Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not included in the list of high-folate diet? A. Fruits B. Milk C. Liver D. Vegetables 2 / 50 2. Venous prominence present in the upper abdomen with direction of flow towards pelvis suggests: A. Portal hypertension B. Inferior vena caval obstruction C. Superior vena caval obstruction D. Hepatic vein thrombosis 3 / 50 3. Among the undermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum transaminases B. Serum albumin C. Serum bilirubin D. Serum cholesterol 4 / 50 4. Spider naevi: A. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension B. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion C. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy D. May be seen in some healthy people 5 / 50 5. Carcinoid syndrome: A. More common in women B. Is multiple in 1/5th cases C. Increases BP D. Produces jaundice 6 / 50 6. The commonest extraintestinal complication of ulcerative colitis is: A. Uveitis B. Sclerosing cholangitis C. Arthritis D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 7 / 50 7. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Colchicine B. Calcium-channel blocker C. Cholestyramine D. Clonidine 8 / 50 8. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Right-sided heart failure D. Acute myocardial infarction 9 / 50 9. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency 10 / 50 10. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state B. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection C. HBeAg implies high infectivity D. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity 11 / 50 11. Oral mucous membrane may be affected in all except: A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Pemphigus Vulgaris D. Lichen planus 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. Very high bilirubin level B. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units C. Hyperglobulinaemia is common D. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease 13 / 50 13. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible B. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly C. Cranial nerve palsy may occur D. Coronary arteritis may be a feature 14 / 50 14. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Thiazides B. Measles C. Propranolol D. Legionella pneumoniae 15 / 50 15. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Tyrosinaemia B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis C. Hereditary oxalosis D. Haemangioma of liver 16 / 50 16. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Malaria B. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome C. Thalassemia D. Hydatid cyst 17 / 50 17. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Barium enema B. Stool culture C. Stool smear D. Sigmoidoscopy 18 / 50 18. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test B. Serum albumin estimation C. Level of transaminases D. Serum bilirubin assay 19 / 50 19. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Prostate B. Thyroid C. Colon D. Breast 20 / 50 20. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Chloramphenicol B. Oral contraceptives C. Tetracycline D. Anabolic steroids 21 / 50 21. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation C. USG of liver D. Protein electrophoresis 22 / 50 22. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas B. Solitary primary tumours are very common C. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas D. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant 23 / 50 23. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Campylobacter B. Giardiasis C. Entero-invasive E. coli D. Shigella 24 / 50 24. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa B. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form C. Lactose intolerance D. Malabsorption 25 / 50 25. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Vesicovaginal fistula B. Rectovesical fistula C. Jejuno-colic fistula D. Perianal fistula 26 / 50 26. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. 5-7mmHg B. 7-10 mmHg C. <5mmHg D. >12mmHg 27 / 50 27. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Haematochezia B. Rectal pain C. Constipation D. Pain abdomen 28 / 50 28. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Erythema marginatum B. Gallstone formation C. Pyoderma gangrenosum D. Aphthous stomatitis 29 / 50 29. Gardner’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Astrocytoma B. Fibromas C. Epidermoid cyst D. Osteomas 30 / 50 30. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease B. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 C. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl D. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 31 / 50 31. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Pyloric stenosis B. Rapid eating habit C. Chronic anxiety states D. Hypochondriac personality 32 / 50 32. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa B. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve C. Present in 2% population D. Usually 5 cm long 33 / 50 33. All of the following may produce intestinal pseudo-obstruction except: A. Imipramine B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Scleroderma 34 / 50 34. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. A consequence of achalasia cardia B. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold C. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients D. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus 35 / 50 35. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Hypervitaminosis A B. Chronic achalasia cardia C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome D. Lye ingestion 36 / 50 36. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Yellow fever B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Phosphorus poisoning D. Eclampsia 37 / 50 37. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Babinski's sign B. Presence of ankle clonus C. Flaccid muscles D. Night-time somnolence 38 / 50 38. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Sigmoid colon B. Small intestine C. Caecum D. Stomach 39 / 50 39. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Villous adenoma of the colon D. Carcinoid syndrome 40 / 50 40. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Left atrial myxoma C. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency D. Constrictive pericarditis 41 / 50 41. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgM B. IgD C. IgG D. IgA 42 / 50 42. Tegaserod is used in: A. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Coeliac disease D. Ulcerative colitis 43 / 50 43. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Nephropathy B. Neuropathy C. Macroangiopathy D. Retinopathy 44 / 50 44. Which endocrine disorder is associated with exudative ascites? A. Hypothyroidism B. Conn's syndrome C. Addison's disease D. Hyperparathyroidism 45 / 50 45. The commonest hepatic lesion in haemochromatosis is: A. Haemosiderosis B. Micronodular cirrhosis C. Macronodular cirrhosis D. Fatty liver 46 / 50 46. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Splenic flexure B. Transverse colon C. Hepatic flexure D. Caecum 47 / 50 47. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Increased bicarbonate level in serum B. Hypercalcaemia C. Elevated blood urea nitrogen D. Hypophosphataemia 48 / 50 48. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Bilious vomiting B. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity C. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash D. Visible peristalsis 49 / 50 49. Tropical sprue may be associated with all except: A. Malabsorption B. Treatment is done satisfactorily by intestinal resection C. Patchy lesion D. Partial villous atrophy is more common than subtotal villous atrophy 50 / 50 50. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Coeliac disease B. Eosinophilic enteritis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Intestinal lymphangiectasia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology