Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Paralytic ileus B. Ascitic pH < blood pH C. Worsening ascites D. Worsening jaundice 2 / 50 2. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome C. Gilbert's syndrome D. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia 3 / 50 3. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Shigella B. Campylobacter C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile 4 / 50 4. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Fulminant hepatocellular failure B. Acute lung injury C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Renal failure 5 / 50 5. In HBV infection, which serological maker is present in the ‘window period’ as evidence of recent HBV infection: A. IgM anti-HBc B. HBeAg C. HBV DNA D. IgG anti-HBc 6 / 50 6. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Dark-field examination B. Urine analysis C. Agglutination test D. Stool culture 7 / 50 7. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Staphylococci C. E. coli D. Anaerobes 8 / 50 8. Saint’s triad is the presence of gallstones, hiatal hernia and? A. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease B. Pancreatitis C. Haemorrhoids D. Diverticulosis 9 / 50 9. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Segmentation and clumping B. Dilatation C. Loss of mucosal pattern D. Coarsening of mucosal folds 10 / 50 10. Tropical sprue may be associated with all except: A. Malabsorption B. Treatment is done satisfactorily by intestinal resection C. Patchy lesion D. Partial villous atrophy is more common than subtotal villous atrophy 11 / 50 11. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Amyloidosis B. Hydroureter C. Chronic cholecystitis D. Clubbing 12 / 50 12. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Carcinoma of the tongue C. Achalasia cardia D. Wilson's disease 13 / 50 13. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Stomach biopsy B. Lymph node biopsy C. Rectal biopsy D. Liver biopsy 14 / 50 14. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life B. Within the first 24 hours of birth C. During the first 10 days of life D. At birth 15 / 50 15. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Protein B. Fat C. Iron D. Carbohydrate 16 / 50 16. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Hepatic vein thrombosis B. Fatty infiltration C. Hepatitis-like picture D. Laennec's cirrhosis 17 / 50 17. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Arthralgia C. Jaundice D. Haematemesis 18 / 50 18. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Hepatic iron index >1.5 B. TIBC < 200 μg/dl C. Liver biopsy D. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl 19 / 50 19. Carcinoma of the large intestine is mostly found in: A. Sigmoid colon B. Caecum C. Ascending colon D. Transverse colon 20 / 50 20. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 70ml B. 200ml C. 120ml D. 270ml 21 / 50 21. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. Just before meals B. One hour after meals and at bedtime C. Immediately after meals D. With the meals 22 / 50 22. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test B. Quantitative faecal fat estimation C. Serum lipase D. Serum amylase 23 / 50 23. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Alcohol abuse C. Protein-energy malnutrition D. Pancreatic carcinoma 24 / 50 24. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis B B. Hepatitis E C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D 25 / 50 25. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Meninges with encephalon B. Heart C. Vulva D. Skin 26 / 50 26. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Hypothermia B. Amenorrhoea C. Carotenaemia D. Loss of axillary and pubic hair 27 / 50 27. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 30% 28 / 50 28. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Endocrine pancreatic function B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Exocrine pancreatic function D. Pancreatic ductal obstruction 29 / 50 29. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Pyloric stenosis B. Chronic anxiety states C. Hypochondriac personality D. Rapid eating habit 30 / 50 30. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Coeliac disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Crohn's disease D. Intestinal lymphoma 31 / 50 31. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Fever B. Bloody diarrhoea C. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings D. Sinus tachycardia 32 / 50 32. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant B. Solitary primary tumours are very common C. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas D. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas 33 / 50 33. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Jejuno-colic fistula B. Perianal fistula C. Rectovesical fistula D. Vesicovaginal fistula 34 / 50 34. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked recessive B. Autosomal recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Sex-linked dominant 35 / 50 35. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Chronic achalasia cardia B. Hypervitaminosis A C. Lye ingestion D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome 36 / 50 36. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Antrum B. Cardia C. Lesser curvature D. Body 37 / 50 37. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Systemic mastocytosis B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Whipple's disease D. Coeliac sprue 38 / 50 38. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Dermatitis herpetiformi B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Coeliac disease D. Sickle cell disease 39 / 50 39. Carbenoxolone sodium may be associated with all of the following features except: A. Complicated by oedema B. Development of systemic hypertension C. Development of potassium depletion D. May be associated with milk-alkali syndrome 40 / 50 40. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Amyloidosis B. Parkinsonism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 41 / 50 41. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both B. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces C. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities D. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough 42 / 50 42. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Stomach 43 / 50 43. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin B. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it C. Left colon is commonly affected D. Haemotochezia is common 44 / 50 44. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypergastrinaemia B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hyperamylasaemia 45 / 50 45. The commonest hepatic lesion in haemochromatosis is: A. Fatty liver B. Macronodular cirrhosis C. Micronodular cirrhosis D. Haemosiderosis 46 / 50 46. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool B. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour C. Periodicity is common D. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint 47 / 50 47. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Steatorrhoea B. Recurrent ulceration C. Hypoglycaemia D. Palpitation 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Bacillus cereus B. Streptococcus (Group A) C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium botulinum 49 / 50 49. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Rectal pain B. Haematochezia C. Constipation D. Pain abdomen 50 / 50 50. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. A consequence of achalasia cardia B. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold C. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients D. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology