Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Coarsening of mucosal folds B. Loss of mucosal pattern C. Dilatation D. Segmentation and clumping 2 / 50 2. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. At least 60 ml of blood is required B. Black tarry semisolid stool C. Offensive in odour D. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut 3 / 50 3. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. HBV DNA B. Anti-HBs C. IgM anti-HBc D. HBsAg 4 / 50 4. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 30-40% B. 90-100% C. 70-80% D. 50-60% 5 / 50 5. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Radiation C. Coeliac disease D. Hypogammaglobulinaemia 6 / 50 6. Incidence of gastric carcinoid is increased in all except: A. Mesenteric fibrosis B. Achlorhydria C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis D. Pernicious anaemia 7 / 50 7. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. At daytime B. In males C. On the palms and soles D. After a cold bath 8 / 50 8. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Aphthous stomatitis B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Erythema marginatum D. Gallstone formation 9 / 50 9. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Omeprazole B. Misoprostol C. Carbenoxolone D. Sucralfate 10 / 50 10. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Phenylketonuria B. Homocystinuria C. Cystinuria D. Alkaptonuria 11 / 50 11. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Volvulus B. Adhesions C. Neoplasm D. Hernia 12 / 50 12. Upper GI bleeding, angioid streaks in retina and yellowish skin papules indicate: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome C. Render-Weber-Osler disease D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Pseudopancreatic cyst C. Burns D. Renal insufficiency 14 / 50 14. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 500-600 g B. 100-200 g C. 300-400 g D. 700-800 g 15 / 50 15. Jejunal diverticula may be associated with: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion C. Hypochlorhydria D. Cirrhosis of liver 16 / 50 16. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Right side of colon is less affected than the left B. Massive rectal bleeding is very common C. Males are affected more than females D. Perforation is a serious complication 17 / 50 17. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Hepatic neoplasm B. Pyogenic liver abscess C. Hemangioma of liver D. Acute viral hepatitis 18 / 50 18. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Lymphocytosis B. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin C. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema D. Malabsorption 19 / 50 19. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Recurrent ulceration B. Hypoglycaemia C. Steatorrhoea D. Palpitation 20 / 50 20. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Budd-chiari syndrome B. Hepatic granulomas C. Benign adenomas in liver D. Peliosis hepatis 21 / 50 21. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Ludwig's angina B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Diphtheria D. Streptococcal infection 22 / 50 22. Malignant potential is least in: A. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome B. Ulcerative colitis C. Familial colonic polyposis D. Villous adenoma of colon 23 / 50 23. All are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Fe++ B. Vitamin B12 C. Ca++ D. Folate 24 / 50 24. Menetrier’s disease may have all of the following except: A. Gastritis B. Hypochlorhydria C. Hypoproteinaemia D. Large tortuous gastric mucosal folds 25 / 50 25. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. Vitamin B-complex B. None of the above C. Iron D. Folic acid 26 / 50 26. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Tuberculous peritonitis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Cirrhosis of liver 27 / 50 27. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Intestinal lymphangiectasia B. Coeliac disease C. Eosinophilic enteritis D. Ulcerative colitis 28 / 50 28. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum amylase B. Quantitative faecal fat estimation C. Serum lipase D. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test 29 / 50 29. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Phosphorus poisoning B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Eclampsia D. Yellow fever 30 / 50 30. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Thalassemia B. Malaria C. Hydatid cyst D. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome 31 / 50 31. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Prothrombin time B. SGPT C. Serum bilirubin D. Alkaline phosphatase 32 / 50 32. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 30% 33 / 50 33. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Duodenum B. Distal small intestine C. Stomach D. Proximal small intestine 34 / 50 34. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Achalasia cardia B. Carcinoma of the tongue C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Wilson's disease 35 / 50 35. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Gastrin B. Metoclopramide C. Beta-adrenergic agonist D. Protein meal 36 / 50 36. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome C. Gilbert's syndrome D. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia 37 / 50 37. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease B. Antibodies to parietal cells C. Gastric atrophy D. Intestinal metaplasia 38 / 50 38. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Shigella B. Rota virus C. Campylobacter D. Yersinia 39 / 50 39. All of the following are true regarding acute mesenteric vascular occlusion except: A. Young women are the main victims B. Abdominal distension with normal peristaltic sound, even with severe infarction C. Barium study of the small intestine reveals 'thumbprinting' D. Severe periumbilical pain at the onset 40 / 50 40. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Anthraquinone laxative abuse B. Hypereosinophilic enteritis C. Melanoma affecting colon D. Crohn's disease 41 / 50 41. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hyperamylasaemia B. Hypercalcaemia C. Hypergastrinaemia D. Hyperlipidaemia 42 / 50 42. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. IX B. VII C. VIII D. II 43 / 50 43. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 100-250 ml B. More than 1 litre C. 500-1000 ml D. 250-500 ml 44 / 50 44. Carbenoxolone sodium may be associated with all of the following features except: A. Development of systemic hypertension B. May be associated with milk-alkali syndrome C. Complicated by oedema D. Development of potassium depletion 45 / 50 45. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Adrenal insufficiency C. Diabetes mellitus D. Carcinoid syndrome 46 / 50 46. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. 2nd part of the duodenum B. Fundus of the stomach C. Antral mucosa D. Jejunum 47 / 50 47. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Emphysema B. Fibrosis of the lung C. Pneumonia D. Lung abscess 48 / 50 48. Commonest cause of hepatoma is: A. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency B. Haemochromatosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alcohol 49 / 50 49. Carcinoid syndrome: A. More common in women B. Increases BP C. Is multiple in 1/5th cases D. Produces jaundice 50 / 50 50. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Somatostatin B. Nitroglycerines C. Terlipressin D. Propranolol LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology