Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Spider naevi: A. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy B. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion C. May be seen in some healthy people D. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension 2 / 50 2. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Massive rectal bleeding is very common B. Right side of colon is less affected than the left C. Males are affected more than females D. Perforation is a serious complication 3 / 50 3. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. CT scan of liver B. MRI scan of liver C. Pulmonary angiography D. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography 4 / 50 4. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Multiflagellated B. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach C. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient D. Gram-negative bacillus 5 / 50 5. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Heartburn B. Dysphagia C. Chest pain D. Regurgitation 6 / 50 6. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Calcium 7 / 50 7. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Distended abdomen B. Obstipation C. Vomiting D. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal 8 / 50 8. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Gastric ulcer B. Syphilis C. Developmental anomaly D. Lymphoma 9 / 50 9. Carcinoid syndrome is commonly produced, when the site of primary tumour is present in: A. Bronchus B. Stomach C. Hindgut D. Midgut 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Subnormal Surface temperature B. Onset with purging C. Absence of tenesmus D. Offensive stool 11 / 50 11. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Sheehan's syndrome B. Depression C. Schizophrenia D. Anorexia nervos 12 / 50 12. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D 13 / 50 13. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. IX B. VII C. VIII D. II 14 / 50 14. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia B. Produces constipation C. Phosphate depletion is a complication D. May contribute to osteomalacia 15 / 50 15. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Trichinosis B. Leishmaniasis C. Schistosomiasis D. Trypanosomiasis 16 / 50 16. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypergastrinaemia B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Hyperamylasaemia D. Hypercalcaemia 17 / 50 17. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis B. Pelvic abscess C. Renal failure D. Acute lung injury 18 / 50 18. Menetrier’s disease may have all of the following except: A. Large tortuous gastric mucosal folds B. Hypoproteinaemia C. Hypochlorhydria D. Gastritis 19 / 50 19. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Carotenaemia B. Loss of axillary and pubic hair C. Amenorrhoea D. Hypothermia 20 / 50 20. The commonest type of pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Cystadenocarcinoma B. Mucinous carcinoma C. Islet cell carcinoma D. Ductal adenocarcinoma 21 / 50 21. Manometric study of the lower oesophagus is important in all except: A. Polymyositis B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Achalasia cardia D. Diffuse oesophageal spasm 22 / 50 22. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Pancreatic ductal obstruction B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Endocrine pancreatic function D. Exocrine pancreatic function 23 / 50 23. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Chronic hepatitis B. Cholestasis C. Steatosis D. Acute hepatic failure 24 / 50 24. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Liver biopsy B. Hepatic iron index >1.5 C. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl D. TIBC < 200 μg/dl 25 / 50 25. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Benign adenomas in liver B. Hepatic granulomas C. Peliosis hepatis D. Budd-chiari syndrome 26 / 50 26. Whipple’s triad is found in: A. Insulinoma B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Glucagonoma D. Somatostatinoma 27 / 50 27. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. Prostaglandins like misoprostol B. Coating agents like sucralfate C. H2-receptor antagonists D. Proton pump inhibitors 28 / 50 28. All of the following may produce intestinal pseudo-obstruction except: A. Scleroderma B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Imipramine 29 / 50 29. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Intestinal metaplasia B. Gastric atrophy C. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease D. Antibodies to parietal cells 30 / 50 30. The most helpful differentiating histological feature between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease by rectal biopsy is: A. Fibrosis B. Transmural involvement C. Crypt abscess D. Granuloma 31 / 50 31. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Ruptured oesophageal varices B. Acute gastritis C. Mallory-Weiss syndrome D. Duodenal ulcer 32 / 50 32. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Fatty infiltration B. Laennec's cirrhosis C. Hepatitis-like picture D. Hepatic vein thrombosis 33 / 50 33. In coeliac sprue, which of the following is non-deficient in the body? A. Iron B. Folic acid C. Serum albumin D. Vitamin B12 34 / 50 34. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Hiatal hernia B. Alcoholism C. Reflux oesophagitis D. Oesophageal carcinoma 35 / 50 35. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 12 g for 24 hrs B. < 15 g for 24 hr C. < 9 g for 24 hrs D. < 6 g for 24 hrs 36 / 50 36. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. At birth B. During the first 10 days of life C. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life D. Within the first 24 hours of birth 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Pantoprazole B. Tinidazole C. Clarithromycin D. Cefixime 38 / 50 38. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Calcium-channel blocker B. Clonidine C. Cholestyramine D. Colchicine 39 / 50 39. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD 40 / 50 40. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Coeliac sprue B. Whipple's disease C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Systemic mastocytosis 41 / 50 41. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Sucralfate B. Carbenoxolone C. Omeprazole D. Misoprostol 42 / 50 42. Octreotide can be used in all except: A. Oesophageal variceal bleeding B. Short bowel syndrome C. Pancreatic ascites D. Ulcerative colitis 43 / 50 43. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Herpes zoster virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Yellow fever D. Infectious mononucleosis 44 / 50 44. Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be associated with: A. Retroperitoneal fibrosis B. Medullary sponge kidney C. Endocardial fibroelastosis D. Atrial septal defect 45 / 50 45. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Congenital hepatic fibrosis D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 46 / 50 46. Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are found in: A. Pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis B. Malakoplakia of colon C. Pseudomyxoma peritonei D. Diverticulosis of colon 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. Hyperglobulinaemia is common B. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units C. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease D. Very high bilirubin level 48 / 50 48. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Marked cholestasis B. Splenomegaly C. Males are commonly susceptible D. Peripheral eosinophilia 49 / 50 49. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Transverse colon B. Caecum C. Hepatic flexure D. Splenic flexure 50 / 50 50. In HBV infection, which serological maker is present in the ‘window period’ as evidence of recent HBV infection: A. HBV DNA B. HBeAg C. IgM anti-HBc D. IgG anti-HBc LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology