Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are found in: A. Pseudomyxoma peritonei B. Malakoplakia of colon C. Pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis D. Diverticulosis of colon 2 / 50 2. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Chronic hepatitis B. Cholestasis C. Acute hepatic failure D. Steatosis 3 / 50 3. Predominant unconjugated bilirubin is seen in all except: A. Rotor syndrome B. Ineffective erythropoiesis C. Breakdown of myoglobin D. Breakdown of haemoglobin 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody B. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West C. Gastric polyp is common D. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody 5 / 50 5. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Cholestyramine B. Clonidine C. Colchicine D. Calcium-channel blocker 6 / 50 6. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Wilson's disease B. Achalasia cardia C. Carcinoma of the tongue D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 7 / 50 7. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 100-200 g B. 300-400 g C. 700-800 g D. 500-600 g 8 / 50 8. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease? A. Vitamin D B. Folic acid C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin B12 9 / 50 9. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Duodenal ulcer C. Acute gastritis D. Ruptured oesophageal varices 10 / 50 10. The commonest type of oral malignancy is: A. Adenocarcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Melanoma 11 / 50 11. The Kayser-Fleischer (KF) ring is: A. Broader laterally and medially B. Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane C. Hampers vision D. The inferior pole of cornea is first affected 12 / 50 12. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use B. May produce benign intracranial hypertension C. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels D. Related structurally to histamine 13 / 50 13. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Tropical sprue C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Biliary dyspepsia 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction B. Ulcerative colitis C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Diverticulosis 15 / 50 15. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. Just before meals B. Immediately after meals C. With the meals D. One hour after meals and at bedtime 16 / 50 16. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Stomach B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Transverse colon 17 / 50 17. Mid-zonal necrosis of liver is caused by: A. Eclampsia B. Yellow fever C. Phosphorus poisoning D. Carbon tetrachloride 18 / 50 18. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. Usually a disease of teen age B. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris C. Invariably requires surgery D. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form 19 / 50 19. Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be associated with: A. Medullary sponge kidney B. Endocardial fibroelastosis C. Retroperitoneal fibrosis D. Atrial septal defect 20 / 50 20. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Alcohol abuse B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Hyperthyroidism D. Protein-energy malnutrition 21 / 50 21. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Left atrial myxoma B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency 22 / 50 22. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Body B. Cardia C. Antrum D. Lesser curvature 23 / 50 23. The maximum absorption of fluid in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in: A. Stomach B. Colon C. Ileum D. Jejunum 24 / 50 24. Which of the following immunoglobulins may be depressed in Giardia lamblia infestation? A. IgM B. IgD C. IgA D. IgG 25 / 50 25. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. None of the above B. Iron C. Vitamin B-complex D. Folic acid 26 / 50 26. Hepatocellular jaundice does not result from: A. Halothane B. Rifampicin C. Copper sulphate D. Gliclazide 27 / 50 27. Faecal assay of alpha1-antitrypsin clinches the diagnosis of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Chronic pancreatitis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Protein-losing enteropathy 28 / 50 28. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms B. Not known C. Nutritional deficiency D. Autoimmunity 29 / 50 29. The commonest site of carcinoma of the stomach is: A. Body of the stomach B. Prepyloric C. Lesser curvature D. Greater curvature 30 / 50 30. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of: A. Villous adenoma of the colon B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Irritable bowel syndrome 31 / 50 31. If an intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease can be made by: A. Stomach biopsy B. Liver biopsy C. Lymph node biopsy D. Rectal biopsy 32 / 50 32. Diarrhoea may be associated with all except: A. Clindamycin B. Colchicine C. Sucralfate D. Digitalis 33 / 50 33. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching B. May produce melaena C. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction D. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously 34 / 50 34. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli B. Rota and Norwalk viruses C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Clostridium difficile 35 / 50 35. Which one of the following is false regarding primary biliary cirrhosis? A. Moderate to severe jaundice B. Starts with pruritus C. Clubbing D. Female preponderance 36 / 50 36. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Hepatitis-like picture B. Hepatic vein thrombosis C. Fatty infiltration D. Laennec's cirrhosis 37 / 50 37. All are recognised complications of acute pancreatitis except: A. Pancreatic pseudocyst B. Pancreatic phlegmon C. Pancreatic ascites D. Pancreatic malignancy 38 / 50 38. One of the earliest manifestations of cystic fibrosis is: A. Tetany B. Malabsorption C. Gram-negative sepsis D. Meconium ileus 39 / 50 39. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus B. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold C. A consequence of achalasia cardia D. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients 40 / 50 40. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease B. Intestinal metaplasia C. Gastric atrophy D. Antibodies to parietal cells 41 / 50 41. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Magnesium 42 / 50 42. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Cataract B. Uveitis C. Episcleritis D. Scleromalacia perforans 43 / 50 43. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Chronic pancreatitis B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Right-sided heart failure D. Acute myocardial infarction 44 / 50 44. Hepatic amoebiasis is associated with all except: A. Abscess commonly affects the right lobe B. May lead to the development of an amoebic liver abscess C. Right lower intercostal tenderness D. Jaundice is present in majority 45 / 50 45. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. MRI of brain B. Psychometric study C. Evoked potential study D. EEG 46 / 50 46. Upper GI bleeding, angioid streaks in retina and yellowish skin papules indicate: A. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome B. Render-Weber-Osler disease C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 47 / 50 47. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Bleeding per rectum B. Pruritus ani C. Mucous discharge D. Diarrhoea 48 / 50 48. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Pancreatic insufficiency B. Coeliac sprue C. Gastric retention D. Whipple's disease 49 / 50 49. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. VIII B. VII C. IX D. II 50 / 50 50. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Tertiary peristaltic wave B. Secondary peristaltic wave C. Primary peristaltic wave D. Voluntary phase of deglutition LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology