Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Acute myocardial infarction 2 / 50 2. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Bilious vomiting B. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash C. Visible peristalsis D. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity 3 / 50 3. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine B. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers C. Produces loose stool D. Suitable for patients with renal impairment 4 / 50 4. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Lung B. Liver C. Intestine D. Kidney 5 / 50 5. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Chronic cholecystitis B. Amyloidosis C. Hydroureter D. Clubbing 6 / 50 6. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Constipation B. Increased salivation C. Diplopia D. Descending paralysis 7 / 50 7. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Rota and Norwalk viruses C. Clostridium difficile D. Enterotoxigenic E. coli 8 / 50 8. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Gastric ulcer B. Syphilis C. Developmental anomaly D. Lymphoma 9 / 50 9. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Descending colon B. Ascending colon C. Transverse colon D. Caecum 10 / 50 10. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Amoebic liver abscess B. Hepatic failure C. Gastrocolic fistula D. Atrophic rhinitis 11 / 50 11. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. Just before meals B. With the meals C. One hour after meals and at bedtime D. Immediately after meals 12 / 50 12. Portal hypertension associated with soft liver suggests: A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis C. Extrahepatic obstruction D. Cirrhosis of liver 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Toxic hepatitis B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. Weil's disease 14 / 50 14. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Hepatoma B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland D. Melanoma 15 / 50 15. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test B. Serum lipase C. Serum amylase D. Quantitative faecal fat estimation 16 / 50 16. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome B. Thalassemia C. Malaria D. Hydatid cyst 17 / 50 17. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. VIII B. VII C. II D. IX 18 / 50 18. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Fistula B. Pseudopolyps C. Spasm D. Small ulceration 19 / 50 19. Hyperdefaecation is found in all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Hyperthyroidism D. Proctitis 20 / 50 20. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. Usually 5 cm long B. Present in 2% population C. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa D. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve 21 / 50 21. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 75 ml B. 30 ml C. 100 ml D. 15 ml 22 / 50 22. Serum alkaline phosphatase level may be increased in all except: A. Metastasis in liver B. Paget's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Cholestasis 23 / 50 23. The commonest hepatic lesion in haemochromatosis is: A. Macronodular cirrhosis B. Micronodular cirrhosis C. Fatty liver D. Haemosiderosis 24 / 50 24. The most helpful differentiating histological feature between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease by rectal biopsy is: A. Fibrosis B. Crypt abscess C. Transmural involvement D. Granuloma 25 / 50 25. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 30-40% B. 50-60% C. 70-80% D. 90-100% 26 / 50 26. Commonest cause of hepatoma is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Haemochromatosis C. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency D. Alcohol 27 / 50 27. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal B. Distended abdomen C. Vomiting D. Obstipation 28 / 50 28. The commonest malignant tumour of the gallbladder is: A. Sarcoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Haemangioendothelioma D. Adenocarcinoma 29 / 50 29. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Stool smear B. Sigmoidoscopy C. Barium enema D. Stool culture 30 / 50 30. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Fat B. Iron C. Protein D. Carbohydrate 31 / 50 31. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Stomach B. Proximal small intestine C. Distal small intestine D. Duodenum 32 / 50 32. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 2nd day B. 1st day C. 3rd day D. 7th day 33 / 50 33. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Carotenaemia B. Hypothermia C. Amenorrhoea D. Loss of axillary and pubic hair 34 / 50 34. Spider naevi: A. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy B. May be seen in some healthy people C. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension D. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion 35 / 50 35. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Juvenile polyposis coli C. Intestinal tuberculosis D. Atrial septal defect 36 / 50 36. Oral mucous membrane may be affected in all except: A. Lichen planus B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. Pemphigus Vulgaris 37 / 50 37. Latent jaundice may be a feature of all except: A. Pernicious anaemia B. Tropical sprue C. Acute pulmonary thromboembolism D. Congestive cardiac failure 38 / 50 38. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Phenylketonuria B. Cystinuria C. Alkaptonuria D. Homocystinuria 39 / 50 39. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Protein-losing enteropathy B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Chronic pancreatitis 40 / 50 40. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Recurrent ulceration C. Palpitation D. Steatorrhoea 41 / 50 41. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. EEG B. Evoked potential study C. Psychometric study D. MRI of brain 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme B. Pre-malignant C. High serum acid phosphatase level D. Hepatosplenomegaly 43 / 50 43. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Acidosis B. Hypochloraemic alkalosis C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hyperchloraemia 44 / 50 44. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Valve in hepatic veins B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria C. Oral contraceptives D. Hepatoma 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Subnormal Surface temperature B. Absence of tenesmus C. Offensive stool D. Onset with purging 46 / 50 46. Which of the following agent’s absorption is least affected in massive small bowel resection? A. Salt and water B. Fat C. Vitamin B12 D. Ca++ 47 / 50 47. Symptoms of carcinoma of the left colon include all except: A. Low back pain B. Cramps in the abdomen C. Altered bowel habits D. Melena 48 / 50 48. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. Serotonin antagonist B. beta-adrenergic agonist C. Methylxanthine bronchodilator D. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist 49 / 50 49. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Meconium ileus B. Tetany C. Malabsorption D. Gram-negative sepsis 50 / 50 50. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Macroangiopathy B. Retinopathy C. 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