GastroenterologyHome Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The most common gastrointestinal disorder in a community is: A. Duodenal ulcer B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Diverticulitis D. Reflux oesophagitis 2 / 50 2. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Hemolysis B. Vitamin B12 deficiency C. Folic acid deficiency D. Iron deficiency 3 / 50 3. The presence of hepatic bruit over the liver suggests: A. Recent liver biopsy B. Perihepatitis C. Hepatoma D. Portal hypertension 4 / 50 4. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient B. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach C. Multiflagellated D. Gram-negative bacillus 5 / 50 5. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Fever B. Bloody diarrhoea C. Sinus tachycardia D. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings 6 / 50 6. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as when: A. > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 7 / 50 7. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Hepatitis-like picture B. Laennec's cirrhosis C. Hepatic vein thrombosis D. Fatty infiltration 8 / 50 8. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked recessive B. Autosomal recessive C. Sex-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 9 / 50 9. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 g/dl in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Tuberculous peritonitis C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Cirrhosis of liver 10 / 50 10. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 7th day B. 3rd day C. 1st day D. 2nd day 11 / 50 11. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Thiazides B. Measles C. Legionella pneumoniae D. Propranolol 12 / 50 12. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen B. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients C. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level D. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status 13 / 50 13. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Duodenal ulcer B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Atrophic fundal gastritis D. Lansoprazole therapy 14 / 50 14. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Clostridium difficile B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli C. Rota and Norwalk viruses D. Campylobacter jejuni 15 / 50 15. All of the following are true regarding acute mesenteric vascular occlusion except: A. Abdominal distension with normal peristaltic sound, even with severe infarction B. Barium study of the small intestine reveals 'thumbprinting' C. Young women are the main victims D. Severe periumbilical pain at the onset 16 / 50 16. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Phosphorus poisoning B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Eclampsia D. Yellow fever 17 / 50 17. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. Serotonin antagonist B. Methylxanthine bronchodilator C. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist D. beta-adrenergic agonist 18 / 50 18. The commonest malignant tumour of the gallbladder is: A. Adenocarcinoma B. Haemangioendothelioma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Sarcoma 19 / 50 19. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Invariably requires surgery B. Usually a disease of teen age C. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris D. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form 20 / 50 20. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Voluntary phase of deglutition B. Tertiary peristaltic wave C. Secondary peristaltic wave D. Primary peristaltic wave 21 / 50 21. Latent jaundice may be a feature of all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Acute pulmonary thromboembolism C. Pernicious anaemia D. Tropical sprue 22 / 50 22. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Tetrathiomolybdate B. Elemental zinc C. Penicillamine D. Colchicine 23 / 50 23. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Clindamycin B. Ampicillin C. Streptomycin D. Chloramphenicol 24 / 50 24. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Coeliac disease C. Hypogammaglobulinaemia D. Radiation 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Lactase deficiency B. Laxative abuse C. Whipple's disease D. Coeliac disease 26 / 50 26. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum lipase B. Serum amylase C. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test D. Quantitative faecal fat estimation 27 / 50 27. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Erythromycin B. Vancomycin C. Tobramycin D. Clindamycin 28 / 50 28. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Liver biopsy B. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day C. Testing for red blood cell survival D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 29 / 50 29. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Coeliac disease B. Eosinophilic enteritis C. Intestinal lymphangiectasia D. Ulcerative colitis 30 / 50 30. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Anthraquinone laxative abuse B. Hypereosinophilic enteritis C. Crohn's disease D. Melanoma affecting colon 31 / 50 31. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Sigmoidoscopy B. Barium enema C. Stool smear D. Stool culture 32 / 50 32. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgD B. IgA C. IgG D. IgM 33 / 50 33. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Response to treatment B. D-xylose absorption test C. Type of anaemia D. Small intestinal biopsy 34 / 50 34. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Crohn's disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Coeliac disease D. Intestinal lymphoma 35 / 50 35. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all except: A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Gilbert's syndrome C. Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome 36 / 50 36. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible B. Coronary arteritis may be a feature C. Cranial nerve palsy may occur D. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly 37 / 50 37. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may lead to: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Steatorrhoea C. Palpitation D. Recurrent ulceration 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher’s disease? A. High serum acid phosphatase level B. Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme C. Hepatosplenomegaly D. Pre-malignant 39 / 50 39. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Gallstone formation B. Erythema marginatum C. Aphthous stomatitis D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 40 / 50 40. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. During the first 10 days of life B. At birth C. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life D. Within the first 24 hours of birth 41 / 50 41. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Calcium-channel blocker B. Cholestyramine C. Clonidine D. Colchicine 42 / 50 42. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 100 ml B. 30 ml C. 15 ml D. 75 ml 43 / 50 43. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic pseudocyst B. Pancreatic phlegmon C. Pancreatic ascites D. Pancreatic malignancy 44 / 50 44. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum, which one is false? A. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa B. Usually 5 cm long C. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve D. Present in 2% population 45 / 50 45. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgD B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG 46 / 50 46. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease B. Gastric atrophy C. Antibodies to parietal cells D. Intestinal metaplasia 47 / 50 47. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Pancreatic insufficiency B. Gastric retention C. Coeliac sprue D. Whipple's disease 48 / 50 48. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hypochloraemic alkalosis B. Acidosis C. Hyperchloraemia D. Hyperkalaemia 49 / 50 49. Luge gastric folds are seen in all except: A. Menetrier's disease B. Gastric malignancy C. Sarcoidosis D. Chronic H. pylori infection 50 / 50 50. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Clubbing B. Starts with pruritus C. Female preponderance D. Moderate to severe jaundice LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology