Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. The blood may not be mixed with stool B. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon C. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz D. Passage of bright red blood per rectum 2 / 50 2. The commonest type of pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Cystadenocarcinoma B. Mucinous carcinoma C. Ductal adenocarcinoma D. Islet cell carcinoma 3 / 50 3. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Colicky pain abdomen B. Abdominal distension C. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools D. Sense of complete evacuation 4 / 50 4. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously B. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching C. May produce melaena D. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction 5 / 50 5. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Periodicity is common B. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint C. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour D. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool 6 / 50 6. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Dysphagia starts with solid foods B. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease C. Odynophagia may be a symptom D. Commonest site of affection is lower third 7 / 50 7. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Secondary peristaltic wave B. Voluntary phase of deglutition C. Tertiary peristaltic wave D. Primary peristaltic wave 8 / 50 8. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Trypsin B. Carboxypeptidase C. Elastase D. Chymotrypsin 9 / 50 9. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Retching B. Singultus C. Heartburn D. Water brash 10 / 50 10. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Easily treatable B. Most common GI disorder in practice C. Commonly affects middle-aged males D. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common 11 / 50 11. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Shigella B. Yersinia C. Rota virus D. Campylobacter 12 / 50 12. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Cheilosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Loss of libido D. Achlorhydria 13 / 50 13. Silvery stool signifies a lesion characteristic of: A. Right colic flexure B. Ampulla of Vater C. Meckel's diverticulum D. Ileocaecal region 14 / 50 14. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Gastric ulcer B. Developmental anomaly C. Syphilis D. Lymphoma 15 / 50 15. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Distention of the sigmoid colon B. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter C. Contraction of the rectum D. Distention of the rectum 16 / 50 16. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Caecum B. Ascending colon C. Transverse colon D. Descending colon 17 / 50 17. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. Anti-HBs B. HBsAg C. IgM anti-HBc D. HBV DNA 18 / 50 18. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Haemolytic anaemia B. Coeliac disease C. Sickle cell disease D. Dermatitis herpetiformi 19 / 50 19. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Tetracycline D. Metoclopramide 20 / 50 20. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Vomiting B. Distended abdomen C. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal D. Obstipation 21 / 50 21. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. MRI scan of liver B. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography C. Pulmonary angiography D. CT scan of liver 22 / 50 22. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 70-80% B. 90-100% C. 50-60% D. 30-40% 23 / 50 23. The Kayser-Fleischer (KF) ring is: A. Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane B. Broader laterally and medially C. Hampers vision D. The inferior pole of cornea is first affected 24 / 50 24. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Not known B. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms C. Autoimmunity D. Nutritional deficiency 25 / 50 25. Granulomatous hepatitis is not a feature of: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Blastomycosis C. Tuberculosis D. Sarcoidosis 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Tinidazole B. Cefixime C. Clarithromycin D. Pantoprazole 27 / 50 27. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Right side of colon is less affected than the left B. Massive rectal bleeding is very common C. Males are affected more than females D. Perforation is a serious complication 28 / 50 28. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Commonest cause of portal hypertension B. Blocked hepatic vein C. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example D. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure 29 / 50 29. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease? A. Folic acid B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin D 30 / 50 30. All of the following are methods for detection of H. pylori except: A. Rapid urease test B. Polymerase chain reaction C. Histology D. Endoscopic view 31 / 50 31. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Fatty infiltration B. Laennec's cirrhosis C. Hepatitis-like picture D. Hepatic vein thrombosis 32 / 50 32. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Episcleritis B. Cataract C. Scleromalacia perforans D. Uveitis 33 / 50 33. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Eosinophilic enteritis B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Ulcerative colitis D. Coeliac disease 34 / 50 34. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis B C. Cytomegalovirus D. Hepatitis C 35 / 50 35. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients B. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen C. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status D. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level 36 / 50 36. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. Proton pump inhibitors B. Prostaglandins like misoprostol C. H2-receptor antagonists D. Coating agents like sucralfate 37 / 50 37. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening jaundice B. Worsening ascites C. Paralytic ileus D. Ascitic pH < blood pH 38 / 50 38. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Lithocholic acid B. Chenodeoxycholic acid C. Cholic acid D. Deoxycholic acid 39 / 50 39. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Chronic myeloid leukaemia B. Chronic active hepatitis C. Focal amyloidosis D. Felty's syndrome 40 / 50 40. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Adhesions B. Hernia C. Volvulus D. Neoplasm 41 / 50 41. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Cardnoid syndrome C. Intestinal lymphangiectasia D. Whipple's disease 42 / 50 42. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hyperchloraemia B. Acidosis C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypochloraemic alkalosis 43 / 50 43. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Somatostatin B. Propranolol C. Nitroglycerines D. Terlipressin 44 / 50 44. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Aphthous stomatitis B. Erythema marginatum C. Gallstone formation D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 45 / 50 45. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Rotor syndrome B. Gilbert's syndrome C. Reye's syndrome D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Coeliac disease B. Whipple's disease C. Laxative abuse D. Lactase deficiency 47 / 50 47. Whipple’s triad is found in: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Glucagonoma C. Insulinoma D. Somatostatinoma 48 / 50 48. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. USG of liver B. Protein electrophoresis C. Bone scan D. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation 49 / 50 49. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Duodenal ulcer C. Lansoprazole therapy D. Atrophic fundal gastritis 50 / 50 50. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Lymphocytosis B. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema C. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin D. 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