Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. The “3-sign’ in chest roentgenogram diagnoses: A. PS B. VSD C. AS D. Coarctation of aorta 2 / 50 2. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Peripheral embolism B. Leriche's syndrome C. Buerger's disease D. Coarctation of aorta 3 / 50 3. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. Transposition of great vessels 4 / 50 4. Acute pericarditis is a recognised complication of all except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Gonorrhoea C. Acute pancreatitis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 5 / 50 5. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 40mmHg B. 60mmHg C. 80mmHg D. 30mmHg 6 / 50 6. Which of the following beta-blockers is commonly used in heart failure? A. Carvedilol B. Pindolol C. Atenolol D. Labetalol 7 / 50 7. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Opening snap B. Ejection click C. Pericardial knock D. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma 8 / 50 8. v-wave in JVP becomes prominent in: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Right atrial myxoma D. Tricuspid incompetence 9 / 50 9. Which is true in ‘maladie de Roger’? A. Moderate VSD B. Haemodynamically significant C. A small fraction closes by the year 10 D. Thrill and pansystolic murmur are very prominent 10 / 50 10. Kussmaul’s sign is not a feature of: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Haemothorax C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 11 / 50 11. Central cyanosis is not found in: A. Acute pulmonary oedema B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Transposition of great vessels D. Left-to-right shunt 12 / 50 12. Which of the following gives rise to a heaving apex beat? A. MS B. MR C. AR D. AS 13 / 50 13. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Allopurinol B. Methotrexate C. Doxorubicin D. Chloramphenicol 14 / 50 14. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Acute bacterial endocarditis B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Left atrial myxoma D. Right-to-left shunt 15 / 50 15. The main use of norepinephrine is to treat: A. Shock B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arrhythmias D. Hypertension 16 / 50 16. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Absent clavicle B. Fingerization of thumb C. VSD D. Asplenia 17 / 50 17. Which one of the following is false regarding Austin Flint murmur? A. Found in severe AR B. Mid-diastolic murmur C. Absence of thrill D. Having loud S1 18 / 50 18. Most common cardiac lesion in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Mitral incompetence D. Aortic stenosis 19 / 50 19. Exercise tolerance test is absolutely contraindicated in: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Aortic stenosis C. Unstable angina D. Buerger's disease 20 / 50 20. Pulsus bisferiens is best perceived in which artery? A. Femoral B. Brachial C. Dorsalis pedis D. Radial 21 / 50 21. Cardiac arrest may be due to: A. Wenckebach block B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Atrial flutter D. Multiple ectopics 22 / 50 22. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Low pulse pressure B. Hypotension C. Sinus tachycardia D. Sinus bradycardia 23 / 50 23. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula B. Aortopulmonary window C. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 24 / 50 24. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of: A. Cauda equina B. Femoral artery C. Inferior vena cava D. Popliteal artery 25 / 50 25. ‘Nitrate tolerance’ developing as a result of treating ischaemic heart disease by mononitrates is prevented by: A. Twice daily dosage schedule B. Morning-time single dosage C. Eccentric dosage schedule D. Night-time single dosage 26 / 50 26. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. True posterior myocardial infarction C. Left bundle branch block D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 27 / 50 27. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Aortic stenosis C. Myocarditis D. Ventricular fibrillation 28 / 50 28. All are class I antiarrhythmic drugs except: A. Disopyramide B. Flecainide C. Quinidine D. Verapamil 29 / 50 29. During cardiac imaging, which phase shows the minimum movement of the heart? A. Late diastole B. Mid-diastole C. Late systole D. Mid-systole 30 / 50 30. Janeway’s spot in SBE is found in: A. Palate B. Palms C. Nailbed D. Fundus 31 / 50 31. Slow rising pulse is a feature of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral stenosis C. Endotoxic shock D. Constrictive pericarditis 32 / 50 32. Cri-du-chat syndrome does not have: A. Mongoloid slant of eyes B. Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 C. VSD D. Cat-like cry 33 / 50 33. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Amyl nitrite inhalation B. Valsalva maneuver C. Squatting D. Standing 34 / 50 34. Which one of the following is false regarding atrial fibrillation? A. Pulse deficit is > 10 B. Ventricular rate is 100 – 150/min C. 'f ' waves in neck vein D. Atrial rate is 350-400/min 35 / 50 35. JVP is usually increased in: A. Anaphylactic shock B. Septic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Hypovolaemic shock 36 / 50 36. Commonest aetiology of tricuspid incompetence in clinical practice is: A. Endocarditis of IV drug abusers B. Rheumatic heart disease C. Right ventricular dilatation D. Collagen vascular disease 37 / 50 37. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Labetalol B. Hydralazine C. Enalapril D. Methyldopa 38 / 50 38. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Coronary osteal stenosis B. Pulmonary stenosis C. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta D. Berry aneurysm 39 / 50 39. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Atrioventricular septal defect B. Fallot's tetralogy C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ventricular septal defect 40 / 50 40. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right ventricular hypertrophy B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Right atrial hypertrophy 41 / 50 41. Left atrial failure is featured by all except: A. Fine crepitations at lung bases B. Gallop rhythm C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Dependent oedema 42 / 50 42. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Probucol B. Lovastatin C. Gemfibrozil D. Nicotinic acid 43 / 50 43. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Amiloride C. Prazosin D. Hydralazine 44 / 50 44. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Protozoa B. Virus C. Autoimmune reaction D. Bacteria 45 / 50 45. Which one is false regarding the presence of ejection click? A. Occurs immediately after S1 B. Stenosis is severe C. Presence indicates stenosis at valvular level D. Sharp and high-pitched clicking sound 46 / 50 46. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent x-descent C. Prominent y-descent D. Prominent a-wave 47 / 50 47. Muffled S1 is found in alt except: A. Digitalis overdose B. Tachycardia C. Left atrial failure D. Mitral valve calcification 48 / 50 48. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 8 inch long B. 12 inch long C. 18 inch long D. 22 inch long 49 / 50 49. The Keith-Wagener-Barker classification for retinal changes is meant for: A. Takayasu's disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Arteritis D. Systemic hypertension 50 / 50 50. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg B. MS is a recognised cause C. Found in basal region D. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology