Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Theophylline B. Amitriptyline C. Sorbitol D. Colchicine 2 / 50 2. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Carbamazepine therapy B. Scurvy C. Acute monocytic leukaemia D. Amlodipine therapy 3 / 50 3. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Hemangioma of liver B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Hepatic neoplasm D. Pyogenic liver abscess 4 / 50 4. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 12 g for 24 hrs B. < 9 g for 24 hrs C. < 6 g for 24 hrs D. < 15 g for 24 hr 5 / 50 5. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Streptomycin B. Chloramphenicol C. Clindamycin D. Ampicillin 6 / 50 6. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Amyloidosis B. Chronic cholecystitis C. Clubbing D. Hydroureter 7 / 50 7. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Trypanosomiasis B. Schistosomiasis C. Leishmaniasis D. Trichinosis 8 / 50 8. Which endocrine disorder is associated with exudative ascites? A. Conn's syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Hypothyroidism 9 / 50 9. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Sigmoid colon B. Stomach C. Caecum D. Small intestine 10 / 50 10. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Parkinsonism B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Amyloidosis 11 / 50 11. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. E. coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Salmonella 12 / 50 12. Regarding ischaemic colitis, which one is true? A. Almost always an occlusive disease of mesenteric vessels B. Affects young population C. Rectal bleeding is a rare complication D. Angiography is not helpful 13 / 50 13. Regarding solitary rectal ulcer syndrome (SRUS), which of the following is false? A. Commonly in the posterior wall of rectum B. Rectal bleeding and tenesmus are common C. Surgery by resection rectopexy may be done D. Rectal prolapse and straining by patient are common associations 14 / 50 14. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Lesser curvature B. Body C. Antrum D. Cardia 15 / 50 15. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Fatty infiltration B. Laennec's cirrhosis C. Hepatitis-like picture D. Hepatic vein thrombosis 16 / 50 16. Symptoms of carcinoma of the left colon include all except: A. Low back pain B. Altered bowel habits C. Cramps in the abdomen D. Melena 17 / 50 17. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. In males B. After a cold bath C. On the palms and soles D. At daytime 18 / 50 18. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Peripheral eosinophilia B. Males are commonly susceptible C. Splenomegaly D. Marked cholestasis 19 / 50 19. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Primary peristaltic wave B. Voluntary phase of deglutition C. Tertiary peristaltic wave D. Secondary peristaltic wave 20 / 50 20. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Chest pain B. Dysphagia C. Heartburn D. Regurgitation 21 / 50 21. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Anticoagulant therapy B. Haemophilia C. Trauma D. Acute leukaemia 22 / 50 22. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection B. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity C. HBeAg implies high infectivity D. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state 23 / 50 23. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Segmentation and clumping B. Dilatation C. Coarsening of mucosal folds D. Loss of mucosal pattern 24 / 50 24. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day B. Liver biopsy C. Testing for red blood cell survival D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 25 / 50 25. The commonest site of carcinoid tumour is: A. Stomach B. Colon C. Appendix D. Ileum 26 / 50 26. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Hypothermia B. Carotenaemia C. Loss of axillary and pubic hair D. Amenorrhoea 27 / 50 27. The commonest type of pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Mucinous carcinoma B. Cystadenocarcinoma C. Islet cell carcinoma D. Ductal adenocarcinoma 28 / 50 28. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. IgG anti-HBc B. Anti-HBs C. HBeAg D. DNA polymerase 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme B. High serum acid phosphatase level C. Pre-malignant D. Hepatosplenomegaly 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Weil's disease C. Toxic hepatitis D. Amoebic liver abscess 31 / 50 31. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Alcoholism B. Reflux oesophagitis C. Hiatal hernia D. Oesophageal carcinoma 32 / 50 32. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Crigler-Najjar type II B. Secondary carcinoma of liver C. Oral contraceptives D. Pregnancy 33 / 50 33. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Hemolysis B. Folic acid deficiency C. Iron deficiency D. Vitamin B12 deficiency 34 / 50 34. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis C B. Hepatitis D C. Hepatitis B D. Cytomegalovirus 35 / 50 35. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day 36 / 50 36. Saint’s triad is the presence of gallstones, hiatal hernia and? A. Pancreatitis B. Haemorrhoids C. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease D. Diverticulosis 37 / 50 37. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. HBsAg B. IgM anti-HBc C. HBV DNA D. Anti-HBs 38 / 50 38. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Agglutination test B. Dark-field examination C. Urine analysis D. Stool culture 39 / 50 39. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis E B. Hepatitis D C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis B 40 / 50 40. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Adrenal insufficiency 41 / 50 41. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgG B. IgA C. IgD D. IgM 42 / 50 42. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Intestinal lymphangiectasia B. Coeliac disease C. Eosinophilic enteritis D. Ulcerative colitis 43 / 50 43. Macroglossia is not found in: A. Hurler syndrome B. Myxoedema C. Primary amyloidosis D. Bulbar palsy 44 / 50 44. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Metoclopramide B. Gastrin C. Beta-adrenergic agonist D. Protein meal 45 / 50 45. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Antral gastritis C. Non-ulcer dyspepsia D. Gastric lymphoma 46 / 50 46. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome B. Malaria C. Thalassemia D. Hydatid cyst 47 / 50 47. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Coronary arteritis may be a feature B. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly C. Cranial nerve palsy may occur D. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible 48 / 50 48. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Stomach biopsy B. Rectal biopsy C. Liver biopsy D. Lymph node biopsy 49 / 50 49. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Mucous discharge B. Pruritus ani C. Bleeding per rectum D. Diarrhoea 50 / 50 50. Hepatic amoebiasis is associated with all except: A. Right lower intercostal tenderness B. May lead to the development of an amoebic liver abscess C. Abscess commonly affects the right lobe D. Jaundice is present in majority LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology