Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Carotenaemia C. Loss of axillary and pubic hair D. Hypothermia 2 / 50 2. The presence of hepatic bruit over the liver suggests: A. Portal hypertension B. Hepatoma C. Perihepatitis D. Recent liver biopsy 3 / 50 3. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Malaria B. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome C. Hydatid cyst D. Thalassemia 4 / 50 4. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Shigella B. Campylobacter C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile 5 / 50 5. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces B. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough C. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities D. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both 6 / 50 6. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Erythema marginatum B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Aphthous stomatitis D. Gallstone formation 7 / 50 7. Manometric study of the lower oesophagus is important in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Diffuse oesophageal spasm C. Achalasia cardia D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome 8 / 50 8. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers B. Vitamin B12 malabsorption C. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio D. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea 9 / 50 9. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis C B. Hepatitis E C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis B 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Bacillus cereus C. Streptococcus (Group A) D. Clostridium botulinum 11 / 50 11. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Juvenile polyposis coli C. Intestinal tuberculosis D. Atrial septal defect 12 / 50 12. Acute pancreatitis is not associated with: A. Biliary tract disease B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Pancreatic islet cell tumour 13 / 50 13. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Shigella B. Giardiasis C. Entero-invasive E. coli D. Campylobacter 14 / 50 14. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Right atrial myxoma D. Congenital hepatic fibrosis 15 / 50 15. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Coeliac disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Crohn's disease 16 / 50 16. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis C B. Hepatitis B C. Cytomegalovirus D. Hepatitis D 17 / 50 17. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Stomach B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Transverse colon 18 / 50 18. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgD B. IgA C. IgG D. IgM 19 / 50 19. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Hypereosinophilic enteritis B. Melanoma affecting colon C. Anthraquinone laxative abuse D. Crohn's disease 20 / 50 20. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Coeliac sprue B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Whipple's disease D. Systemic mastocytosis 21 / 50 21. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Peripheral eosinophilia B. Males are commonly susceptible C. Marked cholestasis D. Splenomegaly 22 / 50 22. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Stomach B. Sigmoid colon C. Small intestine D. Caecum 23 / 50 23. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Lye ingestion B. Hypervitaminosis A C. Chronic achalasia cardia D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome 24 / 50 24. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Carbohydrate metabolism B. Vitamins and minerals absorption C. Protein metabolism D. Fat metabolism 25 / 50 25. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously B. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching C. May produce melaena D. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction 26 / 50 26. Venous prominence present in the upper abdomen with direction of flow towards pelvis suggests: A. Hepatic vein thrombosis B. Portal hypertension C. Inferior vena caval obstruction D. Superior vena caval obstruction 27 / 50 27. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. The blood may not be mixed with stool B. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon C. Passage of bright red blood per rectum D. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz 28 / 50 28. The most common gastrointestinal disorder in a community is: A. Diverticulitis B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Duodenal ulcer D. Reflux oesophagitis 29 / 50 29. The commonest site of carcinoma of the stomach is: A. Prepyloric B. Lesser curvature C. Greater curvature D. Body of the stomach 30 / 50 30. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Cataract B. Uveitis C. Episcleritis D. Scleromalacia perforans 31 / 50 31. The Kayser-Fleischer (KF) ring is: A. Hampers vision B. The inferior pole of cornea is first affected C. Broader laterally and medially D. Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane 32 / 50 32. Gastric diverticula are: A. A premalignant condition B. Commonly seen C. Need immediate upper GI endoscopy D. Clinically not significant 33 / 50 33. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. Black tarry semisolid stool B. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut C. Offensive in odour D. At least 60 ml of blood is required 34 / 50 34. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. Jejunum B. 2nd part of the duodenum C. Fundus of the stomach D. Antral mucosa 35 / 50 35. The smallest absorbing unit of the small intestinal mucosa is: A. Columnar cells B. Crypts C. Microvillus D. Villus 36 / 50 36. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris B. Usually a disease of teen age C. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form D. Invariably requires surgery 37 / 50 37. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Trauma B. Acute leukaemia C. Haemophilia D. Anticoagulant therapy 38 / 50 38. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Pneumonia B. Emphysema C. Fibrosis of the lung D. Lung abscess 39 / 50 39. Hyperdefaecation is found in all except: A. Proctitis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism 40 / 50 40. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 60% B. 40% C. 20% D. 30% 41 / 50 41. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Regurgitation B. Dysphagia C. Heartburn D. Chest pain 42 / 50 42. Jejunal diverticula may be associated with: A. Hypochlorhydria B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion 43 / 50 43. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. VII B. IX C. VIII D. II 44 / 50 44. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Heartburn B. Singultus C. Water brash D. Retching 45 / 50 45. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Anabolic steroids C. Tetracycline D. Chloramphenicol 46 / 50 46. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Renal failure B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. Acute lung injury D. Fulminant hepatocellular failure 47 / 50 47. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland C. Hepatoma D. Melanoma 48 / 50 48. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. Protein electrophoresis C. USG of liver D. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation 49 / 50 49. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa B. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form C. Lactose intolerance D. Malabsorption 50 / 50 50. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Three-quarter gastric resection B. Gastroenterostomy C. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy D. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology
