Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Clotting time (CT) C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Factor-X assay 2 / 50 2. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. ASD B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Transposition of great vessels D. Coarctation of aorta 3 / 50 3. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Post-AMI 4 / 50 4. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypertension D. Arrhythmias 5 / 50 5. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Accentuated C. Normal in character D. Ringing in character 6 / 50 6. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. Pyrexia B. Clubbing C. Splenomegaly D. High ESR 7 / 50 7. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Supravalvular AS B. Infundibular PS C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Lutembacher syndrome 8 / 50 8. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Cushing's syndrome 9 / 50 9. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left-to-right shunt B. Right ventricular failure C. Left ventricular failure D. Pulmonary stenosis 10 / 50 10. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic insufficiency 11 / 50 11. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Venous hum B. S2 C. Opening snap D. Ejection click 12 / 50 12. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. Dextrocardia B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. ECG was taken in deep inspiration D. Emphysema 13 / 50 13. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Aortic stenosis 14 / 50 14. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Extrasystoles D. 2nd degree heart block 15 / 50 15. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Massive myocardial infarction C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Atrial fibrillation 16 / 50 16. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 22 inch long 17 / 50 17. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Night-time single dosage 18 / 50 18. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Mid-systole C. Mid-diastole D. Systole 19 / 50 19. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Late systole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 20 / 50 20. Sphygmomanometer cannot diagnose: A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Pulsus alternans C. Pulsus bigeminus D. Water-hammer pulse 21 / 50 21. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Atrioventricular septal defect D. Ventricular septal defect 22 / 50 22. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. Left ventricular pacing C. LBBB D. Aortic regurgitation 23 / 50 23. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Digitalis overdose B. Mitral valve calcification C. Tachycardia D. Left atrial failure 24 / 50 24. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Left ventricular failure D. ASD 25 / 50 25. Which is false regarding juvenile mitral stenosis? A. Pin-point mitral valve B. Mitral valve calcification is uncommon C. Occurs below 18 years D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly seen 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Hypothermia C. Complete heart block D. Myxoedema 27 / 50 27. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 50 ml C. 25 ml D. 5 ml 28 / 50 28. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Renal failure C. Old age D. Hepatic encephalopathy 29 / 50 29. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta D. Berry aneurysm 30 / 50 30. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Fine crepitations at lung bases B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea C. Dependent oedema D. Gallop rhythm 31 / 50 31. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Libman-Sacks endocarditis B. Marantic endocarditis C. Candida albicans endocarditis D. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Elevated ASO titre C. Arthralgia D. Increased ESR 33 / 50 33. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. AV nodal rhythm B. Low atrial rhythm C. WPW syndrome D. First degree heart block 34 / 50 34. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. Bicuspid aortic valve 35 / 50 35. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. MR 36 / 50 36. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 60 ml/kg of body weight B. 70 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 37 / 50 37. Which is not an example of vasospastic disorder? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Livedo reticularis D. Acrocyanosis 38 / 50 38. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Acute severe asthma D. Cardiac tamponade 39 / 50 39. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Mitral stenosis D. Endotoxic shock 40 / 50 40. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Radial B. Dorsalis pedis C. Brachial D. Femoral 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Homocystinuria C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 42 / 50 42. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Absent clavicle C. Asplenia D. Fingerization of thumb 43 / 50 43. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Methyldopa C. Enalapril D. Hydralazine 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Marfan's syndrome C. Pregnancy D. Arteriosclerosis 45 / 50 45. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 4 cm2 B. < 1 cm2 C. < 2 cm2 D. < 3 cm2 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Rotating tourniquets B. Diuretics C. Morphine D. Trendelenburg position 47 / 50 47. S3 may be present in all except: A. Athletes B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Pregnancy 48 / 50 48. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Presystolic B. Early diastolic C. Systolic D. Mid-diastolic 49 / 50 49. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Gonorrhoea C. Chronic renal failure D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 50 / 50 50. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Persistent right-sided SVC B. PDA C. Right-sided aortic arch D. 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