GastroenterologyHome Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Raspberry tongue is found in: A. Glandular fever B. Yellow fever C. Scarlet fever D. Rheumatic fever 2 / 50 2. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. Passage of bright red blood per rectum B. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon C. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz D. The blood may not be mixed with stool 3 / 50 3. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal B. Vomiting C. Distended abdomen D. Obstipation 4 / 50 4. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Salmonella D. E. coli 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl B. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 C. Serum AST> 400 ID /L D. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody B. Gastric polyp is common C. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody D. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West 7 / 50 7. Regarding ischaemic colitis, which one is true? A. Rectal bleeding is a rare complication B. Affects young population C. Almost always an occlusive disease of mesenteric vessels D. Angiography is not helpful 8 / 50 8. Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is true? A. Granuloma and fistula formation are characteristic B. Malignancy never follows even in long-standing disease C. Segmental involvement is common D. Crypt abscesses are typical 9 / 50 9. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Testing for red blood cell survival B. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day C. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test D. Liver biopsy 10 / 50 10. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Duodenum B. Distal small intestine C. Stomach D. Proximal small intestine 11 / 50 11. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Villous adenoma of the colon D. Irritable bowel syndrome 12 / 50 12. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Steatorrhoea C. Palpitation D. Recurrent ulceration 13 / 50 13. Spider naevi: A. May be seen in some healthy people B. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion C. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension D. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy 14 / 50 14. Which is true in familial polyposis coli? A. Polyps are present since birth B. The rectum is spared C. The patient may not have any symptoms until a carcinoma has developed D. X-linked recessive inheritance 15 / 50 15. Weil’s disease is associated with: A. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis B. Severe muscle pain C. Absence of renal involvement D. Jaundice in all 16 / 50 16. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia B. AIDS C. Multiple myeloma D. Severe combined immunodeficiency 17 / 50 17. Carcinoid syndrome: A. Is multiple in 1/5th cases B. Produces jaundice C. Increases BP D. More common in women 18 / 50 18. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Jaundice C. Haematemesis D. Arthralgia 19 / 50 19. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Lactose intolerance B. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa C. Malabsorption D. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form 20 / 50 20. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. E. coli C. Staphylococci D. Anaerobes 21 / 50 21. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. Anti-HBs B. HBeAg C. DNA polymerase D. IgG anti-HBc 22 / 50 22. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Non-beta B. Alpha C. Beta D. Delta 23 / 50 23. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Campylobacter B. Rota virus C. Shigella D. Yersinia 24 / 50 24. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Spasm B. Pseudopolyps C. Fistula D. Small ulceration 25 / 50 25. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. Usually 5 cm long B. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve C. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa D. Present in 2% population 26 / 50 26. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Massive rectal bleeding is very common B. Perforation is a serious complication C. Males are affected more than females D. Right side of colon is less affected than the left 27 / 50 27. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Loss of libido B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Achlorhydria D. Cheilosis 28 / 50 28. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Coeliac disease B. Ulcerative colitis C. Intestinal lymphangiectasia D. Eosinophilic enteritis 29 / 50 29. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Atrial septal defect B. Juvenile polyposis coli C. Intestinal tuberculosis D. Chronic cor pulmonale 30 / 50 30. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Distention of the rectum B. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter C. Distention of the sigmoid colon D. Contraction of the rectum 31 / 50 31. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Lymph node biopsy B. Stomach biopsy C. Liver biopsy D. Rectal biopsy 32 / 50 32. Menetrier’s disease may have all of the following except: A. Gastritis B. Hypochlorhydria C. Hypoproteinaemia D. Large tortuous gastric mucosal folds 33 / 50 33. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Lymphocytosis B. Malabsorption C. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin D. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema 34 / 50 34. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Hemangioma of liver B. Hepatic neoplasm C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Pyogenic liver abscess 35 / 50 35. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. 2nd part of the duodenum B. Antral mucosa C. Fundus of the stomach D. Jejunum 36 / 50 36. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl B. Hepatic iron index >1.5 C. Liver biopsy D. TIBC < 200 μg/dl 37 / 50 37. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour B. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool C. Periodicity is common D. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint 38 / 50 38. The commonest type of oral malignancy is: A. Melanoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Adenocarcinoma 39 / 50 39. Whipple’s triad is found in: A. Insulinoma B. Somatostatinoma C. Glucagonoma D. Carcinoid syndrome 40 / 50 40. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Gastroenterostomy B. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty C. Three-quarter gastric resection D. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy 41 / 50 41. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Response to treatment B. Type of anaemia C. D-xylose absorption test D. Small intestinal biopsy 42 / 50 42. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Right-sided heart failure 43 / 50 43. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine B. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency C. Associated vasculitis D. Coexistent coeliac sprue 44 / 50 44. The most specific treatment in coeliac sprue is: A. Antibiotics B. Corticosteroids C. Gluten-free diet D. Folic acid 45 / 50 45. Latent jaundice may be a feature of all except: A. Tropical sprue B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Acute pulmonary thromboembolism D. Pernicious anaemia 46 / 50 46. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Kidney B. Intestine C. Liver D. Lung 47 / 50 47. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Oesophageal carcinoma B. Reflux oesophagitis C. Alcoholism D. Hiatal hernia 48 / 50 48. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Polycythaemia vera 49 / 50 49. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Primary peristaltic wave B. Tertiary peristaltic wave C. Secondary peristaltic wave D. Voluntary phase of deglutition 50 / 50 50. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Clostridium difficile B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli C. Rota and Norwalk viruses D. 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