Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Ascites C. Upper GI bleeding D. Hepatomegaly 2 / 50 2. Incidence of gastric carcinoid is increased in all except: A. Achlorhydria B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis C. Pernicious anaemia D. Mesenteric fibrosis 3 / 50 3. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. Produces loose stool B. Suitable for patients with renal impairment C. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine D. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers 4 / 50 4. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as when: A. > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 5 / 50 5. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. Antral mucosa B. Jejunum C. Fundus of the stomach D. 2nd part of the duodenum 6 / 50 6. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. LD body B. Leptospira C. Pneumococcus D. Brucella abortus 7 / 50 7. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Systemic mastocytosis C. Whipple's disease D. Coeliac sprue 8 / 50 8. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Dermatitis herpetiformis B. Pemphigus C. Atopic eczema D. Psoriasis 9 / 50 9. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Chronic cholecystitis B. Clubbing C. Amyloidosis D. Hydroureter 10 / 50 10. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Carcinoid syndrome 11 / 50 11. All are major components of intestinal gas except: A. H2S B. N2 C. CO2 D. Methane 12 / 50 12. Tropical sprue may be associated with all except: A. Partial villous atrophy is more common than subtotal villous atrophy B. Treatment is done satisfactorily by intestinal resection C. Patchy lesion D. Malabsorption 13 / 50 13. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Most common GI disorder in practice B. Commonly affects middle-aged males C. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common D. Easily treatable 14 / 50 14. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Pregnancy B. Oral contraceptives C. Secondary carcinoma of liver D. Crigler-Najjar type II 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction D. Diverticulosis 16 / 50 16. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Solitary primary tumours are very common B. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant C. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas D. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas 17 / 50 17. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Transverse colon B. Hepatic flexure C. Caecum D. Splenic flexure 18 / 50 18. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 700-800 g B. 500-600 g C. 100-200 g D. 300-400 g 19 / 50 19. The commonest site of carcinoid tumour is: A. Ileum B. Colon C. Stomach D. Appendix 20 / 50 20. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. More than 1 litre B. 250-500 ml C. 500-1000 ml D. 100-250 ml 21 / 50 21. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. DNA polymerase B. IgG anti-HBc C. HBeAg D. Anti-HBs 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody B. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody C. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West D. Gastric polyp is common 23 / 50 23. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 30% B. 40% C. 20% D. 60% 24 / 50 24. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Depression B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Schizophrenia D. Anorexia nervos 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated B. Anorexia is rare C. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases D. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis 26 / 50 26. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Babinski's sign B. Night-time somnolence C. Flaccid muscles D. Presence of ankle clonus 27 / 50 27. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Focal amyloidosis B. Felty's syndrome C. Chronic active hepatitis D. Chronic myeloid leukaemia 28 / 50 28. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Bilious vomiting B. Visible peristalsis C. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash D. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity 29 / 50 29. Macroglossia is not found in: A. Myxoedema B. Primary amyloidosis C. Hurler syndrome D. Bulbar palsy 30 / 50 30. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia B. AIDS C. Severe combined immunodeficiency D. Multiple myeloma 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Lactase deficiency B. Coeliac disease C. Laxative abuse D. Whipple's disease 32 / 50 32. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Tyrosinaemia B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis C. Haemangioma of liver D. Hereditary oxalosis 33 / 50 33. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Tuberculous peritonitis D. Cirrhosis of liver 34 / 50 34. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Digitalis B. Clindamycin C. Colchicine D. Sucralfate 35 / 50 35. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Staphylococci C. E. coli D. Anaerobes 36 / 50 36. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. Hepatoma C. Valve in hepatic veins D. Oral contraceptives 37 / 50 37. Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is true? A. Malignancy never follows even in long-standing disease B. Segmental involvement is common C. Granuloma and fistula formation are characteristic D. Crypt abscesses are typical 38 / 50 38. The commonest cause of metastasis to the wall of the stomach is: A. Hepatoma B. Carcinoma of breast C. Melanoma D. Carcinoma of thyroid 39 / 50 39. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Reye's syndrome C. Rotor syndrome D. Gilbert's syndrome 40 / 50 40. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. Offensive in odour B. Black tarry semisolid stool C. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut D. At least 60 ml of blood is required 41 / 50 41. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. >12mmHg B. <5mmHg C. 5-7mmHg D. 7-10 mmHg 42 / 50 42. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Fever B. Sinus tachycardia C. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings D. Bloody diarrhoea 43 / 50 43. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Vomiting B. Distended abdomen C. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal D. Obstipation 44 / 50 44. Jejunal diverticula may be associated with: A. Hypochlorhydria B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion 45 / 50 45. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces B. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough C. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both D. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities 46 / 50 46. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. IgG 47 / 50 47. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Meningitis C. Aplastic anaemia D. Myocarditis 48 / 50 48. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Small intestinal biopsy B. D-xylose absorption test C. Type of anaemia D. Response to treatment 49 / 50 49. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Yersinia B. Campylobacter C. Rota virus D. Shigella 50 / 50 50. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Left atrial myxoma B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency D. 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