Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Nitroglycerines B. Terlipressin C. Somatostatin D. Propranolol 2 / 50 2. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Periodicity is common B. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour C. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool D. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint 3 / 50 3. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Protein-energy malnutrition C. Hyperthyroidism D. Alcohol abuse 4 / 50 4. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Clindamycin B. Ampicillin C. Streptomycin D. Chloramphenicol 5 / 50 5. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. Serotonin antagonist B. Methylxanthine bronchodilator C. beta-adrenergic agonist D. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist 6 / 50 6. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis may be associated with: A. Chronic arsenic ingestion B. Oral contraceptives C. Umbilical sepsis D. Sarcoidosis 7 / 50 7. The valvular heart disease common in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Tricuspid incompetence B. Pulmonary incompetence C. Mitral stenosis D. Aortic incompetence 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not a recognized complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Bronchiectasis C. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia D. Sacroiliitis 9 / 50 9. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Carbenoxolone B. Sucralfate C. Omeprazole D. Misoprostol 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Steatorrhoea B. Abdominal pain C. Diabetes mellitus D. Pancreatic calcification 11 / 50 11. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Secondary carcinoma of liver B. Pregnancy C. Crigler-Najjar type II D. Oral contraceptives 12 / 50 12. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 90-100% B. 70-80% C. 50-60% D. 30-40% 13 / 50 13. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Loss of axillary and pubic hair B. Hypothermia C. Amenorrhoea D. Carotenaemia 14 / 50 14. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Reye's syndrome B. Rotor syndrome C. Gilbert's syndrome D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome 15 / 50 15. Serum alkaline phosphatase level may be increased in all except: A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Paget's disease C. Metastasis in liver D. Cholestasis 16 / 50 16. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Microsporidia B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare C. Isospora belli D. Cryptosporidium 17 / 50 17. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Stomach B. Transverse colon C. Kidney D. Pancreas 18 / 50 18. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl B. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease C. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 D. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 19 / 50 19. Latent jaundice may be a feature of all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Tropical sprue C. Acute pulmonary thromboembolism D. Pernicious anaemia 20 / 50 20. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated with all except: A. Wilson's disease B. Renal tubular acidosis C. CREST syndrome D. Autoimmune thyroiditis 21 / 50 21. The most helpful differentiating histological feature between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease by rectal biopsy is: A. Transmural involvement B. Granuloma C. Crypt abscess D. Fibrosis 22 / 50 22. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypergastrinaemia B. Hyperamylasaemia C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hyperlipidaemia 23 / 50 23. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. DNA polymerase B. IgG anti-HBc C. Anti-HBs D. HBeAg 24 / 50 24. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Increased bicarbonate level in serum B. Hypercalcaemia C. Hypophosphataemia D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen 25 / 50 25. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. Zidovudine B. Atorvastatin C. INH D. Ketoconazole 26 / 50 26. Acute pancreatitis is not associated with: A. Pancreatic islet cell tumour B. Biliary tract disease C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Hyperparathyroidism 27 / 50 27. The commonest cause of metastasis to the wall of the stomach is: A. Hepatoma B. Carcinoma of thyroid C. Melanoma D. Carcinoma of breast 28 / 50 28. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Cardnoid syndrome C. Intestinal lymphangiectasia D. Whipple's disease 29 / 50 29. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Gilbert's syndrome B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome C. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome 30 / 50 30. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Secondary peristaltic wave B. Voluntary phase of deglutition C. Tertiary peristaltic wave D. Primary peristaltic wave 31 / 50 31. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces B. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both C. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough D. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Serum AST> 400 ID /L B. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 C. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl D. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L 33 / 50 33. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin B. Left colon is commonly affected C. Haemotochezia is common D. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it 34 / 50 34. Regarding solitary rectal ulcer syndrome (SRUS), which of the following is false? A. Commonly in the posterior wall of rectum B. Rectal prolapse and straining by patient are common associations C. Surgery by resection rectopexy may be done D. Rectal bleeding and tenesmus are common 35 / 50 35. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Jejuno-colic fistula B. Rectovesical fistula C. Vesicovaginal fistula D. Perianal fistula 36 / 50 36. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Lymph node biopsy B. Liver biopsy C. Rectal biopsy D. Stomach biopsy 37 / 50 37. Menetrier’s disease may have all of the following except: A. Gastritis B. Large tortuous gastric mucosal folds C. Hypoproteinaemia D. Hypochlorhydria 38 / 50 38. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis C 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. Gastric polyp is common B. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody C. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody D. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West 40 / 50 40. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Paralytic ileus B. Worsening ascites C. Ascitic pH < blood pH D. Worsening jaundice 41 / 50 41. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 270ml B. 70ml C. 200ml D. 120ml 42 / 50 42. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease B. Dysphagia starts with solid foods C. Commonest site of affection is lower third D. Odynophagia may be a symptom 43 / 50 43. Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be associated with: A. Retroperitoneal fibrosis B. Atrial septal defect C. Medullary sponge kidney D. Endocardial fibroelastosis 44 / 50 44. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Gram-negative bacillus B. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient C. Multiflagellated D. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach 45 / 50 45. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Focal amyloidosis B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Felty's syndrome D. Chronic active hepatitis 46 / 50 46. Commonest cause of hepatoma is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency C. Alcohol D. Haemochromatosis 47 / 50 47. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Lymphocytosis B. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema C. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin D. Malabsorption 48 / 50 48. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hyperchloraemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Acidosis D. Hypochloraemic alkalosis 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Offensive stool B. Onset with purging C. Absence of tenesmus D. Subnormal Surface temperature 50 / 50 50. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Palpitation C. Steatorrhoea D. Recurrent ulceration LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology