Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Bile or pancreatic cytology B. Best visualisation of cystic duct C. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal D. Biliary manometry 2 / 50 2. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 6 g for 24 hrs B. < 12 g for 24 hrs C. < 15 g for 24 hr D. < 9 g for 24 hrs 3 / 50 3. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient B. Gram-negative bacillus C. Multiflagellated D. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach 4 / 50 4. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Pneumococcus B. LD body C. Brucella abortus D. Leptospira 5 / 50 5. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Aplastic anaemia C. Meningitis D. Myocarditis 6 / 50 6. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Colchicine B. Tetrathiomolybdate C. Penicillamine D. Elemental zinc 7 / 50 7. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Induction of vomiting B. Change of posture C. Attacks of emotional stress D. Consumption of food 8 / 50 8. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena B. A cause of dysphagia C. A normal oesophageal anatomy D. A late complication of vagotomy 9 / 50 9. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Severe combined immunodeficiency B. AIDS C. Multiple myeloma D. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia 10 / 50 10. Which one of the following originates from non-beta islet cell tumour of the pancreas? A. Glucagonoma B. Insulinoma C. Gastrinoma D. Somatostatinoma 11 / 50 11. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic phlegmon B. Pancreatic malignancy C. Pancreatic pseudocyst D. Pancreatic ascites 12 / 50 12. Normally in health, the venous flow in abdominal superficial veins is: A. From below upwards B. From above downwards C. Towards the umbilicus D. Away from the umbilicus 13 / 50 13. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools B. Colicky pain abdomen C. Abdominal distension D. Sense of complete evacuation 14 / 50 14. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation C. Protein electrophoresis D. USG of liver 15 / 50 15. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough B. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both C. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces D. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities 16 / 50 16. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Chronic hepatitis B. Steatosis C. Cholestasis D. Acute hepatic failure 17 / 50 17. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. Related structurally to histamine B. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use C. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels D. May produce benign intracranial hypertension 18 / 50 18. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. Produces constipation B. May contribute to osteomalacia C. Phosphate depletion is a complication D. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia 19 / 50 19. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Gastrocolic fistula B. Atrophic rhinitis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. Hepatic failure 20 / 50 20. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Theophylline B. Amitriptyline C. Sorbitol D. Colchicine 21 / 50 21. Spider naevi: A. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension B. May be seen in some healthy people C. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy D. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion 22 / 50 22. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Psoriasis B. Atopic eczema C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Pemphigus 23 / 50 23. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Autoimmunity B. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms C. Nutritional deficiency D. Not known 24 / 50 24. All of the following are true regarding right-sided colonic carcinoma except: A. Cachexia B. Pain abdomen C. Alteration of bowel habit D. Anaemia 25 / 50 25. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Tetracycline B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Metoclopramide 26 / 50 26. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Hepatitis-like picture B. Fatty infiltration C. Laennec's cirrhosis D. Hepatic vein thrombosis 27 / 50 27. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Alcohol abuse C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Protein-energy malnutrition 28 / 50 28. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. Vitamin B-complex B. Iron C. None of the above D. Folic acid 29 / 50 29. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen B. Hypophosphataemia C. Increased bicarbonate level in serum D. Hypercalcaemia 30 / 50 30. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Fat metabolism B. Carbohydrate metabolism C. Vitamins and minerals absorption D. Protein metabolism 31 / 50 31. Regarding solitary rectal ulcer syndrome (SRUS), which of the following is false? A. Rectal bleeding and tenesmus are common B. Surgery by resection rectopexy may be done C. Rectal prolapse and straining by patient are common associations D. Commonly in the posterior wall of rectum 32 / 50 32. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Ca stomach B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Duodenal diverticula D. Stomatostatinoma 33 / 50 33. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Liver biopsy B. Rectal biopsy C. Lymph node biopsy D. Stomach biopsy 34 / 50 34. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) may be produced by all except: A. Massive dose of estrogen B. Tetracycline C. Nifedipine D. Amiodarone 35 / 50 35. The commonest type of oral malignancy is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Melanoma 36 / 50 36. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Hypereosinophilic enteritis B. Crohn's disease C. Anthraquinone laxative abuse D. Melanoma affecting colon 37 / 50 37. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Clostridium difficile B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Clostridium perfringens 38 / 50 38. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Schizophrenia B. Sheehan's syndrome C. Anorexia nervos D. Depression 39 / 50 39. The classical triad in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Telangiectasias, flushing, diarrhoea B. Flushing, diarrhoea, valvular heart disease C. Pruritus, wheezing, diarrhoea D. Dyspnoea, flushing, valvular heart disease 40 / 50 40. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Malabsorption B. Tetany C. Gram-negative sepsis D. Meconium ileus 41 / 50 41. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Gilbert's syndrome B. Reye's syndrome C. Rotor syndrome D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome 42 / 50 42. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Tuberculous peritonitis D. Budd-Chiari syndrome 43 / 50 43. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Breast B. Colon C. Thyroid D. Prostate 44 / 50 44. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Kidney B. Liver C. Intestine D. Lung 45 / 50 45. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Pseudopolyps B. Fistula C. Spasm D. Small ulceration 46 / 50 46. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hyperlipidaemia B. Hyperamylasaemia C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hypergastrinaemia 47 / 50 47. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 3rd day B. 1st day C. 2nd day D. 7th day 48 / 50 48. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 90-100% B. 70-80% C. 30-40% D. 50-60% 49 / 50 49. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening ascites B. Paralytic ileus C. Worsening jaundice D. Ascitic pH < blood pH 50 / 50 50. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. The blood may not be mixed with stool B. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon C. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz D. Passage of bright red blood per rectum LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology