GastroenterologyHome Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin A C. Folic acid D. Vitamin B12 2 / 50 2. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Coeliac disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Crohn's disease D. Intestinal lymphoma 3 / 50 3. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis D B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B D. Hepatitis C 4 / 50 4. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Haematochezia B. Pain abdomen C. Constipation D. Rectal pain 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is the most sensitive and test of choice in diagnosing cystic dud obstruction, i.e. acute cholecystitis? A. ERCP B. CT scan C. Ultrasonography D. HIDA scan 6 / 50 6. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Fibrosis of the lung B. Pneumonia C. Lung abscess D. Emphysema 7 / 50 7. Gardner’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Osteomas B. Astrocytoma C. Fibromas D. Epidermoid cyst 8 / 50 8. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Osteomalacia B. Sclerosing cholangitis C. Paget's disease of bone D. Osteoporosis 9 / 50 9. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Domperidone B. Metoclopramide C. Tetracycline D. Cisapride 10 / 50 10. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Transverse colon B. Descending colon C. Ascending colon D. Caecum 11 / 50 11. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Anabolic steroids B. Chloramphenicol C. Oral contraceptives D. Tetracycline 12 / 50 12. Tegaserod is used in: A. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease B. Coeliac disease C. Ulcerative colitis D. Irritable bowel syndrome 13 / 50 13. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Type of anaemia B. D-xylose absorption test C. Response to treatment D. Small intestinal biopsy 14 / 50 14. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Pemphigus B. Atopic eczema C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Psoriasis 15 / 50 15. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. Prostaglandins like misoprostol B. Proton pump inhibitors C. H2-receptor antagonists D. Coating agents like sucralfate 16 / 50 16. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Rectal biopsy B. Liver biopsy C. Stomach biopsy D. Lymph node biopsy 17 / 50 17. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Cholestasis B. Steatosis C. Acute hepatic failure D. Chronic hepatitis 18 / 50 18. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic malignancy B. Pancreatic phlegmon C. Pancreatic ascites D. Pancreatic pseudocyst 19 / 50 19. The commonest extraintestinal complication of ulcerative colitis is: A. Arthritis B. Uveitis C. Sclerosing cholangitis D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 20 / 50 20. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Bilious vomiting B. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity C. Visible peristalsis D. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash 21 / 50 21. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Malaria B. Hydatid cyst C. Thalassemia D. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome 22 / 50 22. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea B. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers C. Vitamin B12 malabsorption D. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio 23 / 50 23. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A normal oesophageal anatomy B. A cause of dysphagia C. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena D. A late complication of vagotomy 24 / 50 24. Manometric study of the lower oesophagus is important in all except: A. Achalasia cardia B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Diffuse oesophageal spasm 25 / 50 25. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. HBeAg B. Anti-HBs C. DNA polymerase D. IgG anti-HBc 26 / 50 26. All are major components of intestinal gas except: A. H2S B. N2 C. Methane D. CO2 27 / 50 27. Latent jaundice may be a feature of all except: A. Tropical sprue B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Pernicious anaemia D. Acute pulmonary thromboembolism 28 / 50 28. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Clostridium difficile B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Clostridium perfringens 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not a recognized complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Bronchiectasis B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia D. Sacroiliitis 30 / 50 30. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Loss of axillary and pubic hair B. Amenorrhoea C. Hypothermia D. Carotenaemia 31 / 50 31. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Adrenal insufficiency B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hyperparathyroidism 32 / 50 32. Mucosal immunity is mainly due to: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD 33 / 50 33. Oral mucous membrane may be affected in all except: A. Lichen planus B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Pemphigus Vulgaris D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome 34 / 50 34. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Theophylline B. Sorbitol C. Amitriptyline D. Colchicine 35 / 50 35. Silvery stool signifies a lesion characteristic of: A. Meckel's diverticulum B. Right colic flexure C. Ileocaecal region D. Ampulla of Vater 36 / 50 36. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. E. coli C. Salmonella D. Streptococcus faecalis 37 / 50 37. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. Bone scan B. USG of liver C. Protein electrophoresis D. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation 38 / 50 38. Absolute contraindication for liver biopsy is: A. Amoebic liver abscess B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Haemangioma of liver D. Cholestasis 39 / 50 39. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Water brash B. Heartburn C. Singultus D. Retching 40 / 50 40. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Gastrin B. Metoclopramide C. Protein meal D. Beta-adrenergic agonist 41 / 50 41. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Arthritis B. Emphysema C. Electrolyte imbalance D. Nephrolithiasis 42 / 50 42. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Erythromycin B. Vancomycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin 43 / 50 43. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum lipase B. Quantitative faecal fat estimation C. Serum amylase D. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test 44 / 50 44. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test B. Small intestinal X-rays C. Quantitative determination of faecal fat D. D-xylose absorption test 45 / 50 45. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Vitamins and minerals absorption B. Protein metabolism C. Carbohydrate metabolism D. Fat metabolism 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. Gastric polyp is common B. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody C. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West D. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody 47 / 50 47. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Dysphagia starts with solid foods B. Commonest site of affection is lower third C. Odynophagia may be a symptom D. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease 48 / 50 48. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Uveitis B. Scleromalacia perforans C. Episcleritis D. Cataract 49 / 50 49. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 30-40% B. 90-100% C. 50-60% D. 70-80% 50 / 50 50. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Copper sulphate B. Rifampicin C. Halothane D. Gliclazide LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology