Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Moderate to severe jaundice B. Clubbing C. Female preponderance D. Starts with pruritus 2 / 50 2. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Stomatostatinoma B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Ca stomach D. Duodenal diverticula 3 / 50 3. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Gastric lymphoma B. Antral gastritis C. Non-ulcer dyspepsia D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 4 / 50 4. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 100-250 ml B. More than 1 litre C. 500-1000 ml D. 250-500 ml 5 / 50 5. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening ascites B. Ascitic pH < blood pH C. Paralytic ileus D. Worsening jaundice 6 / 50 6. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Vitamin B. Folic acid C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics D. Iron 7 / 50 7. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Tetrathiomolybdate B. Colchicine C. Elemental zinc D. Penicillamine 8 / 50 8. Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be associated with: A. Retroperitoneal fibrosis B. Atrial septal defect C. Endocardial fibroelastosis D. Medullary sponge kidney 9 / 50 9. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Intestine B. Kidney C. Liver D. Lung 10 / 50 10. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has all the advantages except: A. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal B. Bile or pancreatic cytology C. Biliary manometry D. Best visualisation of cystic duct 11 / 50 11. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Gastric atrophy B. Intestinal metaplasia C. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease D. Antibodies to parietal cells 12 / 50 12. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Right side of colon is less affected than the left B. Perforation is a serious complication C. Males are affected more than females D. Massive rectal bleeding is very common 13 / 50 13. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Leishmaniasis B. Schistosomiasis C. Trichinosis D. Trypanosomiasis 14 / 50 14. Which is not true so far as definition of cirrhosis of liver is concerned? A. Regeneration B. Necrosis C. Fibrosis D. Fatty infiltration 15 / 50 15. Venous prominence present in the upper abdomen with direction of flow towards pelvis suggests: A. Hepatic vein thrombosis B. Portal hypertension C. Inferior vena caval obstruction D. Superior vena caval obstruction 16 / 50 16. The maximum absorption of fluid in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in: A. Colon B. Stomach C. Jejunum D. Ileum 17 / 50 17. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Propranolol B. Thiazides C. Legionella pneumoniae D. Measles 18 / 50 18. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Acute lung injury B. Renal failure C. Pelvic abscess D. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis 19 / 50 19. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. IX B. II C. VII D. VIII 20 / 50 20. Granulomatous hepatitis is not a feature of: A. Blastomycosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Tuberculosis 21 / 50 21. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Dermatitis herpetiformis B. Psoriasis C. Atopic eczema D. Pemphigus 22 / 50 22. Carcinoid syndrome is commonly produced, when the site of primary tumour is present in: A. Stomach B. Hindgut C. Bronchus D. Midgut 23 / 50 23. The most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. Hepatoma C. Oral contraceptives D. Valve in hepatic veins 24 / 50 24. Tegaserod is used in: A. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Coeliac disease D. Ulcerative colitis 25 / 50 25. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Protein-energy malnutrition C. Hyperthyroidism D. Alcohol abuse 26 / 50 26. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis may be associated with: A. Chronic arsenic ingestion B. Sarcoidosis C. Umbilical sepsis D. Oral contraceptives 27 / 50 27. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. USG of liver B. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation C. Protein electrophoresis D. Bone scan 28 / 50 28. The presence of diverticulosis is most commonly seen in: A. Caecum B. Descending colon C. Transverse colon D. Sigmoid colon 29 / 50 29. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Hemolysis B. Folic acid deficiency C. Iron deficiency D. Vitamin B12 deficiency 30 / 50 30. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated with all except: A. Wilson's disease B. CREST syndrome C. Autoimmune thyroiditis D. Renal tubular acidosis 31 / 50 31. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Chronic pancreatitis C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Acute myocardial infarction 32 / 50 32. All are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Folate B. Ca++ C. Fe++ D. Vitamin B12 33 / 50 33. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic ascites B. Pancreatic phlegmon C. Pancreatic malignancy D. Pancreatic pseudocyst 34 / 50 34. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Serum bilirubin assay B. Serum albumin estimation C. Level of transaminases D. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test 35 / 50 35. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Nephrolithiasis B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Arthritis D. Emphysema 36 / 50 36. Elevation in 5-HIAA (5 hydroxy-indole acetic acid) in urine is found in all except: A. Whipple's disease B. Systemic mastocytosis C. Coeliac sprue D. Carcinoid syndrome 37 / 50 37. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms B. Not known C. Autoimmunity D. Nutritional deficiency 38 / 50 38. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Gram-negative sepsis B. Meconium ileus C. Malabsorption D. Tetany 39 / 50 39. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Laennec's cirrhosis B. Fatty infiltration C. Hepatic vein thrombosis D. Hepatitis-like picture 40 / 50 40. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Away from the umbilicus B. Below upwards C. Above downwards D. Towards umbilicus 41 / 50 41. Which is true in familial polyposis coli? A. The patient may not have any symptoms until a carcinoma has developed B. Polyps are present since birth C. The rectum is spared D. X-linked recessive inheritance 42 / 50 42. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Retching B. Water brash C. Heartburn D. Singultus 43 / 50 43. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Small ulceration B. Pseudopolyps C. Fistula D. Spasm 44 / 50 44. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Haemophilia B. Acute leukaemia C. Trauma D. Anticoagulant therapy 45 / 50 45. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Hiatus hernia may be associated with B. Gum is the principal site of affection C. May be complicated by angina pectoris D. Superficial ulcers in mouth 46 / 50 46. Carcinoma of the large intestine is mostly found in: A. Ascending colon B. Sigmoid colon C. Transverse colon D. Caecum 47 / 50 47. Crohn’s disease may be complicated by all except: A. Hydroureter B. Chronic cholecystitis C. Amyloidosis D. Clubbing 48 / 50 48. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Contraction of the rectum B. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter C. Distention of the sigmoid colon D. Distention of the rectum 49 / 50 49. Cholangiocarcinoma may be associated with: A. Biliary atresia B. Tinea echinococcus infestation C. Ulcerative colitis D. Cholelithiasis 50 / 50 50. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Fatty acids B. Diglycerides C. Monoglycerides D. 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