Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism B. ASD C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular pacing 2 / 50 2. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MR B. AS C. MS D. AR 3 / 50 3. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 22 inch long 4 / 50 4. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Ischemic heart disease C. Severe anemia D. Cardiomyopathy 5 / 50 5. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Dissecting aneurysm B. Unstable angina C. Acute mediastinitis D. Bornholm disease 6 / 50 6. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Addison's disease B. Emphysema C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Isolated levocardia 7 / 50 7. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Increased PR interval D. Tall T-waves 8 / 50 8. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. VSD B. AS C. PS D. Coarctation of aorta 9 / 50 9. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. ASD C. VSD D. Fallot's tetralogy 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Increased ESR B. Arthralgia C. Prolonged PR interval D. Elevated ASO titre 11 / 50 11. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Night-time single dosage C. Morning-time single dosage D. Eccentric dosage schedule 12 / 50 12. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. AR B. VSD C. MS D. PDA 13 / 50 13. Opening snap is: A. Low-pitched B. Present in late diastole C. Best heard in standing position D. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope 14 / 50 14. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Diastole 15 / 50 15. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Flecainide D. Verapamil 16 / 50 16. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. MS C. AR D. Acute rheumatic fever 17 / 50 17. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Buerger's disease B. Lumbar canal stenosis C. Leriche's syndrome D. Peripheral neuropathy 18 / 50 18. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Polycythemia C. Pregnancy D. Sickle cell anemia 19 / 50 19. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hyponatraemia 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Photosensitivity C. Hepatitis D. Tachyarrhythmias 21 / 50 21. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Mitral stenosis C. Endotoxic shock D. Aortic stenosis 22 / 50 22. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Aortic arch syndrome B. Polycystic kidney C. Berry aneurysm D. Bicuspid aortic valve 23 / 50 23. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Livedo reticularis C. Acrocyanosis D. Raynaud's phenomenon 24 / 50 24. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Bacterial endocarditis B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Severe menstrual bleeding D. Pregnancy 25 / 50 25. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. AR C. MR D. AS 26 / 50 26. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. Hypothermia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Sick sinus syndrome 27 / 50 27. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. High-pitched late systolic murmur C. More common in females D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic 28 / 50 28. Commonest heart valve abnormality revealed after AMI is: A. AS B. MR C. AR D. MS 29 / 50 29. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. Associated LVH C. AS D. ASD 30 / 50 30. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. MR C. VSD D. ASD 31 / 50 31. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Hypothermia B. Digitalis toxicity C. Chronic cor pulmonale D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 32 / 50 32. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 50 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 60 ml/kg of body weight D. 85 ml/kg of body weight 33 / 50 33. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Atrial rate is 350-400/min B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Pulse deficit is > 10 34 / 50 34. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Clubbing B. Splenomegaly C. Pyrexia D. High ESR 35 / 50 35. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Bucindolol B. Spironolactone C. Digoxin D. Propranolol 36 / 50 36. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Cafe au lait pallor B. Clubbing C. Macroscopic hematuria D. Splenomegaly 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Raised JVP C. Pulmonary oedema D. Ascites 38 / 50 38. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Right-sided aortic arch B. Persistent right-sided SVC C. PDA D. Aortic regurgitation 39 / 50 39. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Atenolol B. Pindolol C. Carvedilol D. Labetalol 40 / 50 40. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Mid-diastolic murmur B. Absence of thrill C. Found in severe AR D. Having loud S1 41 / 50 41. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Gonorrhoea C. Chronic renal failure D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 42 / 50 42. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Down's syndrome 43 / 50 43. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Supravalvular AS C. Infundibular PS D. Ebstein's anomaly 44 / 50 44. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. PSVT B. Atrial fibrillation C. Atrial flutter D. Hypokalaemia 45 / 50 45. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Wenckebach block D. Mobitz type II block 46 / 50 46. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Homocysteine B. Lipoprotein C. Transferrin D. PAI-I 47 / 50 47. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 48 / 50 48. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Diuretics B. ACE inhibitors C. Aspirin D. Beta-blockers 49 / 50 49. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula B. Aortopulmonary window C. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva D. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis 50 / 50 50. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Pure mitral stenosis C. Restenosis cases D. Absence of left atrial thrombus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
