Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features except: A. Arthralgia B. Haematemesis C. Jaundice D. Amenorrhoea 2 / 50 2. All of the following enzymes may be normally found in stool except: A. Pepsin B. Amylase C. Trypsin D. Lipase 3 / 50 3. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Multiple myeloma B. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia C. AIDS D. Severe combined immunodeficiency 4 / 50 4. The most helpful differentiating histological feature between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease by rectal biopsy is: A. Granuloma B. Crypt abscess C. Fibrosis D. Transmural involvement 5 / 50 5. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. Antral mucosa B. Jejunum C. Fundus of the stomach D. 2nd part of the duodenum 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Coeliac disease B. Whipple's disease C. Laxative abuse D. Lactase deficiency 7 / 50 7. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Metoclopramide B. Protein meal C. Gastrin D. Beta-adrenergic agonist 8 / 50 8. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Filariasis B. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery C. Intra-abdominal malignancy D. Tuberculosis 9 / 50 9. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD 10 / 50 10. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Shigella B. Giardiasis C. Campylobacter D. Entero-invasive E. coli 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Pseudopancreatic cyst C. Renal insufficiency D. Burns 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. Hyperglobulinaemia is common B. Very high bilirubin level C. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease D. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units 13 / 50 13. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli C. Rota and Norwalk viruses D. Clostridium difficile 14 / 50 14. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Cardnoid syndrome D. Whipple's disease 15 / 50 15. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Protein B. Fat C. Iron D. Carbohydrate 16 / 50 16. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio B. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers C. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea D. Vitamin B12 malabsorption 17 / 50 17. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Uveitis B. Cataract C. Episcleritis D. Scleromalacia perforans 18 / 50 18. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. HBeAg implies high infectivity B. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state C. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity D. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection 19 / 50 19. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Bleeding per rectum B. Diarrhoea C. Pruritus ani D. Mucous discharge 20 / 50 20. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients B. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level C. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status D. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen 21 / 50 21. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Diphtheria B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Ludwig's angina D. Streptococcal infection 22 / 50 22. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen C. Hypophosphataemia D. Increased bicarbonate level in serum 23 / 50 23. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Rifampicin B. Gliclazide C. Copper sulphate D. Halothane 24 / 50 24. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Chymotrypsin B. Elastase C. Trypsin D. Carboxypeptidase 25 / 50 25. The classical triad in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Flushing, diarrhoea, valvular heart disease B. Dyspnoea, flushing, valvular heart disease C. Telangiectasias, flushing, diarrhoea D. Pruritus, wheezing, diarrhoea 26 / 50 26. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Multiflagellated B. Gram-negative bacillus C. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient D. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach 27 / 50 27. Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is true? A. Segmental involvement is common B. Malignancy never follows even in long-standing disease C. Crypt abscesses are typical D. Granuloma and fistula formation are characteristic 28 / 50 28. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Adrenal insufficiency B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Carcinoid syndrome 29 / 50 29. The commonest malignant tumour of the gallbladder is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Sarcoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Haemangioendothelioma 30 / 50 30. Tegaserod is used in: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease C. Coeliac disease D. Ulcerative colitis 31 / 50 31. Which is not true so far as definition of cirrhosis of liver is concerned? A. Regeneration B. Necrosis C. Fatty infiltration D. Fibrosis 32 / 50 32. Acute pancreatitis is not associated with: A. Pancreatic islet cell tumour B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Biliary tract disease 33 / 50 33. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Tetany B. Meconium ileus C. Malabsorption D. Gram-negative sepsis 34 / 50 34. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis C. Pelvic abscess D. Acute lung injury 35 / 50 35. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Superficial ulcers in mouth B. May be complicated by angina pectoris C. Gum is the principal site of affection D. Hiatus hernia may be associated with 36 / 50 36. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Beta B. Delta C. Alpha D. Non-beta 37 / 50 37. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common B. Commonly affects middle-aged males C. Most common GI disorder in practice D. Easily treatable 38 / 50 38. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Colchicine B. Clindamycin C. Digitalis D. Sucralfate 39 / 50 39. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. Means nothing to clinical course B. A fluctuating clinical course C. A bad prognosis D. The disease process is improving 40 / 50 40. Malignant potential is least in: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Familial colonic polyposis C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome D. Villous adenoma of colon 41 / 50 41. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Spasm B. Fistula C. Small ulceration D. Pseudopolyps 42 / 50 42. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Leptospira B. Brucella abortus C. LD body D. Pneumococcus 43 / 50 43. The most common gastrointestinal disorder in a community is: A. Diverticulitis B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Reflux oesophagitis D. Duodenal ulcer 44 / 50 44. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Antral gastritis C. Gastric lymphoma D. Non-ulcer dyspepsia 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases B. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated C. Anorexia is rare D. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis 46 / 50 46. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Tropical sprue C. Biliary dyspepsia D. Irritable bowel syndrome 47 / 50 47. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Campylobacter B. Rota virus C. Shigella D. Yersinia 48 / 50 48. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Campylobacter B. Unknown C. Shigella D. Yersinia 49 / 50 49. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Gastric atrophy B. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease C. Intestinal metaplasia D. Antibodies to parietal cells 50 / 50 50. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Budd-chiari syndrome B. Hepatic granulomas C. Benign adenomas in liver D. Peliosis hepatis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology