Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptoroccus viridans D. Streptococcus faecalis 2 / 50 2. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. ASD B. VSD C. Transposition of great vessels D. PDA 3 / 50 3. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 4 / 50 4. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Myotonic dystrophy B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 5 / 50 5. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. PDA B. AR C. VSD D. MS 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Tachyarrhythmias B. Photosensitivity C. Alveolitis D. Hepatitis 7 / 50 7. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. Chronic cor-pulmonale B. MS C. VSD D. PS 8 / 50 8. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Graham Steel murmur B. Presence of S3 C. Late and loud opening snap D. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur 9 / 50 9. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Deep Q wave B. Prominent ST elevation C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion 10 / 50 10. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. MR 11 / 50 11. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. With radiation towards left axilla C. Early diastolic D. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation 12 / 50 12. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Septic shock 13 / 50 13. Which is not a cause of wide and fixed splitting of S2? A. Right ventricular pacing B. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism C. Left ventricular failure D. ASD 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Obstructive jaundice B. Hypothermia C. Myxoedema D. Complete heart block 15 / 50 15. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MR B. AR C. AS D. MS 16 / 50 16. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Polycythemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Pregnancy D. Sickle cell anemia 17 / 50 17. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Increased PR interval B. Tall T-waves C. Diminished QT interval D. Shortened PR interval 18 / 50 18. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 80mmHg B. 40mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 30mmHg 19 / 50 19. Aortic arch syndrome is not associated with: A. Diminished pulses in upper extremity B. Systemic hypertension C. Intermittent claudication D. Disturbances in vision 20 / 50 20. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Eccentric dosage schedule B. Twice daily dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Night-time single dosage 21 / 50 21. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class II B. Class IV C. Class I D. Class III 22 / 50 22. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Squatting C. Valsalva maneuver D. Amyl nitrite inhalation 23 / 50 23. Eisenmenger’s syndrome should not have: A. Pansystolic murmur of bicuspid incompetence B. Prominent a-wave in neck veins C. Wide split of S2 with loud P2 D. Central cyanosis 24 / 50 24. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. WPW syndrome C. Ostium primum ASD D. During inspiration 25 / 50 25. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Coarctation of aorta B. PDA C. SLE D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 26 / 50 26. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and MR B. Combined AR and MR C. Combined MS and AS D. Combined AS and AR 27 / 50 27. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with CCF D. AR with tight PS 28 / 50 28. Intracardiac calcification usually indicates: A. Chronic constrictive pericarditis B. Mural thrombus C. Rheumatic valve D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 29 / 50 29. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Atrial fibrillation B. 2nd degree heart block C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Extrasystoles 30 / 50 30. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Kussmaul's sign C. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography D. Prominent x-descent in JVP 31 / 50 31. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Radial B. Femoral C. Brachial D. Dorsalis pedis 32 / 50 32. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 33 / 50 33. Still’s murmur is: A. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis B. Systolic murmur in complete heart block C. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation D. Systolic innocent murmur 34 / 50 34. Long tubular heart in X-ray chest is found in all except: A. Emphysema B. Isolated levocardia C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Addison's disease 35 / 50 35. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Arrhythmias B. Shock C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus 36 / 50 36. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Commonly found in children C. Best heard over mitral area D. Associated with thrill 37 / 50 37. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Acute pulmonary oedema C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Left-to-right shunt 38 / 50 38. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. VSD B. PS C. Coarctation of aorta D. AS 39 / 50 39. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Venous hum 40 / 50 40. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Renal failure D. Old age 41 / 50 41. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 5 ml C. 15 ml D. 25 ml 42 / 50 42. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Pure mitral stenosis C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Restenosis cases 43 / 50 43. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Right atrial myxoma D. Atrial fibrillation 44 / 50 44. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Factor-X assay C. Clotting time (CT) D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 45 / 50 45. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Hyponatraemia C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypocalcaemia 46 / 50 46. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Tinel's sign B. Branham's sign C. Hoover's sign D. Bing sign 47 / 50 47. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease 48 / 50 48. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. ECG was taken in deep inspiration B. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode C. Dextrocardia D. Emphysema 49 / 50 49. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Left ventricular failure C. Right ventricular failure D. Left-to-right shunt 50 / 50 50. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Left ventricular failure C. Superior mediastinal syndrome D. Congestive cardiac failure LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology