Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. WPW syndrome B. AV nodal rhythm C. Low atrial rhythm D. First degree heart block 2 / 50 2. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Coarctation of aorta C. Aortoarteritis D. Unfolding of aorta 3 / 50 3. Sudden death may occur in all of the following except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Massive myocardial infarction C. Massive pulmonary thromboembolism D. Ventricular fibrillation 4 / 50 4. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Severe anemia C. Coarctation of aorta D. Ischemic heart disease 5 / 50 5. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) C. Diastolic shock D. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap 6 / 50 6. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Shock C. Diabetes mellitus D. Arrhythmias 7 / 50 7. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AR B. AS with AR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. MR 8 / 50 8. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy 9 / 50 9. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Aortic insufficiency D. Mitral stenosis 10 / 50 10. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. A small fraction closes by the year 10 C. Moderate VSD D. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent 11 / 50 11. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AS B. MR C. MS D. AR 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Splenomegaly B. Cubbing C. Osler's node D. Murmur 13 / 50 13. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Tachycardia C. Digitalis overdose D. Left atrial failure 14 / 50 14. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 22 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 12 inch long D. 8 inch long 15 / 50 15. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Septic B. Cardiogenic C. Neurogenic D. Hypovolaemic 16 / 50 16. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Raised JVP C. S3 gallop rhythm D. Ashen-grey pallor 17 / 50 17. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Tapping apex D. Water-hammer pulse 18 / 50 18. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Pulsatile liver C. Hypotension D. Orthopnoea 19 / 50 19. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound B. Stenosis is severe C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Occurs immediately after S1 20 / 50 20. Loud A2 is present in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Aortitis C. Unfolding of aorta D. Calcified aortic valve 21 / 50 21. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Pregnancy C. Right ventricular infarction D. Myocarditis 22 / 50 22. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Obstructive mitral valve disease C. Pulmonary oedema D. Pulmonary fibrosis 23 / 50 23. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Retinal haemorrhage B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Arteriovenous nipping D. Papilloedema 24 / 50 24. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Graham Steel murmur D. Presence of S3 25 / 50 25. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. MS B. PS C. Chronic cor-pulmonale D. VSD 26 / 50 26. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Unstable angina B. Bornholm disease C. Dissecting aneurysm D. Acute mediastinitis 27 / 50 27. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. Most of the patients are asymptomatic C. High-pitched late systolic murmur D. More common in females 28 / 50 28. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Angina Pectoris D. Systemic hypertension 29 / 50 29. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Venous hum C. Ejection click D. Opening snap 30 / 50 30. Compression of the feeding artery abruptly reduces the heart rate in arteriovenous fistula and is known as: A. Branham's sign B. Bing sign C. Hoover's sign D. Tinel's sign 31 / 50 31. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Severe menstrual bleeding B. Pregnancy C. Bacterial endocarditis D. H/O intraocular bleeding 32 / 50 32. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Left bundle branch block C. Hypokalaemia D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 33 / 50 33. Which drug prolongs life in chronic stable angina? A. Aspirin B. Diuretics C. ACE inhibitors D. Beta-blockers 34 / 50 34. Unilateral clubbing is found in all except: A. Arteriovenous fistula of brachial vessels B. Takayasu's disease C. Aneurysm of subclavian artery D. Presubdavian coarctation of aorta 35 / 50 35. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Atrial fibrillation C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Mitral valve prolapse 36 / 50 36. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. VSD C. AS D. Coarctation of aorta 37 / 50 37. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Becomes prominent on lying down B. Undulating C. There are two negative waves D. Better felt than seen 38 / 50 38. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypothermia B. Vagal stimulation C. Quinidine therapy D. Hypocalcaemia 39 / 50 39. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle 40 / 50 40. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amrinone B. Lisinopril C. Amiodarone D. Amlodipine 41 / 50 41. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. Hypokalaemia C. Renal failure D. Old age 42 / 50 42. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Thoracic deformity 43 / 50 43. Familial myxomas may be a part of syndrome complex with endocrine overactivity like: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Cushing's syndrome 44 / 50 44. Still’s murmur is: A. Commonly found in children B. Usually diastolic in timing C. Associated with thrill D. Best heard over mitral area 45 / 50 45. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Mid-diastolic murmur B. Having loud S1 C. Found in severe AR D. Absence of thrill 46 / 50 46. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Dorsalis pedis C. Radial D. Brachial 47 / 50 47. Carey Coombs murmur is found in: A. AR B. MS C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Pulmonary hypertension 48 / 50 48. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 5 ml C. 15 ml D. 25 ml 49 / 50 49. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Increased PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Diminished QT interval 50 / 50 50. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Doxorubicin C. Methotrexate D. Chloramphenicol LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology