Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Achlorhydria B. Loss of libido C. Cheilosis D. Peripheral neuropathy 2 / 50 2. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Eosinophilic enteritis B. Coeliac disease C. Ulcerative colitis D. Intestinal lymphangiectasia 3 / 50 3. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Unknown B. Yersinia C. Campylobacter D. Shigella 4 / 50 4. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 120ml B. 270ml C. 70ml D. 200ml 5 / 50 5. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Acute monocytic leukaemia B. Carbamazepine therapy C. Scurvy D. Amlodipine therapy 6 / 50 6. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Brucella abortus B. Pneumococcus C. LD body D. Leptospira 7 / 50 7. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Haematochezia B. Pain abdomen C. Constipation D. Rectal pain 8 / 50 8. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Sunlight B. Moonlight C. Ultraviolet D. Fluorescent 9 / 50 9. Spider naevi: A. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy B. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension C. May be seen in some healthy people D. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion 10 / 50 10. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Retinopathy B. Macroangiopathy C. Neuropathy D. Nephropathy 11 / 50 11. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Malabsorption B. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema C. Lymphocytosis D. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin 12 / 50 12. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Kidney B. Liver C. Lung D. Intestine 13 / 50 13. Which endocrine disorder is associated with exudative ascites? A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Conn's syndrome 14 / 50 14. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. Anaerobes B. Staphylococci C. Streptococcus faecalis D. E. coli 15 / 50 15. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Elastase B. Trypsin C. Carboxypeptidase D. Chymotrypsin 16 / 50 16. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Streptococcal infection B. Ludwig's angina C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Diphtheria 17 / 50 17. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Gram-negative sepsis B. Meconium ileus C. Malabsorption D. Tetany 18 / 50 18. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Sucralfate B. Omeprazole C. Misoprostol D. Carbenoxolone 19 / 50 19. Which one of the following originates from non-beta islet cell tumour of the pancreas? A. Gastrinoma B. Glucagonoma C. Insulinoma D. Somatostatinoma 20 / 50 20. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome B. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Gilbert's syndrome 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. Hyperglobulinaemia is common B. Very high bilirubin level C. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease D. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units 22 / 50 22. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Paralytic ileus B. Worsening jaundice C. Worsening ascites D. Ascitic pH < blood pH 23 / 50 23. The commonest site of carcinoma of the stomach is: A. Greater curvature B. Prepyloric C. Lesser curvature D. Body of the stomach 24 / 50 24. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. CT scan of liver B. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography C. MRI scan of liver D. Pulmonary angiography 25 / 50 25. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Increased salivation B. Descending paralysis C. Diplopia D. Constipation 26 / 50 26. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Stomach B. Distal small intestine C. Proximal small intestine D. Duodenum 27 / 50 27. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Rectal biopsy B. Lymph node biopsy C. Stomach biopsy D. Liver biopsy 28 / 50 28. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen C. Increased bicarbonate level in serum D. Hypophosphataemia 29 / 50 29. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. Anti-HBs B. HBsAg C. IgM anti-HBc D. HBV DNA 30 / 50 30. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Crohn's disease B. Anthraquinone laxative abuse C. Hypereosinophilic enteritis D. Melanoma affecting colon 31 / 50 31. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. At daytime B. After a cold bath C. On the palms and soles D. In males 32 / 50 32. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Anabolic steroids C. Tetracycline D. Chloramphenicol 33 / 50 33. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Chronic cholecystitis B. Hydroureter C. Amyloidosis D. Clubbing 34 / 50 34. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Distended abdomen B. Vomiting C. Obstipation D. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal 35 / 50 35. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Scleromalacia perforans B. Uveitis C. Cataract D. Episcleritis 36 / 50 36. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Deoxycholic acid B. Cholic acid C. Lithocholic acid D. Chenodeoxycholic acid 37 / 50 37. Among the undermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum bilirubin B. Serum transaminases C. Serum albumin D. Serum cholesterol 38 / 50 38. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Magnesium 39 / 50 39. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Above downwards B. Towards umbilicus C. Below upwards D. Away from the umbilicus 40 / 50 40. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Clubbing B. Moderate to severe jaundice C. Female preponderance D. Starts with pruritus 41 / 50 41. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Thiazides B. Measles C. Propranolol D. Legionella pneumoniae 42 / 50 42. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Flaccid muscles B. Babinski's sign C. Night-time somnolence D. Presence of ankle clonus 43 / 50 43. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin A C. Folic acid D. Vitamin B12 44 / 50 44. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Consumption of food B. Induction of vomiting C. Attacks of emotional stress D. Change of posture 45 / 50 45. Which of the following surgeries is related to severe hepatocellular dysfunction? A. Gastric bypass B. Jejunoileal bypass C. Pyloroplasty D. Vagotomy 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 B. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L C. Serum AST> 400 ID /L D. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl 47 / 50 47. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter B. Contraction of the rectum C. Distention of the rectum D. Distention of the sigmoid colon 48 / 50 48. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Serum bilirubin assay B. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test C. Level of transaminases D. Serum albumin estimation 49 / 50 49. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Fistula B. Pseudopolyps C. Small ulceration D. Spasm 50 / 50 50. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. DNA polymerase B. IgG anti-HBc C. Anti-HBs D. HBeAg LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology