Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which one of the following is not a space-occupying disease of liver? A. Metastatic tumour B. Amyloid C. Gummas D. Cyst 2 / 50 2. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. H. pylori infection B. Pernicious anaemia C. Herpes virus infection D. Alcohol 3 / 50 3. All of the following are true regarding acute mesenteric vascular occlusion except: A. Barium study of the small intestine reveals 'thumbprinting' B. Abdominal distension with normal peristaltic sound, even with severe infarction C. Young women are the main victims D. Severe periumbilical pain at the onset 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody B. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody C. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West D. Gastric polyp is common 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Weil's disease B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Toxic hepatitis D. Acute viral hepatitis 6 / 50 6. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 7th day B. 1st day C. 3rd day D. 2nd day 7 / 50 7. Tegaserod is used in: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Coeliac disease C. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease D. Irritable bowel syndrome 8 / 50 8. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Homocystinuria B. Phenylketonuria C. Alkaptonuria D. Cystinuria 9 / 50 9. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Achalasia cardia B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Carcinoma of the tongue 10 / 50 10. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum lipase B. Quantitative faecal fat estimation C. Serum amylase D. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test 11 / 50 11. Carbenoxolone sodium may be associated with all of the following features except: A. May be associated with milk-alkali syndrome B. Complicated by oedema C. Development of systemic hypertension D. Development of potassium depletion 12 / 50 12. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Descending paralysis B. Constipation C. Diplopia D. Increased salivation 13 / 50 13. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Fatty infiltration B. Hepatic vein thrombosis C. Hepatitis-like picture D. Laennec's cirrhosis 14 / 50 14. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Hyperamylasaemia C. Hyperlipidaemia D. Hypergastrinaemia 15 / 50 15. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome B. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia C. Gilbert's syndrome D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome 16 / 50 16. Gardner’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Osteomas B. Fibromas C. Astrocytoma D. Epidermoid cyst 17 / 50 17. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A late complication of vagotomy B. A normal oesophageal anatomy C. A cause of dysphagia D. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena 18 / 50 18. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Trauma B. Acute leukaemia C. Anticoagulant therapy D. Haemophilia 19 / 50 19. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Right-sided heart failure C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Acute myocardial infarction 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated B. Anorexia is rare C. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases D. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis 21 / 50 21. Raspberry tongue is found in: A. Yellow fever B. Rheumatic fever C. Scarlet fever D. Glandular fever 22 / 50 22. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Protein-energy malnutrition C. Hyperthyroidism D. Alcohol abuse 23 / 50 23. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery B. Tuberculosis C. Intra-abdominal malignancy D. Filariasis 24 / 50 24. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. HBeAg implies high infectivity B. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity C. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection D. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state 25 / 50 25. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Ca stomach C. Duodenal diverticula D. Stomatostatinoma 26 / 50 26. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Level of transaminases B. Serum albumin estimation C. Serum bilirubin assay D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 27 / 50 27. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Crescentic glomerulonephritis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis 28 / 50 28. Among the undermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum bilirubin B. Serum transaminases C. Serum albumin D. Serum cholesterol 29 / 50 29. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Vitamin B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Folic acid D. Iron 30 / 50 30. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Secretin injection test B. Histamine injection test C. Calcium infusion test D. Feeding of a standard mea 31 / 50 31. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Propranolol B. Legionella pneumoniae C. Measles D. Thiazides 32 / 50 32. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Amyloidosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Parkinsonism 33 / 50 33. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease B. Odynophagia may be a symptom C. Dysphagia starts with solid foods D. Commonest site of affection is lower third 34 / 50 34. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Atrophic fundal gastritis B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Lansoprazole therapy D. Duodenal ulcer 35 / 50 35. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Ascending colon B. Transverse colon C. Splenic flexure D. Hepatic flexure 36 / 50 36. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD 37 / 50 37. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Shigella B. Yersinia C. Campylobacter D. Unknown 38 / 50 38. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. AIDS B. Multiple myeloma C. Severe combined immunodeficiency D. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia 39 / 50 39. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Hepatic iron index >1.5 B. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl C. TIBC < 200 μg/dl D. Liver biopsy 40 / 50 40. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Uveitis B. Episcleritis C. Scleromalacia perforans D. Cataract 41 / 50 41. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Gastroenterostomy B. Three-quarter gastric resection C. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty D. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy 42 / 50 42. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Chloramphenicol B. Tetracycline C. Anabolic steroids D. Oral contraceptives 43 / 50 43. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Body B. Cardia C. Lesser curvature D. Antrum 44 / 50 44. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status B. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients C. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen D. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level 45 / 50 45. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphangiectasia B. Whipple's disease C. Cardnoid syndrome D. Intestinal lymphoma 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L B. Serum AST> 400 ID /L C. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl D. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 47 / 50 47. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Hepatomegaly B. Ascites C. Hepatocellular failure D. Upper GI bleeding 48 / 50 48. The presence of hepatic bruit over the liver suggests: A. Perihepatitis B. Recent liver biopsy C. Hepatoma D. Portal hypertension 49 / 50 49. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Small intestinal X-rays C. Quantitative determination of faecal fat D. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test 50 / 50 50. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgM B. IgD C. IgA D. IgG LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology