GastroenterologyHome Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hypochloraemic alkalosis B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hyperchloraemia D. Acidosis 2 / 50 2. Acute pancreatitis is not associated with: A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Pancreatic islet cell tumour D. Biliary tract disease 3 / 50 3. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Meconium ileus B. Tetany C. Gram-negative sepsis D. Malabsorption 4 / 50 4. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Osteomalacia B. Sclerosing cholangitis C. Paget's disease of bone D. Osteoporosis 5 / 50 5. Manometric study of the lower oesophagus is important in all except: A. Achalasia cardia B. Polymyositis C. Mallory-Weiss syndrome D. Diffuse oesophageal spasm 6 / 50 6. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces B. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both C. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough D. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities 7 / 50 7. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Palpitation B. Hypoglycaemia C. Recurrent ulceration D. Steatorrhoea 8 / 50 8. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis B D. Hepatitis E 9 / 50 9. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Yellow fever B. Phosphorus poisoning C. Eclampsia D. Carbon tetrachloride 10 / 50 10. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Best visualisation of cystic duct B. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal C. Biliary manometry D. Bile or pancreatic cytology 11 / 50 11. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Emphysema B. Arthritis C. Electrolyte imbalance D. Nephrolithiasis 12 / 50 12. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Adrenal insufficiency D. Diabetes mellitus 13 / 50 13. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Loss of mucosal pattern B. Segmentation and clumping C. Coarsening of mucosal folds D. Dilatation 14 / 50 14. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Hernia B. Volvulus C. Adhesions D. Neoplasm 15 / 50 15. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Whipple's disease B. Coeliac sprue C. Gastric retention D. Pancreatic insufficiency 16 / 50 16. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Change of posture B. Consumption of food C. Attacks of emotional stress D. Induction of vomiting 17 / 50 17. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Pseudopolyps B. Fistula C. Spasm D. Small ulceration 18 / 50 18. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 50-60% B. 70-80% C. 30-40% D. 90-100% 19 / 50 19. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Sigmoidoscopy B. Stool smear C. Barium enema D. Stool culture 20 / 50 20. The most specific treatment in coeliac sprue is: A. Folic acid B. Antibiotics C. Gluten-free diet D. Corticosteroids 21 / 50 21. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Gliclazide B. Halothane C. Rifampicin D. Copper sulphate 22 / 50 22. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Scleromalacia perforans B. Episcleritis C. Uveitis D. Cataract 23 / 50 23. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool B. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint C. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour D. Periodicity is common 24 / 50 24. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Hepatic vein thrombosis B. Hepatitis-like picture C. Fatty infiltration D. Laennec's cirrhosis 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Subnormal Surface temperature B. Absence of tenesmus C. Onset with purging D. Offensive stool 26 / 50 26. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Streptococcus (Group A) B. Bacillus cereus C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium botulinum 27 / 50 27. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Right side of colon is less affected than the left B. Massive rectal bleeding is very common C. Perforation is a serious complication D. Males are affected more than females 28 / 50 28. All of the following are methods for detection of H. pylori except: A. Rapid urease test B. Histology C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Endoscopic view 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme B. Hepatosplenomegaly C. High serum acid phosphatase level D. Pre-malignant 30 / 50 30. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hyperamylasaemia B. Hypercalcaemia C. Hypergastrinaemia D. Hyperlipidaemia 31 / 50 31. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. None of the above B. Folic acid C. Iron D. Vitamin B-complex 32 / 50 32. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation B. Acute lung injury C. Renal failure D. Fulminant hepatocellular failure 33 / 50 33. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Agglutination test B. Urine analysis C. Stool culture D. Dark-field examination 34 / 50 34. Incidence of gastric carcinoid is increased in all except: A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis B. Achlorhydria C. Mesenteric fibrosis D. Pernicious anaemia 35 / 50 35. Saint’s triad is the presence of gallstones, hiatal hernia and? A. Diverticulosis B. Haemorrhoids C. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease D. Pancreatitis 36 / 50 36. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Testing for red blood cell survival B. Liver biopsy C. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 37 / 50 37. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Chloramphenicol B. Oral contraceptives C. Tetracycline D. Anabolic steroids 38 / 50 38. Tropical sprue may be associated with all except: A. Malabsorption B. Partial villous atrophy is more common than subtotal villous atrophy C. Treatment is done satisfactorily by intestinal resection D. Patchy lesion 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Toxic hepatitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Weil's disease 40 / 50 40. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. Methylxanthine bronchodilator B. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist C. Serotonin antagonist D. beta-adrenergic agonist 41 / 50 41. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant B. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas C. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas D. Solitary primary tumours are very common 42 / 50 42. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Cholestasis B. Chronic hepatitis C. Acute hepatic failure D. Steatosis 43 / 50 43. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Proximal small intestine B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. Distal small intestine 44 / 50 44. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Carbenoxolone B. Misoprostol C. Sucralfate D. Omeprazole 45 / 50 45. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible B. Coronary arteritis may be a feature C. Cranial nerve palsy may occur D. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly 46 / 50 46. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Secondary peristaltic wave B. Primary peristaltic wave C. Voluntary phase of deglutition D. Tertiary peristaltic wave 47 / 50 47. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Isospora belli B. Microsporidia C. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare D. Cryptosporidium 48 / 50 48. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Intestine B. Kidney C. Lung D. Liver 49 / 50 49. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Confusion B. Diaphoresis C. Postural hypertension D. Dizziness 50 / 50 50. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 50% B. 10% C. 80% D. 30% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology