Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Protein meal B. Beta-adrenergic agonist C. Metoclopramide D. Gastrin 2 / 50 2. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Retching B. Singultus C. Heartburn D. Water brash 3 / 50 3. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. 50-60% B. More than 60% C. 40-50% D. 20-30% 4 / 50 4. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Thyroid B. Colon C. Breast D. Prostate 5 / 50 5. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Plummer-Vinson syndrome B. Chronic achalasia cardia C. Lye ingestion D. Hypervitaminosis A 6 / 50 6. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Congenital hepatic fibrosis C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Right atrial myxoma 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Subnormal Surface temperature B. Offensive stool C. Absence of tenesmus D. Onset with purging 8 / 50 8. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Voluntary phase of deglutition B. Tertiary peristaltic wave C. Primary peristaltic wave D. Secondary peristaltic wave 9 / 50 9. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Wilson's disease B. Achalasia cardia C. Carcinoma of the tongue D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 10 / 50 10. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Transverse colon B. Descending colon C. Ascending colon D. Caecum 11 / 50 11. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. >12mmHg B. 7-10 mmHg C. <5mmHg D. 5-7mmHg 12 / 50 12. The presence of diverticulosis is most commonly seen in: A. Caecum B. Transverse colon C. Descending colon D. Sigmoid colon 13 / 50 13. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Ascitic pH < blood pH B. Worsening jaundice C. Worsening ascites D. Paralytic ileus 14 / 50 14. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 60% B. 40% C. 20% D. 30% 15 / 50 15. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Phenylketonuria B. Homocystinuria C. Alkaptonuria D. Cystinuria 16 / 50 16. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Diphtheria C. Streptococcal infection D. Ludwig's angina 17 / 50 17. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Phosphorus poisoning B. Eclampsia C. Yellow fever D. Carbon tetrachloride 18 / 50 18. The commonest type of oral malignancy is: A. Melanoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Basal cell carcinoma 19 / 50 19. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia B. Phosphate depletion is a complication C. Produces constipation D. May contribute to osteomalacia 20 / 50 20. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Acute myocardial infarction 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is the most sensitive and test of choice in diagnosing cystic dud obstruction, i.e. acute cholecystitis? A. CT scan B. HIDA scan C. ERCP D. Ultrasonography 22 / 50 22. Absolute contraindication for liver biopsy is: A. Cholestasis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Haemangioma of liver 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease B. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units C. Very high bilirubin level D. Hyperglobulinaemia is common 24 / 50 24. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Stomach biopsy B. Lymph node biopsy C. Rectal biopsy D. Liver biopsy 25 / 50 25. Spider naevi: A. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion B. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension C. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy D. May be seen in some healthy people 26 / 50 26. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 100-200 g B. 500-600 g C. 300-400 g D. 700-800 g 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. Hepatosplenomegaly B. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme C. High serum acid phosphatase level D. Pre-malignant 28 / 50 28. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Ampicillin B. Streptomycin C. Chloramphenicol D. Clindamycin 29 / 50 29. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Cisapride B. Tetracycline C. Domperidone D. Metoclopramide 30 / 50 30. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Clostridium difficile B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli C. Rota and Norwalk viruses D. Campylobacter jejuni 31 / 50 31. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Acidosis C. Hypochloraemic alkalosis D. Hyperchloraemia 32 / 50 32. Malignant potential is least in: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Familial colonic polyposis C. Villous adenoma of colon D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome 33 / 50 33. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 200ml B. 70ml C. 120ml D. 270ml 34 / 50 34. The most common gastrointestinal disorder in a community is: A. Duodenal ulcer B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Reflux oesophagitis D. Diverticulitis 35 / 50 35. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Campylobacter B. Yersinia C. Unknown D. Shigella 36 / 50 36. Gardner’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Epidermoid cyst B. Osteomas C. Astrocytoma D. Fibromas 37 / 50 37. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Elemental zinc B. Penicillamine C. Colchicine D. Tetrathiomolybdate 38 / 50 38. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Distention of the rectum B. Distention of the sigmoid colon C. Contraction of the rectum D. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter 39 / 50 39. Raspberry tongue is found in: A. Yellow fever B. Glandular fever C. Rheumatic fever D. Scarlet fever 40 / 50 40. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Gastric atrophy B. Intestinal metaplasia C. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease D. Antibodies to parietal cells 41 / 50 41. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Malabsorption B. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form C. Lactose intolerance D. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa 42 / 50 42. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Dilatation B. Loss of mucosal pattern C. Segmentation and clumping D. Coarsening of mucosal folds 43 / 50 43. All of the following enzymes may be normally found in stool except: A. Amylase B. Pepsin C. Lipase D. Trypsin 44 / 50 44. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Spasm B. Pseudopolyps C. Fistula D. Small ulceration 45 / 50 45. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Vitamin B12 deficiency B. Hemolysis C. Iron deficiency D. Folic acid deficiency 46 / 50 46. Regarding non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), all are true except: A. Glucocorticoid helps cure B. Jejunoileal bypass may be an aetiology C. Typically occurs in overweight, diabetic, hyperlipidemic subjects D. Occasionally progresses to cirrhosis and liver failure 47 / 50 47. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Intestinal tuberculosis C. Atrial septal defect D. Juvenile polyposis coli 48 / 50 48. The commonest type of pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Ductal adenocarcinoma B. Islet cell carcinoma C. Cystadenocarcinoma D. Mucinous carcinoma 49 / 50 49. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. On the palms and soles B. In males C. After a cold bath D. At daytime 50 / 50 50. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Protein-losing enteropathy B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Irritable bowel syndrome LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology