GastroenterologyHome Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 90-100% B. 30-40% C. 70-80% D. 50-60% 2 / 50 2. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated with all except: A. CREST syndrome B. Renal tubular acidosis C. Wilson's disease D. Autoimmune thyroiditis 3 / 50 3. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Lithocholic acid B. Cholic acid C. Chenodeoxycholic acid D. Deoxycholic acid 4 / 50 4. All are major components of intestinal gas except: A. H2S B. CO2 C. N2 D. Methane 5 / 50 5. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Hemolysis B. Vitamin B12 deficiency C. Folic acid deficiency D. Iron deficiency 6 / 50 6. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Coeliac disease C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Crohn's disease 7 / 50 7. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Rectal biopsy B. Liver biopsy C. Stomach biopsy D. Lymph node biopsy 8 / 50 8. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Electrolyte imbalance B. Nephrolithiasis C. Arthritis D. Emphysema 9 / 50 9. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Stomatostatinoma B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Duodenal diverticula D. Ca stomach 10 / 50 10. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Invariably requires surgery B. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form C. Usually a disease of teen age D. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris 11 / 50 11. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Osteoporosis B. Osteomalacia C. Sclerosing cholangitis D. Paget's disease of bone 12 / 50 12. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Prostate B. Breast C. Colon D. Thyroid 13 / 50 13. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Rota virus B. Shigella C. Yersinia D. Campylobacter 14 / 50 14. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 10% B. 30% C. 80% D. 50% 15 / 50 15. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Hepatic failure B. Gastrocolic fistula C. Atrophic rhinitis D. Amoebic liver abscess 16 / 50 16. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Splenic flexure B. Hepatic flexure C. Ascending colon D. Transverse colon 17 / 50 17. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. Antral mucosa B. 2nd part of the duodenum C. Fundus of the stomach D. Jejunum 18 / 50 18. The maximum absorption of fluid in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in: A. Jejunum B. Ileum C. Colon D. Stomach 19 / 50 19. Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be associated with: A. Atrial septal defect B. Endocardial fibroelastosis C. Retroperitoneal fibrosis D. Medullary sponge kidney 20 / 50 20. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure B. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example C. Commonest cause of portal hypertension D. Blocked hepatic vein 21 / 50 21. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. At daytime B. In males C. After a cold bath D. On the palms and soles 22 / 50 22. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Vitamin B. Iron C. Folic acid D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics 23 / 50 23. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all except: A. Crohn's s disease B. Amoebiasis C. Cystic fibrosis D. Giardiasis 24 / 50 24. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. Present in 2% population B. Usually 5 cm long C. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve D. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not included in the list of high-folate diet? A. Liver B. Fruits C. Milk D. Vegetables 26 / 50 26. Which one is false regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Sense of complete evacuation B. Abdominal distension C. Mucous diarrhoea or pencil-like pasty stools D. Colicky pain abdomen 27 / 50 27. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgD B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG 28 / 50 28. Necrolytic migratory erythema is a feature of: A. Hepatoblastoma B. Glucagonoma C. Insulinoma D. Carcinoid syndrome 29 / 50 29. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Loss of mucosal pattern B. Dilatation C. Segmentation and clumping D. Coarsening of mucosal folds 30 / 50 30. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Monoglycerides B. Fatty acids C. Diglycerides D. Triglycerides 31 / 50 31. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. One hour after meals and at bedtime B. Immediately after meals C. Just before meals D. With the meals 32 / 50 32. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 1st day B. 7th day C. 2nd day D. 3rd day 33 / 50 33. Spider naevi: A. May be seen in some healthy people B. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy C. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion D. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension 34 / 50 34. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Acute leukaemia B. Trauma C. Haemophilia D. Anticoagulant therapy 35 / 50 35. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Measles B. Propranolol C. Legionella pneumoniae D. Thiazides 36 / 50 36. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Dysphagia B. Heartburn C. Regurgitation D. Chest pain 37 / 50 37. Carcinoid syndrome is commonly produced, when the site of primary tumour is present in: A. Hindgut B. Bronchus C. Stomach D. Midgut 38 / 50 38. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Three-quarter gastric resection B. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty C. Gastroenterostomy D. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy 39 / 50 39. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Increased salivation B. Diplopia C. Descending paralysis D. Constipation 40 / 50 40. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Rotor syndrome B. Gilbert's syndrome C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Reye's syndrome 41 / 50 41. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Streptococcus faecalis C. E. coli D. Salmonella 42 / 50 42. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. HBeAg implies high infectivity B. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity C. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state D. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection 43 / 50 43. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Adrenal insufficiency 44 / 50 44. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Amyloidosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Parkinsonism 45 / 50 45. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 12 g for 24 hrs B. < 6 g for 24 hrs C. < 9 g for 24 hrs D. < 15 g for 24 hr 46 / 50 46. Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are found in: A. Pseudomyxoma peritonei B. Diverticulosis of colon C. Malakoplakia of colon D. Pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis 47 / 50 47. All of the following may produce intestinal pseudo-obstruction except: A. Imipramine B. Diabetes mellitus C. Scleroderma D. Hyperthyroidism 48 / 50 48. The commonest type of pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Ductal adenocarcinoma B. Islet cell carcinoma C. Mucinous carcinoma D. Cystadenocarcinoma 49 / 50 49. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Stool culture B. Dark-field examination C. Agglutination test D. Urine analysis 50 / 50 50. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Postural hypertension B. Diaphoresis C. Dizziness D. Confusion LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology