Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching B. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously C. May produce melaena D. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction 2 / 50 2. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Protein metabolism B. Fat metabolism C. Vitamins and minerals absorption D. Carbohydrate metabolism 3 / 50 3. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 100-250 ml B. 250-500 ml C. More than 1 litre D. 500-1000 ml 4 / 50 4. Octreotide can be used in all except: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Pancreatic ascites C. Short bowel syndrome D. Oesophageal variceal bleeding 5 / 50 5. Hyperdefaecation is found in all except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Proctitis 6 / 50 6. Incidence of gastric carcinoid is increased in all except: A. Mesenteric fibrosis B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis C. Pernicious anaemia D. Achlorhydria 7 / 50 7. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated with all except: A. CREST syndrome B. Autoimmune thyroiditis C. Wilson's disease D. Renal tubular acidosis 8 / 50 8. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. beta-adrenergic agonist B. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist C. Methylxanthine bronchodilator D. Serotonin antagonist 9 / 50 9. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Gilbert's syndrome B. Reye's syndrome C. Rotor syndrome D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome 10 / 50 10. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine B. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency C. Associated vasculitis D. Coexistent coeliac sprue 11 / 50 11. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms B. Not known C. Nutritional deficiency D. Autoimmunity 12 / 50 12. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Small intestine B. Sigmoid colon C. Stomach D. Caecum 13 / 50 13. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Carbohydrate B. Iron C. Protein D. Fat 14 / 50 14. All are major components of intestinal gas except: A. N2 B. Methane C. H2S D. CO2 15 / 50 15. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli B. Rota and Norwalk viruses C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Clostridium difficile 16 / 50 16. Latent jaundice may be a feature of all except: A. Tropical sprue B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Pernicious anaemia D. Acute pulmonary thromboembolism 17 / 50 17. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic ascites B. Pancreatic pseudocyst C. Pancreatic malignancy D. Pancreatic phlegmon 18 / 50 18. Regarding non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), all are true except: A. Typically occurs in overweight, diabetic, hyperlipidemic subjects B. Occasionally progresses to cirrhosis and liver failure C. Glucocorticoid helps cure D. Jejunoileal bypass may be an aetiology 19 / 50 19. Upper GI bleeding, angioid streaks in retina and yellowish skin papules indicate: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Render-Weber-Osler disease C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome 20 / 50 20. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Dilatation B. Coarsening of mucosal folds C. Loss of mucosal pattern D. Segmentation and clumping 21 / 50 21. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Copper sulphate B. Gliclazide C. Halothane D. Rifampicin 22 / 50 22. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 100 ml B. 75 ml C. 30 ml D. 15 ml 23 / 50 23. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Starts with pruritus B. Moderate to severe jaundice C. Female preponderance D. Clubbing 24 / 50 24. The most reliable method of measuring steatorrhoea is: A. Schilling test B. Fecal fat estimation C. Small intestinal mucosal biopsy D. D-xylose absorption test 25 / 50 25. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare B. Microsporidia C. Cryptosporidium D. Isospora belli 26 / 50 26. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Acute lung injury B. Renal failure C. Pelvic abscess D. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis 27 / 50 27. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM 28 / 50 28. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Adrenal insufficiency B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Carcinoid syndrome 29 / 50 29. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy B. Gastroenterostomy C. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty D. Three-quarter gastric resection 30 / 50 30. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked dominant B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. Sex-linked recessive 31 / 50 31. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Myocarditis C. Meningitis D. Aplastic anaemia 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. High serum acid phosphatase level B. Hepatosplenomegaly C. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme D. Pre-malignant 33 / 50 33. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Ascending colon B. Descending colon C. Caecum D. Transverse colon 34 / 50 34. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Lung B. Intestine C. Liver D. Kidney 35 / 50 35. Gastric diverticula are: A. Need immediate upper GI endoscopy B. Commonly seen C. A premalignant condition D. Clinically not significant 36 / 50 36. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both B. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces C. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities D. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough 37 / 50 37. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Sense of complete evacuation B. Abdominal distension C. Colicky pain abdomen D. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools 38 / 50 38. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Solitary primary tumours are very common B. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas C. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas D. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant 39 / 50 39. The most specific treatment in coeliac sprue is: A. Antibiotics B. Folic acid C. Gluten-free diet D. Corticosteroids 40 / 50 40. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Ultraviolet B. Fluorescent C. Sunlight D. Moonlight 41 / 50 41. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Coeliac sprue B. Gastric retention C. Pancreatic insufficiency D. Whipple's disease 42 / 50 42. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Serum albumin estimation B. Level of transaminases C. Serum bilirubin assay D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 43 / 50 43. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. Usually 5 cm long B. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa C. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve D. Present in 2% population 44 / 50 44. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Streptococcal infection B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Ludwig's angina D. Diphtheria 45 / 50 45. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Amyloidosis 46 / 50 46. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgM B. IgD C. IgG D. IgA 47 / 50 47. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Stomach biopsy B. Rectal biopsy C. Liver biopsy D. Lymph node biopsy 48 / 50 48. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Lymphocytosis B. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin C. Malabsorption D. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema 49 / 50 49. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Chronic achalasia cardia B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome C. Lye ingestion D. Hypervitaminosis A 50 / 50 50. Malignant potential is least in: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Familial colonic polyposis C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome D. 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