Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Coeliac disease B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Eosinophilic enteritis D. Ulcerative colitis 2 / 50 2. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Hepatoma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Melanoma D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland 3 / 50 3. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Pneumonia B. Fibrosis of the lung C. Emphysema D. Lung abscess 4 / 50 4. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Trichinosis B. Trypanosomiasis C. Schistosomiasis D. Leishmaniasis 5 / 50 5. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Chronic pancreatitis 6 / 50 6. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Arthritis B. Nephrolithiasis C. Emphysema D. Electrolyte imbalance 7 / 50 7. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Tuberculous peritonitis D. Cirrhosis of liver 8 / 50 8. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Histamine injection test B. Feeding of a standard mea C. Secretin injection test D. Calcium infusion test 9 / 50 9. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. Within the first 24 hours of birth B. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life C. At birth D. During the first 10 days of life 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. Very high bilirubin level B. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units C. Hyperglobulinaemia is common D. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease 11 / 50 11. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Water brash B. Heartburn C. Singultus D. Retching 12 / 50 12. Commonest cause of hepatoma is: A. Haemochromatosis B. Alcohol C. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency D. Cirrhosis of liver 13 / 50 13. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings B. Sinus tachycardia C. Fever D. Bloody diarrhoea 14 / 50 14. All are characteristic features of Wilson’s disease except: A. Chorea B. Grimacing C. Sensory loss D. Slurred speech 15 / 50 15. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Associated vasculitis B. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine C. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency D. Coexistent coeliac sprue 16 / 50 16. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Pain abdomen B. Haematochezia C. Rectal pain D. Constipation 17 / 50 17. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Stool smear B. Sigmoidoscopy C. Stool culture D. Barium enema 18 / 50 18. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Away from the umbilicus B. Below upwards C. Towards umbilicus D. Above downwards 19 / 50 19. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Carbohydrate metabolism B. Protein metabolism C. Fat metabolism D. Vitamins and minerals absorption 20 / 50 20. The commonest site of carcinoid tumour is: A. Ileum B. Appendix C. Stomach D. Colon 21 / 50 21. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Sense of complete evacuation B. Abdominal distension C. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools D. Colicky pain abdomen 22 / 50 22. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Acute leukaemia B. Haemophilia C. Anticoagulant therapy D. Trauma 23 / 50 23. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Tetracycline B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Domperidone 24 / 50 24. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Delta B. Alpha C. Beta D. Non-beta 25 / 50 25. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Prothrombin time C. Serum bilirubin D. SGPT 26 / 50 26. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Alcohol abuse B. Hyperthyroidism C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Protein-energy malnutrition 27 / 50 27. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Bilious vomiting B. Visible peristalsis C. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash D. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity 28 / 50 28. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Heart B. Skin C. Meninges with encephalon D. Vulva 29 / 50 29. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Vesicovaginal fistula B. Perianal fistula C. Rectovesical fistula D. Jejuno-colic fistula 30 / 50 30. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 60% B. 40% C. 20% D. 30% 31 / 50 31. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut B. Black tarry semisolid stool C. At least 60 ml of blood is required D. Offensive in odour 32 / 50 32. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Coeliac disease B. Crohn's disease C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Irritable bowel syndrome 33 / 50 33. The commonest type of oral malignancy is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Melanoma D. Adenocarcinoma 34 / 50 34. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Secondary carcinoma of liver B. Crigler-Najjar type II C. Oral contraceptives D. Pregnancy 35 / 50 35. All of the following are true regarding right-sided colonic carcinoma except: A. Cachexia B. Alteration of bowel habit C. Pain abdomen D. Anaemia 36 / 50 36. Carcinoid syndrome: A. Increases BP B. More common in women C. Produces jaundice D. Is multiple in 1/5th cases 37 / 50 37. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 75 ml B. 15 ml C. 100 ml D. 30 ml 38 / 50 38. All of the following are methods for detection of H. pylori except: A. Polymerase chain reaction B. Rapid urease test C. Endoscopic view D. Histology 39 / 50 39. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Hydroureter B. Amyloidosis C. Chronic cholecystitis D. Clubbing 40 / 50 40. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Entero-invasive E. coli B. Giardiasis C. Campylobacter D. Shigella 41 / 50 41. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter B. Shigella C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium perfringens 42 / 50 42. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Periodicity is common B. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour C. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool D. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint 43 / 50 43. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Malabsorption B. Tetany C. Gram-negative sepsis D. Meconium ileus 44 / 50 44. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Heartburn B. Chest pain C. Regurgitation D. Dysphagia 45 / 50 45. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 250-500 ml B. 500-1000 ml C. 100-250 ml D. More than 1 litre 46 / 50 46. The classical triad in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Telangiectasias, flushing, diarrhoea B. Pruritus, wheezing, diarrhoea C. Dyspnoea, flushing, valvular heart disease D. Flushing, diarrhoea, valvular heart disease 47 / 50 47. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Copper sulphate B. Halothane C. Gliclazide D. Rifampicin 48 / 50 48. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Diarrhoea B. Pruritus ani C. Bleeding per rectum D. Mucous discharge 49 / 50 49. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Commonest site of affection is lower third B. Odynophagia may be a symptom C. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease D. Dysphagia starts with solid foods 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Renal insufficiency B. Pseudopancreatic cyst C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Burns LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology