Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. VIII B. VII C. IX D. II 2 / 50 2. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. beta-adrenergic agonist B. Serotonin antagonist C. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist D. Methylxanthine bronchodilator 3 / 50 3. Portal hypertension associated with soft liver suggests: A. Budd-Chiari syndrome B. Extrahepatic obstruction C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis 4 / 50 4. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Diphtheria B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Streptococcal infection D. Ludwig's angina 5 / 50 5. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Juvenile polyposis coli B. Atrial septal defect C. Chronic cor pulmonale D. Intestinal tuberculosis 6 / 50 6. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Liver biopsy B. Lymph node biopsy C. Rectal biopsy D. Stomach biopsy 7 / 50 7. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant B. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas C. Solitary primary tumours are very common D. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas 8 / 50 8. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Exocrine pancreatic function B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Endocrine pancreatic function D. Pancreatic ductal obstruction 9 / 50 9. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. E. coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Salmonella 10 / 50 10. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Campylobacter B. Yersinia C. Shigella D. Rota virus 11 / 50 11. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Hepatoma B. Valve in hepatic veins C. Oral contraceptives D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 12 / 50 12. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Colchicine B. Sorbitol C. Amitriptyline D. Theophylline 13 / 50 13. Spider naevi: A. May be seen in some healthy people B. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension C. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy D. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion 14 / 50 14. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Hiatal hernia B. Oesophageal carcinoma C. Reflux oesophagitis D. Alcoholism 15 / 50 15. Intestinal lymphangiectasia is characterised by all except: A. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema B. Low level of transferrin and ceruloplasmin C. Malabsorption D. Lymphocytosis 16 / 50 16. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic malignancy B. Pancreatic phlegmon C. Pancreatic pseudocyst D. Pancreatic ascites 17 / 50 17. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Barium enema B. Stool culture C. Stool smear D. Sigmoidoscopy 18 / 50 18. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Water brash B. Singultus C. Retching D. Heartburn 19 / 50 19. Symptoms of carcinoma of the left colon include all except: A. Melena B. Altered bowel habits C. Low back pain D. Cramps in the abdomen 20 / 50 20. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Cholestasis B. Acute hepatic failure C. Chronic hepatitis D. Steatosis 21 / 50 21. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Emphysema B. Arthritis C. Electrolyte imbalance D. Nephrolithiasis 22 / 50 22. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hyperlipidaemia B. Hypergastrinaemia C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hyperamylasaemia 23 / 50 23. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Fistula B. Small ulceration C. Spasm D. Pseudopolyps 24 / 50 24. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Lansoprazole therapy C. Atrophic fundal gastritis D. Duodenal ulcer 25 / 50 25. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Stomach B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Duodenum 26 / 50 26. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgD D. IgM 27 / 50 27. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Nutritional deficiency B. Autoimmunity C. Not known D. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms 28 / 50 28. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. May contribute to osteomalacia B. Phosphate depletion is a complication C. Produces constipation D. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia 29 / 50 29. The commonest site of carcinoid tumour is: A. Ileum B. Colon C. Appendix D. Stomach 30 / 50 30. Gastric diverticula are: A. Commonly seen B. A premalignant condition C. Need immediate upper GI endoscopy D. Clinically not significant 31 / 50 31. All of the following are true regarding acute mesenteric vascular occlusion except: A. Abdominal distension with normal peristaltic sound, even with severe infarction B. Severe periumbilical pain at the onset C. Young women are the main victims D. Barium study of the small intestine reveals 'thumbprinting' 32 / 50 32. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Pelvic abscess B. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis C. Acute lung injury D. Renal failure 33 / 50 33. Regarding non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), all are true except: A. Typically occurs in overweight, diabetic, hyperlipidemic subjects B. Glucocorticoid helps cure C. Occasionally progresses to cirrhosis and liver failure D. Jejunoileal bypass may be an aetiology 34 / 50 34. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Iron B. Carbohydrate C. Fat D. Protein 35 / 50 35. Macroglossia is not found in: A. Hurler syndrome B. Bulbar palsy C. Myxoedema D. Primary amyloidosis 36 / 50 36. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Pneumococcus B. Brucella abortus C. Leptospira D. LD body 37 / 50 37. Venous prominence present in the upper abdomen with direction of flow towards pelvis suggests: A. Portal hypertension B. Hepatic vein thrombosis C. Inferior vena caval obstruction D. Superior vena caval obstruction 38 / 50 38. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hyperchloraemia C. Hypochloraemic alkalosis D. Acidosis 39 / 50 39. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 50-60% B. 90-100% C. 70-80% D. 30-40% 40 / 50 40. The most reliable method of measuring steatorrhoea is: A. Small intestinal mucosal biopsy B. D-xylose absorption test C. Fecal fat estimation D. Schilling test 41 / 50 41. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Peliosis hepatis B. Budd-chiari syndrome C. Hepatic granulomas D. Benign adenomas in liver 42 / 50 42. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Hemolysis B. Iron deficiency C. Vitamin B12 deficiency D. Folic acid deficiency 43 / 50 43. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. HBV DNA B. Anti-HBs C. IgM anti-HBc D. HBsAg 44 / 50 44. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Gastrocolic fistula B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Atrophic rhinitis D. Hepatic failure 45 / 50 45. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Lymphoma B. Syphilis C. Gastric ulcer D. Developmental anomaly 46 / 50 46. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Distention of the rectum B. Distention of the sigmoid colon C. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter D. Contraction of the rectum 47 / 50 47. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen B. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients C. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status D. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level 48 / 50 48. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Whipple's disease B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Cardnoid syndrome 49 / 50 49. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Whipple's disease B. Gastric retention C. Coeliac sprue D. Pancreatic insufficiency 50 / 50 50. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease B. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 C. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl D. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology