Gastroenterology

0%
16 votes, 0 avg
38

Gastroenterology

1 / 50

1. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome?

2 / 50

2. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is:

3 / 50

3. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except:

4 / 50

4. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except:

5 / 50

5. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except:

6 / 50

6. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation?

7 / 50

7. Hepatic rub may be found in:

8 / 50

8. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission?

9 / 50

9. Granulomatous hepatitis is not a feature of:

10 / 50

10. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation?

11 / 50

11. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension:

12 / 50

12. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is:

13 / 50

13. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except:

14 / 50

14. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is:

15 / 50

15. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is:

16 / 50

16. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis?

17 / 50

17. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration?

18 / 50

18. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true?

19 / 50

19. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to:

20 / 50

20. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin?

21 / 50

21. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia?

22 / 50

22. Which of the following agent’s absorption is least affected in massive small bowel resection?

23 / 50

23. In coeliac sprue, which of the following is non-deficient in the body?

24 / 50

24. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is:

25 / 50

25. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of:

26 / 50

26. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of:

27 / 50

27. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is:

28 / 50

28. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except:

29 / 50

29. Carbenoxolone sodium may be associated with all of the following features except:

30 / 50

30. The commonest type of oral malignancy is:

31 / 50

31. Which is true in familial polyposis coli?

32 / 50

32. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy?

33 / 50

33. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except:

34 / 50

34. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as:

35 / 50

35. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of:

36 / 50

36. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by:

37 / 50

37. The major site of bile salt absorption is:

38 / 50

38. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in:

39 / 50

39. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except:

40 / 50

40. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea?

41 / 50

41. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except:

42 / 50

42. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except:

43 / 50

43. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except:

44 / 50

44. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is:

45 / 50

45. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea?

46 / 50

46. Malignant potential is least in:

47 / 50

47. Octreotide can be used in all except:

48 / 50

48. The presence of diverticulosis is most commonly seen in:

49 / 50

49. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is:

50 / 50

50. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: