Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Stool culture B. Agglutination test C. Urine analysis D. Dark-field examination 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Steatorrhoea B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pancreatic calcification D. Abdominal pain 3 / 50 3. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin C. Erythromycin D. Tobramycin 4 / 50 4. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Malabsorption B. Lactose intolerance C. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa D. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form 5 / 50 5. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Hypothermia B. Carotenaemia C. Amenorrhoea D. Loss of axillary and pubic hair 6 / 50 6. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Villous adenoma of the colon D. Carcinoid syndrome 7 / 50 7. All of the following are methods for detection of H. pylori except: A. Endoscopic view B. Histology C. Rapid urease test D. Polymerase chain reaction 8 / 50 8. The commonest site of carcinoma of the stomach is: A. Body of the stomach B. Prepyloric C. Lesser curvature D. Greater curvature 9 / 50 9. What is true about Weil’s disease? A. Low glucose in CSF B. Liver biopsy is diagnostic C. Leucopenia D. Myocarditis may be a complication 10 / 50 10. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin B-complex C. Iron D. None of the above 11 / 50 11. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. On the palms and soles B. At daytime C. In males D. After a cold bath 12 / 50 12. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Dermatitis herpetiformi B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Sickle cell disease D. Coeliac disease 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl B. Serum AST> 400 ID /L C. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L D. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 14 / 50 14. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Hypophosphataemia B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen C. Increased bicarbonate level in serum D. Hypercalcaemia 15 / 50 15. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Pneumonia B. Lung abscess C. Fibrosis of the lung D. Emphysema 16 / 50 16. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Multiflagellated B. Gram-negative bacillus C. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient D. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach 17 / 50 17. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Phosphorus poisoning B. Yellow fever C. Eclampsia D. Carbon tetrachloride 18 / 50 18. Among the undermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum cholesterol B. Serum transaminases C. Serum bilirubin D. Serum albumin 19 / 50 19. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Tropical sprue C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Biliary dyspepsia 20 / 50 20. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Pseudopolyps B. Fistula C. Small ulceration D. Spasm 21 / 50 21. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. INH B. Ketoconazole C. Zidovudine D. Atorvastatin 22 / 50 22. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Cisapride B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Tetracycline 23 / 50 23. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Coeliac disease B. Eosinophilic enteritis C. Intestinal lymphangiectasia D. Ulcerative colitis 24 / 50 24. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine B. Suitable for patients with renal impairment C. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers D. Produces loose stool 25 / 50 25. Venous prominence present in the upper abdomen with direction of flow towards pelvis suggests: A. Hepatic vein thrombosis B. Portal hypertension C. Inferior vena caval obstruction D. Superior vena caval obstruction 26 / 50 26. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Monoglycerides B. Triglycerides C. Fatty acids D. Diglycerides 27 / 50 27. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Quantitative determination of faecal fat C. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test D. Small intestinal X-rays 28 / 50 28. Malignant potential is least in: A. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome B. Familial colonic polyposis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Villous adenoma of colon 29 / 50 29. Carbenoxolone sodium may be associated with all of the following features except: A. May be associated with milk-alkali syndrome B. Development of potassium depletion C. Development of systemic hypertension D. Complicated by oedema 30 / 50 30. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Splenic flexure B. Hepatic flexure C. Caecum D. Transverse colon 31 / 50 31. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 9 g for 24 hrs B. < 6 g for 24 hrs C. < 15 g for 24 hr D. < 12 g for 24 hrs 32 / 50 32. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) may be produced by all except: A. Nifedipine B. Tetracycline C. Massive dose of estrogen D. Amiodarone 33 / 50 33. Regarding non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), all are true except: A. Occasionally progresses to cirrhosis and liver failure B. Glucocorticoid helps cure C. Jejunoileal bypass may be an aetiology D. Typically occurs in overweight, diabetic, hyperlipidemic subjects 34 / 50 34. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Psoriasis B. Pemphigus C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Atopic eczema 35 / 50 35. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Intra-abdominal malignancy B. Filariasis C. Tuberculosis D. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery 36 / 50 36. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Stomach B. Distal small intestine C. Proximal small intestine D. Duodenum 37 / 50 37. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Intestinal metaplasia B. Gastric atrophy C. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease D. Antibodies to parietal cells 38 / 50 38. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction B. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously C. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching D. May produce melaena 39 / 50 39. The commonest type of pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Mucinous carcinoma B. Cystadenocarcinoma C. Ductal adenocarcinoma D. Islet cell carcinoma 40 / 50 40. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Hepatoma B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria C. Oral contraceptives D. Valve in hepatic veins 41 / 50 41. Gluten-induced enteropathy is strongly associated with: A. HLA-DQ1 B. HLA-DR4 C. HLA-DR3 D. HLA-B8 42 / 50 42. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Visible peristalsis B. Bilious vomiting C. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash D. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity 43 / 50 43. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Acute leukaemia B. Trauma C. Anticoagulant therapy D. Haemophilia 44 / 50 44. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Coarsening of mucosal folds B. Loss of mucosal pattern C. Segmentation and clumping D. Dilatation 45 / 50 45. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease B. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 C. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl D. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 46 / 50 46. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis C C. Cytomegalovirus D. Hepatitis B 47 / 50 47. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Isospora belli B. Microsporidia C. Cryptosporidium D. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare 48 / 50 48. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Yellow fever C. Herpes zoster virus D. Infectious mononucleosis 49 / 50 49. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Blocked hepatic vein B. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure C. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example D. Commonest cause of portal hypertension 50 / 50 50. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology