Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Coeliac sprue C. Whipple's disease D. Systemic mastocytosis 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is not a recognized complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia B. Bronchiectasis C. Sacroiliitis D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 3 / 50 3. Which one of the following originates from non-beta islet cell tumour of the pancreas? A. Glucagonoma B. Somatostatinoma C. Gastrinoma D. Insulinoma 4 / 50 4. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Intra-abdominal malignancy B. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery C. Filariasis D. Tuberculosis 5 / 50 5. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Water brash B. Retching C. Heartburn D. Singultus 6 / 50 6. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa B. Present in 2% population C. Usually 5 cm long D. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve 7 / 50 7. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Cardia B. Lesser curvature C. Antrum D. Body 8 / 50 8. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. Anti-HBs B. IgG anti-HBc C. DNA polymerase D. HBeAg 9 / 50 9. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Clubbing B. Hydroureter C. Amyloidosis D. Chronic cholecystitis 10 / 50 10. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Haemolytic anaemia B. Dermatitis herpetiformi C. Coeliac disease D. Sickle cell disease 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated B. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis C. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases D. Anorexia is rare 12 / 50 12. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Psoriasis B. Atopic eczema C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Pemphigus 13 / 50 13. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Haemangioma of liver B. Hereditary oxalosis C. Tyrosinaemia D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis 14 / 50 14. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Hepatic failure B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Atrophic rhinitis D. Gastrocolic fistula 15 / 50 15. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Nutritional deficiency B. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms C. Not known D. Autoimmunity 16 / 50 16. The Kayser-Fleischer (KF) ring is: A. The inferior pole of cornea is first affected B. Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane C. Hampers vision D. Broader laterally and medially 17 / 50 17. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Multiflagellated B. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach C. Gram-negative bacillus D. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient 18 / 50 18. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology B. Liver biopsy is diagnostic C. Jaundice D. Mild, firm hepatomegaly 19 / 50 19. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A cause of dysphagia B. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena C. A late complication of vagotomy D. A normal oesophageal anatomy 20 / 50 20. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Ludwig's angina B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Diphtheria D. Streptococcal infection 21 / 50 21. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Benign adenomas in liver B. Budd-chiari syndrome C. Peliosis hepatis D. Hepatic granulomas 22 / 50 22. The classical triad in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Flushing, diarrhoea, valvular heart disease B. Telangiectasias, flushing, diarrhoea C. Dyspnoea, flushing, valvular heart disease D. Pruritus, wheezing, diarrhoea 23 / 50 23. Symptoms of carcinoma of the left colon include all except: A. Low back pain B. Cramps in the abdomen C. Melena D. Altered bowel habits 24 / 50 24. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hyperamylasaemia B. Hypergastrinaemia C. Hyperlipidaemia D. Hypercalcaemia 25 / 50 25. Carcinoma of the large intestine is mostly found in: A. Caecum B. Transverse colon C. Ascending colon D. Sigmoid colon 26 / 50 26. Macroglossia is not found in: A. Myxoedema B. Bulbar palsy C. Hurler syndrome D. Primary amyloidosis 27 / 50 27. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. Protein electrophoresis C. USG of liver D. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation 28 / 50 28. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Gastric lymphoma C. Antral gastritis D. Non-ulcer dyspepsia 29 / 50 29. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Biliary dyspepsia B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Tropical sprue D. Peptic ulcer disease 30 / 50 30. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 60% 31 / 50 31. Malignant potential is least in: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome C. Villous adenoma of colon D. Familial colonic polyposis 32 / 50 32. Granulomatous hepatitis is not a feature of: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Tuberculosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Blastomycosis 33 / 50 33. The commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Infection B. Trauma C. Alcohol abuse D. Gallstones 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units B. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease C. Hyperglobulinaemia is common D. Very high bilirubin level 35 / 50 35. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD 36 / 50 36. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Calcium 37 / 50 37. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Crohn's disease C. Coeliac disease D. Irritable bowel syndrome 38 / 50 38. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgG B. IgD C. IgA D. IgM 39 / 50 39. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Propranolol B. Terlipressin C. Nitroglycerines D. Somatostatin 40 / 50 40. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. H2-receptor antagonists B. Prostaglandins like misoprostol C. Coating agents like sucralfate D. Proton pump inhibitors 41 / 50 41. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Theophylline B. Colchicine C. Sorbitol D. Amitriptyline 42 / 50 42. Regarding non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), all are true except: A. Jejunoileal bypass may be an aetiology B. Glucocorticoid helps cure C. Occasionally progresses to cirrhosis and liver failure D. Typically occurs in overweight, diabetic, hyperlipidemic subjects 43 / 50 43. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Histamine injection test B. Feeding of a standard mea C. Secretin injection test D. Calcium infusion test 44 / 50 44. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Hepatoma B. Melanoma C. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland D. Phaeochromocytoma 45 / 50 45. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Coeliac sprue B. Whipple's disease C. Gastric retention D. Pancreatic insufficiency 46 / 50 46. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty B. Three-quarter gastric resection C. Gastroenterostomy D. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy 47 / 50 47. The most specific treatment in coeliac sprue is: A. Antibiotics B. Gluten-free diet C. Folic acid D. Corticosteroids 48 / 50 48. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Chest pain B. Regurgitation C. Dysphagia D. Heartburn 49 / 50 49. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. Anti-HBs B. HBV DNA C. IgM anti-HBc D. HBsAg 50 / 50 50. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin C. Tobramycin D. Erythromycin LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology
