Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Weil's disease C. Toxic hepatitis D. Amoebic liver abscess 2 / 50 2. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Chronic hepatitis B. Acute hepatic failure C. Cholestasis D. Steatosis 3 / 50 3. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use B. May produce benign intracranial hypertension C. Related structurally to histamine D. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels 4 / 50 4. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Thyroid B. Breast C. Prostate D. Colon 5 / 50 5. Treatment modalities of Wilson’s disease include all except: A. Elemental zinc B. Colchicine C. Penicillamine D. Tetrathiomolybdate 6 / 50 6. Regarding angiodysplasia of colon, which one is false? A. Aortic stenosis may be associated with it B. Haemotochezia is common C. It looks like spider angiomas of the skin D. Left colon is commonly affected 7 / 50 7. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Massive rectal bleeding is very common B. Right side of colon is less affected than the left C. Perforation is a serious complication D. Males are affected more than females 8 / 50 8. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Away from the umbilicus B. Below upwards C. Above downwards D. Towards umbilicus 9 / 50 9. In coeliac sprue, which of the following is non-deficient in the body? A. Iron B. Vitamin B12 C. Folic acid D. Serum albumin 10 / 50 10. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Cystinuria B. Homocystinuria C. Alkaptonuria D. Phenylketonuria 11 / 50 11. Giardiasis is characterised by all except: A. Lactose intolerance B. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water containing the flagellate form C. Inflammation of duodenal and jejunal mucosa D. Malabsorption 12 / 50 12. High transaminase levels may be found in all except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Acute viral hepatitis C. Right-sided heart failure D. Chronic pancreatitis 13 / 50 13. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 100-250 ml B. More than 1 litre C. 500-1000 ml D. 250-500 ml 14 / 50 14. Spider naevi: A. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion B. May be seen in some healthy people C. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension D. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy 15 / 50 15. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Flaccid muscles B. Babinski's sign C. Presence of ankle clonus D. Night-time somnolence 16 / 50 16. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis B D. Hepatitis D 17 / 50 17. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. II B. VIII C. IX D. VII 18 / 50 18. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Serum amylase B. Serum lipase C. Quantitative faecal fat estimation D. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test 19 / 50 19. Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be associated with: A. Atrial septal defect B. Medullary sponge kidney C. Endocardial fibroelastosis D. Retroperitoneal fibrosis 20 / 50 20. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Metoclopramide B. Domperidone C. Cisapride D. Tetracycline 21 / 50 21. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Erythromycin B. Vancomycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin 22 / 50 22. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Plummer-Vinson syndrome B. Hypervitaminosis A C. Chronic achalasia cardia D. Lye ingestion 23 / 50 23. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Tertiary peristaltic wave B. Secondary peristaltic wave C. Voluntary phase of deglutition D. Primary peristaltic wave 24 / 50 24. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Ludwig's angina B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Streptococcal infection D. Diphtheria 25 / 50 25. All of the following are true regarding Whipple’s disease except: A. Coronary arteritis may be a feature B. Cranial nerve palsy may occur C. Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whippeli is responsible D. Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly 26 / 50 26. Major organ responsible for the removal of gastrin is: A. Intestine B. Kidney C. Lung D. Liver 27 / 50 27. Jejunal diverticula may be associated with: A. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion B. Hypochlorhydria C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Chronic pancreatitis 28 / 50 28. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Delta B. Non-beta C. Alpha D. Beta 29 / 50 29. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Stomach B. Caecum C. Small intestine D. Sigmoid colon 30 / 50 30. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Endocrine pancreatic function B. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Pancreatic ductal obstruction D. Exocrine pancreatic function 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Serum AST> 400 ID /L B. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl C. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L D. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 32 / 50 32. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Vitamins and minerals absorption B. Carbohydrate metabolism C. Fat metabolism D. Protein metabolism 33 / 50 33. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Tuberculosis B. Intra-abdominal malignancy C. Filariasis D. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery 34 / 50 34. In HBV infection, which serological maker is present in the ‘window period’ as evidence of recent HBV infection: A. HBV DNA B. HBeAg C. IgM anti-HBc D. IgG anti-HBc 35 / 50 35. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. HBsAg B. HBV DNA C. Anti-HBs D. IgM anti-HBc 36 / 50 36. Jejuno-ileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be complicated by all except: A. Emphysema B. Nephrolithiasis C. Arthritis D. Electrolyte imbalance 37 / 50 37. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Distended abdomen B. Vomiting C. Obstipation D. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal 38 / 50 38. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 80% 39 / 50 39. Pseudomembranous colitis is not produced by: A. Clindamycin B. Chloramphenicol C. Ampicillin D. Streptomycin 40 / 50 40. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. Produces constipation B. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia C. May contribute to osteomalacia D. Phosphate depletion is a complication 41 / 50 41. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas B. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas C. Solitary primary tumours are very common D. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant 42 / 50 42. Extraintestinal amoebiasis may involve all except: A. Meninges with encephalon B. Vulva C. Skin D. Heart 43 / 50 43. Which is not an indication of liver transplantation? A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis B. Hereditary oxalosis C. Haemangioma of liver D. Tyrosinaemia 44 / 50 44. ‘Sago spleen’ is found in: A. Chronic active hepatitis B. Focal amyloidosis C. Chronic myeloid leukaemia D. Felty's syndrome 45 / 50 45. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. HBeAg implies high infectivity B. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection C. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity D. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state 46 / 50 46. Latent jaundice may be a feature of all except: A. Tropical sprue B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Acute pulmonary thromboembolism D. Pernicious anaemia 47 / 50 47. Serum alkaline phosphatase level may be increased in all except: A. Metastasis in liver B. Paget's disease C. Cholestasis D. Hypervitaminosis D 48 / 50 48. The commonest malignant tumour of the gallbladder is: A. Sarcoma B. Haemangioendothelioma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma 49 / 50 49. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 B. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 C. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl D. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease 50 / 50 50. The most reliable screening test for patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test B. D-xylose absorption test C. Small intestinal X-rays D. Quantitative determination of faecal fat LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology