Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. Anti-HBs B. HBeAg C. DNA polymerase D. IgG anti-HBc 2 / 50 2. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Streptococcal infection C. Diphtheria D. Ludwig's angina 3 / 50 3. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Alcohol abuse B. Protein-energy malnutrition C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Hyperthyroidism 4 / 50 4. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Whipple's disease B. Intestinal lymphoma C. Cardnoid syndrome D. Intestinal lymphangiectasia 5 / 50 5. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Below upwards B. Away from the umbilicus C. Above downwards D. Towards umbilicus 6 / 50 6. Manometric study of the lower oesophagus is important in all except: A. Diffuse oesophageal spasm B. Achalasia cardia C. Polymyositis D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Bacillus cereus C. Streptococcus (Group A) D. Clostridium botulinum 8 / 50 8. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening jaundice B. Worsening ascites C. Paralytic ileus D. Ascitic pH < blood pH 9 / 50 9. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Gilbert's syndrome B. Reye's syndrome C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Rotor syndrome 10 / 50 10. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Copper sulphate B. Gliclazide C. Rifampicin D. Halothane 11 / 50 11. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Duodenal diverticula B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Stomatostatinoma D. Ca stomach 12 / 50 12. Calcification of spleen is seen in: A. Malaria B. Hydatid cyst C. Tropical splenomegaly syndrome D. Thalassemia 13 / 50 13. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 30 ml B. 100 ml C. 15 ml D. 75 ml 14 / 50 14. Normally in health, the venous flow in abdominal superficial veins is: A. Away from the umbilicus B. From below upwards C. Towards the umbilicus D. From above downwards 15 / 50 15. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Loss of libido B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Achlorhydria D. Cheilosis 16 / 50 16. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Polyarteritis nodosa B. Aplastic anaemia C. Meningitis D. Myocarditis 17 / 50 17. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Clonidine B. Calcium-channel blocker C. Colchicine D. Cholestyramine 18 / 50 18. Spider naevi: A. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion B. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension C. May be seen in some healthy people D. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated B. Anorexia is rare C. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis D. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases 20 / 50 20. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgD B. IgG C. IgM D. IgA 21 / 50 21. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. Proton pump inhibitors B. Coating agents like sucralfate C. Prostaglandins like misoprostol D. H2-receptor antagonists 22 / 50 22. The most reliable method of measuring steatorrhoea is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Small intestinal mucosal biopsy C. Schilling test D. Fecal fat estimation 23 / 50 23. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings B. Sinus tachycardia C. Fever D. Bloody diarrhoea 24 / 50 24. The commonest cause of metastasis to the wall of the stomach is: A. Melanoma B. Carcinoma of thyroid C. Carcinoma of breast D. Hepatoma 25 / 50 25. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. May contribute to osteomalacia B. Produces constipation C. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia D. Phosphate depletion is a complication 26 / 50 26. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Moonlight B. Fluorescent C. Ultraviolet D. Sunlight 27 / 50 27. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. EEG B. MRI of brain C. Psychometric study D. Evoked potential study 28 / 50 28. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Postural hypertension B. Confusion C. Dizziness D. Diaphoresis 29 / 50 29. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Hepatic iron index >1.5 B. TIBC < 200 μg/dl C. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl D. Liver biopsy 30 / 50 30. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency B. Associated vasculitis C. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine D. Coexistent coeliac sprue 31 / 50 31. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Splenomegaly B. Marked cholestasis C. Peripheral eosinophilia D. Males are commonly susceptible 32 / 50 32. The best way to diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome is: A. Testing for red blood cell survival B. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/ day C. Liver biopsy D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 33 / 50 33. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Cystinuria C. Phenylketonuria D. Homocystinuria 34 / 50 34. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli C. Rota and Norwalk viruses D. Clostridium difficile 35 / 50 35. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Stool culture B. Stool smear C. Barium enema D. Sigmoidoscopy 36 / 50 36. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Brucella abortus B. LD body C. Leptospira D. Pneumococcus 37 / 50 37. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible B. Cranial nerve palsy may occur C. Coronary arteritis may be a feature D. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly 38 / 50 38. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Biliary manometry B. Bile or pancreatic cytology C. Best visualisation of cystic duct D. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal 39 / 50 39. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypergastrinaemia B. Hypercalcaemia C. Hyperlipidaemia D. Hyperamylasaemia 40 / 50 40. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Body B. Cardia C. Antrum D. Lesser curvature 41 / 50 41. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 40% B. 60% C. 30% D. 20% 42 / 50 42. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Folic acid deficiency B. Vitamin B12 deficiency C. Hemolysis D. Iron deficiency 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction B. Ulcerative colitis C. Diverticulosis D. Irritable bowel syndrome 44 / 50 44. Tegaserod is used in: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Coeliac disease C. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease D. Ulcerative colitis 45 / 50 45. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Volvulus B. Hernia C. Neoplasm D. Adhesions 46 / 50 46. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Shigella B. Entero-invasive E. coli C. Giardiasis D. Campylobacter 47 / 50 47. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Bilious vomiting B. Visible peristalsis C. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity D. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash 48 / 50 48. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Aphthous stomatitis C. Gallstone formation D. Erythema marginatum 49 / 50 49. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 700-800 g B. 300-400 g C. 100-200 g D. 500-600 g 50 / 50 50. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Hypogammaglobulinaemia B. Radiation C. Abetalipoproteinaemia D. Coeliac disease LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology