Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which one of the following originates from non-beta islet cell tumour of the pancreas? A. Insulinoma B. Gastrinoma C. Somatostatinoma D. Glucagonoma 2 / 50 2. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Cisapride B. Domperidone C. Tetracycline D. Metoclopramide 3 / 50 3. In coeliac sprue, which of the following is non-deficient in the body? A. Folic acid B. Serum albumin C. Iron D. Vitamin B12 4 / 50 4. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Vitamin B12 malabsorption B. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers C. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea D. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio 5 / 50 5. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Intestinal lymphoma C. Coeliac disease D. Crohn's disease 6 / 50 6. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Ultraviolet B. Sunlight C. Moonlight D. Fluorescent 7 / 50 7. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Commonly affects middle-aged males B. Most common GI disorder in practice C. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common D. Easily treatable 8 / 50 8. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgG B. IgD C. IgA D. IgM 9 / 50 9. Which endocrine disorder is associated with exudative ascites? A. Hypothyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Conn's syndrome 10 / 50 10. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 B. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 C. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl D. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease 11 / 50 11. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Clindamycin B. Chloramphenicol C. Ampicillin D. Streptomycin 12 / 50 12. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Right atrial myxoma C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Congenital hepatic fibrosis 13 / 50 13. Carcinoma of the large intestine is mostly found in: A. Sigmoid colon B. Transverse colon C. Ascending colon D. Caecum 14 / 50 14. The commonest extraintestinal complication of ulcerative colitis is: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Arthritis C. Uveitis D. Sclerosing cholangitis 15 / 50 15. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic malignancy B. Pancreatic phlegmon C. Pancreatic ascites D. Pancreatic pseudocyst 16 / 50 16. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Intestinal metaplasia B. Antibodies to parietal cells C. Gastric atrophy D. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease 17 / 50 17. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. 5-7mmHg B. <5mmHg C. 7-10 mmHg D. >12mmHg 18 / 50 18. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Pancreatic insufficiency B. Whipple's disease C. Gastric retention D. Coeliac sprue 19 / 50 19. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Felty's syndrome B. Focal amyloidosis C. Chronic active hepatitis D. Chronic myeloid leukaemia 20 / 50 20. Weil’s disease is associated with: A. Jaundice in all B. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis C. Severe muscle pain D. Absence of renal involvement 21 / 50 21. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. H. pylori infection B. Pernicious anaemia C. Herpes virus infection D. Alcohol 22 / 50 22. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Small intestinal biopsy C. Response to treatment D. Type of anaemia 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is the most sensitive and test of choice in diagnosing cystic dud obstruction, i.e. acute cholecystitis? A. CT scan B. ERCP C. HIDA scan D. Ultrasonography 24 / 50 24. The smallest absorbing unit of the small intestinal mucosa is: A. Columnar cells B. Crypts C. Microvillus D. Villus 25 / 50 25. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Carcinoma of the tongue B. Wilson's disease C. Achalasia cardia D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 26 / 50 26. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics B. Iron C. Folic acid D. Vitamin 27 / 50 27. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Schistosomiasis B. Trypanosomiasis C. Trichinosis D. Leishmaniasis 28 / 50 28. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia B. Gilbert's syndrome C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome 29 / 50 29. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Coeliac disease C. Radiation D. Hypogammaglobulinaemia 30 / 50 30. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Diphtheria B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Ludwig's angina D. Streptococcal infection 31 / 50 31. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Ruptured oesophageal varices B. Acute gastritis C. Duodenal ulcer D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome 32 / 50 32. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Blocked hepatic vein B. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example C. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure D. Commonest cause of portal hypertension 33 / 50 33. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) may be produced by all except: A. Tetracycline B. Nifedipine C. Massive dose of estrogen D. Amiodarone 34 / 50 34. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching B. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction C. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously D. May produce melaena 35 / 50 35. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Microsporidia B. Cryptosporidium C. Isospora belli D. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare 36 / 50 36. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated with all except: A. Autoimmune thyroiditis B. Wilson's disease C. CREST syndrome D. Renal tubular acidosis 37 / 50 37. Tropical sprue may be associated with all except: A. Partial villous atrophy is more common than subtotal villous atrophy B. Treatment is done satisfactorily by intestinal resection C. Malabsorption D. Patchy lesion 38 / 50 38. All of the following are true regarding right-sided colonic carcinoma except: A. Anaemia B. Alteration of bowel habit C. Pain abdomen D. Cachexia 39 / 50 39. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Rectovesical fistula B. Perianal fistula C. Vesicovaginal fistula D. Jejuno-colic fistula 40 / 50 40. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve B. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa C. Present in 2% population D. Usually 5 cm long 41 / 50 41. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 9 g for 24 hrs B. < 12 g for 24 hrs C. < 15 g for 24 hr D. < 6 g for 24 hrs 42 / 50 42. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Beta B. Alpha C. Delta D. Non-beta 43 / 50 43. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Mucous discharge B. Pruritus ani C. Diarrhoea D. Bleeding per rectum 44 / 50 44. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Tetrathiomolybdate B. Elemental zinc C. Colchicine D. Penicillamine 45 / 50 45. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis C 46 / 50 46. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Sigmoidoscopy B. Barium enema C. Stool culture D. Stool smear 47 / 50 47. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Cholestyramine B. Colchicine C. Clonidine D. Calcium-channel blocker 48 / 50 48. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Flaccid muscles B. Presence of ankle clonus C. Night-time somnolence D. Babinski's sign 49 / 50 49. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Ascending colon B. Transverse colon C. Splenic flexure D. Hepatic flexure 50 / 50 50. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Pyloric stenosis B. Rapid eating habit C. Chronic anxiety states D. Hypochondriac personality LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology