Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 35 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not a side effect of amiodarone? A. Photosensitivity B. Tachyarrhythmias C. Alveolitis D. Hepatitis 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not found in constrictive pericarditis? A. Pulmonary oedema B. Raised JVP C. Pulsus paradoxus D. Ascites 3 / 50 3. Pedal pulse is ‘absent’ in all except: A. Coarctation of aorta B. Leriche's syndrome C. Peripheral embolism D. Buerger's disease 4 / 50 4. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. Anywhere in the precordium B. In standing position C. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex D. With the diaphragm of stethoscope 5 / 50 5. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. After holding the breath B. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope C. In lying down position D. On the left side of lower sternum 6 / 50 6. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Floppy mitral valve B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute rheumatic fever 7 / 50 7. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Toxoplasma infection B. Diphtheria C. Ascariasis D. HIV infection 8 / 50 8. Syncopal attack is associated with all of the following except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Myocarditis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Ventricular fibrillation 9 / 50 9. Elfin facies (pointed chin; cupid’s bow-like upper lip, upturned nose) may be seen in: A. Lutembacher syndrome B. Infundibular PS C. Supravalvular AS D. Ebstein's anomaly 10 / 50 10. Which is the commonest congenital cardiac lesion in Down’s syndrome? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Atrioventricular septal defect 11 / 50 11. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Autoimmune reaction D. Virus 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a recognised risk factor for early atherosclerosis? A. Homocystinuria B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 13 / 50 13. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Myocarditis C. Post-AMI D. Post-electrical cardioversion 14 / 50 14. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. IV fluid B. Calcium gluconate C. Restriction of fluid D. Diuretics 15 / 50 15. The disease with male preponderance is: A. SLE B. PDA C. Coarctation of aorta D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 16 / 50 16. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Asplenia B. VSD C. Fingerization of thumb D. Absent clavicle 17 / 50 17. Increased level of which of the following is not a risk factor for lHD? A. PAI-I B. Homocysteine C. Lipoprotein D. Transferrin 18 / 50 18. Cardiac anomalies associated with tetralogy of Fallot are all except: A. PDA B. Aortic regurgitation C. Right-sided aortic arch D. Persistent right-sided SVC 19 / 50 19. The commonest organism producing acute bacterial endocarditis is: A. Pneumococcus B. Streptoroccus viridans C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus faecalis 20 / 50 20. Still’s murmur is: A. Early diastolic murmur of pulmonary regurgitation B. Systolic innocent murmur C. Harsh systolic murmur in thyrotoxicosis D. Systolic murmur in complete heart block 21 / 50 21. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Mid-systole B. Systole C. Mid-diastole D. Diastole 22 / 50 22. In critical MS, the mitral valve orifice is: A. < 1 cm2 B. < 4 cm2 C. < 3 cm2 D. < 2 cm2 23 / 50 23. Water-hammer pulse is present when pulse pressure is at least above? A. 40mmHg B. 80mmHg C. 60mmHg D. 30mmHg 24 / 50 24. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Aortic insufficiency C. Mitral regurgitation D. Mitral stenosis 25 / 50 25. Which one is false regarding the floppy mitral valve? A. Early systolic click B. More common in females C. High-pitched late systolic murmur D. Most of the patients are asymptomatic 26 / 50 26. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hyperkalaemia B. WPW syndrome C. Sick sinus syndrome D. Hypothermia 27 / 50 27. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Hypokalaemia B. Atrial flutter C. PSVT D. Atrial fibrillation 28 / 50 28. Ventricular fibrillation is best treated by: A. IV amiodarone B. IV Lignocaine C. Electrical cardioversion D. Carotid massage 29 / 50 29. All are helpful in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except: A. Amiodarone B. Surgical myotomy of the septum C. ACE-inhibitors D. Propranolol 30 / 50 30. The least common complication of MS is: A. Cerebral thrombosis B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 31 / 50 31. Roth spot is found in alt except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Acute leukaemia D. Takayasu's disease 32 / 50 32. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. ASD plus MR B. ASD plus MS C. VSD plus MS D. ASD plus AR 33 / 50 33. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Hypokalaemia 34 / 50 34. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Magnesium D. Potassium 35 / 50 35. Classical JVP finding in cardiac tamponade is: A. Small v-wave B. Prominent y-descent C. Prominent x-descent D. Prominent a-wave 36 / 50 36. Which is not a predisposing factor for dissecting aneurysm of aorta? A. Pregnancy B. Syphilitic aortitis C. Marfan's syndrome D. Systemic hypertension 37 / 50 37. All of the following produce systemic hypertension except: A. Polycystic kidney disease B. Addison's disease C. Conn's syndrome D. Phaeochromocytoma 38 / 50 38. Hyperthyroid heart disease is manifested by: A. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation B. Prolonged circulation time C. Pericardial effusion D. Diminished cardiac output 39 / 50 39. Major cardiovascular manifestation in cri-du-chat syndrome is: A. Dextrocardia B. VSD C. PDA D. Bicuspid aortic valve 40 / 50 40. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Amiloride B. Prazosin C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 41 / 50 41. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. During inspiration B. WPW syndrome C. Hyperkalaemia D. Ostium primum ASD 42 / 50 42. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Ashen-grey pallor B. Raised JVP C. Peripheral cyanosis D. S3 gallop rhythm 43 / 50 43. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis B. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Aortopulmonary window 44 / 50 44. Treatment by heparin is best monitored by: A. Factor-X assay B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Prothrombin time (PT) D. Clotting time (CT) 45 / 50 45. Retrostemal chest pain classically occurs in all except: A. Acute mediastinitis B. Unstable angina C. Dissecting aneurysm D. Bornholm disease 46 / 50 46. Differential diagnoses of ASD at the bedside are all except: A. Idiopathic pulmonary artery dilatation B. Pulmonary stenosis C. PDA D. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) 47 / 50 47. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Left ventricular hypertrophy B. Left bundle branch block C. Hypokalaemia D. True posterior myocardial infarction 48 / 50 48. S3 may be present in all except: A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy B. Pregnancy C. Hyperkinetic circulatory states D. Athletes 49 / 50 49. All are commonly associated with ASD except: A. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Down's syndrome D. Holt-Oram syndrome 50 / 50 50. Murmur of floppy mitral valve increases with all except: A. Standing B. Squatting C. Amyl nitrite inhalation D. Valsalva maneuver LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology