CardiologyHome Cardiology 0% 17 votes, 0 avg 37 Cardiology Test your Cardiology knowledge with these Questions. We have more than 100 questions. In case you are interested, Contact us and we will send you a link to all questions. 1 / 50 1. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not associated with: A. AS B. MR C. AR D. MS 2 / 50 2. Which is not included in ‘lipid tetrad’ in risk factors for coronary heart disease? A. Raised small dense LDL B. Raised VLDL C. Raised Lipoprotein (a) D. Reduced HDL 3 / 50 3. All are features associated with an acute attack of PND except: A. S3 gallop rhythm B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Ashen-grey pallor D. Raised JVP 4 / 50 4. The sound best audible by the bell of a stethoscope is: A. S2 B. Opening snap C. Venous hum D. Ejection click 5 / 50 5. P-wave in ECG is absent in: A. Atrial flutter B. PSVT C. Atrial fibrillation D. Hypokalaemia 6 / 50 6. Hypocalcaemia arrests the heart in: A. Diastole B. Systole C. Mid-diastole D. Mid-systole 7 / 50 7. Myocarditis may be found in all except: A. Toxoplasma infection B. Ascariasis C. HIV infection D. Diphtheria 8 / 50 8. Dressler’s syndrome results from: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Autoimmune reaction D. Protozoa 9 / 50 9. AR with low pulse pressure is found in all except: A. AR with systemic hypertension B. AR with tight PS C. Acutely developing AR D. AR with CCF 10 / 50 10. Right axis deviation in ECG is found in: A. Ostium primum ASD B. During inspiration C. WPW syndrome D. Hyperkalaemia 11 / 50 11. Which is not a feature of atrial myxoma? A. Embolic phenomenon B. Pyrexia C. Clubbing D. Hypertension 12 / 50 12. Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by: A. Fingerization of thumb B. VSD C. Asplenia D. Absent clavicle 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not an aetiology of MR? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Osteoarthritis C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 14 / 50 14. Pericardial rub is best audible in all except: A. By pressing the chest piece of the stethoscope B. In lying down position C. On the left side of lower sternum D. After holding the breath 15 / 50 15. Earliest valvular lesion in acute rheumatic carditis is: A. MS B. AS C. MR D. AR 16 / 50 16. All of the following may produce hemiplegia by cerebral embolism except: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Right atrial myxoma D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not advocated in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema? A. Trendelenburg position B. Morphine C. Diuretics D. Rotating tourniquets 18 / 50 18. Lutembacher’s syndrome is: A. VSD plus MS B. ASD plus MR C. ASD plus AR D. ASD plus MS 19 / 50 19. Mental retardation, squint, and idiopathic hypercalcaemia may be associated with stenosis of: A. Pulmonary valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Aortic valve D. Mitral valve 20 / 50 20. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 21 / 50 21. Boot-shaped heart with oligaemic lung fields is found in: A. Transposition of great vessels B. Coarctation of aorta C. Tetralogy of Fallot D. ASD 22 / 50 22. All are features of pericardial tamponade except: A. Raised JVP B. Pulsatile liver C. Orthopnoea D. Hypotension 23 / 50 23. Opening snap is: A. Best heard in standing position B. Present in late diastole C. Best heard with the bell of stethoscope D. Low-pitched 24 / 50 24. Which of the following drugs is not used in hypoxic spells of Fallot’s tetralogy? A. Phenylephrin B. Propranolol C. Amiodarone D. Morphine 25 / 50 25. Which of the following heart sounds occurs shortly after S1? A. Ejection click B. Opening snap C. Tumour plop in atrial myxoma D. Pericardial knock 26 / 50 26. Which one of the following is a centrally-acting antihypertensive drug? A. Methyldopa B. Amiloride C. Hydralazine D. Prazosin 27 / 50 27. Endomyocardial fibrosis may be due to: A. Tapioca B. Bush tea C. Aflatoxin D. Coffee 28 / 50 28. Incidence of infective endocarditis is least in: A. PDA B. VSD C. ASD D. MR 29 / 50 29. All of the following are characteristics of right ventricular infarction except: A. Hypotension B. Pulmonary congestion C. Kussmaul's sign D. Increased JVP 30 / 50 30. Clubbing is not a feature of: A. Right-to-left shunt B. Left atrial myxoma C. Fallot's tetralogy D. Acute bacterial endocarditis 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is false regarding oedema in congestive cardiac failure? A. Sacral oedema in non-ambulatory patients B. Starts in the dependent part C. Pitting oedema D. Initially noticed in the morning 32 / 50 32. All of the following may have unidigital clubbing except: A. Cervical rib B. Sarcoidosis C. Tophaceous gout D. Trauma 33 / 50 33. Loud A2 is present in: A. Calcified aortic valve B. Aortitis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Unfolding of aorta 34 / 50 34. Coronary atherosclerosis is not linked to: A. Cytomegalovirus B. H. pylori C. Chlamydia D. HIV 35 / 50 35. Arterio-venous fistula is associated with: A. Sinus bradycardia B. Low pulse pressure C. Sinus tachycardia D. Hypotension 36 / 50 36. Graham Steel murmur is found in: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Severe pulmonary hypertension C. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 37 / 50 37. Hill’s sign is diagnostic of: A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Aortic insufficiency D. Mitral stenosis 38 / 50 38. The action of digitalis is augmented by: A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Magnesium 39 / 50 39. S3 or S4 is best auscultated: A. With the diaphragm of stethoscope B. Stethoscope placed lightly over the apex C. In standing position D. Anywhere in the precordium 40 / 50 40. JVP is usually increased in: A. Cardiogenic shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Hypovolaemic shock D. Septic shock 41 / 50 41. Seagull murmur is not a feature of: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Floppy mitral valve C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Acute rheumatic fever 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not a natural vasodilator? A. Nitric oxide B. Endothelin C. Histamine D. Bradykinin 43 / 50 43. The ECG finding in hypercalcaemia is: A. Shortened PR interval B. Tall T-waves C. Diminished QT interval D. Increased PR interval 44 / 50 44. All of the following are common arrhythmias developing from AMI except: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Wenckebach heart block D. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm 45 / 50 45. Clinically, commonest type of shock is: A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Hypovolaemic 46 / 50 46. Still’s murmur is: A. Usually diastolic in timing B. Associated with thrill C. Commonly found in children D. Best heard over mitral area 47 / 50 47. Acute myocardial infarction of posterior wall of left ventricle will show in the ECG: A. ST elevation in II, III, aVF B. ST depression and tall R wave in V 1-4 C. Deep Q waves in V 1-6 D. ST elevation in I, aVL, V6 48 / 50 48. Which of the following does not produce a continuous murmur over the chest? A. Aortopulmonary window B. Ventricular septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva 49 / 50 49. Left parasternal heave is diagnostic of: A. Right atrial hypertrophy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Left ventricular hypertrophy D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 50 / 50 50. RBBB with left axis deviation in ECG is characteristically seen in: A. VSD B. Ostium primum ASD C. Fallot's tetralogy D. PDA LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Nephrology Next Post Pulmonology
