Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Rapid recovery C. Warning symptoms D. Residual neurodeficit 2 / 50 2. S3 may be present in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Athletes C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Hyperkinetic circulatory states 3 / 50 3. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. VSD B. Asplenia C. Absent clavicle D. Fingerization of thumb 4 / 50 4. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable S4 5 / 50 5. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Left bundle branch block D. True posterior myocardial infarction 6 / 50 6. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hypokalaemia 7 / 50 7. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Cardiac tamponade C. Haemothorax D. Constrictive pericarditis 8 / 50 8. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. Transferrin B. Lipoprotein C. PAI-I D. Homocysteine 9 / 50 9. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. Acutely developing AR B. AR with systemic hypertension C. AR with tight PS D. AR with CCF 10 / 50 10. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Prominent ST elevation B. Deep Q wave C. Height of R wave maximum in V6 D. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion 11 / 50 11. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. VSD C. AS D. Coarctation of aorta 12 / 50 12. Cardiac percussion is important in: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Myocarditis C. Emphysema D. Cardiomyopathy 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Haptoglobulin B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Orosomucoid D. Ceruloplasmin 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Erythema nodosum B. Polyarthritis C. Chorea D. Subcutaneous nodule 15 / 50 15. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Digoxin B. Bucindolol C. Spironolactone D. Propranolol 16 / 50 16. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Endotoxic shock B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 17 / 50 17. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial flutter B. PSVT C. Hypokalaemia D. Atrial fibrillation 18 / 50 18. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Left atrial myxoma 19 / 50 19. Verapamil is indicated in all except: A. Acute left ventricular failure B. Angina Pectoris C. Supraventricular tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation 20 / 50 20. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Ostium primum ASD C. PDA D. Fallot's tetralogy 21 / 50 21. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma B. Ejection click C. Pericardial knock D. Opening snap 22 / 50 22. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Late and loud opening snap C. Graham Steel murmur D. Presence of S3 23 / 50 23. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Atrial fibrillation C. Left atrial myxoma D. Constrictive pericarditis 24 / 50 24. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Mid-diastolic murmur B. Absence of thrill C. Having loud S1 D. Found in severe AR 25 / 50 25. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined AR and MR B. Combined AS and AR C. Combined MS and MR D. Combined MS and AS 26 / 50 26. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. IV fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. Restriction of fluid D. Diuretics 27 / 50 27. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Holt-Oram syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome D. Down's syndrome 28 / 50 28. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Propranolol B. Amiodarone C. ACE-inhibitors D. Surgical myotomy of the septum 29 / 50 29. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Tricuspid atresia D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 30 / 50 30. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium 31 / 50 31. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Pulmonary congestion B. Hypotension C. Increased JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 32 / 50 32. ‘Syndrome-Z’ increases cardiovascular morbidity, and is associated with: A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Hyperuricemia C. Microvascular angina D. Morbid obesity 33 / 50 33. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Splenomegaly B. Macroscopic hematuria C. Cafe au lait pallor D. Clubbing 34 / 50 34. When a patient of unstable angina worsens by nitroglycerine, the diagnosis is: A. MS B. MR C. Left main coronary artery stenosis D. Idiopathic subaortic stenosis 35 / 50 35. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Fallot's tetralogy C. VSD D. Ebstein's anomaly 36 / 50 36. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Myocarditis B. Aortic stenosis C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 37 / 50 37. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Diminished QT interval C. Increased PR interval D. Tall T-waves 38 / 50 38. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation B. Pulmonary stenosis C. PDA D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 39 / 50 39. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Arrhythmias D. Shock 40 / 50 40. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Acute severe asthma C. Cardiac tamponade D. Constrictive pericarditis 41 / 50 41. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows narrow split C. Remains single D. Shows reverse split 42 / 50 42. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Morning-time single dosage B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Night-time single dosage D. Twice daily dosage schedule 43 / 50 43. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea 44 / 50 44. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. MS B. MR C. AR D. AS 45 / 50 45. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MS B. ASD plus MR C. ASD plus AR D. VSD plus MS 46 / 50 46. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. Transposition of great vessels C. VSD D. ASD 47 / 50 47. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Right atrial myxoma C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 48 / 50 48. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. WPW syndrome B. Rheumatic carditis C. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) D. Digitalis toxicity 49 / 50 49. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Floppy mitral valve C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute rheumatic fever 50 / 50 50. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. More common in females B. Early systolic click C. High-pitched late systolic murmur D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology