Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Upper GI bleeding B. Hepatocellular failure C. Hepatomegaly D. Ascites 2 / 50 2. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Macroangiopathy B. Nephropathy C. Neuropathy D. Retinopathy 3 / 50 3. The commonest malignant tumour of the gallbladder is: A. Haemangioendothelioma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Sarcoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma 4 / 50 4. Gluten-induced enteropathy is strongly associated with: A. HLA-DR3 B. HLA-DQ1 C. HLA-B8 D. HLA-DR4 5 / 50 5. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 70ml B. 200ml C. 270ml D. 120ml 6 / 50 6. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Multiple myeloma B. AIDS C. Severe combined immunodeficiency D. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia 7 / 50 7. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve B. Usually 5 cm long C. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa D. Present in 2% population 8 / 50 8. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Prothrombin time B. Serum bilirubin C. SGPT D. Alkaline phosphatase 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Toxic hepatitis D. Weil's disease 10 / 50 10. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Lung abscess B. Emphysema C. Pneumonia D. Fibrosis of the lung 11 / 50 11. Menetrier’s disease may have all of the following except: A. Gastritis B. Hypoproteinaemia C. Hypochlorhydria D. Large tortuous gastric mucosal folds 12 / 50 12. Regarding ischaemic colitis, which one is true? A. Angiography is not helpful B. Affects young population C. Rectal bleeding is a rare complication D. Almost always an occlusive disease of mesenteric vessels 13 / 50 13. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic pseudocyst B. Pancreatic ascites C. Pancreatic phlegmon D. Pancreatic malignancy 14 / 50 14. Incidence of gastric carcinoid is increased in all except: A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis B. Pernicious anaemia C. Mesenteric fibrosis D. Achlorhydria 15 / 50 15. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Rotor syndrome C. Reye's syndrome D. Gilbert's syndrome 16 / 50 16. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Lithocholic acid B. Cholic acid C. Chenodeoxycholic acid D. Deoxycholic acid 17 / 50 17. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Theophylline B. Colchicine C. Sorbitol D. Amitriptyline 18 / 50 18. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Coronary arteritis may be a feature B. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible C. Cranial nerve palsy may occur D. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly 19 / 50 19. Regarding solitary rectal ulcer syndrome (SRUS), which of the following is false? A. Commonly in the posterior wall of rectum B. Rectal prolapse and straining by patient are common associations C. Rectal bleeding and tenesmus are common D. Surgery by resection rectopexy may be done 20 / 50 20. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Towards umbilicus B. Above downwards C. Away from the umbilicus D. Below upwards 21 / 50 21. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. Means nothing to clinical course B. A bad prognosis C. The disease process is improving D. A fluctuating clinical course 22 / 50 22. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Triglycerides B. Monoglycerides C. Diglycerides D. Fatty acids 23 / 50 23. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Quantitative determination of faecal fat C. Small intestinal X-rays D. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test 24 / 50 24. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Intestine B. Kidney C. Lung D. Liver 25 / 50 25. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation B. Bone scan C. Protein electrophoresis D. USG of liver 26 / 50 26. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. Oral contraceptives C. Valve in hepatic veins D. Hepatoma 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Coeliac disease B. Lactase deficiency C. Whipple's disease D. Laxative abuse 28 / 50 28. Macroglossia is not found in: A. Bulbar palsy B. Myxoedema C. Hurler syndrome D. Primary amyloidosis 29 / 50 29. Secretory diarrhoea has no association with: A. Villous adenoma of rectum B. Pancreatic insufficiency C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid 30 / 50 30. Carcinoma of the large intestine is mostly found in: A. Sigmoid colon B. Caecum C. Transverse colon D. Ascending colon 31 / 50 31. Hyperdefaecation is found in all except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Proctitis 32 / 50 32. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Antrum B. Body C. Lesser curvature D. Cardia 33 / 50 33. All are characteristic features of Wilson’s disease except: A. Chorea B. Sensory loss C. Grimacing D. Slurred speech 34 / 50 34. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgD B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG 35 / 50 35. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Streptomycin B. Chloramphenicol C. Clindamycin D. Ampicillin 36 / 50 36. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Caecum B. Splenic flexure C. Transverse colon D. Hepatic flexure 37 / 50 37. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Dilatation B. Segmentation and clumping C. Coarsening of mucosal folds D. Loss of mucosal pattern 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 B. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl C. Serum AST> 400 ID /L D. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L 39 / 50 39. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Carboxypeptidase B. Elastase C. Chymotrypsin D. Trypsin 40 / 50 40. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Colicky pain abdomen B. Abdominal distension C. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools D. Sense of complete evacuation 41 / 50 41. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter B. Clostridium difficile C. Clostridium perfringens D. Shigella 42 / 50 42. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine B. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers C. Produces loose stool D. Suitable for patients with renal impairment 43 / 50 43. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. 20-30% B. 40-50% C. 50-60% D. More than 60% 44 / 50 44. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Type of anaemia C. Response to treatment D. Small intestinal biopsy 45 / 50 45. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. Folic acid B. Iron C. None of the above D. Vitamin B-complex 46 / 50 46. Which of the following surgeries is related to severe hepatocellular dysfunction? A. Vagotomy B. Pyloroplasty C. Jejunoileal bypass D. Gastric bypass 47 / 50 47. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Leptospira B. LD body C. Pneumococcus D. Brucella abortus 48 / 50 48. Granulomatous hepatitis is not a feature of: A. Tuberculosis B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Sarcoidosis D. Blastomycosis 49 / 50 49. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Coeliac disease C. Radiation D. Hypogammaglobulinaemia 50 / 50 50. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 B. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 C. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease D. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology