Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 120ml B. 200ml C. 270ml D. 70ml 2 / 50 2. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Hiatal hernia B. Reflux oesophagitis C. Alcoholism D. Oesophageal carcinoma 3 / 50 3. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. More than 60% B. 20-30% C. 40-50% D. 50-60% 4 / 50 4. All of the following may be associated with diarrhoea except: A. Theophylline B. Amitriptyline C. Sorbitol D. Colchicine 5 / 50 5. Which site of gastric carcinoma is easily overlooked. by barium meal study? A. Lesser curvature B. Cardia C. Body D. Antrum 6 / 50 6. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. May contribute to osteomalacia B. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia C. Phosphate depletion is a complication D. Produces constipation 7 / 50 7. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Carcinoid syndrome 8 / 50 8. Portal hypertension associated with soft liver suggests: A. Extrahepatic obstruction B. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Cirrhosis of liver 9 / 50 9. Which of the following is not a cause of hyperamylasaemia? A. Pseudopancreatic cyst B. Burns C. Acute intermittent porphyria D. Renal insufficiency 10 / 50 10. All of the following are true regarding acute mesenteric vascular occlusion except: A. Barium study of the small intestine reveals 'thumbprinting' B. Young women are the main victims C. Abdominal distension with normal peristaltic sound, even with severe infarction D. Severe periumbilical pain at the onset 11 / 50 11. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Whipple's disease B. Intestinal lymphangiectasia C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Cardnoid syndrome 12 / 50 12. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Level of transaminases B. Serum bilirubin assay C. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test D. Serum albumin estimation 13 / 50 13. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Carcinoma of the tongue B. Wilson's disease C. Achalasia cardia D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 14 / 50 14. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test B. Serum lipase C. Serum amylase D. Quantitative faecal fat estimation 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction B. Diverticulosis C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Ulcerative colitis 16 / 50 16. Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is true? A. Crypt abscesses are typical B. Segmental involvement is common C. Malignancy never follows even in long-standing disease D. Granuloma and fistula formation are characteristic 17 / 50 17. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Consumption of food B. Induction of vomiting C. Change of posture D. Attacks of emotional stress 18 / 50 18. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. Black tarry semisolid stool B. Offensive in odour C. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut D. At least 60 ml of blood is required 19 / 50 19. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Away from the umbilicus B. Below upwards C. Towards umbilicus D. Above downwards 20 / 50 20. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Triglycerides B. Monoglycerides C. Diglycerides D. Fatty acids 21 / 50 21. The commonest hepatic lesion in haemochromatosis is: A. Micronodular cirrhosis B. Haemosiderosis C. Fatty liver D. Macronodular cirrhosis 22 / 50 22. Aerophagia is commonly found in all except: A. Chronic anxiety states B. Pyloric stenosis C. Rapid eating habit D. Hypochondriac personality 23 / 50 23. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Steatorrhoea B. Abdominal pain C. Diabetes mellitus D. Pancreatic calcification 24 / 50 24. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Gilbert's syndrome C. Reye's syndrome D. Rotor syndrome 25 / 50 25. Which of the following is not responsible for food poisoning? A. Streptococcus (Group A) B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium perfringens D. Bacillus cereus 26 / 50 26. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Lymphoma B. Syphilis C. Gastric ulcer D. Developmental anomaly 27 / 50 27. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Haemolytic anaemia B. Coeliac disease C. Sickle cell disease D. Dermatitis herpetiformi 28 / 50 28. Cholangiocarcinoma may be associated with: A. Tinea echinococcus infestation B. Biliary atresia C. Cholelithiasis D. Ulcerative colitis 29 / 50 29. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency D. Left atrial myxoma 30 / 50 30. H. pylori is usually not associated with: A. Gastric lymphoma B. Antral gastritis C. Non-ulcer dyspepsia D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 31 / 50 31. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Herpes zoster virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Yellow fever D. Infectious mononucleosis 32 / 50 32. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Retching B. Heartburn C. Singultus D. Water brash 33 / 50 33. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Clostridium difficile B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli D. Rota and Norwalk viruses 34 / 50 34. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Atopic eczema B. Psoriasis C. Pemphigus D. Dermatitis herpetiformis 35 / 50 35. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Not known B. Autoimmunity C. Nutritional deficiency D. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms 36 / 50 36. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Prothrombin time B. SGPT C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Serum bilirubin 37 / 50 37. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Coeliac disease B. Radiation C. Hypogammaglobulinaemia D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 38 / 50 38. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon B. The blood may not be mixed with stool C. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz D. Passage of bright red blood per rectum 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units B. Very high bilirubin level C. Hyperglobulinaemia is common D. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease 40 / 50 40. Which is not true so far as definition of cirrhosis of liver is concerned? A. Necrosis B. Regeneration C. Fibrosis D. Fatty infiltration 41 / 50 41. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it B. Left colon is commonly affected C. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin D. Haemotochezia is common 42 / 50 42. Carcinoid syndrome: A. More common in women B. Produces jaundice C. Is multiple in 1/5th cases D. Increases BP 43 / 50 43. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. May be complicated by angina pectoris B. Gum is the principal site of affection C. Hiatus hernia may be associated with D. Superficial ulcers in mouth 44 / 50 44. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas B. Solitary primary tumours are very common C. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas D. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant 45 / 50 45. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces B. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities C. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both D. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough 46 / 50 46. Bacillary dysentery can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis by: A. Barium enema B. Stool smear C. Sigmoidoscopy D. Stool culture 47 / 50 47. The commonest type of pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Cystadenocarcinoma B. Mucinous carcinoma C. Ductal adenocarcinoma D. Islet cell carcinoma 48 / 50 48. Protein-losing enteropathy maybe feature of all except: A. Chronic cor pulmonale B. Juvenile polyposis coli C. Atrial septal defect D. Intestinal tuberculosis 49 / 50 49. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Clostridium perfringens B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Clostridium difficile 50 / 50 50. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Amlodipine therapy B. Carbamazepine therapy C. Acute monocytic leukaemia D. Scurvy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology
