Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm, which of the following is true? A. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form B. Invariably requires surgery C. Usually a disease of teen age D. Chest pain mimics angina pectoris 2 / 50 2. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Marked cholestasis B. Splenomegaly C. Males are commonly susceptible D. Peripheral eosinophilia 3 / 50 3. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Hepatic flexure B. Splenic flexure C. Ascending colon D. Transverse colon 4 / 50 4. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ‘blind loop syndrome’ is: A. Iron B. Vitamin C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics D. Folic acid 5 / 50 5. Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is true? A. Crypt abscesses are typical B. Granuloma and fistula formation are characteristic C. Malignancy never follows even in long-standing disease D. Segmental involvement is common 6 / 50 6. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test B. Small intestinal X-rays C. D-xylose absorption test D. Quantitative determination of faecal fat 7 / 50 7. Which light source produces best photodecomposition of bilirubin? A. Sunlight B. Fluorescent C. Ultraviolet D. Moonlight 8 / 50 8. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Rotor syndrome C. Gilbert's syndrome D. Reye's syndrome 9 / 50 9. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Oral contraceptives B. Tetracycline C. Anabolic steroids D. Chloramphenicol 10 / 50 10. Whipple’s triad is found in: A. Insulinoma B. Glucagonoma C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Somatostatinoma 11 / 50 11. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. Offensive in odour B. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut C. At least 60 ml of blood is required D. Black tarry semisolid stool 12 / 50 12. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash B. Visible peristalsis C. Bilious vomiting D. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity 13 / 50 13. Granulomatous hepatitis is not a feature of: A. Metastatic carcinoma B. Blastomycosis C. Tuberculosis D. Sarcoidosis 14 / 50 14. All of the following are examples of psychiatric illness associated with profound weight loss except: A. Sheehan's syndrome B. Depression C. Anorexia nervos D. Schizophrenia 15 / 50 15. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis E D. Hepatitis B 16 / 50 16. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 20% B. 60% C. 30% D. 40% 17 / 50 17. The commonest cause of colonic obstruction is: A. Neoplasm B. Adhesions C. Volvulus D. Hernia 18 / 50 18. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. HBeAg implies high infectivity B. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection C. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity D. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state 19 / 50 19. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. The blood may not be mixed with stool B. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz C. Passage of bright red blood per rectum D. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon 20 / 50 20. Commonest cause of hepatoma is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency C. Alcohol D. Haemochromatosis 21 / 50 21. A patient is having an isolated elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. The next test to be performed is: A. USG of liver B. Bone scan C. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) estimation D. Protein electrophoresis 22 / 50 22. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Carbenoxolone B. Omeprazole C. Misoprostol D. Sucralfate 23 / 50 23. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Tobramycin B. Clindamycin C. Vancomycin D. Erythromycin 24 / 50 24. Carcinoid syndrome is commonly produced, when the site of primary tumour is present in: A. Hindgut B. Stomach C. Midgut D. Bronchus 25 / 50 25. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Coeliac disease B. Sickle cell disease C. Dermatitis herpetiformi D. Haemolytic anaemia 26 / 50 26. Upper GI bleeding, angioid streaks in retina and yellowish skin papules indicate: A. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum C. Render-Weber-Osler disease D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 27 / 50 27. Among the undermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum transaminases B. Serum cholesterol C. Serum bilirubin D. Serum albumin 28 / 50 28. All of the following protozoa! infections produce diarrhoea in a patient of AIDS except: A. Cryptosporidium B. Microsporidia C. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare D. Isospora belli 29 / 50 29. Predominant unconjugated bilirubin is seen in all except: A. Rotor syndrome B. Ineffective erythropoiesis C. Breakdown of myoglobin D. Breakdown of haemoglobin 30 / 50 30. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Water brash B. Heartburn C. Singultus D. Retching 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Onset with purging B. Offensive stool C. Subnormal Surface temperature D. Absence of tenesmus 32 / 50 32. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hyperchloraemia B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypochloraemic alkalosis D. Acidosis 33 / 50 33. All of the following may produce intestinal pseudo-obstruction except: A. Scleroderma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Imipramine 34 / 50 34. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. Pernicious anaemia B. H. pylori infection C. Herpes virus infection D. Alcohol 35 / 50 35. Venous prominence present in the upper abdomen with direction of flow towards pelvis suggests: A. Portal hypertension B. Superior vena caval obstruction C. Inferior vena caval obstruction D. Hepatic vein thrombosis 36 / 50 36. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Small ulceration B. Pseudopolyps C. Fistula D. Spasm 37 / 50 37. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. Sex-linked dominant D. Autosomal recessive 38 / 50 38. Which endocrine disorder is associated with exudative ascites? A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Conn's syndrome 39 / 50 39. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio B. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers C. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea D. Vitamin B12 malabsorption 40 / 50 40. Which of the following bile acids is virtually absent in advanced cirrhosis of liver? A. Lithocholic acid B. Deoxycholic acid C. Cholic acid D. Chenodeoxycholic acid 41 / 50 41. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Stomach B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Duodenum 42 / 50 42. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. HBeAg B. IgG anti-HBc C. DNA polymerase D. Anti-HBs 43 / 50 43. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Regurgitation B. Heartburn C. Dysphagia D. Chest pain 44 / 50 44. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough B. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities C. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces D. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both 45 / 50 45. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Biliary dyspepsia C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Tropical sprue 46 / 50 46. Diabetic diarrhoea may be encountered in the presence of: A. Nephropathy B. Macroangiopathy C. Neuropathy D. Retinopathy 47 / 50 47. The most specific treatment in coeliac sprue is: A. Gluten-free diet B. Corticosteroids C. Folic acid D. Antibiotics 48 / 50 48. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Coexistent coeliac sprue B. Associated vasculitis C. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency D. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine 49 / 50 49. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Acute gastritis B. Duodenal ulcer C. Mallory-Weiss syndrome D. Ruptured oesophageal varices 50 / 50 50. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 200ml B. 120ml C. 70ml D. 270ml LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology