Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Beta B. Delta C. Alpha D. Non-beta 2 / 50 2. Upper GI bleeding, angioid streaks in retina and yellowish skin papules indicate: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Render-Weber-Osler disease 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl B. Serum AST> 400 ID /L C. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L D. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 4 / 50 4. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all except: A. Crohn's s disease B. Amoebiasis C. Giardiasis D. Cystic fibrosis 5 / 50 5. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Gum is the principal site of affection B. Hiatus hernia may be associated with C. May be complicated by angina pectoris D. Superficial ulcers in mouth 6 / 50 6. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Cholestyramine B. Colchicine C. Calcium-channel blocker D. Clonidine 7 / 50 7. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hypochloraemic alkalosis B. Hyperkalaemia C. Acidosis D. Hyperchloraemia 8 / 50 8. Jejunal diverticula may be associated with: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Hypochlorhydria 9 / 50 9. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Carotenaemia B. Hypothermia C. Loss of axillary and pubic hair D. Amenorrhoea 10 / 50 10. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Carbon tetrachloride B. Yellow fever C. Phosphorus poisoning D. Eclampsia 11 / 50 11. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. During the first 10 days of life B. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life C. At birth D. Within the first 24 hours of birth 12 / 50 12. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Coeliac sprue B. Whipple's disease C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Systemic mastocytosis 13 / 50 13. Manometric study of the lower oesophagus is important in all except: A. Achalasia cardia B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Diffuse oesophageal spasm 14 / 50 14. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. More than 1 litre B. 100-250 ml C. 500-1000 ml D. 250-500 ml 15 / 50 15. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Gram-negative sepsis B. Tetany C. Malabsorption D. Meconium ileus 16 / 50 16. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Hypochondriac personality B. Rapid eating habit C. Pyloric stenosis D. Chronic anxiety states 17 / 50 17. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. Produces constipation B. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia C. Phosphate depletion is a complication D. May contribute to osteomalacia 18 / 50 18. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis C B. Hepatitis E C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis B 19 / 50 19. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Clindamycin B. Sucralfate C. Digitalis D. Colchicine 20 / 50 20. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Iron B. Fat C. Carbohydrate D. Protein 21 / 50 21. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Shigella B. Campylobacter C. Entero-invasive E. coli D. Giardiasis 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is the most sensitive and test of choice in diagnosing cystic dud obstruction, i.e. acute cholecystitis? A. HIDA scan B. CT scan C. ERCP D. Ultrasonography 23 / 50 23. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Radiation B. Coeliac disease C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Hypogammaglobulinaemia 24 / 50 24. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. Means nothing to clinical course B. A bad prognosis C. A fluctuating clinical course D. The disease process is improving 25 / 50 25. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Fistula B. Pseudopolyps C. Small ulceration D. Spasm 26 / 50 26. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. More than 60% B. 50-60% C. 20-30% D. 40-50% 27 / 50 27. Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is true? A. Malignancy never follows even in long-standing disease B. Segmental involvement is common C. Crypt abscesses are typical D. Granuloma and fistula formation are characteristic 28 / 50 28. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 50% B. 10% C. 80% D. 30% 29 / 50 29. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state B. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity C. HBeAg implies high infectivity D. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection 30 / 50 30. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool B. Periodicity is common C. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour D. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint 31 / 50 31. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Bloody diarrhoea B. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings C. Fever D. Sinus tachycardia 32 / 50 32. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Tetracycline B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisapride 33 / 50 33. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Diaphoresis B. Confusion C. Dizziness D. Postural hypertension 34 / 50 34. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Erythema marginatum C. Aphthous stomatitis D. Gallstone formation 35 / 50 35. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Somatostatin B. Propranolol C. Terlipressin D. Nitroglycerines 36 / 50 36. All are characteristic features of Wilson’s disease except: A. Chorea B. Sensory loss C. Grimacing D. Slurred speech 37 / 50 37. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Protein-losing enteropathy D. Chronic pancreatitis 38 / 50 38. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgD D. IgA 39 / 50 39. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Hypophosphataemia C. Elevated blood urea nitrogen D. Increased bicarbonate level in serum 40 / 50 40. All are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Ca++ B. Folate C. Fe++ D. Vitamin B12 41 / 50 41. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Hyperparathyroidism 42 / 50 42. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Commonest site of affection is lower third B. Odynophagia may be a symptom C. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease D. Dysphagia starts with solid foods 43 / 50 43. Whipple’s triad is found in: A. Glucagonoma B. Somatostatinoma C. Insulinoma D. Carcinoid syndrome 44 / 50 44. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Stool smear B. Stool culture C. Sigmoidoscopy D. Barium enema 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Offensive stool B. Subnormal Surface temperature C. Absence of tenesmus D. Onset with purging 46 / 50 46. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Haemophilia B. Trauma C. Acute leukaemia D. Anticoagulant therapy 47 / 50 47. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Transverse colon B. Ascending colon C. Descending colon D. Caecum 48 / 50 48. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Jejunum B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. Ileum 49 / 50 49. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 15 ml B. 30 ml C. 75 ml D. 100 ml 50 / 50 50. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Clindamycin B. Ampicillin C. Streptomycin D. Chloramphenicol LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology