Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. VIII B. IX C. VII D. II 2 / 50 2. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Leishmaniasis B. Trypanosomiasis C. Schistosomiasis D. Trichinosis 3 / 50 3. Hepatic amoebiasis is associated with all except: A. May lead to the development of an amoebic liver abscess B. Abscess commonly affects the right lobe C. Jaundice is present in majority D. Right lower intercostal tenderness 4 / 50 4. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test B. Quantitative determination of faecal fat C. D-xylose absorption test D. Small intestinal X-rays 5 / 50 5. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgM 6 / 50 6. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Episcleritis B. Uveitis C. Cataract D. Scleromalacia perforans 7 / 50 7. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis D B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis B 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Weil's disease D. Toxic hepatitis 9 / 50 9. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Atopic eczema B. Psoriasis C. Pemphigus D. Dermatitis herpetiformis 10 / 50 10. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all except: A. Cystic fibrosis B. Giardiasis C. Crohn's s disease D. Amoebiasis 11 / 50 11. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter B. Clostridium difficile C. Shigella D. Clostridium perfringens 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Pseudopancreatic cyst B. Burns C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Renal insufficiency 13 / 50 13. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Systemic mastocytosis B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Coeliac sprue D. Whipple's disease 14 / 50 14. Whipple’s triad is found in: A. Glucagonoma B. Insulinoma C. Somatostatinoma D. Carcinoid syndrome 15 / 50 15. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon B. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz C. Passage of bright red blood per rectum D. The blood may not be mixed with stool 16 / 50 16. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Steatosis B. Chronic hepatitis C. Cholestasis D. Acute hepatic failure 17 / 50 17. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Stomach B. Sigmoid colon C. Caecum D. Small intestine 18 / 50 18. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 270ml B. 120ml C. 70ml D. 200ml 19 / 50 19. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Retching B. Water brash C. Singultus D. Heartburn 20 / 50 20. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Babinski's sign B. Presence of ankle clonus C. Flaccid muscles D. Night-time somnolence 21 / 50 21. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Hereditary oxalosis B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis C. Haemangioma of liver D. Tyrosinaemia 22 / 50 22. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Amyloidosis B. Clubbing C. Chronic cholecystitis D. Hydroureter 23 / 50 23. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea B. Vitamin B12 malabsorption C. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers D. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio 24 / 50 24. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Peliosis hepatis B. Budd-chiari syndrome C. Hepatic granulomas D. Benign adenomas in liver 25 / 50 25. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. MRI scan of liver B. CT scan of liver C. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography D. Pulmonary angiography 26 / 50 26. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. More than 60% B. 20-30% C. 50-60% D. 40-50% 27 / 50 27. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Gram-negative bacillus B. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach C. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient D. Multiflagellated 28 / 50 28. Serum alkaline phosphatase level may be increased in all except: A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Paget's disease C. Metastasis in liver D. Cholestasis 29 / 50 29. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Unknown B. Campylobacter C. Shigella D. Yersinia 30 / 50 30. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Gastrocolic fistula B. Atrophic rhinitis C. Hepatic failure D. Amoebic liver abscess 31 / 50 31. Which one of the following is not a space-occupying disease of liver? A. Cyst B. Gummas C. Metastatic tumour D. Amyloid 32 / 50 32. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 70-80% B. 90-100% C. 30-40% D. 50-60% 33 / 50 33. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Sodium 34 / 50 34. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Isospora belli B. Cryptosporidium C. Microsporidia D. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare 35 / 50 35. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Rapid eating habit B. Chronic anxiety states C. Hypochondriac personality D. Pyloric stenosis 36 / 50 36. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Trauma B. Haemophilia C. Anticoagulant therapy D. Acute leukaemia 37 / 50 37. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. One hour after meals and at bedtime B. Immediately after meals C. With the meals D. Just before meals 38 / 50 38. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. Serotonin antagonist B. Methylxanthine bronchodilator C. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist D. beta-adrenergic agonist 39 / 50 39. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Transverse colon B. Splenic flexure C. Hepatic flexure D. Ascending colon 40 / 50 40. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Tetany B. Meconium ileus C. Malabsorption D. Gram-negative sepsis 41 / 50 41. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly B. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible C. Coronary arteritis may be a feature D. Cranial nerve palsy may occur 42 / 50 42. The classical triad in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Flushing, diarrhoea, valvular heart disease B. Pruritus, wheezing, diarrhoea C. Telangiectasias, flushing, diarrhoea D. Dyspnoea, flushing, valvular heart disease 43 / 50 43. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Rota and Norwalk viruses B. Clostridium difficile C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli D. Campylobacter jejuni 44 / 50 44. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Sunlight B. Fluorescent C. Ultraviolet D. Moonlight 45 / 50 45. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Copper sulphate B. Halothane C. Gliclazide D. Rifampicin 46 / 50 46. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Contraction of the rectum B. Distention of the rectum C. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter D. Distention of the sigmoid colon 47 / 50 47. In HBV infection, which serological maker is present in the ‘window period’ as evidence of recent HBV infection: A. IgG anti-HBc B. IgM anti-HBc C. HBeAg D. HBV DNA 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Absence of tenesmus B. Onset with purging C. Subnormal Surface temperature D. Offensive stool 49 / 50 49. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked dominant B. Sex-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 50 / 50 50. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 500-1000 ml B. More than 1 litre C. 100-250 ml D. 250-500 ml LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology