Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Dysphagia starts with solid foods B. Commonest site of affection is lower third C. Odynophagia may be a symptom D. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease 2 / 50 2. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Sigmoidoscopy B. Stool culture C. Barium enema D. Stool smear 3 / 50 3. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Somatostatin B. Propranolol C. Nitroglycerines D. Terlipressin 4 / 50 4. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Chronic pancreatitis 5 / 50 5. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Alcoholism B. Hiatal hernia C. Oesophageal carcinoma D. Reflux oesophagitis 6 / 50 6. Oral mucous membrane may be affected in all except: A. Pemphigus Vulgaris B. Lichen planus C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. Dermatitis herpetiformis 7 / 50 7. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 7th day B. 1st day C. 2nd day D. 3rd day 8 / 50 8. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Chest pain B. Heartburn C. Dysphagia D. Regurgitation 9 / 50 9. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Prostate B. Thyroid C. Colon D. Breast 10 / 50 10. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as when: A. > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 11 / 50 11. Spider naevi: A. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension B. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion C. May be seen in some healthy people D. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy 12 / 50 12. Gastric diverticula are: A. Commonly seen B. Need immediate upper GI endoscopy C. A premalignant condition D. Clinically not significant 13 / 50 13. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Calcium infusion test B. Feeding of a standard mea C. Secretin injection test D. Histamine injection test 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Laxative abuse B. Lactase deficiency C. Coeliac disease D. Whipple's disease 15 / 50 15. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Sinus tachycardia B. Bloody diarrhoea C. Fever D. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings 16 / 50 16. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena B. A cause of dysphagia C. A normal oesophageal anatomy D. A late complication of vagotomy 17 / 50 17. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Clindamycin B. Digitalis C. Sucralfate D. Colchicine 18 / 50 18. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Propranolol B. Legionella pneumoniae C. Thiazides D. Measles 19 / 50 19. The maximum absorption of fluid in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in: A. Jejunum B. Colon C. Ileum D. Stomach 20 / 50 20. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl B. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 C. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 D. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease 21 / 50 21. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 30 ml B. 15 ml C. 75 ml D. 100 ml 22 / 50 22. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Hepatoma B. Valve in hepatic veins C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria D. Oral contraceptives 23 / 50 23. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction B. May produce melaena C. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously D. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching 24 / 50 24. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Commonly affects middle-aged males B. Most common GI disorder in practice C. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common D. Easily treatable 25 / 50 25. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Achlorhydria B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Loss of libido D. Cheilosis 26 / 50 26. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Reye's syndrome B. Gilbert's syndrome C. Rotor syndrome D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome 27 / 50 27. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Vulva B. Heart C. Meninges with encephalon D. Skin 28 / 50 28. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Gram-negative bacillus B. Multiflagellated C. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach D. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient 29 / 50 29. The commonest malignant tumour of the gallbladder is: A. Sarcoma B. Haemangioendothelioma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Adenocarcinoma 30 / 50 30. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Tropical sprue B. Biliary dyspepsia C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Irritable bowel syndrome 31 / 50 31. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Sickle cell disease B. Coeliac disease C. Dermatitis herpetiformi D. Haemolytic anaemia 32 / 50 32. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Crigler-Najjar type II B. Pregnancy C. Oral contraceptives D. Secondary carcinoma of liver 33 / 50 33. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 500-600 g B. 700-800 g C. 100-200 g D. 300-400 g 34 / 50 34. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Gastrocolic fistula B. Atrophic rhinitis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. Hepatic failure 35 / 50 35. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Chronic anxiety states B. Hypochondriac personality C. Pyloric stenosis D. Rapid eating habit 36 / 50 36. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Polycythaemia vera B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. Cushing's syndrome D. Pregnancy 37 / 50 37. Upper GI bleeding, angioid streaks in retina and yellowish skin papules indicate: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Render-Weber-Osler disease D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Toxic hepatitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Weil's disease 39 / 50 39. Which one of the following originates from non-beta islet cell tumour of the pancreas? A. Glucagonoma B. Gastrinoma C. Somatostatinoma D. Insulinoma 40 / 50 40. The Kayser-Fleischer (KF) ring is: A. Hampers vision B. Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane C. Broader laterally and medially D. The inferior pole of cornea is first affected 41 / 50 41. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic pseudocyst B. Pancreatic ascites C. Pancreatic malignancy D. Pancreatic phlegmon 42 / 50 42. In HBV infection, which serological maker is present in the ‘window period’ as evidence of recent HBV infection: A. IgM anti-HBc B. HBeAg C. HBV DNA D. IgG anti-HBc 43 / 50 43. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Crohn's disease C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Coeliac disease 44 / 50 44. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. Psychometric study B. EEG C. Evoked potential study D. MRI of brain 45 / 50 45. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. Just before meals B. Immediately after meals C. One hour after meals and at bedtime D. With the meals 46 / 50 46. Symptoms of carcinoma of the left colon include all except: A. Cramps in the abdomen B. Melena C. Altered bowel habits D. Low back pain 47 / 50 47. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. Herpes virus infection B. H. pylori infection C. Pernicious anaemia D. Alcohol 48 / 50 48. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter B. Distention of the rectum C. Distention of the sigmoid colon D. Contraction of the rectum 49 / 50 49. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Chronic pancreatitis C. Protein-losing enteropathy D. Cirrhosis of liver 50 / 50 50. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Fatty acids B. Triglycerides C. Monoglycerides D. Diglycerides LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology