Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Commonly affects middle-aged males B. Easily treatable C. Most common GI disorder in practice D. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common 2 / 50 2. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. Pernicious anaemia B. H. pylori infection C. Herpes virus infection D. Alcohol 3 / 50 3. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare B. Microsporidia C. Isospora belli D. Cryptosporidium 4 / 50 4. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except: A. Gastric malignancy B. Menetrier's disease C. Chronic H. pylori infection D. Sarcoidosis 5 / 50 5. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli B. Clostridium difficile C. Rota and Norwalk viruses D. Campylobacter jejuni 6 / 50 6. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis B. Tyrosinaemia C. Haemangioma of liver D. Hereditary oxalosis 7 / 50 7. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Hepatic neoplasm B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Hemangioma of liver D. Pyogenic liver abscess 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl B. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L C. Serum AST> 400 ID /L D. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 9 / 50 9. Granulomatous hepatitis is not a feature of: A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Blastomycosis D. Metastatic carcinoma 10 / 50 10. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgD D. IgA 11 / 50 11. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example B. Blocked hepatic vein C. Commonest cause of portal hypertension D. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure 12 / 50 12. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Night-time somnolence B. Flaccid muscles C. Babinski's sign D. Presence of ankle clonus 13 / 50 13. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except: A. Antiphospholipid syndrome B. Congenital hepatic fibrosis C. Right atrial myxoma D. Oral contraceptive pills 14 / 50 14. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 90-100% B. 30-40% C. 50-60% D. 70-80% 15 / 50 15. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Oral contraceptives B. Hepatoma C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria D. Valve in hepatic veins 16 / 50 16. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Female preponderance B. Clubbing C. Starts with pruritus D. Moderate to severe jaundice 17 / 50 17. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Gastroenterostomy B. Three-quarter gastric resection C. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty D. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy 18 / 50 18. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form B. Invariably requires surgery C. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris D. Usually a disease of teen age 19 / 50 19. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD 20 / 50 20. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Ultraviolet B. Sunlight C. Moonlight D. Fluorescent 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West B. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody C. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody D. Gastric polyp is common 22 / 50 22. Which of the following agent’s absorption is least affected in massive small bowel resection? A. Salt and water B. Fat C. Ca++ D. Vitamin B12 23 / 50 23. In coeliac sprue, which of the following is non-deficient in the body? A. Serum albumin B. Iron C. Folic acid D. Vitamin B12 24 / 50 24. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation C. USG of liver D. Protein electrophoresis 25 / 50 25. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Protein-losing enteropathy D. Irritable bowel syndrome 26 / 50 26. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Villous adenoma of the colon 27 / 50 27. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Protein-energy malnutrition C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Alcohol abuse 28 / 50 28. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible B. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly C. Cranial nerve palsy may occur D. Coronary arteritis may be a feature 29 / 50 29. Carbenoxolone sodium may be associated with all of the following features except: A. Development of potassium depletion B. Complicated by oedema C. May be associated with milk-alkali syndrome D. Development of systemic hypertension 30 / 50 30. The commonest type of oral malignancy is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Melanoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Basal cell carcinoma 31 / 50 31. Which is true in familial polyposis coli? A. The patient may not have any symptoms until a carcinoma has developed B. The rectum is spared C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. Polyps are present since birth 32 / 50 32. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Misoprostol B. Sucralfate C. Omeprazole D. Carbenoxolone 33 / 50 33. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Renal failure B. Fulminant hepatocellular failure C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Acute lung injury 34 / 50 34. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 120ml B. 200ml C. 270ml D. 70ml 35 / 50 35. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Fatty infiltration B. Hepatitis-like picture C. Laennec's cirrhosis D. Hepatic vein thrombosis 36 / 50 36. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Eclampsia B. Phosphorus poisoning C. Yellow fever D. Carbon tetrachloride 37 / 50 37. The major site of bile salt absorption is: A. Stomach B. Proximal small intestine C. Distal small intestine D. Duodenum 38 / 50 38. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Pregnancy C. Cushing's syndrome D. Polycythaemia vera 39 / 50 39. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. May produce melaena B. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction C. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching D. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously 40 / 50 40. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Coeliac disease B. Whipple's disease C. Laxative abuse D. Lactase deficiency 41 / 50 41. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Peliosis hepatis B. Budd-chiari syndrome C. Benign adenomas in liver D. Hepatic granulomas 42 / 50 42. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Sucralfate B. Digitalis C. Clindamycin D. Colchicine 43 / 50 43. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. Ketoconazole B. INH C. Zidovudine D. Atorvastatin 44 / 50 44. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl B. Liver biopsy C. Hepatic iron index >1.5 D. TIBC < 200 μg/dl 45 / 50 45. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Carcinoid syndrome 46 / 50 46. Malignant potential is least in: A. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome B. Familial colonic polyposis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Villous adenoma of colon 47 / 50 47. Octreotide can be used in all except: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Pancreatic ascites C. Oesophageal variceal bleeding D. Short bowel syndrome 48 / 50 48. The presence of diverticulosis is most commonly seen in: A. Sigmoid colon B. Transverse colon C. Descending colon D. Caecum 49 / 50 49. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Hemolysis B. Folic acid deficiency C. Iron deficiency D. Vitamin B12 deficiency 50 / 50 50. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Tobramycin D. Vancomycin LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology