Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Gum is the principal site of affection B. Superficial ulcers in mouth C. Hiatus hernia may be associated with D. May be complicated by angina pectoris 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Amoebic liver abscess B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Toxic hepatitis D. Weil's disease 3 / 50 3. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Malabsorption B. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form C. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa D. Lactose intolerance 4 / 50 4. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Mucous discharge B. Diarrhoea C. Bleeding per rectum D. Pruritus ani 5 / 50 5. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Arthritis B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Nephrolithiasis D. Emphysema 6 / 50 6. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Vitamins and minerals absorption B. Fat metabolism C. Protein metabolism D. Carbohydrate metabolism 7 / 50 7. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare B. Microsporidia C. Isospora belli D. Cryptosporidium 8 / 50 8. Commonest cause of hepatoma is: A. Alcohol B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Haemochromatosis D. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency 9 / 50 9. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Tuberculous peritonitis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Budd-Chiari syndrome 10 / 50 10. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Retinopathy B. Macroangiopathy C. Neuropathy D. Nephropathy 11 / 50 11. Gastric diverticula are: A. Clinically not significant B. A premalignant condition C. Need immediate upper GI endoscopy D. Commonly seen 12 / 50 12. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Anorexia nervos B. Schizophrenia C. Depression D. Sheehan's syndrome 13 / 50 13. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Ascending colon B. Descending colon C. Transverse colon D. Caecum 14 / 50 14. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Felty's syndrome B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Focal amyloidosis D. Chronic active hepatitis 15 / 50 15. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 500-1000 ml B. 100-250 ml C. 250-500 ml D. More than 1 litre 16 / 50 16. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Dysphagia starts with solid foods B. Odynophagia may be a symptom C. Commonest site of affection is lower third D. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease 17 / 50 17. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly B. Cranial nerve palsy may occur C. Coronary arteritis may be a feature D. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible 18 / 50 18. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Prothrombin time B. SGPT C. Serum bilirubin D. Alkaline phosphatase 19 / 50 19. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation B. Acute lung injury C. Fulminant hepatocellular failure D. Renal failure 20 / 50 20. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. The disease process is improving B. A fluctuating clinical course C. Means nothing to clinical course D. A bad prognosis 21 / 50 21. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Gastrin B. Protein meal C. Metoclopramide D. Beta-adrenergic agonist 22 / 50 22. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Voluntary phase of deglutition B. Primary peristaltic wave C. Tertiary peristaltic wave D. Secondary peristaltic wave 23 / 50 23. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter B. Distention of the sigmoid colon C. Contraction of the rectum D. Distention of the rectum 24 / 50 24. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Dark-field examination B. Urine analysis C. Stool culture D. Agglutination test 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction D. Diverticulosis 26 / 50 26. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Gilbert's syndrome B. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome 27 / 50 27. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Constipation B. Descending paralysis C. Diplopia D. Increased salivation 28 / 50 28. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Stomach B. Jejunum C. Duodenum D. Ileum 29 / 50 29. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. None of the above B. Folic acid C. Vitamin B-complex D. Iron 30 / 50 30. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Whipple's disease B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Cardnoid syndrome D. Intestinal lymphoma 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Absence of tenesmus B. Subnormal Surface temperature C. Onset with purging D. Offensive stool 32 / 50 32. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgM B. IgA C. IgD D. IgG 33 / 50 33. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Sinus tachycardia B. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings C. Bloody diarrhoea D. Fever 34 / 50 34. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Coeliac disease B. Dermatitis herpetiformi C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Sickle cell disease 35 / 50 35. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Duodenal ulcer C. Acute gastritis D. Ruptured oesophageal varices 36 / 50 36. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl B. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 C. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 D. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease 37 / 50 37. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. One hour after meals and at bedtime B. With the meals C. Just before meals D. Immediately after meals 38 / 50 38. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. Quantitative determination of faecal fat B. D-xylose absorption test C. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test D. Small intestinal X-rays 39 / 50 39. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Moderate to severe jaundice B. Starts with pruritus C. Female preponderance D. Clubbing 40 / 50 40. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Giardiasis B. Campylobacter C. Shigella D. Entero-invasive E. coli 41 / 50 41. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Pregnancy B. Secondary carcinoma of liver C. Crigler-Najjar type II D. Oral contraceptives 42 / 50 42. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity B. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection C. HBeAg implies high infectivity D. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state 43 / 50 43. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it B. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin C. Haemotochezia is common D. Left colon is commonly affected 44 / 50 44. The valvular heart disease common in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Pulmonary incompetence C. Mitral stenosis D. Tricuspid incompetence 45 / 50 45. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Yellow fever B. Herpes zoster virus C. Cytomegalovirus D. Infectious mononucleosis 46 / 50 46. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. H. pylori infection B. Pernicious anaemia C. Herpes virus infection D. Alcohol 47 / 50 47. Malignant potential is least in: A. Villous adenoma of colon B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome C. Familial colonic polyposis D. Ulcerative colitis 48 / 50 48. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Vulva B. Meninges with encephalon C. Heart D. Skin 49 / 50 49. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening ascites B. Ascitic pH < blood pH C. Worsening jaundice D. Paralytic ileus 50 / 50 50. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Chronic achalasia cardia B. Lye ingestion C. Hypervitaminosis A D. 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