Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland 2 / 50 2. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Coarsening of mucosal folds B. Segmentation and clumping C. Dilatation D. Loss of mucosal pattern 3 / 50 3. Absolute contraindication for liver biopsy is: A. Amoebic liver abscess B. Cholestasis C. Haemangioma of liver D. Cirrhosis of liver 4 / 50 4. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. Offensive in odour B. At least 60 ml of blood is required C. Black tarry semisolid stool D. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut 5 / 50 5. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis 6 / 50 6. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Ascending colon B. Hepatic flexure C. Splenic flexure D. Transverse colon 7 / 50 7. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Dermatitis herpetiformis B. Pemphigus C. Atopic eczema D. Psoriasis 8 / 50 8. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. H. pylori infection B. Alcohol C. Pernicious anaemia D. Herpes virus infection 9 / 50 9. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Villous adenoma of the colon 10 / 50 10. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Brucella abortus B. Leptospira C. LD body D. Pneumococcus 11 / 50 11. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Acute lung injury B. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis C. Renal failure D. Pelvic abscess 12 / 50 12. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Schizophrenia B. Depression C. Anorexia nervos D. Sheehan's syndrome 13 / 50 13. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology B. Liver biopsy is diagnostic C. Mild, firm hepatomegaly D. Jaundice 14 / 50 14. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Cranial nerve palsy may occur B. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly C. Coronary arteritis may be a feature D. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible 15 / 50 15. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Ca stomach B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Stomatostatinoma D. Duodenal diverticula 16 / 50 16. Which is true in familial polyposis coli? A. The rectum is spared B. Polyps are present since birth C. The patient may not have any symptoms until a carcinoma has developed D. X-linked recessive inheritance 17 / 50 17. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography B. Pulmonary angiography C. MRI scan of liver D. CT scan of liver 18 / 50 18. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Fulminant hepatocellular failure B. Renal failure C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Acute lung injury 19 / 50 19. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Stomach B. Transverse colon C. Kidney D. Pancreas 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Bacillus cereus D. Streptococcus (Group A) 21 / 50 21. Regarding ischaemic colitis, which one is true? A. Angiography is not helpful B. Rectal bleeding is a rare complication C. Affects young population D. Almost always an occlusive disease of mesenteric vessels 22 / 50 22. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 500-600 g B. 100-200 g C. 700-800 g D. 300-400 g 23 / 50 23. All are characteristic features of Wilson’s disease except: A. Grimacing B. Chorea C. Slurred speech D. Sensory loss 24 / 50 24. Spider naevi: A. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion B. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy C. May be seen in some healthy people D. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension 25 / 50 25. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Rectovesical fistula B. Perianal fistula C. Jejuno-colic fistula D. Vesicovaginal fistula 26 / 50 26. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Phosphorus poisoning B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Eclampsia D. Yellow fever 27 / 50 27. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. Prostaglandins like misoprostol B. H2-receptor antagonists C. Coating agents like sucralfate D. Proton pump inhibitors 28 / 50 28. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients B. A consequence of achalasia cardia C. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold D. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus 29 / 50 29. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A late complication of vagotomy B. A cause of dysphagia C. A normal oesophageal anatomy D. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena 30 / 50 30. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Exocrine pancreatic function C. Pancreatic ductal obstruction D. Endocrine pancreatic function 31 / 50 31. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough B. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces C. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both D. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities 32 / 50 32. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day B. Liver biopsy C. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test D. Testing for red blood cell survival 33 / 50 33. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine B. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers C. Produces loose stool D. Suitable for patients with renal impairment 34 / 50 34. All are major components of intestinal gas except: A. Methane B. CO2 C. H2S D. N2 35 / 50 35. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Eosinophilic enteritis D. Coeliac disease 36 / 50 36. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient B. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach C. Gram-negative bacillus D. Multiflagellated 37 / 50 37. Saint’s triad is the presence of gallstones, hiatal hernia and? A. Diverticulosis B. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease C. Pancreatitis D. Haemorrhoids 38 / 50 38. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Response to treatment B. D-xylose absorption test C. Small intestinal biopsy D. Type of anaemia 39 / 50 39. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphangiectasia B. Cardnoid syndrome C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Whipple's disease 40 / 50 40. What is true about Weil’s disease? A. Liver biopsy is diagnostic B. Myocarditis may be a complication C. Leucopenia D. Low glucose in CSF 41 / 50 41. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Stomach B. Caecum C. Sigmoid colon D. Small intestine 42 / 50 42. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Hydroureter B. Clubbing C. Chronic cholecystitis D. Amyloidosis 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. Very high bilirubin level B. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease C. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units D. Hyperglobulinaemia is common 44 / 50 44. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas B. Solitary primary tumours are very common C. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas D. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant 45 / 50 45. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Babinski's sign B. Night-time somnolence C. Flaccid muscles D. Presence of ankle clonus 46 / 50 46. Acute pancreatitis is not associated with: A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Pancreatic islet cell tumour D. Biliary tract disease 47 / 50 47. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Budd-chiari syndrome B. Hepatic granulomas C. Peliosis hepatis D. Benign adenomas in liver 48 / 50 48. Octreotide can be used in all except: A. Pancreatic ascites B. Short bowel syndrome C. Ulcerative colitis D. Oesophageal variceal bleeding 49 / 50 49. The valvular heart disease common in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pulmonary incompetence B. Tricuspid incompetence C. Aortic incompetence D. Mitral stenosis 50 / 50 50. The Kayser-Fleischer (KF) ring is: A. The inferior pole of cornea is first affected B. Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane C. Broader laterally and medially D. Hampers vision LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology
