Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Hepatic failure B. Atrophic rhinitis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. Gastrocolic fistula 2 / 50 2. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Transverse colon D. Stomach 3 / 50 3. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. During the first 10 days of life B. Within the first 24 hours of birth C. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life D. At birth 4 / 50 4. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Hypereosinophilic enteritis B. Crohn's disease C. Melanoma affecting colon D. Anthraquinone laxative abuse 5 / 50 5. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Coeliac disease C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Crohn's disease 6 / 50 6. Portal hypertension associated with soft liver suggests: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Extrahepatic obstruction C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis 7 / 50 7. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Systemic mastocytosis B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Coeliac sprue D. Whipple's disease 8 / 50 8. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. MRI of brain B. Psychometric study C. Evoked potential study D. EEG 9 / 50 9. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve B. Usually 5 cm long C. Present in 2% population D. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa 10 / 50 10. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. 7-10 mmHg B. 5-7mmHg C. >12mmHg D. <5mmHg 11 / 50 11. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic ascites B. Pancreatic malignancy C. Pancreatic pseudocyst D. Pancreatic phlegmon 12 / 50 12. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 80% 13 / 50 13. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Herpes zoster virus D. Yellow fever 14 / 50 14. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching B. May produce melaena C. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction D. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously 15 / 50 15. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated with all except: A. CREST syndrome B. Renal tubular acidosis C. Autoimmune thyroiditis D. Wilson's disease 16 / 50 16. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status B. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen C. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level D. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients 17 / 50 17. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Hiatal hernia B. Oesophageal carcinoma C. Reflux oesophagitis D. Alcoholism 18 / 50 18. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Yersinia B. Unknown C. Shigella D. Campylobacter 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Burns B. Renal insufficiency C. Pseudopancreatic cyst D. Acute intermittent porphyria 20 / 50 20. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Moonlight B. Fluorescent C. Sunlight D. Ultraviolet 21 / 50 21. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Lymphoma B. Gastric ulcer C. Developmental anomaly D. Syphilis 22 / 50 22. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. Anti-HBs B. HBV DNA C. HBsAg D. IgM anti-HBc 23 / 50 23. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Gum is the principal site of affection B. Hiatus hernia may be associated with C. May be complicated by angina pectoris D. Superficial ulcers in mouth 24 / 50 24. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Achlorhydria B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Loss of libido D. Cheilosis 25 / 50 25. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Protein-losing enteropathy 26 / 50 26. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Yellow fever B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Eclampsia D. Phosphorus poisoning 27 / 50 27. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Night-time somnolence B. Babinski's sign C. Flaccid muscles D. Presence of ankle clonus 28 / 50 28. The presence of diverticulosis is most commonly seen in: A. Transverse colon B. Descending colon C. Caecum D. Sigmoid colon 29 / 50 29. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Breast B. Prostate C. Colon D. Thyroid 30 / 50 30. The commonest malignant tumour of the gallbladder is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Sarcoma D. Haemangioendothelioma 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is the most sensitive and test of choice in diagnosing cystic dud obstruction, i.e. acute cholecystitis? A. HIDA scan B. ERCP C. Ultrasonography D. CT scan 32 / 50 32. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Domperidone B. Tetracycline C. Cisapride D. Metoclopramide 33 / 50 33. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 15 ml B. 100 ml C. 75 ml D. 30 ml 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. Hepatosplenomegaly B. High serum acid phosphatase level C. Pre-malignant D. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme 35 / 50 35. Gluten-induced enteropathy is strongly associated with: A. HLA-DQ1 B. HLA-DR4 C. HLA-B8 D. HLA-DR3 36 / 50 36. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. Sex-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 37 / 50 37. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Heartburn B. Water brash C. Retching D. Singultus 38 / 50 38. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Myocarditis D. Meningitis 39 / 50 39. All of the following may produce intestinal pseudo-obstruction except: A. Scleroderma B. Imipramine C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hyperthyroidism 40 / 50 40. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Hepatic flexure B. Transverse colon C. Splenic flexure D. Ascending colon 41 / 50 41. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Folic acid B. Iron C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics D. Vitamin 42 / 50 42. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Multiple myeloma B. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia C. AIDS D. Severe combined immunodeficiency 43 / 50 43. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Retinopathy B. Neuropathy C. Nephropathy D. Macroangiopathy 44 / 50 44. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Rectal biopsy B. Liver biopsy C. Lymph node biopsy D. Stomach biopsy 45 / 50 45. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Paget's disease of bone B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia D. Sclerosing cholangitis 46 / 50 46. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. More than 60% B. 20-30% C. 50-60% D. 40-50% 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Tinidazole B. Clarithromycin C. Cefixime D. Pantoprazole 48 / 50 48. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Pyogenic liver abscess B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Hemangioma of liver D. Hepatic neoplasm 49 / 50 49. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test B. Serum lipase C. Quantitative faecal fat estimation D. Serum amylase 50 / 50 50. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Volvulus B. Hernia C. Adhesions D. 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