Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. AR C. MR D. AS 2 / 50 2. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. AS C. Associated LVH D. ASD 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Hepatitis B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Photosensitivity D. Alveolitis 4 / 50 4. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Opening snap B. Pericardial knock C. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma D. Ejection click 5 / 50 5. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Splenomegaly C. Pyrexia D. Clubbing 6 / 50 6. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Increased PR interval C. Tall T-waves D. Diminished QT interval 7 / 50 7. Loud A2 is present in: A. Aortitis B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Unfolding of aorta D. Calcified aortic valve 8 / 50 8. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome B. Left atrial myxoma C. Carey Coombs murmur D. Austin Flint murmur 9 / 50 9. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Propranolol C. Amiodarone D. ACE-inhibitors 10 / 50 10. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. Transposition of great vessels B. VSD C. PDA D. ASD 11 / 50 11. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Hypokalaemia B. PSVT C. Atrial fibrillation D. Atrial flutter 12 / 50 12. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. Aortic regurgitation B. PDA C. Right-sided aortic arch D. Persistent right-sided SVC 13 / 50 13. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. SLE B. Afibrinogenaemia C. Vasculitis D. Old age 14 / 50 14. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Aortopulmonary window C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ventricular septal defect 15 / 50 15. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Digitalis toxicity C. Pericardial effusion D. Wenckebach block 16 / 50 16. Radiofemoral delay is a feature of all except: A. Atherosclerosis of aorta B. Aortoarteritis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Unfolding of aorta 17 / 50 17. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AR B. MR C. MS D. AS 18 / 50 18. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. True posterior myocardial infarction B. Hypokalaemia C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Left bundle branch block 19 / 50 19. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. AR B. MR C. MS D. AS 20 / 50 20. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Tricuspid atresia C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Fallot's tetralogy 21 / 50 21. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows narrow split C. Shows reverse split D. Remains single 22 / 50 22. Which enzyme rises earliest in AMI? A. CPK B. LDH C. SGOT D. SGPT 23 / 50 23. Cardiac involvement is absent in: A. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Friedreich's ataxia D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 24 / 50 24. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases B. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease C. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea D. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis 25 / 50 25. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level C. Stenosis is severe D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 26 / 50 26. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Water-hammer pulse D. Cardiomegaly 27 / 50 27. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Collagen vascular disease B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers 28 / 50 28. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Atrial fibrillation C. Complete heart block D. Ventricular tachycardia 29 / 50 29. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva B. Aortopulmonary window C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis 30 / 50 30. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Right atrial myxoma C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Complete heart block 31 / 50 31. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Squatting B. Standing C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Valsalva maneuver 32 / 50 32. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Right ventricular failure C. Left-to-right shunt D. Left ventricular failure 33 / 50 33. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Asplenia B. VSD C. Absent clavicle D. Fingerization of thumb 34 / 50 34. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Restriction of fluid B. IV fluid C. Calcium gluconate D. Diuretics 35 / 50 35. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Factor-X assay D. Clotting time (CT) 36 / 50 36. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Increased QT interval B. Presence of J-wave C. Increased PR interval D. Increased duration of QRS complex 37 / 50 37. JVP is usually increased in: A. Septic shock B. Hypovolaemic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Anaphylactic shock 38 / 50 38. Cardiac syncope is characterised by: A. Gradual onset B. Rapid recovery C. Warning symptoms D. Residual neurodeficit 39 / 50 39. ‘Diastolic shock’ is not found in: A. PS B. MS C. VSD D. Chronic cor-pulmonale 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Orosomucoid B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Ceruloplasmin D. Haptoglobulin 41 / 50 41. Differential cyanosis is found in: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. VSD C. Ebstein's anomaly D. Transposition of great vessels 42 / 50 42. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. WPW syndrome C. Sick sinus syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 43 / 50 43. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. Left ventricular pacing B. LBBB C. Aortic regurgitation D. RBBB 44 / 50 44. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Radial D. Dorsalis pedis 45 / 50 45. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Atrial flutter C. Multiple ectopics D. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia 46 / 50 46. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Quinidine B. Flecainide C. Disopyramide D. Verapamil 47 / 50 47. All are true in severe PS except: A. The ejection click goes away from S1 B. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 C. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur D. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased 48 / 50 48. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. 'Silver-wire' arteries C. Papilloedema D. Retinal haemorrhage 49 / 50 49. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Infective endocarditis B. Rupture C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Embolism 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Murmur B. Splenomegaly C. Osler's node D. Cubbing LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology