Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. In HBV infection, which serological maker is present in the ‘window period’ as evidence of recent HBV infection: A. IgG anti-HBc B. IgM anti-HBc C. HBV DNA D. HBeAg 2 / 50 2. Which of the following agent’s absorption is least affected in massive small bowel resection? A. Fat B. Vitamin B12 C. Ca++ D. Salt and water 3 / 50 3. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum lipase B. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test C. Quantitative faecal fat estimation D. Serum amylase 4 / 50 4. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Eclampsia B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Yellow fever D. Phosphorus poisoning 5 / 50 5. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 15 g for 24 hr B. < 9 g for 24 hrs C. < 6 g for 24 hrs D. < 12 g for 24 hrs 6 / 50 6. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Males are commonly susceptible B. Splenomegaly C. Marked cholestasis D. Peripheral eosinophilia 7 / 50 7. The commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Trauma B. Infection C. Alcohol abuse D. Gallstones 8 / 50 8. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgD B. IgA C. IgG D. IgM 9 / 50 9. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Gastric ulcer B. Lymphoma C. Syphilis D. Developmental anomaly 10 / 50 10. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa B. Lactose intolerance C. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form D. Malabsorption 11 / 50 11. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Heartburn B. Singultus C. Retching D. Water brash 12 / 50 12. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Prothrombin time B. SGPT C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Serum bilirubin 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 B. Serum AST> 400 ID /L C. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl D. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is the most sensitive and test of choice in diagnosing cystic dud obstruction, i.e. acute cholecystitis? A. CT scan B. Ultrasonography C. HIDA scan D. ERCP 15 / 50 15. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Flaccid muscles B. Babinski's sign C. Night-time somnolence D. Presence of ankle clonus 16 / 50 16. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers B. Suitable for patients with renal impairment C. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine D. Produces loose stool 17 / 50 17. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible B. Coronary arteritis may be a feature C. Cranial nerve palsy may occur D. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly 18 / 50 18. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Budd-chiari syndrome B. Peliosis hepatis C. Benign adenomas in liver D. Hepatic granulomas 19 / 50 19. Spider naevi: A. May be seen in some healthy people B. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion C. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension D. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy 20 / 50 20. Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be associated with: A. Endocardial fibroelastosis B. Retroperitoneal fibrosis C. Atrial septal defect D. Medullary sponge kidney 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Pseudopancreatic cyst B. Burns C. Renal insufficiency D. Acute intermittent porphyria 22 / 50 22. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Entero-invasive E. coli B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Giardiasis 23 / 50 23. Which one of the following is not a space-occupying disease of liver? A. Cyst B. Amyloid C. Metastatic tumour D. Gummas 24 / 50 24. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. MRI scan of liver B. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography C. CT scan of liver D. Pulmonary angiography 25 / 50 25. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Unknown B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Yersinia 26 / 50 26. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgD 27 / 50 27. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris B. Invariably requires surgery C. Usually a disease of teen age D. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form 28 / 50 28. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Fat metabolism B. Carbohydrate metabolism C. Vitamins and minerals absorption D. Protein metabolism 29 / 50 29. All of the following may produce intestinal pseudo-obstruction except: A. Imipramine B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Scleroderma 30 / 50 30. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Rifampicin B. Gliclazide C. Halothane D. Copper sulphate 31 / 50 31. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 75 ml B. 15 ml C. 30 ml D. 100 ml 32 / 50 32. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Descending colon B. Caecum C. Transverse colon D. Ascending colon 33 / 50 33. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Whipple's disease B. Gastric retention C. Coeliac sprue D. Pancreatic insufficiency 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis B. Anorexia is rare C. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases D. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated 35 / 50 35. Chronic gastritis may be characterised by all except: A. Haematemesis B. Gastric polyp C. Incessant vomiting D. Anorexia 36 / 50 36. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome C. Gilbert's syndrome D. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia 37 / 50 37. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Reflux oesophagitis B. Oesophageal carcinoma C. Hiatal hernia D. Alcoholism 38 / 50 38. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Chymotrypsin B. Elastase C. Trypsin D. Carboxypeptidase 39 / 50 39. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Felty's syndrome B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Chronic active hepatitis D. Focal amyloidosis 40 / 50 40. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Hypothermia B. Carotenaemia C. Loss of axillary and pubic hair D. Amenorrhoea 41 / 50 41. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen B. Increased bicarbonate level in serum C. Hypophosphataemia D. Hypercalcaemia 42 / 50 42. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Clubbing B. Female preponderance C. Moderate to severe jaundice D. Starts with pruritus 43 / 50 43. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Lung B. Intestine C. Kidney D. Liver 44 / 50 44. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Measles B. Thiazides C. Propranolol D. Legionella pneumoniae 45 / 50 45. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Above downwards B. Towards umbilicus C. Away from the umbilicus D. Below upwards 46 / 50 46. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin A C. Folic acid D. Vitamin B12 47 / 50 47. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Amyloidosis B. Hydroureter C. Clubbing D. Chronic cholecystitis 48 / 50 48. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. USG of liver C. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation D. Protein electrophoresis 49 / 50 49. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Pelvic abscess B. Acute lung injury C. Renal failure D. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis 50 / 50 50. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Salmonella C. E. coli D. Klebsiella pneumoniae LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology