Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Eosinophilic enteritis D. Coeliac disease 2 / 50 2. Normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 9 g for 24 hrs B. < 12 g for 24 hrs C. < 15 g for 24 hr D. < 6 g for 24 hrs 3 / 50 3. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. Quantitative determination of faecal fat B. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test C. Small intestinal X-rays D. D-xylose absorption test 4 / 50 4. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Schistosomiasis B. Trichinosis C. Leishmaniasis D. Trypanosomiasis 5 / 50 5. Jejunal diverticula may be associated with: A. Hypochlorhydria B. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Chronic pancreatitis 6 / 50 6. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Vitamin B12 malabsorption B. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers C. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea D. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio 7 / 50 7. Octreotide can be used in all except: A. Pancreatic ascites B. Oesophageal variceal bleeding C. Short bowel syndrome D. Ulcerative colitis 8 / 50 8. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. HBeAg implies high infectivity B. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state C. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection D. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity 9 / 50 9. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Lesser curvature B. Body C. Antrum D. Cardia 10 / 50 10. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 30-40% B. 70-80% C. 90-100% D. 50-60% 11 / 50 11. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test B. Level of transaminases C. Serum albumin estimation D. Serum bilirubin assay 12 / 50 12. Commonest cause of hepatoma is: A. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency B. Haemochromatosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alcohol 13 / 50 13. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms B. Not known C. Nutritional deficiency D. Autoimmunity 14 / 50 14. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology B. Jaundice C. Mild, firm hepatomegaly D. Liver biopsy is diagnostic 15 / 50 15. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Exocrine pancreatic function B. Endocrine pancreatic function C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Pancreatic ductal obstruction 16 / 50 16. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour B. Periodicity is common C. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint D. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool 17 / 50 17. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 40% B. 20% C. 30% D. 60% 18 / 50 18. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Primary peristaltic wave B. Secondary peristaltic wave C. Tertiary peristaltic wave D. Voluntary phase of deglutition 19 / 50 19. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Protein B. Iron C. Carbohydrate D. Fat 20 / 50 20. Regarding non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), all are true except: A. Jejunoileal bypass may be an aetiology B. Occasionally progresses to cirrhosis and liver failure C. Glucocorticoid helps cure D. Typically occurs in overweight, diabetic, hyperlipidemic subjects 21 / 50 21. The classical triad in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Dyspnoea, flushing, valvular heart disease B. Flushing, diarrhoea, valvular heart disease C. Pruritus, wheezing, diarrhoea D. Telangiectasias, flushing, diarrhoea 22 / 50 22. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Stool culture B. Urine analysis C. Dark-field examination D. Agglutination test 23 / 50 23. All of the following are methods for detection of H. pylori except: A. Histology B. Rapid urease test C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Endoscopic view 24 / 50 24. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Meninges with encephalon B. Vulva C. Heart D. Skin 25 / 50 25. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Yellow fever B. Phosphorus poisoning C. Eclampsia D. Carbon tetrachloride 26 / 50 26. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Lymph node biopsy B. Stomach biopsy C. Rectal biopsy D. Liver biopsy 27 / 50 27. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. May produce benign intracranial hypertension B. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use C. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels D. Related structurally to histamine 28 / 50 28. The presenting feature of non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis is: A. Hepatocellular failure B. Ascites C. Hepatomegaly D. Upper GI bleeding 29 / 50 29. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Dizziness B. Postural hypertension C. Confusion D. Diaphoresis 30 / 50 30. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A cause of dysphagia B. A late complication of vagotomy C. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena D. A normal oesophageal anatomy 31 / 50 31. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Coeliac disease B. Crohn's disease C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Irritable bowel syndrome 32 / 50 32. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Prostate B. Colon C. Thyroid D. Breast 33 / 50 33. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Non-ulcer dyspepsia B. Gastric lymphoma C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Antral gastritis 34 / 50 34. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum lipase B. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test C. Quantitative faecal fat estimation D. Serum amylase 35 / 50 35. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Carbamazepine therapy B. Amlodipine therapy C. Scurvy D. Acute monocytic leukaemia 36 / 50 36. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Salmonella C. E. coli D. Streptococcus faecalis 37 / 50 37. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. CT scan of liver B. MRI scan of liver C. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography D. Pulmonary angiography 38 / 50 38. Among the undermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum albumin B. Serum transaminases C. Serum cholesterol D. Serum bilirubin 39 / 50 39. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgD B. IgA C. IgG D. IgM 40 / 50 40. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Calcium infusion test B. Histamine injection test C. Secretin injection test D. Feeding of a standard mea 41 / 50 41. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Transverse colon B. Pancreas C. Stomach D. Kidney 42 / 50 42. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Liver B. Lung C. Kidney D. Intestine 43 / 50 43. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Sucralfate B. Colchicine C. Clindamycin D. Digitalis 44 / 50 44. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. >12mmHg B. 5-7mmHg C. <5mmHg D. 7-10 mmHg 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units B. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease C. Hyperglobulinaemia is common D. Very high bilirubin level 46 / 50 46. Saint’s triad is the presence of gallstones, hiatal hernia and? A. Diverticulosis B. Haemorrhoids C. Pancreatitis D. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not effective to eradicate H. pylori? A. Tinidazole B. Pantoprazole C. Clarithromycin D. Cefixime 48 / 50 48. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash B. Bilious vomiting C. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity D. Visible peristalsis 49 / 50 49. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Mucous discharge B. Bleeding per rectum C. Pruritus ani D. Diarrhoea 50 / 50 50. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Psoriasis B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Pemphigus D. Atopic eczema LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology