Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Contraction of the rectum B. Distention of the rectum C. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter D. Distention of the sigmoid colon 2 / 50 2. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Protein meal B. Beta-adrenergic agonist C. Metoclopramide D. Gastrin 3 / 50 3. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Psoriasis B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Atopic eczema D. Pemphigus 4 / 50 4. The most reliable method of measuring steatorrhoea is: A. Fecal fat estimation B. Small intestinal mucosal biopsy C. Schilling test D. D-xylose absorption test 5 / 50 5. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Non-ulcer dyspepsia B. Antral gastritis C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Gastric lymphoma 6 / 50 6. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Liver biopsy B. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl C. TIBC < 200 μg/dl D. Hepatic iron index >1.5 7 / 50 7. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Pregnancy C. Polycythaemia vera D. Cushing's syndrome 8 / 50 8. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. A bad prognosis B. Means nothing to clinical course C. A fluctuating clinical course D. The disease process is improving 9 / 50 9. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features except: A. Jaundice B. Amenorrhoea C. Arthralgia D. Haematemesis 10 / 50 10. Gardner’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Osteomas B. Fibromas C. Epidermoid cyst D. Astrocytoma 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not a recognized complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Sacroiliitis B. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Bronchiectasis 12 / 50 12. Which of the following clotting factors is not produced in the liver? A. V B. IV C. II D. VII 13 / 50 13. Necrolytic migratory erythema is a feature of: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Hepatoblastoma C. Insulinoma D. Glucagonoma 14 / 50 14. The valvular heart disease common in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic incompetence C. Pulmonary incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 15 / 50 15. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia B. AIDS C. Multiple myeloma D. Severe combined immunodeficiency 16 / 50 16. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except: A. Menetrier's disease B. Chronic H. pylori infection C. Sarcoidosis D. Gastric malignancy 17 / 50 17. The smallest absorbing unit of the small intestinal mucosa is: A. Villus B. Crypts C. Microvillus D. Columnar cells 18 / 50 18. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 70-80% B. 30-40% C. 50-60% D. 90-100% 19 / 50 19. Octreotide can be used in all except: A. Short bowel syndrome B. Oesophageal variceal bleeding C. Ulcerative colitis D. Pancreatic ascites 20 / 50 20. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Diglycerides B. Fatty acids C. Triglycerides D. Monoglycerides 21 / 50 21. The maximum absorption of fluid in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in: A. Jejunum B. Stomach C. Colon D. Ileum 22 / 50 22. Malignant potential is least in: A. Villous adenoma of colon B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome C. Familial colonic polyposis D. Ulcerative colitis 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. High risk of developing hepatoma B. ANA is positive in majority C. Associated with other autoimmune diseases D. Cushingoid face 24 / 50 24. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Cystinuria B. Phenylketonuria C. Alkaptonuria D. Homocystinuria 25 / 50 25. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation C. Protein electrophoresis D. USG of liver 26 / 50 26. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Retching B. Heartburn C. Singultus D. Water brash 27 / 50 27. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Odynophagia may be a symptom B. Commonest site of affection is lower third C. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease D. Dysphagia starts with solid foods 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Streptococcus (Group A) C. Clostridium botulinum D. Bacillus cereus 29 / 50 29. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz B. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon C. Passage of bright red blood per rectum D. The blood may not be mixed with stool 30 / 50 30. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hyperamylasaemia B. Hypergastrinaemia C. Hyperlipidaemia D. Hypercalcaemia 31 / 50 31. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 270ml B. 200ml C. 120ml D. 70ml 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Tinidazole B. Clarithromycin C. Cefixime D. Pantoprazole 33 / 50 33. Gluten-induced enteropathy is strongly associated with: A. HLA-DR4 B. HLA-B8 C. HLA-DR3 D. HLA-DQ1 34 / 50 34. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it B. Haemotochezia is common C. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin D. Left colon is commonly affected 35 / 50 35. All are characteristic features of Wilson’s disease except: A. Sensory loss B. Chorea C. Grimacing D. Slurred speech 36 / 50 36. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Fibrosis of the lung B. Pneumonia C. Lung abscess D. Emphysema 37 / 50 37. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Tetracycline B. Metoclopramide C. Domperidone D. Cisapride 38 / 50 38. Regarding ischaemic colitis, which one is true? A. Almost always an occlusive disease of mesenteric vessels B. Angiography is not helpful C. Affects young population D. Rectal bleeding is a rare complication 39 / 50 39. Serum alkaline phosphatase level may be increased in all except: A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Paget's disease C. Metastasis in liver D. Cholestasis 40 / 50 40. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Ileum B. Jejunum C. Duodenum D. Stomach 41 / 50 41. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Schistosomiasis B. Leishmaniasis C. Trichinosis D. Trypanosomiasis 42 / 50 42. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Lansoprazole therapy B. Atrophic fundal gastritis C. Duodenal ulcer D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 43 / 50 43. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Meninges with encephalon B. Heart C. Skin D. Vulva 44 / 50 44. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Streptomycin B. Ampicillin C. Chloramphenicol D. Clindamycin 45 / 50 45. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients B. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold C. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus D. A consequence of achalasia cardia 46 / 50 46. Chronic gastritis may be characterised by all except: A. Gastric polyp B. Anorexia C. Incessant vomiting D. Haematemesis 47 / 50 47. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Constipation B. Descending paralysis C. Diplopia D. Increased salivation 48 / 50 48. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy B. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty C. Three-quarter gastric resection D. Gastroenterostomy 49 / 50 49. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Small intestinal biopsy B. Type of anaemia C. D-xylose absorption test D. Response to treatment 50 / 50 50. Absolute contraindication for liver biopsy is: A. Cholestasis B. Haemangioma of liver C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Amoebic liver abscess LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology