Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Chloramphenicol B. Clindamycin C. Ampicillin D. Streptomycin 2 / 50 2. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis B. Pelvic abscess C. Renal failure D. Acute lung injury 3 / 50 3. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Cataract B. Uveitis C. Scleromalacia perforans D. Episcleritis 4 / 50 4. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 5 / 50 5. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 30-40% B. 70-80% C. 90-100% D. 50-60% 6 / 50 6. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypergastrinaemia B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hyperamylasaemia 7 / 50 7. Achalasia cardia may lead to all except: A. Lung abscess B. Fibrosis of the lung C. Pneumonia D. Emphysema 8 / 50 8. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Cholic acid B. Lithocholic acid C. Chenodeoxycholic acid D. Deoxycholic acid 9 / 50 9. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour B. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint C. Periodicity is common D. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool 10 / 50 10. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as when: A. > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 11 / 50 11. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Coeliac sprue B. Gastric retention C. Whipple's disease D. Pancreatic insufficiency 12 / 50 12. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Associated vasculitis B. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency C. Coexistent coeliac sprue D. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine 13 / 50 13. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Acute leukaemia B. Anticoagulant therapy C. Haemophilia D. Trauma 14 / 50 14. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Crescentic glomerulonephritis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis D. Wegener's granulomatosis 15 / 50 15. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common B. Easily treatable C. Commonly affects middle-aged males D. Most common GI disorder in practice 16 / 50 16. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Breast B. Thyroid C. Colon D. Prostate 17 / 50 17. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Isospora belli B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare C. Cryptosporidium D. Microsporidia 18 / 50 18. Tropical sprue may be associated with all except: A. Treatment is done satisfactorily by intestinal resection B. Patchy lesion C. Partial villous atrophy is more common than subtotal villous atrophy D. Malabsorption 19 / 50 19. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Achalasia cardia B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Wilson's disease D. Carcinoma of the tongue 20 / 50 20. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Ascitic pH < blood pH B. Worsening ascites C. Worsening jaundice D. Paralytic ileus 21 / 50 21. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated with all except: A. Renal tubular acidosis B. Autoimmune thyroiditis C. Wilson's disease D. CREST syndrome 22 / 50 22. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Protein-losing enteropathy 23 / 50 23. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Hydroureter B. Clubbing C. Amyloidosis D. Chronic cholecystitis 24 / 50 24. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Vitamin B12 malabsorption B. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio C. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers D. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea 25 / 50 25. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Brucella abortus B. Pneumococcus C. Leptospira D. LD body 26 / 50 26. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Intestine B. Lung C. Kidney D. Liver 27 / 50 27. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all except: A. Amoebiasis B. Giardiasis C. Crohn's s disease D. Cystic fibrosis 28 / 50 28. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. Coating agents like sucralfate B. H2-receptor antagonists C. Prostaglandins like misoprostol D. Proton pump inhibitors 29 / 50 29. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Quantitative faecal fat estimation B. Serum lipase C. Serum amylase D. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 B. Serum AST> 400 ID /L C. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L D. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl 31 / 50 31. The presence of diverticulosis is most commonly seen in: A. Sigmoid colon B. Transverse colon C. Descending colon D. Caecum 32 / 50 32. Melanosis coli indicates: A. Anthraquinone laxative abuse B. Melanoma affecting colon C. Crohn's disease D. Hypereosinophilic enteritis 33 / 50 33. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Acute hepatic failure B. Chronic hepatitis C. Steatosis D. Cholestasis 34 / 50 34. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis B. Tyrosinaemia C. Haemangioma of liver D. Hereditary oxalosis 35 / 50 35. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 700-800 g B. 500-600 g C. 300-400 g D. 100-200 g 36 / 50 36. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Rifampicin B. Gliclazide C. Copper sulphate D. Halothane 37 / 50 37. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Gastric lymphoma B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Antral gastritis D. Non-ulcer dyspepsia 38 / 50 38. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Atrophic fundal gastritis B. Lansoprazole therapy C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Duodenal ulcer 39 / 50 39. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Protein meal B. Metoclopramide C. Gastrin D. Beta-adrenergic agonist 40 / 50 40. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Moonlight B. Ultraviolet C. Sunlight D. Fluorescent 41 / 50 41. Octreotide can be used in all except: A. Pancreatic ascites B. Ulcerative colitis C. Oesophageal variceal bleeding D. Short bowel syndrome 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units B. Very high bilirubin level C. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease D. Hyperglobulinaemia is common 43 / 50 43. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Propranolol B. Thiazides C. Legionella pneumoniae D. Measles 44 / 50 44. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Postural hypertension B. Diaphoresis C. Dizziness D. Confusion 45 / 50 45. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Secondary carcinoma of liver B. Oral contraceptives C. Crigler-Najjar type II D. Pregnancy 46 / 50 46. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Serum bilirubin assay B. Serum albumin estimation C. Level of transaminases D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 47 / 50 47. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients B. A consequence of achalasia cardia C. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold D. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus 48 / 50 48. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation B. Renal failure C. Acute lung injury D. Fulminant hepatocellular failure 49 / 50 49. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Ruptured oesophageal varices B. Duodenal ulcer C. Mallory-Weiss syndrome D. Acute gastritis 50 / 50 50. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease B. Odynophagia may be a symptom C. Commonest site of affection is lower third D. 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