Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Haemophilia B. Trauma C. Acute leukaemia D. Anticoagulant therapy 2 / 50 2. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Bile or pancreatic cytology B. Biliary manometry C. Best visualisation of cystic duct D. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal 3 / 50 3. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum amylase B. Serum lipase C. Quantitative faecal fat estimation D. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test 4 / 50 4. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as when: A. > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 5 / 50 5. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity B. Visible peristalsis C. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash D. Bilious vomiting 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. High serum acid phosphatase level B. Pre-malignant C. Hepatosplenomegaly D. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme 7 / 50 7. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. Sex-linked recessive D. Autosomal dominant 8 / 50 8. Among the undermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum bilirubin B. Serum transaminases C. Serum albumin D. Serum cholesterol 9 / 50 9. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all except: A. Amoebiasis B. Crohn's s disease C. Cystic fibrosis D. Giardiasis 10 / 50 10. Weil’s disease is associated with: A. Severe muscle pain B. Absence of renal involvement C. Jaundice in all D. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis 11 / 50 11. Malignant potential is least in: A. Familial colonic polyposis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Villous adenoma of colon D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome 12 / 50 12. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. H2-receptor antagonists B. Coating agents like sucralfate C. Prostaglandins like misoprostol D. Proton pump inhibitors 13 / 50 13. The commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Trauma B. Gallstones C. Alcohol abuse D. Infection 14 / 50 14. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Coarsening of mucosal folds B. Dilatation C. Segmentation and clumping D. Loss of mucosal pattern 15 / 50 15. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Caecum B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Sigmoid colon 16 / 50 16. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 90-100% B. 70-80% C. 50-60% D. 30-40% 17 / 50 17. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Focal amyloidosis B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Felty's syndrome D. Chronic active hepatitis 18 / 50 18. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease B. Gastric atrophy C. Antibodies to parietal cells D. Intestinal metaplasia 19 / 50 19. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 9 g for 24 hrs B. < 6 g for 24 hrs C. < 12 g for 24 hrs D. < 15 g for 24 hr 20 / 50 20. Manometric study of the lower oesophagus is important in all except: A. Achalasia cardia B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Diffuse oesophageal spasm D. Polymyositis 21 / 50 21. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Acute lung injury B. Pelvic abscess C. Renal failure D. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis 22 / 50 22. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Descending paralysis B. Increased salivation C. Diplopia D. Constipation 23 / 50 23. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening jaundice B. Worsening ascites C. Ascitic pH < blood pH D. Paralytic ileus 24 / 50 24. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Tetany B. Meconium ileus C. Gram-negative sepsis D. Malabsorption 25 / 50 25. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. E. coli C. Anaerobes D. Staphylococci 26 / 50 26. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Sense of complete evacuation B. Colicky pain abdomen C. Abdominal distension D. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools 27 / 50 27. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Malabsorption B. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form C. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa D. Lactose intolerance 28 / 50 28. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Amitriptyline B. Theophylline C. Colchicine D. Sorbitol 29 / 50 29. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Retinopathy B. Nephropathy C. Neuropathy D. Macroangiopathy 30 / 50 30. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Crohn's disease D. Coeliac disease 31 / 50 31. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. Means nothing to clinical course B. A bad prognosis C. The disease process is improving D. A fluctuating clinical course 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. Associated with other autoimmune diseases B. ANA is positive in majority C. High risk of developing hepatoma D. Cushingoid face 33 / 50 33. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis B D. Cytomegalovirus 34 / 50 34. All of the following are true regarding acute mesenteric vascular occlusion except: A. Young women are the main victims B. Barium study of the small intestine reveals 'thumbprinting' C. Severe periumbilical pain at the onset D. Abdominal distension with normal peristaltic sound, even with severe infarction 35 / 50 35. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except: A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Congenital hepatic fibrosis C. Right atrial myxoma D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 36 / 50 36. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Cranial nerve palsy may occur B. Coronary arteritis may be a feature C. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly D. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible 37 / 50 37. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Unknown B. Shigella C. Yersinia D. Campylobacter 38 / 50 38. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is reported in association with all of the following except: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid D. Pituitary adenomas 39 / 50 39. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Fluorescent B. Sunlight C. Moonlight D. Ultraviolet 40 / 50 40. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Haemolytic anaemia B. Dermatitis herpetiformi C. Sickle cell disease D. Coeliac disease 41 / 50 41. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Menetrier's disease C. Gastric malignancy D. Chronic H. pylori infection 42 / 50 42. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Protein metabolism B. Vitamins and minerals absorption C. Fat metabolism D. Carbohydrate metabolism 43 / 50 43. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. More than 1 litre B. 250-500 ml C. 100-250 ml D. 500-1000 ml 44 / 50 44. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Delta B. Beta C. Alpha D. Non-beta 45 / 50 45. The most common gastrointestinal disorder in a community is: A. Duodenal ulcer B. Reflux oesophagitis C. Diverticulitis D. Irritable bowel syndrome 46 / 50 46. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use B. Related structurally to histamine C. May produce benign intracranial hypertension D. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels 47 / 50 47. The valvular heart disease common in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Aortic incompetence C. Mitral stenosis D. Pulmonary incompetence 48 / 50 48. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Distended abdomen B. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal C. Obstipation D. Vomiting 49 / 50 49. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Calcium infusion test B. Histamine injection test C. Secretin injection test D. Feeding of a standard mea 50 / 50 50. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life B. Within the first 24 hours of birth C. At birth D. 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