Cardiology Home Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Wenckebach heart block B. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Sinus arrhythmia 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is present in most of the patients of SBE? A. Cubbing B. Osler's node C. Splenomegaly D. Murmur 3 / 50 3. The commonest congenital heart disease is: A. VSD B. Bicuspid aortic valve C. ASD D. Fallot's tetralogy 4 / 50 4. Pulsus alternans is produced by: A. Chronic obstructive airway disease B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Pericardial effusion D. Left-sided heart failure 5 / 50 5. A very close differential diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis at the bedside is: A. Left ventricular failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Superior mediastinal syndrome 6 / 50 6. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Coffee B. Bush tea C. Aflatoxin D. Tapioca 7 / 50 7. The drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy-induced hypertension is: A. Hydralazine B. Labetalol C. Methyldopa D. Enalapril 8 / 50 8. Cardiomyopathy may follow treatment with: A. Methotrexate B. Doxorubicin C. Allopurinol D. Chloramphenicol 9 / 50 9. U-wave in EGG is characteristically found in: A. Hyponatraemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypocalcaemia D. Hypokalaemia 10 / 50 10. ‘Ausatltatory gap’ in BP measurement is: A. Present in all hypertensives B. Should be ignored C. As a result of venous distension D. Related to diastolic BP 11 / 50 11. The S2 in Fallot’s tetralogy: A. Remains single B. Shows narrow split C. Shows reverse split D. Having wide split 12 / 50 12. CPK-MB is increased in all except: A. Post-AMI B. Myocarditis C. Post-electrical cardioversion D. Rhabdomyolysis 13 / 50 13. S4 is not associated with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Aortic stenosis C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Chronic mitral regurgitation 14 / 50 14. Pulsus bisferiens is found in: A. Combined MS and AS B. Combined MS and MR C. Combined AR and MR D. Combined AS and AR 15 / 50 15. The commonest cause of displacement of apex beat is: A. Thoracic deformity B. Cardiomyopathy C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy 16 / 50 16. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. During inspiration C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 17 / 50 17. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. VSD B. ASD C. PDA D. MR 18 / 50 18. Which of the following drugs raises HDL cholesterol? A. Lovastatin B. Nicotinic acid C. Gemfibrozil D. Probucol 19 / 50 19. Ideally, the connecting tube of the stethoscope should be: A. 22 inch long B. 18 inch long C. 8 inch long D. 12 inch long 20 / 50 20. Which is false regarding dyspnoea? A. Dyspnoea of COPD tends to develop more gradually than that of heart disease B. Kyphoscoliosis commonly causes repeated discrete episodes of dyspnoea C. Orthopnoea is a feature of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is characteristic of both cardiac and pulmonary diseases 21 / 50 21. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Increased JVP B. Hypotension C. Pulmonary congestion D. Kussmaul's sign 22 / 50 22. Kussmaul’s sign is present in: A. Pregnancy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Myocarditis D. Right ventricular infarction 23 / 50 23. Which chamber of heart fails first in MS? A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle 24 / 50 24. Congestive cardiac failure may be seen in all except: A. MS B. PDA C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Coarctation of aorta 25 / 50 25. Electrical alternans in ECG is seen in: A. Left ventricular failure B. Wenckebach block C. Digitalis toxicity D. Pericardial effusion 26 / 50 26. Giant a-wave in neck vein is seen in: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Atrial fibrillation D. Pulmonary hypertension 27 / 50 27. Increased PR interval is observed in: A. Low atrial rhythm B. First degree heart block C. WPW syndrome D. AV nodal rhythm 28 / 50 28. ‘Hilar dance’ is characteristic of: A. PDA B. ASD C. Transposition of great vessels D. VSD 29 / 50 29. In right ventricular myocardial infarction, which of the following additional therapies is needed? A. Diuretics B. IV fluid C. Restriction of fluid D. Calcium gluconate 30 / 50 30. Malar flush is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Mitral stenosis C. Myxoedema D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 31 / 50 31. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. PDA B. Ostium primum ASD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. VSD 32 / 50 32. Varying intensity of S1 is found in all except: A. Nodal rhythm B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Complete heart block 33 / 50 33. Digitalis toxicity is associated with all except: A. Ventricular bigeminy B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block C. Mobitz type II block D. Wenckebach block 34 / 50 34. All are bedside differential diagnoses of MS except: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Mitral valve prolapse syndrome C. Carey Coombs murmur D. Austin Flint murmur 35 / 50 35. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Fallot's tetralogy B. Left atrial myxoma C. Acute bacterial endocarditis D. Right-to-left shunt 36 / 50 36. The normal blood volume in an adult male is approximately: A. 70 ml/kg of body weight B. 60 ml/kg of body weight C. 85 ml/kg of body weight D. 50 ml/kg of body weight 37 / 50 37. Tall R-wave in lead V1 of the ECG is characteristic of which of the following: A. Hypokalaemia B. Left ventricular hypertrophy C. True posterior myocardial infarction D. Left bundle branch block 38 / 50 38. Delta wave in ECG is found in: A. Hypothermia B. Hyperkalaemia C. WPW syndrome D. Sick sinus syndrome 39 / 50 39. Syphilis may give rise to: A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Berry aneurysm C. Coronary osteal stenosis D. Aneurysm of abdominal aorta 40 / 50 40. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is usually found in: A. Ischemic heart disease B. Coarctation of aorta C. Cardiomyopathy D. Severe anemia 41 / 50 41. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with CCF B. Acutely developing AR C. AR with tight PS D. AR with systemic hypertension 42 / 50 42. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. Raised JVP B. S3 gallop rhythm C. Ashen-grey pallor D. Peripheral cyanosis 43 / 50 43. Acute subendocardial infarction will have ECG findings: A. Height of R wave maximum in V6 B. Deep Q wave C. Deep symmetrical T wave inversion D. Prominent ST elevation 44 / 50 44. In a patient with MS in sinus rhythm, the severity of valvular lesion is indicated by: A. Harshness of mid-diastolic murmur B. Graham Steel murmur C. Late and loud opening snap D. Presence of S3 45 / 50 45. Regarding Kerley’s B lines, all of the following are true except: A. MS is a recognised cause B. May be seen in the pre-oedema stage C. Found in basal region D. Its presence indicates left atrial pressure >10 mm Hg 46 / 50 46. Diagnosis of AMI within 6 hrs depends on: A. Inverted T wave in ECG B. Rise of SGPT > 250 IU /L C. CPK MB2/CPK MB1 > 1.5 D. Increased LDH3 47 / 50 47. All are true in severe PS except: A. Gap between A2 and P2 is increased B. The ejection click goes away from S1 C. Intensity of murmur is maximum towards S2 D. A2 is gradually rounded by the murmur 48 / 50 48. The murmur of MS is: A. With radiation towards left axilla B. Early diastolic C. High-pitched D. Increased by amyl nitrite inhalation 49 / 50 49. All are cardiovascular features of severe anaemia except: A. Water-hammer pulse B. Cardiomegaly C. Tapping apex D. Systolic murmur over the pulmonary area 50 / 50 50. Accelerated hypertension should not have: A. Arteriovenous nipping B. Retinal haemorrhage C. Papilloedema D. 'Silver-wire' arteries LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology