Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 70-80% B. 50-60% C. 30-40% D. 90-100% 2 / 50 2. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Segmentation and clumping B. Loss of mucosal pattern C. Coarsening of mucosal folds D. Dilatation 3 / 50 3. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Yellow fever B. Phosphorus poisoning C. Eclampsia D. Carbon tetrachloride 4 / 50 4. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland D. Carcinoid syndrome 5 / 50 5. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Protein metabolism B. Carbohydrate metabolism C. Fat metabolism D. Vitamins and minerals absorption 6 / 50 6. The commonest cause of metastasis to the wall of the stomach is: A. Hepatoma B. Melanoma C. Carcinoma of breast D. Carcinoma of thyroid 7 / 50 7. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Tertiary peristaltic wave B. Secondary peristaltic wave C. Primary peristaltic wave D. Voluntary phase of deglutition 8 / 50 8. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Lung abscess B. Fibrosis of the lung C. Pneumonia D. Emphysema 9 / 50 9. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Vomiting B. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal C. Obstipation D. Distended abdomen 10 / 50 10. Gardner’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Epidermoid cyst B. Fibromas C. Astrocytoma D. Osteomas 11 / 50 11. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except: A. Menetrier's disease B. Chronic H. pylori infection C. Gastric malignancy D. Sarcoidosis 12 / 50 12. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare B. Cryptosporidium C. Microsporidia D. Isospora belli 13 / 50 13. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. Salmonella B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. E. coli 14 / 50 14. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Chronic myeloid leukaemia B. Focal amyloidosis C. Chronic active hepatitis D. Felty's syndrome 15 / 50 15. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Biliary manometry B. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal C. Best visualisation of cystic duct D. Bile or pancreatic cytology 16 / 50 16. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Iron deficiency B. Hemolysis C. Folic acid deficiency D. Vitamin B12 deficiency 17 / 50 17. The commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Trauma B. Alcohol abuse C. Gallstones D. Infection 18 / 50 18. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Rectal pain B. Pain abdomen C. Haematochezia D. Constipation 19 / 50 19. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Hydroureter B. Chronic cholecystitis C. Clubbing D. Amyloidosis 20 / 50 20. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Fever B. Sinus tachycardia C. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings D. Bloody diarrhoea 21 / 50 21. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty B. Three-quarter gastric resection C. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy D. Gastroenterostomy 22 / 50 22. The most common gastrointestinal disorder in a community is: A. Duodenal ulcer B. Diverticulitis C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Reflux oesophagitis 23 / 50 23. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as when: A. > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 24 / 50 24. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen B. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients C. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level D. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status 25 / 50 25. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. One hour after meals and at bedtime B. Just before meals C. With the meals D. Immediately after meals 26 / 50 26. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Transverse colon B. Caecum C. Splenic flexure D. Hepatic flexure 27 / 50 27. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis E 28 / 50 28. Which of the following agent’s absorption is least affected in massive small bowel resection? A. Vitamin B12 B. Ca++ C. Fat D. Salt and water 29 / 50 29. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Sorbitol B. Theophylline C. Amitriptyline D. Colchicine 30 / 50 30. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas B. Solitary primary tumours are very common C. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas D. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant 31 / 50 31. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Hereditary oxalosis B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis C. Tyrosinaemia D. Haemangioma of liver 32 / 50 32. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen B. Hypophosphataemia C. Increased bicarbonate level in serum D. Hypercalcaemia 33 / 50 33. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia B. Severe combined immunodeficiency C. AIDS D. Multiple myeloma 34 / 50 34. The valvular heart disease common in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral stenosis B. Pulmonary incompetence C. Aortic incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 35 / 50 35. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Folic acid B. Iron C. Vitamin D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics 36 / 50 36. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) may be produced by all except: A. Massive dose of estrogen B. Nifedipine C. Amiodarone D. Tetracycline 37 / 50 37. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Tropical sprue C. Biliary dyspepsia D. Peptic ulcer disease 38 / 50 38. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Acidosis B. Hypochloraemic alkalosis C. Hyperchloraemia D. Hyperkalaemia 39 / 50 39. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Oral contraceptives B. Hepatoma C. Valve in hepatic veins D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 40 / 50 40. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Gum is the principal site of affection B. Hiatus hernia may be associated with C. Superficial ulcers in mouth D. May be complicated by angina pectoris 41 / 50 41. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 30% B. 20% C. 40% D. 60% 42 / 50 42. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Melanoma B. Hepatoma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland 43 / 50 43. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Intestinal tuberculosis C. Juvenile polyposis coli D. Atrial septal defect 44 / 50 44. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Usually a disease of teen age B. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form C. Invariably requires surgery D. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris 45 / 50 45. Hepatic amoebiasis is associated with all except: A. Right lower intercostal tenderness B. May lead to the development of an amoebic liver abscess C. Jaundice is present in majority D. Abscess commonly affects the right lobe 46 / 50 46. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Fatty infiltration B. Hepatic vein thrombosis C. Hepatitis-like picture D. Laennec's cirrhosis 47 / 50 47. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Diphtheria B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Streptococcal infection D. Ludwig's angina 48 / 50 48. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Domperidone B. Metoclopramide C. Tetracycline D. Cisapride 49 / 50 49. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Stool culture B. Urine analysis C. Dark-field examination D. Agglutination test 50 / 50 50. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Sigmoid colon B. Small intestine C. Stomach D. Caecum LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology