Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Ascending colon B. Transverse colon C. Splenic flexure D. Hepatic flexure 2 / 50 2. Carbenoxolone sodium may be associated with all of the following features except: A. Complicated by oedema B. Development of potassium depletion C. Development of systemic hypertension D. May be associated with milk-alkali syndrome 3 / 50 3. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. MRI of brain B. Evoked potential study C. EEG D. Psychometric study 4 / 50 4. Cholangiocarcinoma may be associated with: A. Tinea echinococcus infestation B. Biliary atresia C. Ulcerative colitis D. Cholelithiasis 5 / 50 5. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Easily treatable B. Most common GI disorder in practice C. Commonly affects middle-aged males D. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common 6 / 50 6. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Pancreatic ductal obstruction B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Endocrine pancreatic function D. Exocrine pancreatic function 7 / 50 7. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Prothrombin time C. Serum bilirubin D. SGPT 8 / 50 8. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Villous adenoma of the colon D. Carcinoid syndrome 9 / 50 9. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant B. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas C. Solitary primary tumours are very common D. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas 10 / 50 10. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction B. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously C. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching D. May produce melaena 11 / 50 11. Which is true in familial polyposis coli? A. The patient may not have any symptoms until a carcinoma has developed B. X-linked recessive inheritance C. Polyps are present since birth D. The rectum is spared 12 / 50 12. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Left atrial myxoma D. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency 13 / 50 13. Oral mucous membrane may be affected in all except: A. Dermatitis herpetiformis B. Lichen planus C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. Pemphigus Vulgaris 14 / 50 14. Latent jaundice may be a feature of all except: A. Pernicious anaemia B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Acute pulmonary thromboembolism D. Tropical sprue 15 / 50 15. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Distal small intestine B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. Proximal small intestine 16 / 50 16. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Odynophagia may be a symptom B. Commonest site of affection is lower third C. Dysphagia starts with solid foods D. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease 17 / 50 17. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome B. Hydatid cyst C. Thalassemia D. Malaria 18 / 50 18. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Chenodeoxycholic acid B. Lithocholic acid C. Deoxycholic acid D. Cholic acid 19 / 50 19. Regarding non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), all are true except: A. Occasionally progresses to cirrhosis and liver failure B. Jejunoileal bypass may be an aetiology C. Typically occurs in overweight, diabetic, hyperlipidemic subjects D. Glucocorticoid helps cure 20 / 50 20. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody B. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody C. Gastric polyp is common D. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West 21 / 50 21. Treatment of peptic ulcers with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. Stronger than H2-receptor blockers B. Suitable for patients with renal impairment C. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine D. Produces loose stool 22 / 50 22. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Sigmoidoscopy B. Stool culture C. Barium enema D. Stool smear 23 / 50 23. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test B. Serum amylase C. Quantitative faecal fat estimation D. Serum lipase 24 / 50 24. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Whipple's disease B. Gastric retention C. Coeliac sprue D. Pancreatic insufficiency 25 / 50 25. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Confusion B. Postural hypertension C. Dizziness D. Diaphoresis 26 / 50 26. Gastric diverticula are: A. A premalignant condition B. Commonly seen C. Need immediate upper GI endoscopy D. Clinically not significant 27 / 50 27. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis may be associated with: A. Chronic arsenic ingestion B. Sarcoidosis C. Oral contraceptives D. Umbilical sepsis 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated B. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases C. Anorexia is rare D. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis 29 / 50 29. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Gum is the principal site of affection B. May be complicated by angina pectoris C. Superficial ulcers in mouth D. Hiatus hernia may be associated with 30 / 50 30. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hypochloraemic alkalosis B. Hyperchloraemia C. Acidosis D. Hyperkalaemia 31 / 50 31. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Periodicity is common B. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint C. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour D. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool 32 / 50 32. Hyperdefaecation is found in all except: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Proctitis 33 / 50 33. The commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Alcohol abuse B. Infection C. Gallstones D. Trauma 34 / 50 34. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Cryptosporidium B. Isospora belli C. Microsporidia D. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare 35 / 50 35. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Depression B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Schizophrenia D. Anorexia nervos 36 / 50 36. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. USG of liver C. Protein electrophoresis D. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation 37 / 50 37. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Magnesium D. Calcium 38 / 50 38. Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be associated with: A. Atrial septal defect B. Retroperitoneal fibrosis C. Endocardial fibroelastosis D. Medullary sponge kidney 39 / 50 39. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. Atorvastatin B. INH C. Zidovudine D. Ketoconazole 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Burns B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Renal insufficiency D. Pseudopancreatic cyst 41 / 50 41. Which one of the following is not a space-occupying disease of liver? A. Metastatic tumour B. Gummas C. Cyst D. Amyloid 42 / 50 42. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Acute lung injury C. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis D. Pelvic abscess 43 / 50 43. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Melanoma affecting colon B. Crohn's disease C. Anthraquinone laxative abuse D. Hypereosinophilic enteritis 44 / 50 44. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Alpha B. Delta C. Beta D. Non-beta 45 / 50 45. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Increased bicarbonate level in serum B. Hypercalcaemia C. Elevated blood urea nitrogen D. Hypophosphataemia 46 / 50 46. The most reliable method of measuring steatorrhoea is: A. Small intestinal mucosal biopsy B. D-xylose absorption test C. Fecal fat estimation D. Schilling test 47 / 50 47. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Histamine injection test B. Calcium infusion test C. Secretin injection test D. Feeding of a standard mea 48 / 50 48. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. A fluctuating clinical course B. Means nothing to clinical course C. A bad prognosis D. The disease process is improving 49 / 50 49. Portal hypertension associated with soft liver suggests: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Extrahepatic obstruction D. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis 50 / 50 50. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Hypochondriac personality B. Pyloric stenosis C. Rapid eating habit D. Chronic anxiety states LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology
