Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Morbid obesity B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Hyperuricemia D. Microvascular angina 2 / 50 2. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Sodium nitroprusside B. Labetalol C. Diazoxide D. Methyldopa 3 / 50 3. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral incompetence B. Aortic stenosis C. Tricuspid incompetence D. Pulmonary stenosis 4 / 50 4. Osler’s node is classically seen in: A. Candida albicans endocarditis B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis C. Marantic endocarditis D. Libman-Sacks endocarditis 5 / 50 5. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. First degree heart block C. AV nodal rhythm D. WPW syndrome 6 / 50 6. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 7 / 50 7. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. AR C. AS D. MR 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Initially noticed in the morning C. Starts in the dependent part D. Pitting oedema 9 / 50 9. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, external defibrillation by DC shock is done with: A. 200 Joules B. 50 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 400 Joules 10 / 50 10. Prolonged QT interval in ECG is found in all except: A. Hypothermia B. Hypocalcaemia C. Quinidine therapy D. Vagal stimulation 11 / 50 11. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Opening snap C. Ejection click D. Venous hum 12 / 50 12. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. ASD B. VSD C. PDA D. MR 13 / 50 13. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. Diuretics D. IV fluid 14 / 50 14. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Sickle cell anemia C. Pregnancy D. Polycythemia 15 / 50 15. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. Pregnancy B. H/O intraocular bleeding C. Bacterial endocarditis D. Severe menstrual bleeding 16 / 50 16. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome B. Severe coarctation of aorta C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection D. Pulmonary atresia 17 / 50 17. All of the following are causes of intermittent claudication except: A. Buerger's disease B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Lumbar canal stenosis D. Leriche's syndrome 18 / 50 18. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Spironolactone D. Bucindolol 19 / 50 19. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. Associated LVH C. AS D. ASD 20 / 50 20. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Marfan's syndrome C. Systemic hypertension D. Pregnancy 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Raised JVP B. Pulsus paradoxus C. Pulmonary oedema D. Ascites 22 / 50 22. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 85 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 70 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 23 / 50 23. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Transposition of great vessels D. Ebstein's anomaly 24 / 50 24. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined AR and MR 25 / 50 25. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Prominent x-descent B. Prominent y-descent C. Prominent a-wave D. Small v-wave 26 / 50 26. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Bornholm disease B. Unstable angina C. Dissecting aneurysm D. Acute mediastinitis 27 / 50 27. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Thoracic deformity C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Cardiomyopathy 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Chorea C. Subcutaneous nodule D. Polyarthritis 29 / 50 29. The drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is: A. Verapamil B. Amiodarone C. Metoprolol D. Adenosine 30 / 50 30. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Pyrexia C. Hypertension D. Clubbing 31 / 50 31. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MR B. ASD plus MS C. ASD plus AR D. VSD plus MS 32 / 50 32. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Autoimmune reaction C. Protozoa D. Bacteria 33 / 50 33. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. PDA B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 34 / 50 34. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Mitral stenosis D. Myxoedema 35 / 50 35. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Shock C. Arrhythmias D. Hypertension 36 / 50 36. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Left ventricular failure C. Left-to-right shunt D. Right ventricular failure 37 / 50 37. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Absence of valvular calcification B. Restenosis cases C. Absence of left atrial thrombus D. Pure mitral stenosis 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Myxoedema C. Hypothermia D. Obstructive jaundice 39 / 50 39. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 B. Increased LDH3 C. Inverted T wave in ECG D. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L 40 / 50 40. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 41 / 50 41. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Clotting time (CT) C. Factor-X assay D. Prothrombin time (PT) 42 / 50 42. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus tachycardia C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus bradycardia 43 / 50 43. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. Chronic cor-pulmonale C. MS D. VSD 44 / 50 44. lbutilide is an antiarrhythmic agent of: A. Class I B. Class III C. Class IV D. Class II 45 / 50 45. Coarctation of aorta may be associated with all except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. Berry aneurysm D. Aortic arch syndrome 46 / 50 46. S4 is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Chronic mitral regurgitation C. Aortic stenosis D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 47 / 50 47. Regrading neck venous pulsation, which is false? A. Better felt than seen B. Becomes prominent on lying down C. There are two negative waves D. Undulating 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not included in ‘minor manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Arthralgia B. Increased ESR C. Elevated ASO titre D. Prolonged PR interval 49 / 50 49. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Diminished QT interval C. Increased PR interval D. Shortened PR interval 50 / 50 50. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Labetalol C. Methyldopa D. Telmisartan LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology