision C. Intermittent claudication D. Diminished pulses in upper extremity 32 / 50 32. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases D. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea 33 / 50 33. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Acute severe asthma B. Cardiac tamponade C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Dilated cardiomyopathy 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Polyarthritis B. Erythema nodosum C. Chorea D. Subcutaneous nodule 35 / 50 35. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Trauma B. Sarcoidosis C. Cervical rib D. Tophaceous gout 36 / 50 36. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm D. Wenckebach heart block 37 / 50 37. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. 'Silver-wire' arteries B. Papilloedema C. Arteriovenous nipping D. Retinal haemorrhage 38 / 50 38. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 12 inch long B. 8 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 22 inch long 39 / 50 39. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Cat-like cry B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. Mongoloid slant of eyes D. VSD 40 / 50 40. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial flutter B. Atrial fibrillation C. Hypokalaemia D. PSVT 41 / 50 41. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. AV nodal rhythm C. First degree heart block D. Low atrial rhythm 42 / 50 42. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Kussmaul's sign B. Prominent x-descent in JVP C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography 43 / 50 43. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Cardiomyopathy C. Thoracic deformity D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 44 / 50 44. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 50 ml C. 25 ml D. 5 ml 45 / 50 45. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. Right-sided aortic arch C. Aortic regurgitation D. PDA 46 / 50 46. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Left ventricular failure B. ASD C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Right ventricular pacing 47 / 50 47. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Left bundle branch block D. True posterior myocardial infarction 48 / 50 48. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Complete heart block D. Right atrial myxoma 49 / 50 49. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Bacterial endocarditis 50 / 50 50. All are true in severe PS except: A. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased D. 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