Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Rapid eating habit B. Pyloric stenosis C. Hypochondriac personality D. Chronic anxiety states 2 / 50 2. Absolute contraindication for liver biopsy is: A. Haemangioma of liver B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Cholestasis 3 / 50 3. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Parkinsonism C. Amyloidosis D. Diabetes mellitus 4 / 50 4. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Alcoholism B. Reflux oesophagitis C. Oesophageal carcinoma D. Hiatal hernia 5 / 50 5. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. Jejunum B. 2nd part of the duodenum C. Fundus of the stomach D. Antral mucosa 6 / 50 6. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. At daytime B. After a cold bath C. In males D. On the palms and soles 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. Associated with other autoimmune diseases B. Cushingoid face C. High risk of developing hepatoma D. ANA is positive in majority 8 / 50 8. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features except: A. Arthralgia B. Amenorrhoea C. Haematemesis D. Jaundice 9 / 50 9. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Colchicine B. Elemental zinc C. Penicillamine D. Tetrathiomolybdate 10 / 50 10. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Iron B. Protein C. Fat D. Carbohydrate 11 / 50 11. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Folic acid B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Vitamin D. Iron 12 / 50 12. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl B. Liver biopsy C. TIBC < 200 μg/dl D. Hepatic iron index >1.5 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Abdominal pain B. Diabetes mellitus C. Steatorrhoea D. Pancreatic calcification 14 / 50 14. Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are found in: A. Pseudomyxoma peritonei B. Diverticulosis of colon C. Pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis D. Malakoplakia of colon 15 / 50 15. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Coexistent coeliac sprue B. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine C. Associated vasculitis D. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency 16 / 50 16. Which is true in familial polyposis coli? A. X-linked recessive inheritance B. The patient may not have any symptoms until a carcinoma has developed C. The rectum is spared D. Polyps are present since birth 17 / 50 17. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen B. Hypercalcaemia C. Hypophosphataemia D. Increased bicarbonate level in serum 18 / 50 18. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. May be complicated by angina pectoris B. Gum is the principal site of affection C. Hiatus hernia may be associated with D. Superficial ulcers in mouth 19 / 50 19. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Wilson's disease B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Achalasia cardia D. Carcinoma of the tongue 20 / 50 20. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Diaphoresis B. Confusion C. Postural hypertension D. Dizziness 21 / 50 21. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Away from the umbilicus B. Towards umbilicus C. Above downwards D. Below upwards 22 / 50 22. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis C 23 / 50 23. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Microsporidia B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare C. Isospora belli D. Cryptosporidium 24 / 50 24. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hyperlipidaemia B. Hyperamylasaemia C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hypergastrinaemia 25 / 50 25. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. IgM anti-HBc B. HBV DNA C. Anti-HBs D. HBsAg 26 / 50 26. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Amlodipine therapy B. Acute monocytic leukaemia C. Carbamazepine therapy D. Scurvy 27 / 50 27. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Clonidine B. Cholestyramine C. Calcium-channel blocker D. Colchicine 28 / 50 28. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Proximal small intestine B. Duodenum C. Stomach D. Distal small intestine 29 / 50 29. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Moonlight B. Sunlight C. Ultraviolet D. Fluorescent 30 / 50 30. Oral mucous membrane may be affected in all except: A. Dermatitis herpetiformis B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome C. Pemphigus Vulgaris D. Lichen planus 31 / 50 31. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Neoplasm B. Hernia C. Volvulus D. Adhesions 32 / 50 32. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Bilious vomiting B. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash C. Visible peristalsis D. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity 33 / 50 33. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Ascitic pH < blood pH B. Worsening ascites C. Worsening jaundice D. Paralytic ileus 34 / 50 34. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Tropical sprue B. Biliary dyspepsia C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Peptic ulcer disease 35 / 50 35. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Anthraquinone laxative abuse B. Crohn's disease C. Melanoma affecting colon D. Hypereosinophilic enteritis 36 / 50 36. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Trauma B. Acute leukaemia C. Haemophilia D. Anticoagulant therapy 37 / 50 37. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis B. Pelvic abscess C. Renal failure D. Acute lung injury 38 / 50 38. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Chronic myeloid leukaemia B. Felty's syndrome C. Focal amyloidosis D. Chronic active hepatitis 39 / 50 39. Serum alkaline phosphatase level may be increased in all except: A. Paget's disease B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Metastasis in liver D. Cholestasis 40 / 50 40. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. beta-adrenergic agonist B. Methylxanthine bronchodilator C. Serotonin antagonist D. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist 41 / 50 41. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Right side of colon is less affected than the left B. Massive rectal bleeding is very common C. Perforation is a serious complication D. Males are affected more than females 42 / 50 42. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 50-60% B. 30-40% C. 70-80% D. 90-100% 43 / 50 43. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 90-100% B. 50-60% C. 70-80% D. 30-40% 44 / 50 44. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 200ml B. 70ml C. 120ml D. 270ml 45 / 50 45. The classical triad in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Pruritus, wheezing, diarrhoea B. Flushing, diarrhoea, valvular heart disease C. Telangiectasias, flushing, diarrhoea D. Dyspnoea, flushing, valvular heart disease 46 / 50 46. Secretory diarrhoea has no association with: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid C. Villous adenoma of rectum D. Pancreatic insufficiency 47 / 50 47. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis E B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis B 48 / 50 48. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Hepatic failure B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Gastrocolic fistula D. Atrophic rhinitis 49 / 50 49. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Pemphigus B. Atopic eczema C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Psoriasis 50 / 50 50. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Non-ulcer dyspepsia B. Gastric lymphoma C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Antral gastritis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology