Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Coeliac disease B. Intestinal lymphoma C. Crohn's disease D. Irritable bowel syndrome 2 / 50 2. All are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Vitamin B12 B. Ca++ C. Fe++ D. Folate 3 / 50 3. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Hyperparathyroidism 4 / 50 4. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Distention of the rectum B. Distention of the sigmoid colon C. Contraction of the rectum D. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter 5 / 50 5. All of the following are true regarding right-sided colonic carcinoma except: A. Pain abdomen B. Alteration of bowel habit C. Cachexia D. Anaemia 6 / 50 6. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test B. Liver biopsy C. Testing for red blood cell survival D. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day 7 / 50 7. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Increased bicarbonate level in serum C. Hypophosphataemia D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen 8 / 50 8. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 15 g for 24 hr B. < 9 g for 24 hrs C. < 12 g for 24 hrs D. < 6 g for 24 hrs 9 / 50 9. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity B. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection C. HBeAg implies high infectivity D. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state 10 / 50 10. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Deoxycholic acid B. Lithocholic acid C. Cholic acid D. Chenodeoxycholic acid 11 / 50 11. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Uveitis B. Episcleritis C. Scleromalacia perforans D. Cataract 12 / 50 12. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Mucous discharge B. Bleeding per rectum C. Diarrhoea D. Pruritus ani 13 / 50 13. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) may be produced by all except: A. Nifedipine B. Amiodarone C. Massive dose of estrogen D. Tetracycline 14 / 50 14. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Commonly affects middle-aged males B. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common C. Most common GI disorder in practice D. Easily treatable 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. Pre-malignant B. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme C. Hepatosplenomegaly D. High serum acid phosphatase level 16 / 50 16. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. 2nd part of the duodenum B. Jejunum C. Antral mucosa D. Fundus of the stomach 17 / 50 17. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. Within the first 24 hours of birth B. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life C. At birth D. During the first 10 days of life 18 / 50 18. All of the following enzymes may be normally found in stool except: A. Lipase B. Trypsin C. Amylase D. Pepsin 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. High risk of developing hepatoma B. ANA is positive in majority C. Cushingoid face D. Associated with other autoimmune diseases 20 / 50 20. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Propranolol B. Somatostatin C. Terlipressin D. Nitroglycerines 21 / 50 21. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Atrial septal defect B. Chronic cor pulmonale C. Juvenile polyposis coli D. Intestinal tuberculosis 22 / 50 22. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Increased salivation B. Diplopia C. Descending paralysis D. Constipation 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Bacillus cereus D. Streptococcus (Group A) 24 / 50 24. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Proximal small intestine B. Distal small intestine C. Duodenum D. Stomach 25 / 50 25. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Acidosis B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypochloraemic alkalosis D. Hyperchloraemia 26 / 50 26. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant B. Solitary primary tumours are very common C. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas D. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas 27 / 50 27. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Fever B. Bloody diarrhoea C. Sinus tachycardia D. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings 28 / 50 28. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening jaundice B. Paralytic ileus C. Ascitic pH < blood pH D. Worsening ascites 29 / 50 29. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. Left colon is commonly affected B. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it C. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin D. Haemotochezia is common 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West B. Gastric polyp is common C. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody D. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody 31 / 50 31. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl B. Liver biopsy C. TIBC < 200 μg/dl D. Hepatic iron index >1.5 32 / 50 32. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. Produces loose stool B. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers C. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine D. Suitable for patients with renal impairment 33 / 50 33. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Gastrocolic fistula B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Atrophic rhinitis D. Hepatic failure 34 / 50 34. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Tuberculous peritonitis D. Congestive cardiac failure 35 / 50 35. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Lung B. Intestine C. Kidney D. Liver 36 / 50 36. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. AIDS B. Severe combined immunodeficiency C. Multiple myeloma D. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia 37 / 50 37. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Hypereosinophilic enteritis B. Crohn's disease C. Melanoma affecting colon D. Anthraquinone laxative abuse 38 / 50 38. The maximum absorption of fluid in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in: A. Stomach B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Colon 39 / 50 39. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Pregnancy B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. Cushing's syndrome D. Polycythaemia vera 40 / 50 40. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Serum bilirubin assay B. Serum albumin estimation C. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test D. Level of transaminases 41 / 50 41. Secretory diarrhoea has no association with: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Villous adenoma of rectum C. Pancreatic insufficiency D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid 42 / 50 42. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ampicillin C. Clindamycin D. Streptomycin 43 / 50 43. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. 40-50% B. 50-60% C. 20-30% D. More than 60% 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is not included in the list of high-folate diet? A. Fruits B. Liver C. Vegetables D. Milk 45 / 50 45. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Rota virus B. Yersinia C. Campylobacter D. Shigella 46 / 50 46. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Males are affected more than females B. Right side of colon is less affected than the left C. Massive rectal bleeding is very common D. Perforation is a serious complication 47 / 50 47. Which one of the following is not a space-occupying disease of liver? A. Metastatic tumour B. Amyloid C. Cyst D. Gummas 48 / 50 48. The commonest malignant tumour of the gallbladder is: A. Sarcoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Haemangioendothelioma D. Squamous cell carcinoma 49 / 50 49. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. H2-receptor antagonists B. Proton pump inhibitors C. Coating agents like sucralfate D. Prostaglandins like misoprostol 50 / 50 50. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. Atorvastatin B. Zidovudine C. Ketoconazole D. INH LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology
