Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Hepatic amoebiasis is associated with all except: A. Right lower intercostal tenderness B. Jaundice is present in majority C. May lead to the development of an amoebic liver abscess D. Abscess commonly affects the right lobe 2 / 50 2. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Chronic anxiety states B. Pyloric stenosis C. Rapid eating habit D. Hypochondriac personality 3 / 50 3. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics D. Iron 4 / 50 4. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Colon B. Thyroid C. Breast D. Prostate 5 / 50 5. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. None of the above B. Vitamin B-complex C. Iron D. Folic acid 6 / 50 6. All of the following may produce intestinal pseudo-obstruction except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Imipramine C. Scleroderma D. Hyperthyroidism 7 / 50 7. The commonest cause of metastasis to the wall of the stomach is: A. Carcinoma of breast B. Melanoma C. Hepatoma D. Carcinoma of thyroid 8 / 50 8. The most reliable method of measuring steatorrhoea is: A. Fecal fat estimation B. D-xylose absorption test C. Small intestinal mucosal biopsy D. Schilling test 9 / 50 9. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers B. Produces loose stool C. Suitable for patients with renal impairment D. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine 10 / 50 10. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. A consequence of achalasia cardia B. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus C. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold D. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients 11 / 50 11. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Whipple's disease B. Cardnoid syndrome C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Intestinal lymphangiectasia 12 / 50 12. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Pyogenic liver abscess B. Hemangioma of liver C. Hepatic neoplasm D. Acute viral hepatitis 13 / 50 13. Absolute contraindication for liver biopsy is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Haemangioma of liver D. Cholestasis 14 / 50 14. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly B. Coronary arteritis may be a feature C. Cranial nerve palsy may occur D. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible 15 / 50 15. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. IgM anti-HBc B. HBV DNA C. HBsAg D. Anti-HBs 16 / 50 16. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa B. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form C. Malabsorption D. Lactose intolerance 17 / 50 17. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease? A. Vitamin A B. Folic acid C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin D 18 / 50 18. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity B. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state C. HBeAg implies high infectivity D. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection 19 / 50 19. Portal hypertension associated with soft liver suggests: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Extrahepatic obstruction D. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis 20 / 50 20. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. Herpes virus infection B. Pernicious anaemia C. H. pylori infection D. Alcohol 21 / 50 21. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Vitamin B12 malabsorption B. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers C. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea D. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio 22 / 50 22. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Induction of vomiting B. Change of posture C. Consumption of food D. Attacks of emotional stress 23 / 50 23. Secretory diarrhoea has no association with: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Pancreatic insufficiency C. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid D. Villous adenoma of rectum 24 / 50 24. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Atopic eczema B. Pemphigus C. Psoriasis D. Dermatitis herpetiformis 25 / 50 25. The presence of diverticulosis is most commonly seen in: A. Transverse colon B. Descending colon C. Sigmoid colon D. Caecum 26 / 50 26. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Alkaline phosphatase B. SGPT C. Serum bilirubin D. Prothrombin time 27 / 50 27. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Tuberculosis B. Intra-abdominal malignancy C. Filariasis D. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery 28 / 50 28. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Trypsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Elastase D. Carboxypeptidase 29 / 50 29. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Systemic mastocytosis C. Coeliac sprue D. Whipple's disease 30 / 50 30. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Clindamycin B. Chloramphenicol C. Streptomycin D. Ampicillin 31 / 50 31. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Hiatal hernia B. Oesophageal carcinoma C. Reflux oesophagitis D. Alcoholism 32 / 50 32. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Testing for red blood cell survival B. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test C. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day D. Liver biopsy 33 / 50 33. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Crigler-Najjar type II B. Oral contraceptives C. Secondary carcinoma of liver D. Pregnancy 34 / 50 34. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Copper sulphate B. Halothane C. Rifampicin D. Gliclazide 35 / 50 35. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A late complication of vagotomy B. A cause of dysphagia C. A normal oesophageal anatomy D. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena 36 / 50 36. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Non-beta 37 / 50 37. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Solitary primary tumours are very common B. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant C. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas D. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas 38 / 50 38. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. One hour after meals and at bedtime B. With the meals C. Just before meals D. Immediately after meals 39 / 50 39. All are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Fe++ B. Folate C. Ca++ D. Vitamin B12 40 / 50 40. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Sucralfate B. Colchicine C. Digitalis D. Clindamycin 41 / 50 41. Chronic gastritis may be characterised by all except: A. Anorexia B. Gastric polyp C. Haematemesis D. Incessant vomiting 42 / 50 42. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Depression B. Schizophrenia C. Anorexia nervos D. Sheehan's syndrome 43 / 50 43. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Ascitic pH < blood pH B. Worsening jaundice C. Paralytic ileus D. Worsening ascites 44 / 50 44. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach B. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient C. Multiflagellated D. Gram-negative bacillus 45 / 50 45. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients B. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen C. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level D. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status 46 / 50 46. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all except: A. Crohn's s disease B. Giardiasis C. Amoebiasis D. Cystic fibrosis 47 / 50 47. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. Related structurally to histamine B. May produce benign intracranial hypertension C. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels D. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use 48 / 50 48. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal B. Vomiting C. Obstipation D. Distended abdomen 49 / 50 49. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. MRI of brain B. Evoked potential study C. EEG D. Psychometric study 50 / 50 50. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. E. coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Salmonella D. Streptococcus faecalis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology