Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. Just before meals B. One hour after meals and at bedtime C. Immediately after meals D. With the meals 2 / 50 2. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure B. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example C. Blocked hepatic vein D. Commonest cause of portal hypertension 3 / 50 3. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Lung abscess B. Pneumonia C. Fibrosis of the lung D. Emphysema 4 / 50 4. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Invariably requires surgery B. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form C. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris D. Usually a disease of teen age 5 / 50 5. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Clubbing B. Female preponderance C. Starts with pruritus D. Moderate to severe jaundice 6 / 50 6. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Gastric malignancy C. Menetrier's disease D. Chronic H. pylori infection 7 / 50 7. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Carboxypeptidase B. Chymotrypsin C. Trypsin D. Elastase 8 / 50 8. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Melanoma C. Hepatoma D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland 9 / 50 9. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Alcohol abuse B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Hyperthyroidism D. Protein-energy malnutrition 10 / 50 10. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Fistula B. Pseudopolyps C. Small ulceration D. Spasm 11 / 50 11. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Pancreatic ductal obstruction C. Endocrine pancreatic function D. Exocrine pancreatic function 12 / 50 12. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Anorexia nervos B. Depression C. Schizophrenia D. Sheehan's syndrome 13 / 50 13. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Acute gastritis B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Ruptured oesophageal varices D. Duodenal ulcer 14 / 50 14. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Gilbert's syndrome B. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome 15 / 50 15. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Hyperparathyroidism 16 / 50 16. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Rota and Norwalk viruses B. Clostridium difficile C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Enterotoxigenic E. coli 17 / 50 17. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin B. Malabsorption C. Lymphocytosis D. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema 18 / 50 18. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 300-400 g B. 500-600 g C. 700-800 g D. 100-200 g 19 / 50 19. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Hypothermia C. Carotenaemia D. Loss of axillary and pubic hair 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Abdominal pain B. Diabetes mellitus C. Steatorrhoea D. Pancreatic calcification 21 / 50 21. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Intestinal lymphangiectasia B. Coeliac disease C. Ulcerative colitis D. Eosinophilic enteritis 22 / 50 22. Gluten-induced enteropathy is strongly associated with: A. HLA-DR4 B. HLA-DR3 C. HLA-B8 D. HLA-DQ1 23 / 50 23. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Mild, firm hepatomegaly B. Jaundice C. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology D. Liver biopsy is diagnostic 24 / 50 24. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Adrenal insufficiency D. Carcinoid syndrome 25 / 50 25. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Chronic myeloid leukaemia B. Focal amyloidosis C. Chronic active hepatitis D. Felty's syndrome 26 / 50 26. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Coeliac disease B. Hypogammaglobulinaemia C. Radiation D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 27 / 50 27. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. Anti-HBs B. IgG anti-HBc C. HBeAg D. DNA polymerase 28 / 50 28. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. Salmonella B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Streptococcus faecalis D. E. coli 29 / 50 29. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Distended abdomen B. Vomiting C. Obstipation D. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal 30 / 50 30. The presence of hepatic bruit over the liver suggests: A. Hepatoma B. Perihepatitis C. Recent liver biopsy D. Portal hypertension 31 / 50 31. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Campylobacter B. Entero-invasive E. coli C. Shigella D. Giardiasis 32 / 50 32. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Histamine injection test B. Calcium infusion test C. Secretin injection test D. Feeding of a standard mea 33 / 50 33. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both B. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities C. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces D. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough 34 / 50 34. Incidence of gastric carcinoid is increased in all except: A. Mesenteric fibrosis B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis C. Pernicious anaemia D. Achlorhydria 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis B. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated C. Anorexia is rare D. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases 36 / 50 36. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Meninges with encephalon B. Vulva C. Skin D. Heart 37 / 50 37. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Colchicine B. Digitalis C. Sucralfate D. Clindamycin 38 / 50 38. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl B. TIBC < 200 μg/dl C. Hepatic iron index >1.5 D. Liver biopsy 39 / 50 39. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Antral gastritis B. Gastric lymphoma C. Non-ulcer dyspepsia D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 40 / 50 40. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Coeliac sprue B. Whipple's disease C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Systemic mastocytosis 41 / 50 41. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Retinopathy B. Macroangiopathy C. Neuropathy D. Nephropathy 42 / 50 42. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Best visualisation of cystic duct B. Biliary manometry C. Bile or pancreatic cytology D. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal 43 / 50 43. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Pemphigus B. Atopic eczema C. Psoriasis D. Dermatitis herpetiformis 44 / 50 44. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Chronic pancreatitis 45 / 50 45. The commonest cause of metastasis to the wall of the stomach is: A. Carcinoma of thyroid B. Carcinoma of breast C. Hepatoma D. Melanoma 46 / 50 46. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Misoprostol B. Omeprazole C. Carbenoxolone D. Sucralfate 47 / 50 47. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life B. At birth C. During the first 10 days of life D. Within the first 24 hours of birth 48 / 50 48. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. In males B. At daytime C. After a cold bath D. On the palms and soles 49 / 50 49. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Homocystinuria B. Alkaptonuria C. Cystinuria D. Phenylketonuria 50 / 50 50. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. The disease process is improving B. A fluctuating clinical course C. Means nothing to clinical course D. A bad prognosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology