Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. JVP is usually increased in: A. Hypovolaemic shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Septic shock 2 / 50 2. Atrial myxomas may be associated with all except: A. High ESR B. Splenomegaly C. Clubbing D. Pyrexia 3 / 50 3. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 22 inch long D. 18 inch long 4 / 50 4. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Mitral valve calcification B. Left atrial failure C. Digitalis overdose D. Tachycardia 5 / 50 5. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Ebstein's anomaly B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Tricuspid atresia D. Transposition of great vessels 6 / 50 6. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Systole B. Mid-diastole C. Diastole D. Mid-systole 7 / 50 7. In coarctation of aorta, rib notching is seen in: A. 1-12th rib B. 10-12th rib C. 3-6th rib D. 6-9th rib 8 / 50 8. Haemoptysis may be found in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Left-to-right shunt D. Right ventricular failure 9 / 50 9. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Shows reverse split B. Having wide split C. Remains single D. Shows narrow split 10 / 50 10. PDA is life-saving in all of the following except: A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome C. Severe coarctation of aorta D. Pulmonary atresia 11 / 50 11. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Hypovolaemic 12 / 50 12. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Peripheral cyanosis B. Ashen-grey pallor C. Raised JVP D. S3 gallop rhythm 13 / 50 13. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Myocarditis B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Post-AMI D. Post-electrical cardioversion 14 / 50 14. The chance of SBE is lowest in: A. VSD B. MS C. PDA D. AR 15 / 50 15. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Mitral stenosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Myxoedema 16 / 50 16. Clinically, the severity of MS is best assessed by: A. Shorter duration of the mid-diastolic murmur B. Proximity of S2-opening snap gap C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) D. Diastolic shock 17 / 50 17. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Right atrial myxoma D. Complete heart block 18 / 50 18. The ESR may be very low in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Polycythemia C. Pregnancy D. Sickle cell anemia 19 / 50 19. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in all except: A. Acute mitral regurgitation B. Cardiogenic shock due to myocardial dysfunction C. Cardiac tamponade D. Right ventricular infarction 20 / 50 20. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Amiodarone B. Phenylephrin C. Propranolol D. Morphine 21 / 50 21. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Tall T-waves B. Shortened PR interval C. Diminished QT interval D. Increased PR interval 22 / 50 22. ‘Absolute’ contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in AMI is: A. H/O intraocular bleeding B. Pregnancy C. Bacterial endocarditis D. Severe menstrual bleeding 23 / 50 23. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Mobitz type II block B. Ventricular bigeminy C. Wenckebach block D. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block 24 / 50 24. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Old age D. Hypokalaemia 25 / 50 25. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. WPW syndrome B. During inspiration C. Ostium primum ASD D. Hyperkalaemia 26 / 50 26. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Atrial flutter D. Multiple ectopics 27 / 50 27. Bedside diagnosis of a classical case of SBE does not include: A. Clubbing B. Cafe au lait pallor C. Splenomegaly D. Macroscopic hematuria 28 / 50 28. Drug to be avoided in hypertensive encephalopathy? A. Labetalol B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Diazoxide D. Methyldopa 29 / 50 29. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. PDA B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is the least important cause of dissection of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Arteriosclerosis C. Coarctation of aorta D. Pregnancy 31 / 50 31. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Cardiomyopathy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 32 / 50 32. A pericardial friction rub may have any of the components except: A. Mid-diastolic B. Early diastolic C. Systolic D. Presystolic 33 / 50 33. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Cardiomegaly B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Water-hammer pulse D. Tapping apex 34 / 50 34. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Left-sided heart failure B. Pericardial effusion C. Chronic obstructive airway disease D. Pulmonary thromboembolism 35 / 50 35. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. Prothrombin time (PT) C. Factor-X assay D. Clotting time (CT) 36 / 50 36. Double apex in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is mainly due to: A. Palpable S4 B. Palpable opening snap C. Palpable S3 D. Muscle tremor 37 / 50 37. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Rupture C. Embolism D. Infective endocarditis 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Alveolitis B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Photosensitivity D. Hepatitis 39 / 50 39. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. MS C. PDA D. Coarctation of aorta 40 / 50 40. Pulmonary regurgitation is never associated with: A. Obstructive mitral valve disease B. Pulmonary oedema C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Pulmonary hypertension 41 / 50 41. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Diminished cardiac output C. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation D. Prolonged circulation time 42 / 50 42. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Systemic hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arteritis D. Takayasu's disease 43 / 50 43. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined AS and AR D. Combined AR and MR 44 / 50 44. Which of the following does not lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. PDA B. VSD C. Coarctation of aorta D. ASD 45 / 50 45. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Bicuspid aortic valve B. VSD C. Dextrocardia D. PDA 46 / 50 46. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palms B. Palate C. Nailbed D. Fundus 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Initially noticed in the morning B. Starts in the dependent part C. Pitting oedema D. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients 48 / 50 48. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Right-to-left shunt C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Fallot's tetralogy 49 / 50 49. The ESR may be ‘zero’ in: A. Vasculitis B. Old age C. SLE D. Afibrinogenaemia 50 / 50 50. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Marfan's syndrome B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Systemic hypertension D. Pregnancy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology