Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Chronic cholecystitis B. Amyloidosis C. Clubbing D. Hydroureter 2 / 50 2. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Eclampsia B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Yellow fever D. Phosphorus poisoning 3 / 50 3. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Metoclopramide B. Tetracycline C. Cisapride D. Domperidone 4 / 50 4. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. Pernicious anaemia B. Herpes virus infection C. H. pylori infection D. Alcohol 5 / 50 5. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Protein metabolism B. Vitamins and minerals absorption C. Carbohydrate metabolism D. Fat metabolism 6 / 50 6. Which is not true so far as definition of cirrhosis of liver is concerned? A. Regeneration B. Necrosis C. Fatty infiltration D. Fibrosis 7 / 50 7. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Duodenum B. Stomach C. Ileum D. Jejunum 8 / 50 8. The commonest hepatic lesion in haemochromatosis is: A. Macronodular cirrhosis B. Fatty liver C. Micronodular cirrhosis D. Haemosiderosis 9 / 50 9. Absolute contraindication for liver biopsy is: A. Cholestasis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Haemangioma of liver 10 / 50 10. What is true about Weil’s disease? A. Leucopenia B. Liver biopsy is diagnostic C. Low glucose in CSF D. Myocarditis may be a complication 11 / 50 11. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Lansoprazole therapy C. Atrophic fundal gastritis D. Duodenal ulcer 12 / 50 12. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Hypothermia B. Amenorrhoea C. Loss of axillary and pubic hair D. Carotenaemia 13 / 50 13. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is reported in association with all of the following except: A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Pituitary adenomas 14 / 50 14. All of the following are methods for detection of H. pylori except: A. Rapid urease test B. Histology C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Endoscopic view 15 / 50 15. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 50-60% B. 70-80% C. 30-40% D. 90-100% 16 / 50 16. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Cardnoid syndrome B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Whipple's disease D. Intestinal lymphoma 17 / 50 17. Gardner’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Epidermoid cyst B. Fibromas C. Astrocytoma D. Osteomas 18 / 50 18. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Stool culture B. Urine analysis C. Agglutination test D. Dark-field examination 19 / 50 19. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypochloraemic alkalosis C. Acidosis D. Hyperchloraemia 20 / 50 20. Malignant potential is least in: A. Villous adenoma of colon B. Ulcerative colitis C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome D. Familial colonic polyposis 21 / 50 21. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Vulva B. Meninges with encephalon C. Heart D. Skin 22 / 50 22. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Stomach B. Sigmoid colon C. Small intestine D. Caecum 23 / 50 23. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland B. Melanoma C. Hepatoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 24 / 50 24. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl B. Hepatic iron index >1.5 C. Liver biopsy D. TIBC < 200 μg/dl 25 / 50 25. Macroglossia is not found in: A. Myxoedema B. Hurler syndrome C. Bulbar palsy D. Primary amyloidosis 26 / 50 26. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Caecum B. Hepatic flexure C. Transverse colon D. Splenic flexure 27 / 50 27. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Omeprazole B. Sucralfate C. Misoprostol D. Carbenoxolone 28 / 50 28. Carcinoid syndrome is commonly produced, when the site of primary tumour is present in: A. Bronchus B. Midgut C. Stomach D. Hindgut 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Diverticulosis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction 30 / 50 30. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Solitary primary tumours are very common B. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas C. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas D. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant 31 / 50 31. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Benign adenomas in liver B. Budd-chiari syndrome C. Hepatic granulomas D. Peliosis hepatis 32 / 50 32. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 33 / 50 33. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Beta-adrenergic agonist B. Gastrin C. Metoclopramide D. Protein meal 34 / 50 34. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa B. Lactose intolerance C. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form D. Malabsorption 35 / 50 35. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as when: A. > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 36 / 50 36. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Sclerosing cholangitis B. Osteomalacia C. Paget's disease of bone D. Osteoporosis 37 / 50 37. In coeliac sprue, which of the following is non-deficient in the body? A. Serum albumin B. Folic acid C. Vitamin B12 D. Iron 38 / 50 38. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Pemphigus B. Atopic eczema C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Psoriasis 39 / 50 39. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Adrenal insufficiency D. Hyperparathyroidism 40 / 50 40. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Sense of complete evacuation B. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools C. Colicky pain abdomen D. Abdominal distension 41 / 50 41. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Folic acid B. Iron C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics D. Vitamin 42 / 50 42. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Non-ulcer dyspepsia B. Antral gastritis C. Gastric lymphoma D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 43 / 50 43. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Trichinosis B. Schistosomiasis C. Leishmaniasis D. Trypanosomiasis 44 / 50 44. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Hydatid cyst B. Malaria C. Thalassemia D. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome 45 / 50 45. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Shigella 46 / 50 46. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Lung abscess B. Emphysema C. Pneumonia D. Fibrosis of the lung 47 / 50 47. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Acute lung injury C. Pelvic abscess D. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. Associated with other autoimmune diseases B. ANA is positive in majority C. High risk of developing hepatoma D. Cushingoid face 49 / 50 49. All are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Vitamin B12 B. Folate C. Ca++ D. Fe++ 50 / 50 50. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypergastrinaemia B. Hyperamylasaemia C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hyperlipidaemia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology