Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Tetrathiomolybdate B. Elemental zinc C. Colchicine D. Penicillamine 2 / 50 2. In HBV infection, which serological maker is present in the ‘window period’ as evidence of recent HBV infection: A. IgM anti-HBc B. HBV DNA C. HBeAg D. IgG anti-HBc 3 / 50 3. Which endocrine disorder is associated with exudative ascites? A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Conn's syndrome C. Addison's disease D. Hypothyroidism 4 / 50 4. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Vitamin B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Folic acid D. Iron 5 / 50 5. The commonest type of oral malignancy is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Melanoma 6 / 50 6. Which is true in familial polyposis coli? A. The patient may not have any symptoms until a carcinoma has developed B. X-linked recessive inheritance C. The rectum is spared D. Polyps are present since birth 7 / 50 7. Malignant potential is least in: A. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome B. Familial colonic polyposis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Villous adenoma of colon 8 / 50 8. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease? A. Vitamin B12 B. Folic acid C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin D 9 / 50 9. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. IgM anti-HBc B. HBsAg C. Anti-HBs D. HBV DNA 10 / 50 10. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome except: A. Congenital hepatic fibrosis B. Antiphospholipid syndrome C. Right atrial myxoma D. Oral contraceptive pills 11 / 50 11. Gluten-induced enteropathy is strongly associated with: A. HLA-DR3 B. HLA-B8 C. HLA-DR4 D. HLA-DQ1 12 / 50 12. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Rectovesical fistula B. Perianal fistula C. Jejuno-colic fistula D. Vesicovaginal fistula 13 / 50 13. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Protein-energy malnutrition C. Alcohol abuse D. Pancreatic carcinoma 14 / 50 14. Severe kwashiorkor may have a hepatic lesion in the form of: A. Hepatic vein thrombosis B. Laennec's cirrhosis C. Fatty infiltration D. Hepatitis-like picture 15 / 50 15. Which one of the following is not an ocular complication of ulcerative colitis? A. Episcleritis B. Cataract C. Scleromalacia perforans D. Uveitis 16 / 50 16. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash B. Bilious vomiting C. Visible peristalsis D. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity 17 / 50 17. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Crescentic glomerulonephritis 18 / 50 18. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Three-quarter gastric resection B. Gastroenterostomy C. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty D. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy 19 / 50 19. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Worsening ascites B. Paralytic ileus C. Worsening jaundice D. Ascitic pH < blood pH 20 / 50 20. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Volvulus B. Hernia C. Neoplasm D. Adhesions 21 / 50 21. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 120ml B. 200ml C. 270ml D. 70ml 22 / 50 22. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Stomatostatinoma C. Ca stomach D. Duodenal diverticula 23 / 50 23. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Splenic flexure B. Hepatic flexure C. Ascending colon D. Transverse colon 24 / 50 24. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features except: A. Haematemesis B. Amenorrhoea C. Arthralgia D. Jaundice 25 / 50 25. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect? A. Fat B. Carbohydrate C. Iron D. Protein 26 / 50 26. Ulcerative colitis involves the rectal mucosa in: A. 50-60% B. 90-100% C. 30-40% D. 70-80% 27 / 50 27. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Dermatitis herpetiformi B. Sickle cell disease C. Coeliac disease D. Haemolytic anaemia 28 / 50 28. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hypergastrinaemia B. Hyperamylasaemia C. Hyperlipidaemia D. Hypercalcaemia 29 / 50 29. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Sodium 30 / 50 30. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously B. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction C. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching D. May produce melaena 31 / 50 31. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Thiazides B. Legionella pneumoniae C. Propranolol D. Measles 32 / 50 32. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Commonly affects middle-aged males B. Easily treatable C. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common D. Most common GI disorder in practice 33 / 50 33. Geographic tongue is ideally treated by: A. Vitamin B-complex B. None of the above C. Iron D. Folic acid 34 / 50 34. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true except: A. Commonest site of affection is lower third B. Dysphagia starts with solid foods C. Odynophagia may be a symptom D. Tracheo-esophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease 35 / 50 35. The smallest absorbing unit of the small intestinal mucosa is: A. Crypts B. Microvillus C. Villus D. Columnar cells 36 / 50 36. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis E B. Hepatitis D C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis B 37 / 50 37. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Prothrombin time C. Serum bilirubin D. SGPT 38 / 50 38. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. D-xylose absorption test B. Small intestinal biopsy C. Response to treatment D. Type of anaemia 39 / 50 39. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Nitroglycerines B. Propranolol C. Somatostatin D. Terlipressin 40 / 50 40. Which one is true in relation to Barrett’s oesophagus? A. Metaplasia of the normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus B. A consequence of achalasia cardia C. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% of patients D. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold 41 / 50 41. Acute pancreatitis is not associated with: A. Biliary tract disease B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Pancreatic islet cell tumour 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Weil's disease C. Toxic hepatitis D. Amoebic liver abscess 43 / 50 43. Tropical sprue may be associated with all except: A. Treatment is done satisfactorily by intestinal resection B. Malabsorption C. Patchy lesion D. Partial villous atrophy is more common than subtotal villous atrophy 44 / 50 44. Acid peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Pregnancy C. Cushing's syndrome D. Polycythaemia vera 45 / 50 45. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. H2-receptor antagonists B. Coating agents like sucralfate C. Prostaglandins like misoprostol D. Proton pump inhibitors 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Renal insufficiency B. Pseudopancreatic cyst C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Burns 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West B. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody C. Gastric polyp is common D. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody 48 / 50 48. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. >12mmHg B. 7-10 mmHg C. <5mmHg D. 5-7mmHg 49 / 50 49. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Left atrial myxoma D. Constrictive pericarditis 50 / 50 50. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Change of posture B. Induction of vomiting C. Consumption of food D. Attacks of emotional stress LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology