GastroenterologyHome Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis may be associated with: A. Oral contraceptives B. Umbilical sepsis C. Sarcoidosis D. Chronic arsenic ingestion 2 / 50 2. All of the following enzymes may be normally found in stool except: A. Pepsin B. Lipase C. Amylase D. Trypsin 3 / 50 3. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) may be produced by all except: A. Massive dose of estrogen B. Tetracycline C. Nifedipine D. Amiodarone 4 / 50 4. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. H2-receptor antagonists B. Coating agents like sucralfate C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Prostaglandins like misoprostol 5 / 50 5. Macroglossia is not found in: A. Hurler syndrome B. Primary amyloidosis C. Bulbar palsy D. Myxoedema 6 / 50 6. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Duodenum B. Stomach C. Ileum D. Jejunum 7 / 50 7. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Magnesium B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Potassium 8 / 50 8. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Crescentic glomerulonephritis C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 9 / 50 9. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Cystinuria B. Alkaptonuria C. Phenylketonuria D. Homocystinuria 10 / 50 10. Oral mucous membrane may be affected in all except: A. Dermatitis herpetiformis B. Lichen planus C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. Pemphigus Vulgaris 11 / 50 11. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Thyroid B. Colon C. Breast D. Prostate 12 / 50 12. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces B. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities C. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both D. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough 13 / 50 13. Regarding non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), all are true except: A. Jejunoileal bypass may be an aetiology B. Occasionally progresses to cirrhosis and liver failure C. Glucocorticoid helps cure D. Typically occurs in overweight, diabetic, hyperlipidemic subjects 14 / 50 14. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Gastroenterostomy B. Three-quarter gastric resection C. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy D. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty 15 / 50 15. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Dysphagia starts with solid foods B. Odynophagia may be a symptom C. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease D. Commonest site of affection is lower third 16 / 50 16. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Propranolol B. Somatostatin C. Terlipressin D. Nitroglycerines 17 / 50 17. In coeliac sprue, which of the following is non-deficient in the body? A. Serum albumin B. Iron C. Folic acid D. Vitamin B12 18 / 50 18. Acute pancreatitis is not associated with: A. Biliary tract disease B. Pancreatic islet cell tumour C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Pancreatic carcinoma 19 / 50 19. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Protein-losing enteropathy B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Chronic pancreatitis 20 / 50 20. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum lipase B. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test C. Quantitative faecal fat estimation D. Serum amylase 21 / 50 21. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Fat metabolism B. Vitamins and minerals absorption C. Carbohydrate metabolism D. Protein metabolism 22 / 50 22. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Halothane B. Rifampicin C. Gliclazide D. Copper sulphate 23 / 50 23. The presence of diverticulosis is most commonly seen in: A. Sigmoid colon B. Descending colon C. Caecum D. Transverse colon 24 / 50 24. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Loss of axillary and pubic hair C. Carotenaemia D. Hypothermia 25 / 50 25. The most specific treatment in coeliac sprue is: A. Corticosteroids B. Folic acid C. Gluten-free diet D. Antibiotics 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Offensive stool B. Onset with purging C. Absence of tenesmus D. Subnormal Surface temperature 27 / 50 27. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked dominant B. Sex-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 28 / 50 28. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. Left colon is commonly affected B. Haemotochezia is common C. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin D. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it 29 / 50 29. Hyperdefaecation is found in all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperthyroidism C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Proctitis 30 / 50 30. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl B. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 C. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease D. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 31 / 50 31. What is true about Weil’s disease? A. Myocarditis may be a complication B. Leucopenia C. Low glucose in CSF D. Liver biopsy is diagnostic 32 / 50 32. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Peripheral eosinophilia B. Marked cholestasis C. Males are commonly susceptible D. Splenomegaly 33 / 50 33. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Jejuno-colic fistula B. Perianal fistula C. Rectovesical fistula D. Vesicovaginal fistula 34 / 50 34. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Meconium ileus B. Malabsorption C. Gram-negative sepsis D. Tetany 35 / 50 35. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. Usually 5 cm long B. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve C. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa D. Present in 2% population 36 / 50 36. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia B. AIDS C. Multiple myeloma D. Severe combined immunodeficiency 37 / 50 37. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Nutritional deficiency B. Not known C. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms D. Autoimmunity 38 / 50 38. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Macroangiopathy B. Neuropathy C. Retinopathy D. Nephropathy 39 / 50 39. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. Suitable for patients with renal impairment B. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers C. Produces loose stool D. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine 40 / 50 40. Venous prominence present in the upper abdomen with direction of flow towards pelvis suggests: A. Superior vena caval obstruction B. Inferior vena caval obstruction C. Portal hypertension D. Hepatic vein thrombosis 41 / 50 41. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Proximal small intestine B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. Distal small intestine 42 / 50 42. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except: A. Chronic H. pylori infection B. Gastric malignancy C. Menetrier's disease D. Sarcoidosis 43 / 50 43. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Retching B. Water brash C. Singultus D. Heartburn 44 / 50 44. Gluten-induced enteropathy is strongly associated with: A. HLA-DR4 B. HLA-DR3 C. HLA-DQ1 D. HLA-B8 45 / 50 45. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena B. A normal oesophageal anatomy C. A cause of dysphagia D. A late complication of vagotomy 46 / 50 46. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. May produce benign intracranial hypertension B. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use C. Related structurally to histamine D. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels 47 / 50 47. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Secondary peristaltic wave B. Voluntary phase of deglutition C. Tertiary peristaltic wave D. Primary peristaltic wave 48 / 50 48. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Phosphorus poisoning B. Yellow fever C. Carbon tetrachloride D. Eclampsia 49 / 50 49. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. Anaerobes B. Staphylococci C. E. coli D. Streptococcus faecalis 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. Cushingoid face B. High risk of developing hepatoma C. Associated with other autoimmune diseases D. ANA is positive in majority LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology
