Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare B. Isospora belli C. Cryptosporidium D. Microsporidia 2 / 50 2. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Tuberculous peritonitis 3 / 50 3. Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are found in: A. Pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis B. Malakoplakia of colon C. Diverticulosis of colon D. Pseudomyxoma peritonei 4 / 50 4. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Ascites B. Hepatomegaly C. Hepatocellular failure D. Upper GI bleeding 5 / 50 5. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Protein-energy malnutrition D. Alcohol abuse 6 / 50 6. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Hemangioma of liver B. Pyogenic liver abscess C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Hepatic neoplasm 7 / 50 7. Predominant unconjugated bilirubin is seen in all except: A. Breakdown of haemoglobin B. Breakdown of myoglobin C. Ineffective erythropoiesis D. Rotor syndrome 8 / 50 8. Carcinoid syndrome: A. Increases BP B. More common in women C. Is multiple in 1/5th cases D. Produces jaundice 9 / 50 9. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Carbohydrate B. Iron C. Protein D. Fat 10 / 50 10. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Tinidazole B. Pantoprazole C. Clarithromycin D. Cefixime 11 / 50 11. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Myocarditis B. Aplastic anaemia C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Meningitis 12 / 50 12. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Body B. Lesser curvature C. Cardia D. Antrum 13 / 50 13. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Leptospira B. LD body C. Brucella abortus D. Pneumococcus 14 / 50 14. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Homocystinuria C. Phenylketonuria D. Cystinuria 15 / 50 15. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. Proton pump inhibitors B. Coating agents like sucralfate C. Prostaglandins like misoprostol D. H2-receptor antagonists 16 / 50 16. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. H. pylori infection B. Herpes virus infection C. Pernicious anaemia D. Alcohol 17 / 50 17. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Nephrolithiasis B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Arthritis D. Emphysema 18 / 50 18. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Jaundice C. Arthralgia D. Haematemesis 19 / 50 19. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgM B. IgD C. IgA D. IgG 20 / 50 20. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening jaundice B. Worsening ascites C. Paralytic ileus D. Ascitic pH < blood pH 21 / 50 21. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except: A. Right atrial myxoma B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Congenital hepatic fibrosis D. Antiphospholipid syndrome 22 / 50 22. Among the undermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum cholesterol B. Serum albumin C. Serum transaminases D. Serum bilirubin 23 / 50 23. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Folic acid B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Vitamin D. Iron 24 / 50 24. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Felty's syndrome B. Focal amyloidosis C. Chronic active hepatitis D. Chronic myeloid leukaemia 25 / 50 25. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Thalassemia B. Hydatid cyst C. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome D. Malaria 26 / 50 26. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Trypanosomiasis B. Trichinosis C. Schistosomiasis D. Leishmaniasis 27 / 50 27. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Recurrent ulceration B. Hypoglycaemia C. Steatorrhoea D. Palpitation 28 / 50 28. The commonest site of carcinoma of the stomach is: A. Lesser curvature B. Greater curvature C. Body of the stomach D. Prepyloric 29 / 50 29. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Ulcerative colitis 30 / 50 30. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Lymph node biopsy B. Stomach biopsy C. Rectal biopsy D. Liver biopsy 31 / 50 31. Menetrier’s disease may have all of the following except: A. Hypochlorhydria B. Gastritis C. Large tortuous gastric mucosal folds D. Hypoproteinaemia 32 / 50 32. Weil’s disease is associated with: A. Jaundice in all B. Absence of renal involvement C. Severe muscle pain D. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis 33 / 50 33. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 3rd day B. 1st day C. 7th day D. 2nd day 34 / 50 34. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Caecum B. Hepatic flexure C. Splenic flexure D. Transverse colon 35 / 50 35. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Coexistent coeliac sprue B. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency C. Associated vasculitis D. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine 36 / 50 36. Upper GI bleeding, angioid streaks in retina and yellowish skin papules indicate: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Render-Weber-Osler disease C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 37 / 50 37. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Carcinoma of the tongue C. Wilson's disease D. Achalasia cardia 38 / 50 38. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked recessive B. Autosomal recessive C. Sex-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 39 / 50 39. Which one of the following is not a space-occupying disease of liver? A. Cyst B. Amyloid C. Gummas D. Metastatic tumour 40 / 50 40. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Nitroglycerines B. Somatostatin C. Terlipressin D. Propranolol 41 / 50 41. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Thiazides B. Legionella pneumoniae C. Propranolol D. Measles 42 / 50 42. The most helpful differentiating histological feature between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease by rectal biopsy is: A. Fibrosis B. Granuloma C. Transmural involvement D. Crypt abscess 43 / 50 43. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test B. Testing for red blood cell survival C. Liver biopsy D. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day 44 / 50 44. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Transverse colon B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Stomach 45 / 50 45. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Increased bicarbonate level in serum B. Hypercalcaemia C. Hypophosphataemia D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen 46 / 50 46. Whipple’s triad is found in: A. Somatostatinoma B. Glucagonoma C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Insulinoma 47 / 50 47. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography B. Pulmonary angiography C. MRI scan of liver D. CT scan of liver 48 / 50 48. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Marked cholestasis B. Peripheral eosinophilia C. Splenomegaly D. Males are commonly susceptible 49 / 50 49. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Stool culture B. Dark-field examination C. Urine analysis D. Agglutination test 50 / 50 50. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Vitamin B12 deficiency B. Hemolysis C. Folic acid deficiency D. 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