Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction B. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously C. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching D. May produce melaena 2 / 50 2. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease B. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl C. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 D. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is not a recognized complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Sacroiliitis C. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia D. Bronchiectasis 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not included in the list of high-folate diet? A. Liver B. Milk C. Vegetables D. Fruits 5 / 50 5. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Voluntary phase of deglutition B. Primary peristaltic wave C. Tertiary peristaltic wave D. Secondary peristaltic wave 6 / 50 6. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Folic acid B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Vitamin D. Iron 7 / 50 7. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Rota and Norwalk viruses B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli D. Clostridium difficile 8 / 50 8. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Amyloidosis B. Clubbing C. Chronic cholecystitis D. Hydroureter 9 / 50 9. Silvery stool signifies a lesion characteristic of: A. Ileocaecal region B. Right colic flexure C. Meckel's diverticulum D. Ampulla of Vater 10 / 50 10. Predominant unconjugated bilirubin is seen in all except: A. Rotor syndrome B. Breakdown of haemoglobin C. Ineffective erythropoiesis D. Breakdown of myoglobin 11 / 50 11. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Nutritional deficiency B. Autoimmunity C. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms D. Not known 12 / 50 12. All of the following enzymes may be normally found in stool except: A. Pepsin B. Amylase C. Trypsin D. Lipase 13 / 50 13. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough B. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces C. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities D. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both 14 / 50 14. Hepatic amoebiasis is associated with all except: A. May lead to the development of an amoebic liver abscess B. Abscess commonly affects the right lobe C. Jaundice is present in majority D. Right lower intercostal tenderness 15 / 50 15. All of the following are true regarding acute mesenteric vascular occlusion except: A. Young women are the main victims B. Abdominal distension with normal peristaltic sound, even with severe infarction C. Barium study of the small intestine reveals 'thumbprinting' D. Severe periumbilical pain at the onset 16 / 50 16. Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is true? A. Segmental involvement is common B. Granuloma and fistula formation are characteristic C. Malignancy never follows even in long-standing disease D. Crypt abscesses are typical 17 / 50 17. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Lansoprazole therapy B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Duodenal ulcer D. Atrophic fundal gastritis 18 / 50 18. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Digitalis B. Clindamycin C. Colchicine D. Sucralfate 19 / 50 19. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Vulva B. Skin C. Heart D. Meninges with encephalon 20 / 50 20. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. May produce benign intracranial hypertension B. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels C. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use D. Related structurally to histamine 21 / 50 21. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis C B. Hepatitis D C. Hepatitis B D. Cytomegalovirus 22 / 50 22. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Non-ulcer dyspepsia C. Gastric lymphoma D. Antral gastritis 23 / 50 23. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 24 / 50 24. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Splenomegaly B. Marked cholestasis C. Peripheral eosinophilia D. Males are commonly susceptible 25 / 50 25. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. HBeAg B. IgG anti-HBc C. DNA polymerase D. Anti-HBs 26 / 50 26. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Eosinophilic enteritis B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Ulcerative colitis D. Coeliac disease 27 / 50 27. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Tuberculous peritonitis C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Cirrhosis of liver 28 / 50 28. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Upper GI bleeding C. Ascites D. Hepatomegaly 29 / 50 29. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Hemangioma of liver B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Hepatic neoplasm D. Pyogenic liver abscess 30 / 50 30. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Carbohydrate metabolism B. Protein metabolism C. Vitamins and minerals absorption D. Fat metabolism 31 / 50 31. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Palpitation B. Steatorrhoea C. Recurrent ulceration D. Hypoglycaemia 32 / 50 32. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz B. The blood may not be mixed with stool C. Passage of bright red blood per rectum D. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon 33 / 50 33. Necrolytic migratory erythema is a feature of: A. Hepatoblastoma B. Insulinoma C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Glucagonoma 34 / 50 34. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgD B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG 35 / 50 35. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Amitriptyline B. Colchicine C. Sorbitol D. Theophylline 36 / 50 36. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Fever B. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings C. Sinus tachycardia D. Bloody diarrhoea 37 / 50 37. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Vancomycin B. Erythromycin C. Tobramycin D. Clindamycin 38 / 50 38. Hyperdefaecation is found in all except: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Proctitis D. Diabetes mellitus 39 / 50 39. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Meningitis D. Myocarditis 40 / 50 40. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Female preponderance B. Clubbing C. Starts with pruritus D. Moderate to severe jaundice 41 / 50 41. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Stool culture B. Urine analysis C. Agglutination test D. Dark-field examination 42 / 50 42. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Intestinal metaplasia B. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease C. Antibodies to parietal cells D. Gastric atrophy 43 / 50 43. Regarding ischaemic colitis, which one is true? A. Almost always an occlusive disease of mesenteric vessels B. Angiography is not helpful C. Affects young population D. Rectal bleeding is a rare complication 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Streptococcus (Group A) C. Bacillus cereus D. Clostridium botulinum 45 / 50 45. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. The disease process is improving B. A bad prognosis C. Means nothing to clinical course D. A fluctuating clinical course 46 / 50 46. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Hypergastrinaemia D. Hyperamylasaemia 47 / 50 47. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool B. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint C. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour D. Periodicity is common 48 / 50 48. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Testing for red blood cell survival B. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test C. Liver biopsy D. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day 49 / 50 49. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Hypothermia B. Amenorrhoea C. Loss of axillary and pubic hair D. Carotenaemia 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is the most sensitive and test of choice in diagnosing cystic dud obstruction, i.e. acute cholecystitis? A. ERCP B. CT scan C. HIDA scan D. Ultrasonography LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology
