Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Yellow fever B. Cytomegalovirus C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Herpes zoster virus 2 / 50 2. Jejunal diverticula may be associated with: A. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Hypochlorhydria D. Chronic pancreatitis 3 / 50 3. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Myocarditis B. Meningitis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Aplastic anaemia 4 / 50 4. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena B. A cause of dysphagia C. A late complication of vagotomy D. A normal oesophageal anatomy 5 / 50 5. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis B B. Hepatitis D C. Hepatitis E D. Hepatitis C 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Pancreatic calcification B. Diabetes mellitus C. Abdominal pain D. Steatorrhoea 7 / 50 7. Tropical sprue may be associated with all except: A. Patchy lesion B. Partial villous atrophy is more common than subtotal villous atrophy C. Malabsorption D. Treatment is done satisfactorily by intestinal resection 8 / 50 8. Saint’s triad is the presence of gallstones, hiatal hernia and? A. Diverticulosis B. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease C. Pancreatitis D. Haemorrhoids 9 / 50 9. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Gram-negative sepsis B. Malabsorption C. Tetany D. Meconium ileus 10 / 50 10. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Phosphorus poisoning B. Eclampsia C. Yellow fever D. Carbon tetrachloride 11 / 50 11. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease B. Antibodies to parietal cells C. Gastric atrophy D. Intestinal metaplasia 12 / 50 12. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Dilatation B. Coarsening of mucosal folds C. Loss of mucosal pattern D. Segmentation and clumping 13 / 50 13. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Campylobacter B. Rota virus C. Yersinia D. Shigella 14 / 50 14. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Adrenal insufficiency B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Carcinoid syndrome 15 / 50 15. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Cardnoid syndrome B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Whipple's disease 16 / 50 16. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Cheilosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Achlorhydria D. Loss of libido 17 / 50 17. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology B. Mild, firm hepatomegaly C. Liver biopsy is diagnostic D. Jaundice 18 / 50 18. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Contraction of the rectum B. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter C. Distention of the sigmoid colon D. Distention of the rectum 19 / 50 19. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Anabolic steroids 20 / 50 20. Predominant unconjugated bilirubin is seen in all except: A. Rotor syndrome B. Breakdown of haemoglobin C. Breakdown of myoglobin D. Ineffective erythropoiesis 21 / 50 21. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example B. Blocked hepatic vein C. Commonest cause of portal hypertension D. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure 22 / 50 22. Among the undermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum bilirubin B. Serum cholesterol C. Serum transaminases D. Serum albumin 23 / 50 23. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. Evoked potential study B. MRI of brain C. Psychometric study D. EEG 24 / 50 24. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM 25 / 50 25. Menetrier’s disease may have all of the following except: A. Hypoproteinaemia B. Gastritis C. Hypochlorhydria D. Large tortuous gastric mucosal folds 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Ulcerative colitis D. Diverticulosis 27 / 50 27. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Clostridium difficile C. Rota and Norwalk viruses D. Enterotoxigenic E. coli 28 / 50 28. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Massive rectal bleeding is very common B. Males are affected more than females C. Right side of colon is less affected than the left D. Perforation is a serious complication 29 / 50 29. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Chronic achalasia cardia B. Lye ingestion C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome D. Hypervitaminosis A 30 / 50 30. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. INH B. Ketoconazole C. Atorvastatin D. Zidovudine 31 / 50 31. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. 5-7mmHg B. 7-10 mmHg C. >12mmHg D. <5mmHg 32 / 50 32. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Type of anaemia C. Response to treatment D. Small intestinal biopsy 33 / 50 33. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Atrophic rhinitis B. Gastrocolic fistula C. Amoebic liver abscess D. Hepatic failure 34 / 50 34. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Amyloidosis D. Parkinsonism 35 / 50 35. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Splenomegaly B. Males are commonly susceptible C. Peripheral eosinophilia D. Marked cholestasis 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium botulinum C. Streptococcus (Group A) D. Bacillus cereus 37 / 50 37. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 70ml B. 200ml C. 270ml D. 120ml 38 / 50 38. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 10% B. 80% C. 50% D. 30% 39 / 50 39. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Fatty acids B. Monoglycerides C. Diglycerides D. Triglycerides 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Cefixime B. Clarithromycin C. Tinidazole D. Pantoprazole 41 / 50 41. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Breast B. Prostate C. Thyroid D. Colon 42 / 50 42. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Entero-invasive E. coli B. Campylobacter C. Giardiasis D. Shigella 43 / 50 43. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Water brash B. Heartburn C. Singultus D. Retching 44 / 50 44. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form B. Malabsorption C. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa D. Lactose intolerance 45 / 50 45. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life B. At birth C. During the first 10 days of life D. Within the first 24 hours of birth 46 / 50 46. Which endocrine disorder is associated with exudative ascites? A. Hypothyroidism B. Addison's disease C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Conn's syndrome 47 / 50 47. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. Fundus of the stomach B. Antral mucosa C. 2nd part of the duodenum D. Jejunum 48 / 50 48. Which of the following agent’s absorption is least affected in massive small bowel resection? A. Salt and water B. Fat C. Vitamin B12 D. Ca++ 49 / 50 49. Weil’s disease is associated with: A. Absence of renal involvement B. Jaundice in all C. Severe muscle pain D. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis 50 / 50 50. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. Serotonin antagonist B. beta-adrenergic agonist C. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist D. Methylxanthine bronchodilator LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology