Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. In standing position B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. With the diaphragm of stethoscope D. Anywhere in the precordium 2 / 50 2. Propranolol can be used in all except: A. Angina Pectoris B. Systemic hypertension C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum B. Osteoarthritis C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Osteogenesis imperfecta 4 / 50 4. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L C. Increased LDH3 D. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 5 / 50 5. Which is least common in cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Right ventricular diastolic collapse in echocardiography C. Prominent x-descent in JVP D. Kussmaul's sign 6 / 50 6. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Low-pitched C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Present in late diastole 7 / 50 7. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Aortic stenosis 8 / 50 8. All of the following drugs may be used in congestive cardiac failure except: A. Propranolol B. Bucindolol C. Spironolactone D. Digoxin 9 / 50 9. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Dorsalis pedis B. Brachial C. Radial D. Femoral 10 / 50 10. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Surgical myotomy of the septum B. Amiodarone C. Propranolol D. ACE-inhibitors 11 / 50 11. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 12 / 50 12. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Right ventricular dilatation B. Collagen vascular disease C. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers D. Rheumatic heart disease 13 / 50 13. Cannon wave in the neck vein is seen in: A. Complete heart block B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Right atrial myxoma D. Constrictive pericarditis 14 / 50 14. High-volume double-peaked pulse is found in all except: A. AS with AR B. AR C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. MR 15 / 50 15. Echocardiography can detect the presence of pericardial fluid as little as: A. 50 ml B. 5 ml C. 25 ml D. 15 ml 16 / 50 16. A2 in aortic stenosis is characteristically: A. Diminished B. Normal in character C. Ringing in character D. Accentuated 17 / 50 17. X-ray appearance of calcification of patent ductus arteriosus is: A. Inverted Y-shaped B. Y-shaped C. Inverted V-shaped D. V-shaped 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Ascites B. Raised JVP C. Pulmonary oedema D. Pulsus paradoxus 19 / 50 19. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. During inspiration C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 20 / 50 20. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Having wide split B. Shows reverse split C. Remains single D. Shows narrow split 21 / 50 21. The disease with male preponderance is: A. Primary pulmonary hypertension B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. SLE 22 / 50 22. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 B. Cat-like cry C. VSD D. Mongoloid slant of eyes 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not a ‘Major manifestation’ of Jones criteria in rheumatic fever? A. Chorea B. Polyarthritis C. Erythema nodosum D. Subcutaneous nodule 24 / 50 24. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Chronic renal failure C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Gonorrhoea 25 / 50 25. The commonest cause of death in an adult with PDA is: A. Embolism B. Rupture C. Infective endocarditis D. Congestive cardiac failure 26 / 50 26. Short PR interval in ECG is characteristic of: A. Rheumatic carditis B. Digitalis toxicity C. WPW syndrome D. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD) 27 / 50 27. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Atrial fibrillation C. Left atrial myxoma D. Pulmonary hypertension 28 / 50 28. Torsade de Pointes is associated with: A. Presence of J-wave B. Increased duration of QRS complex C. Increased QT interval D. Increased PR interval 29 / 50 29. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Unfolding of aorta C. Aortitis D. Pulmonary hypertension 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not recognised to be an acute phase reactant? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Ceruloplasmin C. Orosomucoid D. Haptoglobulin 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? A. Myxoedema B. Obstructive jaundice C. Complete heart block D. Hypothermia 32 / 50 32. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised VLDL B. Reduced HDL C. Raised small dense LDL D. Raised Lipoprotein (a) 33 / 50 33. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Hypotension B. Sinus tachycardia C. Low pulse pressure D. Sinus bradycardia 34 / 50 34. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Tapping apex B. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area C. Cardiomegaly D. Water-hammer pulse 35 / 50 35. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Wenckebach block C. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block D. Mobitz type II block 36 / 50 36. Commonest congenital cyanotic heart disease with cyanosis at birth is: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Ebstein's anomaly C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Transposition of great vessels 37 / 50 37. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Pericardial effusion B. Left-sided heart failure C. Pulmonary thromboembolism D. Chronic obstructive airway disease 38 / 50 38. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Eccentric dosage schedule C. Morning-time single dosage D. Night-time single dosage 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Endothelin B. Histamine C. Nitric oxide D. Bradykinin 40 / 50 40. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. VSD C. AS D. Coarctation of aorta 41 / 50 41. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Commonly found in children C. Associated with thrill D. Best heard over mitral area 42 / 50 42. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Shock D. Arrhythmias 43 / 50 43. Reversed splitting of S2 is found in: A. RBBB B. LBBB C. Aortic regurgitation D. Left ventricular pacing 44 / 50 44. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Acute rheumatic fever 45 / 50 45. Digitalis toxicity is precipitated by all except: A. Old age B. Renal failure C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Hypokalaemia 46 / 50 46. ‘Fallot’s pentalogy’ is Fallot’s tetralogy plus: A. PDA B. Associated LVH C. AS D. ASD 47 / 50 47. The murmur of MS is: A. High-pitched B. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation C. With radiation towards left axilla D. Early diastolic 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Homocystinuria D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 49 / 50 49. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Severe pulmonary hypertension B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. Tricuspid atresia 50 / 50 50. Stethoscope was invented by: A. Korotkoff B. Babinski C. Laennec D. 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