Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Small intestinal biopsy B. D-xylose absorption test C. Response to treatment D. Type of anaemia 2 / 50 2. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis B. Tyrosinaemia C. Hereditary oxalosis D. Haemangioma of liver 3 / 50 3. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Yersinia B. Campylobacter C. Unknown D. Shigella 4 / 50 4. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. Jejunum B. Antral mucosa C. 2nd part of the duodenum D. Fundus of the stomach 5 / 50 5. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Herpes zoster virus B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Cytomegalovirus D. Yellow fever 6 / 50 6. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. Proton pump inhibitors B. Coating agents like sucralfate C. H2-receptor antagonists D. Prostaglandins like misoprostol 7 / 50 7. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Duodenal diverticula B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Ca stomach D. Stomatostatinoma 8 / 50 8. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Oral contraceptives B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria C. Valve in hepatic veins D. Hepatoma 9 / 50 9. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. More than 1 litre B. 100-250 ml C. 500-1000 ml D. 250-500 ml 10 / 50 10. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Clubbing B. Female preponderance C. Starts with pruritus D. Moderate to severe jaundice 11 / 50 11. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all except: A. Amoebiasis B. Cystic fibrosis C. Giardiasis D. Crohn's s disease 12 / 50 12. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Ascending colon B. Descending colon C. Transverse colon D. Caecum 13 / 50 13. The commonest site of carcinoid tumour is: A. Appendix B. Colon C. Stomach D. Ileum 14 / 50 14. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level B. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen C. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status D. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients 15 / 50 15. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Dilatation B. Loss of mucosal pattern C. Coarsening of mucosal folds D. Segmentation and clumping 16 / 50 16. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. May contribute to osteomalacia B. Phosphate depletion is a complication C. Produces constipation D. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia 17 / 50 17. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 B. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 C. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl D. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease 18 / 50 18. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Postural hypertension B. Dizziness C. Diaphoresis D. Confusion 19 / 50 19. Which of the following agent’s absorption is least affected in massive small bowel resection? A. Salt and water B. Fat C. Vitamin B12 D. Ca++ 20 / 50 20. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. Present in 2% population B. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa C. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve D. Usually 5 cm long 21 / 50 21. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Scleromalacia perforans B. Cataract C. Episcleritis D. Uveitis 22 / 50 22. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Haemophilia B. Trauma C. Anticoagulant therapy D. Acute leukaemia 23 / 50 23. All are characteristic features of Wilson’s disease except: A. Chorea B. Slurred speech C. Sensory loss D. Grimacing 24 / 50 24. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening ascites B. Worsening jaundice C. Ascitic pH < blood pH D. Paralytic ileus 25 / 50 25. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Diphtheria B. Streptococcal infection C. Ludwig's angina D. Infectious mononucleosis 26 / 50 26. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching B. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction C. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously D. May produce melaena 27 / 50 27. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. Folic acid B. Iron C. None of the above D. Vitamin B-complex 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Laxative abuse B. Whipple's disease C. Lactase deficiency D. Coeliac disease 29 / 50 29. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Ruptured oesophageal varices B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Acute gastritis D. Duodenal ulcer 30 / 50 30. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools B. Abdominal distension C. Colicky pain abdomen D. Sense of complete evacuation 31 / 50 31. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Thiazides B. Measles C. Propranolol D. Legionella pneumoniae 32 / 50 32. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Superficial ulcers in mouth B. Hiatus hernia may be associated with C. Gum is the principal site of affection D. May be complicated by angina pectoris 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. High risk of developing hepatoma B. ANA is positive in majority C. Associated with other autoimmune diseases D. Cushingoid face 34 / 50 34. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Felty's syndrome B. Focal amyloidosis C. Chronic active hepatitis D. Chronic myeloid leukaemia 35 / 50 35. All are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Fe++ B. Folate C. Vitamin B12 D. Ca++ 36 / 50 36. Venous prominence present in the upper abdomen with direction of flow towards pelvis suggests: A. Hepatic vein thrombosis B. Superior vena caval obstruction C. Portal hypertension D. Inferior vena caval obstruction 37 / 50 37. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Lye ingestion B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome C. Hypervitaminosis A D. Chronic achalasia cardia 38 / 50 38. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Males are commonly susceptible B. Splenomegaly C. Marked cholestasis D. Peripheral eosinophilia 39 / 50 39. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Haematemesis C. Arthralgia D. Jaundice 40 / 50 40. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Amitriptyline B. Theophylline C. Sorbitol D. Colchicine 41 / 50 41. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Hypergastrinaemia C. Hyperamylasaemia D. Hyperlipidaemia 42 / 50 42. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. Atorvastatin B. Zidovudine C. INH D. Ketoconazole 43 / 50 43. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Pregnancy B. Secondary carcinoma of liver C. Oral contraceptives D. Crigler-Najjar type II 44 / 50 44. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Acute lung injury B. Fulminant hepatocellular failure C. Renal failure D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation 45 / 50 45. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Tuberculous peritonitis 46 / 50 46. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Clindamycin B. Streptomycin C. Chloramphenicol D. Ampicillin 47 / 50 47. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation B. Bone scan C. USG of liver D. Protein electrophoresis 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. Very high bilirubin level B. Hyperglobulinaemia is common C. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease D. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units 49 / 50 49. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Gilbert's syndrome C. Reye's syndrome D. Rotor syndrome 50 / 50 50. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy B. Three-quarter gastric resection C. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty D. 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