Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 36 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. SGOT B. CPK C. LDH D. SGPT 2 / 50 2. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Haemodynamically significant B. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Moderate VSD 3 / 50 3. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Atrial rate is 350-400/min C. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min D. 'f ' waves in neck vein 4 / 50 4. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Pneumococcus D. Streptoroccus viridans 5 / 50 5. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Hypovolaemic B. Cardiogenic C. Neurogenic D. Septic 6 / 50 6. Pregnancy-associated hypertension should not be treated with: A. Amlodipine B. Methyldopa C. Telmisartan D. Labetalol 7 / 50 7. Indications for dosed mitral valvotomy include all except: A. Restenosis cases B. Absence of left atrial thrombus C. Absence of valvular calcification D. Pure mitral stenosis 8 / 50 8. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Diuretics B. Calcium gluconate C. Restriction of fluid D. IV fluid 9 / 50 9. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Hypotension B. Raised JVP C. Pulsatile liver D. Orthopnoea 10 / 50 10. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Prominent x-descent in JVP B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Kussmaul's sign D. Pulsus paradoxus 11 / 50 11. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Cauda equina B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Popliteal artery 12 / 50 12. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Infundibular PS C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Supravalvular AS 13 / 50 13. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) C. WPW syndrome D. Digitalis toxicity 14 / 50 14. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. MS is a recognised cause B. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg C. Found in basal region D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage 15 / 50 15. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. ASD B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Bicuspid aortic valve D. VSD 16 / 50 16. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left bundle branch block B. Hypokalaemia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. True posterior myocardial infarction 17 / 50 17. Inverted P-wave in lead. I, upright P-wave in aVR and gradual diminution of the height of R-waves in precordial leads are found in: A. ECG was taken in deep inspiration B. Emphysema C. Faulty interchange of right and left arm electrode D. Dextrocardia 18 / 50 18. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MS B. ASD plus AR C. ASD plus MR D. VSD plus MS 19 / 50 19. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Graham Steel murmur B. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Presence of S3 20 / 50 20. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Haemothorax C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 21 / 50 21. The least common complication of MS is: A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Cerebral thrombosis 22 / 50 22. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late systole B. Mid-systole C. Late diastole D. Mid-diastole 23 / 50 23. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Doxorubicin C. Methotrexate D. Chloramphenicol 24 / 50 24. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 25 / 50 25. Angio-oedema is not uncommon in treatment with: A. Amlodipine B. Amrinone C. Lisinopril D. Amiodarone 26 / 50 26. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Cardiomyopathy B. Thoracic deformity C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 27 / 50 27. Which does not produce a regularly irregular pulse? A. Extrasystoles B. Sinus arrhythmia C. 2nd degree heart block D. Atrial fibrillation 28 / 50 28. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Acute bacterial endocarditis C. Right-to-left shunt D. Left atrial myxoma 29 / 50 29. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Y-shaped B. Inverted Y-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. V-shaped 30 / 50 30. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows narrow split B. Having wide split C. Shows reverse split D. Remains single 31 / 50 31. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral incompetence C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Tricuspid incompetence 32 / 50 32. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Aflatoxin B. Coffee C. Bush tea D. Tapioca 33 / 50 33. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. MR C. AS D. AR 34 / 50 34. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 15 ml B. 5 ml C. 25 ml D. 50 ml 35 / 50 35. Murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is decreased by: A. Standing B. Amyl nitrite inhalation C. Leg raising D. Valsalva manoeuvre 36 / 50 36. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Muscle tremor B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S3 D. Palpable S4 37 / 50 37. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 D. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 38 / 50 38. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Myotonic dystrophy 39 / 50 39. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Aortic valve B. Mitral valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Tricuspid valve 40 / 50 40. S1, S2, S3 syndrome in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Chronic cor pulmonale C. Digitalis toxicity D. Hypothermia 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is false regarding complete heart block? A. Low volume pulse B. Irregular cannon waves in neck vein C. Regular pulse rate D. Beat to beat variation of blood pressure 42 / 50 42. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Myxoedema C. Mitral stenosis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 43 / 50 43. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Peripheral embolism B. Coarctation of aorta C. Leriche's syndrome D. Buerger's disease 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Complete heart block B. Hypothermia C. Myxoedema D. Obstructive jaundice 45 / 50 45. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Warning symptoms B. Rapid recovery C. Residual neurodeficit D. Gradual onset 46 / 50 46. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. Ejection click B. Venous hum C. S2 D. Opening snap 47 / 50 47. Which of the following gives rise to pulsation at the back? A. Coarctation of aorta B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Aortic aneurysm D. Hyperdynamic circulatory states 48 / 50 48. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation B. Diminished cardiac output C. Prolonged circulation time D. Pericardial effusion 49 / 50 49. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. Coarctation of aorta B. VSD C. AS D. PS 50 / 50 50. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic insufficiency C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral regurgitation LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology