Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Coeliac disease B. Radiation C. Hypogammaglobulinaemia D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 2 / 50 2. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Brucella abortus B. Pneumococcus C. Leptospira D. LD body 3 / 50 3. Tegaserod is used in: A. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease B. Coeliac disease C. Ulcerative colitis D. Irritable bowel syndrome 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Pancreatic calcification B. Steatorrhoea C. Diabetes mellitus D. Abdominal pain 5 / 50 5. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) may be produced by all except: A. Tetracycline B. Amiodarone C. Nifedipine D. Massive dose of estrogen 6 / 50 6. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Chenodeoxycholic acid B. Cholic acid C. Deoxycholic acid D. Lithocholic acid 7 / 50 7. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Intra-abdominal malignancy B. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery C. Tuberculosis D. Filariasis 8 / 50 8. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Right-sided heart failure D. Acute myocardial infarction 9 / 50 9. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Rota and Norwalk viruses B. Clostridium difficile C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli D. Campylobacter jejuni 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Diverticulosis C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction 11 / 50 11. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Stomatostatinoma C. Duodenal diverticula D. Ca stomach 12 / 50 12. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Diaphoresis B. Dizziness C. Confusion D. Postural hypertension 13 / 50 13. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. More than 60% B. 20-30% C. 40-50% D. 50-60% 14 / 50 14. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. Zidovudine B. INH C. Atorvastatin D. Ketoconazole 15 / 50 15. Malignant potential is least in: A. Familial colonic polyposis B. Villous adenoma of colon C. Ulcerative colitis D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome 16 / 50 16. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Hepatic failure B. Atrophic rhinitis C. Gastrocolic fistula D. Amoebic liver abscess 17 / 50 17. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Streptococcal infection B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Ludwig's angina D. Diphtheria 18 / 50 18. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Periodicity is common B. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour C. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint D. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool 19 / 50 19. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Commonest cause of portal hypertension B. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example C. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure D. Blocked hepatic vein 20 / 50 20. Which is true in familial polyposis coli? A. Polyps are present since birth B. X-linked recessive inheritance C. The rectum is spared D. The patient may not have any symptoms until a carcinoma has developed 21 / 50 21. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Distended abdomen B. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal C. Obstipation D. Vomiting 22 / 50 22. Gastric diverticula are: A. Clinically not significant B. Commonly seen C. A premalignant condition D. Need immediate upper GI endoscopy 23 / 50 23. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Rectal pain B. Pain abdomen C. Constipation D. Haematochezia 24 / 50 24. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Fat B. Carbohydrate C. Iron D. Protein 25 / 50 25. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Pancreatic ductal obstruction B. Exocrine pancreatic function C. Endocrine pancreatic function D. Pancreatic carcinoma 26 / 50 26. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Acute gastritis C. Duodenal ulcer D. Ruptured oesophageal varices 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Clarithromycin B. Cefixime C. Pantoprazole D. Tinidazole 28 / 50 28. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Babinski's sign B. Flaccid muscles C. Night-time somnolence D. Presence of ankle clonus 29 / 50 29. Which of the following clotting factors is not produced in the liver? A. VII B. II C. V D. IV 30 / 50 30. In coeliac sprue, which of the following is non-deficient in the body? A. Folic acid B. Vitamin B12 C. Iron D. Serum albumin 31 / 50 31. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Jaundice B. Liver biopsy is diagnostic C. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology D. Mild, firm hepatomegaly 32 / 50 32. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated with all except: A. Autoimmune thyroiditis B. Renal tubular acidosis C. Wilson's disease D. CREST syndrome 33 / 50 33. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. Staphylococci B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Anaerobes D. E. coli 34 / 50 34. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. 7-10 mmHg B. 5-7mmHg C. >12mmHg D. <5mmHg 35 / 50 35. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Bile or pancreatic cytology B. Biliary manometry C. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal D. Best visualisation of cystic duct 36 / 50 36. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Gallstone formation B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Erythema marginatum D. Aphthous stomatitis 37 / 50 37. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland B. Hepatoma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Melanoma 38 / 50 38. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Breast B. Prostate C. Thyroid D. Colon 39 / 50 39. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Moderate to severe jaundice B. Starts with pruritus C. Clubbing D. Female preponderance 40 / 50 40. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin B-complex C. Iron D. None of the above 41 / 50 41. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Perianal fistula B. Vesicovaginal fistula C. Jejuno-colic fistula D. Rectovesical fistula 42 / 50 42. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. On the palms and soles B. In males C. After a cold bath D. At daytime 43 / 50 43. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Polycythaemia vera C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Pregnancy 44 / 50 44. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Non-ulcer dyspepsia B. Antral gastritis C. Gastric lymphoma D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 45 / 50 45. The presence of diverticulosis is most commonly seen in: A. Sigmoid colon B. Descending colon C. Transverse colon D. Caecum 46 / 50 46. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools B. Abdominal distension C. Sense of complete evacuation D. Colicky pain abdomen 47 / 50 47. Chronic gastritis may be characterised by all except: A. Anorexia B. Incessant vomiting C. Gastric polyp D. Haematemesis 48 / 50 48. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis may be associated with: A. Chronic arsenic ingestion B. Sarcoidosis C. Oral contraceptives D. Umbilical sepsis 49 / 50 49. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Amitriptyline B. Sorbitol C. Colchicine D. Theophylline 50 / 50 50. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Odynophagia may be a symptom B. Dysphagia starts with solid foods C. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease D. 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