Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as when: A. > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 2 / 50 2. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Cardnoid syndrome B. Intestinal lymphoma C. Intestinal lymphangiectasia D. Whipple's disease 3 / 50 3. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test C. Quantitative determination of faecal fat D. Small intestinal X-rays 4 / 50 4. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Laennec's cirrhosis B. Hepatitis-like picture C. Fatty infiltration D. Hepatic vein thrombosis 5 / 50 5. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 60% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40% 6 / 50 6. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Yellow fever B. Phosphorus poisoning C. Eclampsia D. Carbon tetrachloride 7 / 50 7. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Atrophic fundal gastritis B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Duodenal ulcer D. Lansoprazole therapy 8 / 50 8. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare B. Cryptosporidium C. Microsporidia D. Isospora belli 9 / 50 9. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Amoebic liver abscess B. Atrophic rhinitis C. Gastrocolic fistula D. Hepatic failure 10 / 50 10. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Babinski's sign B. Presence of ankle clonus C. Night-time somnolence D. Flaccid muscles 11 / 50 11. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Nephrolithiasis B. Arthritis C. Emphysema D. Electrolyte imbalance 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Weil's disease B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Toxic hepatitis 13 / 50 13. Tegaserod is used in: A. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease B. Ulcerative colitis C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Coeliac disease 14 / 50 14. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Hepatomegaly B. Hepatocellular failure C. Ascites D. Upper GI bleeding 15 / 50 15. Whipple’s triad is found in: A. Somatostatinoma B. Glucagonoma C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Insulinoma 16 / 50 16. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Juvenile polyposis coli C. Atrial septal defect D. Intestinal tuberculosis 17 / 50 17. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 100-200 g B. 700-800 g C. 300-400 g D. 500-600 g 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody B. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West C. Gastric polyp is common D. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody 19 / 50 19. All are major components of intestinal gas except: A. H2S B. CO2 C. N2 D. Methane 20 / 50 20. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Chymotrypsin B. Elastase C. Carboxypeptidase D. Trypsin 21 / 50 21. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Liver biopsy B. Testing for red blood cell survival C. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 22 / 50 22. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Diabetes mellitus C. Adrenal insufficiency D. Hyperparathyroidism 23 / 50 23. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Coeliac disease B. Hypogammaglobulinaemia C. Radiation D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 24 / 50 24. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Histamine injection test B. Calcium infusion test C. Secretin injection test D. Feeding of a standard mea 25 / 50 25. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Pain abdomen B. Rectal pain C. Constipation D. Haematochezia 26 / 50 26. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Distended abdomen B. Obstipation C. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal D. Vomiting 27 / 50 27. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa B. Lactose intolerance C. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form D. Malabsorption 28 / 50 28. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Vitamin B. Iron C. Folic acid D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics 29 / 50 29. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Stomach biopsy B. Rectal biopsy C. Liver biopsy D. Lymph node biopsy 30 / 50 30. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool B. Periodicity is common C. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour D. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint 31 / 50 31. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Yersinia B. Unknown C. Campylobacter D. Shigella 32 / 50 32. The commonest site of carcinoid tumour is: A. Stomach B. Colon C. Appendix D. Ileum 33 / 50 33. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea B. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio C. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers D. Vitamin B12 malabsorption 34 / 50 34. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Increased salivation B. Constipation C. Descending paralysis D. Diplopia 35 / 50 35. The smallest absorbing unit of the small intestinal mucosa is: A. Crypts B. Villus C. Columnar cells D. Microvillus 36 / 50 36. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography B. Pulmonary angiography C. MRI scan of liver D. CT scan of liver 37 / 50 37. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Haemangioma of liver B. Tyrosinaemia C. Hereditary oxalosis D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis 38 / 50 38. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Gliclazide B. Rifampicin C. Halothane D. Copper sulphate 39 / 50 39. Silvery stool signifies a lesion characteristic of: A. Ampulla of Vater B. Meckel's diverticulum C. Right colic flexure D. Ileocaecal region 40 / 50 40. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Arthralgia C. Jaundice D. Haematemesis 41 / 50 41. Necrolytic migratory erythema is a feature of: A. Hepatoblastoma B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Glucagonoma D. Insulinoma 42 / 50 42. All are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Fe++ B. Ca++ C. Folate D. Vitamin B12 43 / 50 43. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Penicillamine B. Colchicine C. Elemental zinc D. Tetrathiomolybdate 44 / 50 44. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except: A. Sarcoidosis B. Menetrier's disease C. Chronic H. pylori infection D. Gastric malignancy 45 / 50 45. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. 2nd part of the duodenum B. Jejunum C. Fundus of the stomach D. Antral mucosa 46 / 50 46. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Splenomegaly B. Males are commonly susceptible C. Marked cholestasis D. Peripheral eosinophilia 47 / 50 47. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Spasm B. Fistula C. Small ulceration D. Pseudopolyps 48 / 50 48. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Towards umbilicus B. Below upwards C. Away from the umbilicus D. Above downwards 49 / 50 49. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Chronic anxiety states B. Rapid eating habit C. Pyloric stenosis D. Hypochondriac personality 50 / 50 50. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Ruptured oesophageal varices B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Acute gastritis D. Duodenal ulcer LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology