Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test B. Serum albumin estimation C. Level of transaminases D. Serum bilirubin assay 2 / 50 2. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) may be produced by all except: A. Tetracycline B. Amiodarone C. Nifedipine D. Massive dose of estrogen 3 / 50 3. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Dilatation B. Segmentation and clumping C. Coarsening of mucosal folds D. Loss of mucosal pattern 4 / 50 4. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Induction of vomiting B. Consumption of food C. Attacks of emotional stress D. Change of posture 5 / 50 5. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Polycythaemia vera C. Pregnancy D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 6 / 50 6. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgM B. IgA C. IgG D. IgD 7 / 50 7. The commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Alcohol abuse B. Gallstones C. Infection D. Trauma 8 / 50 8. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. At least 60 ml of blood is required B. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut C. Offensive in odour D. Black tarry semisolid stool 9 / 50 9. Portal hypertension associated with soft liver suggests: A. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Extrahepatic obstruction D. Cirrhosis of liver 10 / 50 10. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 7th day B. 1st day C. 3rd day D. 2nd day 11 / 50 11. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland B. Melanoma C. Hepatoma D. Phaeochromocytoma 12 / 50 12. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Sclerosing cholangitis B. Paget's disease of bone C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoporosis 13 / 50 13. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis C B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis E D. Hepatitis D 14 / 50 14. Necrolytic migratory erythema is a feature of: A. Insulinoma B. Glucagonoma C. Hepatoblastoma D. Carcinoid syndrome 15 / 50 15. Which endocrine disorder is associated with exudative ascites? A. Conn's syndrome B. Hypothyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Hyperparathyroidism 16 / 50 16. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome B. Gilbert's syndrome C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia 17 / 50 17. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. MRI scan of liver B. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography C. Pulmonary angiography D. CT scan of liver 18 / 50 18. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Clubbing B. Starts with pruritus C. Moderate to severe jaundice D. Female preponderance 19 / 50 19. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient B. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach C. Gram-negative bacillus D. Multiflagellated 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is not included in the list of high-folate diet? A. Fruits B. Vegetables C. Liver D. Milk 21 / 50 21. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. Anaerobes B. Streptococcus faecalis C. E. coli D. Staphylococci 22 / 50 22. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Radiation B. Hypogammaglobulinaemia C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Coeliac disease 23 / 50 23. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Histamine injection test B. Calcium infusion test C. Secretin injection test D. Feeding of a standard mea 24 / 50 24. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Hypergastrinaemia D. Hyperamylasaemia 25 / 50 25. The commonest malignant tumour of the gallbladder is: A. Haemangioendothelioma B. Sarcoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma 26 / 50 26. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity B. Bilious vomiting C. Visible peristalsis D. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash 27 / 50 27. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. 2nd part of the duodenum B. Antral mucosa C. Jejunum D. Fundus of the stomach 28 / 50 28. The commonest type of oral malignancy is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Melanoma D. Adenocarcinoma 29 / 50 29. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening ascites B. Paralytic ileus C. Ascitic pH < blood pH D. Worsening jaundice 30 / 50 30. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A late complication of vagotomy B. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena C. A normal oesophageal anatomy D. A cause of dysphagia 31 / 50 31. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Ascites B. Upper GI bleeding C. Hepatocellular failure D. Hepatomegaly 32 / 50 32. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 90-100% B. 50-60% C. 30-40% D. 70-80% 33 / 50 33. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Nephropathy B. Retinopathy C. Neuropathy D. Macroangiopathy 34 / 50 34. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Increased bicarbonate level in serum B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hypophosphataemia 35 / 50 35. The smallest absorbing unit of the small intestinal mucosa is: A. Villus B. Crypts C. Microvillus D. Columnar cells 36 / 50 36. Gastric diverticula are: A. A premalignant condition B. Commonly seen C. Clinically not significant D. Need immediate upper GI endoscopy 37 / 50 37. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is reported in association with all of the following except: A. Pituitary adenomas B. Phaeochromocytoma C. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid D. Hyperparathyroidism 38 / 50 38. The commonest site of carcinoid tumour is: A. Appendix B. Ileum C. Colon D. Stomach 39 / 50 39. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Yellow fever B. Herpes zoster virus C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Cytomegalovirus 40 / 50 40. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction B. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching C. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously D. May produce melaena 41 / 50 41. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Coeliac disease C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Crohn's disease 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody B. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West C. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody D. Gastric polyp is common 43 / 50 43. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Dermatitis herpetiformi B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Coeliac disease D. Sickle cell disease 44 / 50 44. Weil’s disease is associated with: A. Absence of renal involvement B. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis C. Jaundice in all D. Severe muscle pain 45 / 50 45. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Tetracycline B. Anabolic steroids C. Oral contraceptives D. Chloramphenicol 46 / 50 46. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Misoprostol B. Carbenoxolone C. Sucralfate D. Omeprazole 47 / 50 47. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Propranolol B. Thiazides C. Measles D. Legionella pneumoniae 48 / 50 48. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl B. Hepatic iron index >1.5 C. TIBC < 200 μg/dl D. Liver biopsy 49 / 50 49. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema B. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin C. Lymphocytosis D. Malabsorption 50 / 50 50. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Urine analysis B. Dark-field examination C. Agglutination test D. Stool culture LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology