Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Barium enema B. Stool smear C. Sigmoidoscopy D. Stool culture 2 / 50 2. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 70ml B. 270ml C. 200ml D. 120ml 3 / 50 3. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold B. A consequence of achalasia cardia C. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients D. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus 4 / 50 4. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity B. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash C. Bilious vomiting D. Visible peristalsis 5 / 50 5. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as when: A. > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 6 / 50 6. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis C C. Cytomegalovirus D. Hepatitis B 7 / 50 7. Silvery stool signifies a lesion characteristic of: A. Right colic flexure B. Meckel's diverticulum C. Ampulla of Vater D. Ileocaecal region 8 / 50 8. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated B. Anorexia is rare C. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases D. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis 10 / 50 10. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen B. Increased bicarbonate level in serum C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hypophosphataemia 11 / 50 11. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Amyloidosis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Diabetes mellitus 12 / 50 12. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency 13 / 50 13. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms B. Nutritional deficiency C. Autoimmunity D. Not known 14 / 50 14. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Heartburn B. Singultus C. Retching D. Water brash 15 / 50 15. All of the following are true regarding right-sided colonic carcinoma except: A. Anaemia B. Alteration of bowel habit C. Cachexia D. Pain abdomen 16 / 50 16. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Lung B. Liver C. Intestine D. Kidney 17 / 50 17. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Distention of the rectum B. Contraction of the rectum C. Distention of the sigmoid colon D. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter 18 / 50 18. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Upper GI bleeding C. Ascites D. Hepatomegaly 19 / 50 19. Spider naevi: A. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension B. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy C. May be seen in some healthy people D. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion 20 / 50 20. Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is true? A. Crypt abscesses are typical B. Segmental involvement is common C. Granuloma and fistula formation are characteristic D. Malignancy never follows even in long-standing disease 21 / 50 21. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Thalassemia B. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome C. Malaria D. Hydatid cyst 22 / 50 22. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction B. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching C. May produce melaena D. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously 23 / 50 23. Chronic gastritis may be characterised by all except: A. Incessant vomiting B. Gastric polyp C. Haematemesis D. Anorexia 24 / 50 24. In coeliac sprue, which of the following is non-deficient in the body? A. Iron B. Serum albumin C. Vitamin B12 D. Folic acid 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Burns C. Renal insufficiency D. Pseudopancreatic cyst 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Pantoprazole B. Clarithromycin C. Cefixime D. Tinidazole 27 / 50 27. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Quantitative faecal fat estimation B. Serum lipase C. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test D. Serum amylase 28 / 50 28. Predominant unconjugated bilirubin is seen in all except: A. Rotor syndrome B. Ineffective erythropoiesis C. Breakdown of haemoglobin D. Breakdown of myoglobin 29 / 50 29. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection B. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity C. HBeAg implies high infectivity D. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state 30 / 50 30. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Depression B. Schizophrenia C. Anorexia nervos D. Sheehan's syndrome 31 / 50 31. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Fatty acids B. Monoglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Diglycerides 32 / 50 32. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic malignancy B. Pancreatic phlegmon C. Pancreatic pseudocyst D. Pancreatic ascites 33 / 50 33. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Osteomalacia B. Sclerosing cholangitis C. Osteoporosis D. Paget's disease of bone 34 / 50 34. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Blocked hepatic vein B. Commonest cause of portal hypertension C. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example D. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure 35 / 50 35. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Tropical sprue D. Biliary dyspepsia 36 / 50 36. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. One hour after meals and at bedtime B. Immediately after meals C. Just before meals D. With the meals 37 / 50 37. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli C. Clostridium difficile D. Rota and Norwalk viruses 38 / 50 38. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Chronic anxiety states B. Pyloric stenosis C. Rapid eating habit D. Hypochondriac personality 39 / 50 39. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Kidney B. Stomach C. Transverse colon D. Pancreas 40 / 50 40. Raspberry tongue is found in: A. Glandular fever B. Scarlet fever C. Rheumatic fever D. Yellow fever 41 / 50 41. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Haematochezia B. Rectal pain C. Constipation D. Pain abdomen 42 / 50 42. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test C. Small intestinal X-rays D. Quantitative determination of faecal fat 43 / 50 43. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology B. Mild, firm hepatomegaly C. Liver biopsy is diagnostic D. Jaundice 44 / 50 44. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome C. Gilbert's syndrome D. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia 45 / 50 45. The valvular heart disease common in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Mitral stenosis C. Pulmonary incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 46 / 50 46. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Clonidine B. Colchicine C. Cholestyramine D. Calcium-channel blocker 47 / 50 47. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Phenylketonuria B. Cystinuria C. Alkaptonuria D. Homocystinuria 48 / 50 48. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty B. Three-quarter gastric resection C. Gastroenterostomy D. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy 49 / 50 49. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Usually a disease of teen age B. Invariably requires surgery C. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris D. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not included in the list of high-folate diet? A. Fruits B. Vegetables C. Milk D. Liver LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology