Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Stomach biopsy B. Lymph node biopsy C. Liver biopsy D. Rectal biopsy 2 / 50 2. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Achalasia cardia B. Carcinoma of the tongue C. Wilson's disease D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 3 / 50 3. The smallest absorbing unit of the small intestinal mucosa is: A. Columnar cells B. Crypts C. Villus D. Microvillus 4 / 50 4. The most helpful differentiating histological feature between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease by rectal biopsy is: A. Granuloma B. Fibrosis C. Transmural involvement D. Crypt abscess 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. Anorexia is rare B. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases C. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis D. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated 6 / 50 6. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Oral contraceptives B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria C. Valve in hepatic veins D. Hepatoma 7 / 50 7. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation C. USG of liver D. Protein electrophoresis 8 / 50 8. Saint’s triad is the presence of gallstones, hiatal hernia and? A. Haemorrhoids B. Pancreatitis C. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease D. Diverticulosis 9 / 50 9. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Best visualisation of cystic duct B. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal C. Bile or pancreatic cytology D. Biliary manometry 10 / 50 10. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Streptomycin D. Clindamycin 11 / 50 11. Which one of the following originates from non-beta islet cell tumour of the pancreas? A. Somatostatinoma B. Glucagonoma C. Insulinoma D. Gastrinoma 12 / 50 12. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. More than 60% B. 40-50% C. 50-60% D. 20-30% 13 / 50 13. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 100-250 ml B. 500-1000 ml C. 250-500 ml D. More than 1 litre 14 / 50 14. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease? A. Folic acid B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin B12 15 / 50 15. Octreotide can be used in all except: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Short bowel syndrome C. Oesophageal variceal bleeding D. Pancreatic ascites 16 / 50 16. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status B. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen C. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level D. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients 17 / 50 17. Necrolytic migratory erythema is a feature of: A. Glucagonoma B. Insulinoma C. Hepatoblastoma D. Carcinoid syndrome 18 / 50 18. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Mucous discharge B. Diarrhoea C. Pruritus ani D. Bleeding per rectum 19 / 50 19. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. At least 60 ml of blood is required B. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut C. Black tarry semisolid stool D. Offensive in odour 20 / 50 20. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 21 / 50 21. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is reported in association with all of the following except: A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Pituitary adenomas D. Hyperparathyroidism 22 / 50 22. The valvular heart disease common in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Mitral stenosis C. Pulmonary incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 23 / 50 23. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Pelvic abscess B. Acute lung injury C. Renal failure D. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis 24 / 50 24. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Palpitation B. Recurrent ulceration C. Hypoglycaemia D. Steatorrhoea 25 / 50 25. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Perianal fistula B. Jejuno-colic fistula C. Rectovesical fistula D. Vesicovaginal fistula 26 / 50 26. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Oesophageal carcinoma B. Hiatal hernia C. Alcoholism D. Reflux oesophagitis 27 / 50 27. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Malabsorption B. Tetany C. Meconium ileus D. Gram-negative sepsis 28 / 50 28. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Left atrial myxoma C. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency D. Congestive cardiac failure 29 / 50 29. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Cranial nerve palsy may occur B. Coronary arteritis may be a feature C. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible D. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly 30 / 50 30. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Colchicine B. Theophylline C. Sorbitol D. Amitriptyline 31 / 50 31. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Postural hypertension B. Diaphoresis C. Confusion D. Dizziness 32 / 50 32. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening ascites B. Worsening jaundice C. Paralytic ileus D. Ascitic pH < blood pH 33 / 50 33. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Reye's syndrome B. Rotor syndrome C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Gilbert's syndrome 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. Gastric polyp is common B. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody C. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody D. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West 35 / 50 35. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Pregnancy B. Crigler-Najjar type II C. Secondary carcinoma of liver D. Oral contraceptives 36 / 50 36. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Transverse colon B. Ascending colon C. Descending colon D. Caecum 37 / 50 37. Acute pancreatitis is not associated with: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Pancreatic islet cell tumour C. Biliary tract disease D. Pancreatic carcinoma 38 / 50 38. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli B. Rota and Norwalk viruses C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Clostridium difficile 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. Cushingoid face B. ANA is positive in majority C. Associated with other autoimmune diseases D. High risk of developing hepatoma 40 / 50 40. Chronic gastritis may be characterised by all except: A. Anorexia B. Gastric polyp C. Incessant vomiting D. Haematemesis 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. Pre-malignant B. Hepatosplenomegaly C. High serum acid phosphatase level D. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme 42 / 50 42. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Felty's syndrome B. Focal amyloidosis C. Chronic myeloid leukaemia D. Chronic active hepatitis 43 / 50 43. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. INH B. Zidovudine C. Atorvastatin D. Ketoconazole 44 / 50 44. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Schistosomiasis B. Leishmaniasis C. Trypanosomiasis D. Trichinosis 45 / 50 45. Serum alkaline phosphatase level may be increased in all except: A. Metastasis in liver B. Paget's disease C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Cholestasis 46 / 50 46. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Coarsening of mucosal folds B. Dilatation C. Loss of mucosal pattern D. Segmentation and clumping 47 / 50 47. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. HBeAg implies high infectivity B. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection C. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity D. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state 48 / 50 48. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. Quantitative determination of faecal fat B. D-xylose absorption test C. Small intestinal X-rays D. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test 49 / 50 49. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. Just before meals B. Immediately after meals C. One hour after meals and at bedtime D. With the meals 50 / 50 50. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Cardnoid syndrome D. Whipple's disease LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology