Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 12 g for 24 hrs B. < 15 g for 24 hr C. < 9 g for 24 hrs D. < 6 g for 24 hrs 2 / 50 2. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Right-sided heart failure C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Chronic pancreatitis 3 / 50 3. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Calcium-channel blocker B. Clonidine C. Colchicine D. Cholestyramine 4 / 50 4. Necrolytic migratory erythema is a feature of: A. Hepatoblastoma B. Insulinoma C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Glucagonoma 5 / 50 5. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. HBeAg B. Anti-HBs C. IgG anti-HBc D. DNA polymerase 6 / 50 6. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Adhesions B. Volvulus C. Neoplasm D. Hernia 7 / 50 7. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test B. Liver biopsy C. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day D. Testing for red blood cell survival 8 / 50 8. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. 2nd part of the duodenum B. Fundus of the stomach C. Jejunum D. Antral mucosa 9 / 50 9. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Shigella B. Clostridium difficile C. Clostridium perfringens D. Campylobacter 10 / 50 10. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 15 ml B. 100 ml C. 30 ml D. 75 ml 11 / 50 11. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Polycythaemia vera C. Pregnancy D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 12 / 50 12. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Males are affected more than females B. Perforation is a serious complication C. Massive rectal bleeding is very common D. Right side of colon is less affected than the left 13 / 50 13. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Jejunum B. Ileum C. Stomach D. Duodenum 14 / 50 14. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Metoclopramide B. Protein meal C. Beta-adrenergic agonist D. Gastrin 15 / 50 15. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Coexistent coeliac sprue B. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine C. Associated vasculitis D. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency 16 / 50 16. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. HBsAg B. Anti-HBs C. IgM anti-HBc D. HBV DNA 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Subnormal Surface temperature B. Offensive stool C. Absence of tenesmus D. Onset with purging 18 / 50 18. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 30% B. 10% C. 50% D. 80% 19 / 50 19. Which one of the following originates from non-beta islet cell tumour of the pancreas? A. Glucagonoma B. Somatostatinoma C. Gastrinoma D. Insulinoma 20 / 50 20. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Diaphoresis B. Dizziness C. Postural hypertension D. Confusion 21 / 50 21. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia B. Dubin-Johnson syndrome C. Gilbert's syndrome D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome 22 / 50 22. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Protein-energy malnutrition C. Hyperthyroidism D. Alcohol abuse 23 / 50 23. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Biliary dyspepsia D. Tropical sprue 24 / 50 24. Venous prominence present in the upper abdomen with direction of flow towards pelvis suggests: A. Portal hypertension B. Hepatic vein thrombosis C. Inferior vena caval obstruction D. Superior vena caval obstruction 25 / 50 25. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Tertiary peristaltic wave B. Secondary peristaltic wave C. Primary peristaltic wave D. Voluntary phase of deglutition 26 / 50 26. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Diglycerides B. Triglycerides C. Fatty acids D. Monoglycerides 27 / 50 27. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Malabsorption B. Meconium ileus C. Gram-negative sepsis D. Tetany 28 / 50 28. All of the following may produce intestinal pseudo-obstruction except: A. Imipramine B. Hyperthyroidism C. Scleroderma D. Diabetes mellitus 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L B. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 C. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl D. Serum AST> 400 ID /L 30 / 50 30. Which is not true so far as definition of cirrhosis of liver is concerned? A. Fatty infiltration B. Fibrosis C. Necrosis D. Regeneration 31 / 50 31. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 7th day D. 3rd day 32 / 50 32. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Syphilis B. Developmental anomaly C. Lymphoma D. Gastric ulcer 33 / 50 33. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin B. Left colon is commonly affected C. Haemotochezia is common D. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it 34 / 50 34. In HBV infection, which serological maker is present in the ‘window period’ as evidence of recent HBV infection: A. IgM anti-HBc B. IgG anti-HBc C. HBeAg D. HBV DNA 35 / 50 35. The commonest cause of metastasis to the wall of the stomach is: A. Melanoma B. Hepatoma C. Carcinoma of thyroid D. Carcinoma of breast 36 / 50 36. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Hemangioma of liver C. Hepatic neoplasm D. Pyogenic liver abscess 37 / 50 37. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Multiple myeloma B. Severe combined immunodeficiency C. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia D. AIDS 38 / 50 38. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Tuberculous peritonitis D. Congestive cardiac failure 39 / 50 39. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Heartburn B. Regurgitation C. Chest pain D. Dysphagia 40 / 50 40. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Carbamazepine therapy B. Scurvy C. Acute monocytic leukaemia D. Amlodipine therapy 41 / 50 41. Hepatic amoebiasis is associated with all except: A. Abscess commonly affects the right lobe B. Right lower intercostal tenderness C. May lead to the development of an amoebic liver abscess D. Jaundice is present in majority 42 / 50 42. Chronic gastritis may be characterised by all except: A. Gastric polyp B. Incessant vomiting C. Anorexia D. Haematemesis 43 / 50 43. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. E. coli B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Salmonella 44 / 50 44. Cholangiocarcinoma may be associated with: A. Cholelithiasis B. Biliary atresia C. Tinea echinococcus infestation D. Ulcerative colitis 45 / 50 45. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. Ketoconazole B. Zidovudine C. INH D. Atorvastatin 46 / 50 46. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Renal failure B. Fulminant hepatocellular failure C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Acute lung injury 47 / 50 47. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated with all except: A. Wilson's disease B. Renal tubular acidosis C. Autoimmune thyroiditis D. CREST syndrome 48 / 50 48. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism B. Achalasia cardia C. Wilson's disease D. Carcinoma of the tongue 49 / 50 49. Absolute contraindication for liver biopsy is: A. Cholestasis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Haemangioma of liver D. Cirrhosis of liver 50 / 50 50. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Nitroglycerines B. Terlipressin C. Somatostatin D. Propranolol LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology