Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which endocrine disorder is associated with exudative ascites? A. Conn's syndrome B. Addison's disease C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Hypothyroidism 2 / 50 2. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Beta-adrenergic agonist B. Gastrin C. Protein meal D. Metoclopramide 3 / 50 3. The commonest site of carcinoma of the stomach is: A. Lesser curvature B. Prepyloric C. Body of the stomach D. Greater curvature 4 / 50 4. Manometric study of the lower oesophagus is important in all except: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Achalasia cardia C. Diffuse oesophageal spasm D. Polymyositis 5 / 50 5. Necrolytic migratory erythema is a feature of: A. Glucagonoma B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Hepatoblastoma D. Insulinoma 6 / 50 6. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Triglycerides B. Fatty acids C. Monoglycerides D. Diglycerides 7 / 50 7. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Trypsin B. Elastase C. Carboxypeptidase D. Chymotrypsin 8 / 50 8. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Carotenaemia B. Loss of axillary and pubic hair C. Hypothermia D. Amenorrhoea 9 / 50 9. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Caecum B. Transverse colon C. Ascending colon D. Descending colon 10 / 50 10. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Intestinal metaplasia B. Antibodies to parietal cells C. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease D. Gastric atrophy 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is the most sensitive and test of choice in diagnosing cystic dud obstruction, i.e. acute cholecystitis? A. ERCP B. CT scan C. HIDA scan D. Ultrasonography 12 / 50 12. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Propranolol B. Measles C. Legionella pneumoniae D. Thiazides 13 / 50 13. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Type of anaemia B. Response to treatment C. Small intestinal biopsy D. D-xylose absorption test 14 / 50 14. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Atrial septal defect C. Intestinal tuberculosis D. Juvenile polyposis coli 15 / 50 15. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Ulcerative colitis 16 / 50 16. The commonest type of pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Ductal adenocarcinoma B. Islet cell carcinoma C. Mucinous carcinoma D. Cystadenocarcinoma 17 / 50 17. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis B 18 / 50 18. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Calcium-channel blocker B. Cholestyramine C. Clonidine D. Colchicine 19 / 50 19. All are major components of intestinal gas except: A. Methane B. N2 C. CO2 D. H2S 20 / 50 20. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Biliary dyspepsia D. Tropical sprue 21 / 50 21. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Hemolysis B. Iron deficiency C. Vitamin B12 deficiency D. Folic acid deficiency 22 / 50 22. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgD 23 / 50 23. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Crohn's disease B. Intestinal lymphoma C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Coeliac disease 24 / 50 24. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. Sex-linked dominant D. Sex-linked recessive 25 / 50 25. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. >12mmHg B. 7-10 mmHg C. 5-7mmHg D. <5mmHg 26 / 50 26. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Dizziness B. Diaphoresis C. Confusion D. Postural hypertension 27 / 50 27. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. AIDS B. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia C. Severe combined immunodeficiency D. Multiple myeloma 28 / 50 28. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients B. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus C. A consequence of achalasia cardia D. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold 29 / 50 29. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Males are affected more than females B. Massive rectal bleeding is very common C. Right side of colon is less affected than the left D. Perforation is a serious complication 30 / 50 30. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Recurrent ulceration B. Palpitation C. Hypoglycaemia D. Steatorrhoea 31 / 50 31. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Paralytic ileus B. Ascitic pH < blood pH C. Worsening ascites D. Worsening jaundice 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. Very high bilirubin level B. Hyperglobulinaemia is common C. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease D. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units 33 / 50 33. Macroglossia is not found in: A. Hurler syndrome B. Primary amyloidosis C. Myxoedema D. Bulbar palsy 34 / 50 34. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Osteoporosis B. Osteomalacia C. Paget's disease of bone D. Sclerosing cholangitis 35 / 50 35. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 10% B. 50% C. 30% D. 80% 36 / 50 36. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl B. Serum AST> 400 ID /L C. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 D. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L 37 / 50 37. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Fatty infiltration B. Laennec's cirrhosis C. Hepatic vein thrombosis D. Hepatitis-like picture 38 / 50 38. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Carbon tetrachloride B. Eclampsia C. Phosphorus poisoning D. Yellow fever 39 / 50 39. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A cause of dysphagia B. A normal oesophageal anatomy C. A late complication of vagotomy D. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena 40 / 50 40. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Loss of mucosal pattern B. Segmentation and clumping C. Dilatation D. Coarsening of mucosal folds 41 / 50 41. All are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Vitamin B12 B. Fe++ C. Folate D. Ca++ 42 / 50 42. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypochloraemic alkalosis C. Acidosis D. Hyperchloraemia 43 / 50 43. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum amylase B. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test C. Quantitative faecal fat estimation D. Serum lipase 44 / 50 44. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Cheilosis B. Loss of libido C. Achlorhydria D. Peripheral neuropathy 45 / 50 45. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Clubbing B. Moderate to severe jaundice C. Female preponderance D. Starts with pruritus 46 / 50 46. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Distended abdomen B. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal C. Obstipation D. Vomiting 47 / 50 47. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Acute monocytic leukaemia B. Amlodipine therapy C. Carbamazepine therapy D. Scurvy 48 / 50 48. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Sucralfate B. Clindamycin C. Digitalis D. Colchicine 49 / 50 49. Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are found in: A. Pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis B. Diverticulosis of colon C. Malakoplakia of colon D. Pseudomyxoma peritonei 50 / 50 50. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis C B. Hepatitis B C. 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