Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Gluten-free diet is beneficial in: A. Pemphigus B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Psoriasis D. Atopic eczema 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West B. Gastric polyp is common C. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody D. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody 3 / 50 3. Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholic cirrhosis includes pain abdomen and haemolytic anaemia; the other component is: A. Hyperamylasaemia B. Hypercalcaemia C. Hypergastrinaemia D. Hyperlipidaemia 4 / 50 4. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 15 ml B. 100 ml C. 75 ml D. 30 ml 5 / 50 5. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Secondary carcinoma of liver B. Crigler-Najjar type II C. Oral contraceptives D. Pregnancy 6 / 50 6. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. Associated with other autoimmune diseases B. ANA is positive in majority C. High risk of developing hepatoma D. Cushingoid face 7 / 50 7. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Fistula B. Pseudopolyps C. Small ulceration D. Spasm 8 / 50 8. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 300-400 g B. 700-800 g C. 100-200 g D. 500-600 g 9 / 50 9. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Pancreatic ductal obstruction B. Exocrine pancreatic function C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Endocrine pancreatic function 10 / 50 10. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. >12mmHg B. 5-7mmHg C. 7-10 mmHg D. <5mmHg 11 / 50 11. The single most important point which differentiates tropical sprue from coeliac sprue is: A. Small intestinal biopsy B. Type of anaemia C. D-xylose absorption test D. Response to treatment 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is false regarding cholera? A. Offensive stool B. Subnormal Surface temperature C. Onset with purging D. Absence of tenesmus 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is false regarding acute appendicitis? A. Nausea and vomiting occur in 50-60% of cases B. The temperature is usually normal or slightly elevated C. Meckel's diverticulitis is one of the close differential diagnosis D. Anorexia is rare 14 / 50 14. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Diplopia B. Descending paralysis C. Constipation D. Increased salivation 15 / 50 15. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Males are commonly susceptible B. Peripheral eosinophilia C. Marked cholestasis D. Splenomegaly 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Laxative abuse B. Whipple's disease C. Lactase deficiency D. Coeliac disease 17 / 50 17. All are examples of APUDomas except: A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Hepatoma C. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland D. Melanoma 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Diverticulosis C. Ulcerative colitis D. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction 19 / 50 19. Necrolytic migratory erythema is a feature of: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Hepatoblastoma C. Insulinoma D. Glucagonoma 20 / 50 20. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Gastric ulcer B. Syphilis C. Developmental anomaly D. Lymphoma 21 / 50 21. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Parkinsonism D. Amyloidosis 22 / 50 22. Which one of the following originates from non-beta islet cell tumour of the pancreas? A. Somatostatinoma B. Insulinoma C. Glucagonoma D. Gastrinoma 23 / 50 23. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings B. Fever C. Sinus tachycardia D. Bloody diarrhoea 24 / 50 24. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Tertiary peristaltic wave B. Primary peristaltic wave C. Secondary peristaltic wave D. Voluntary phase of deglutition 25 / 50 25. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all except: A. Giardiasis B. Crohn's s disease C. Amoebiasis D. Cystic fibrosis 26 / 50 26. The commonest extraintestinal complication of ulcerative colitis is: A. Arthritis B. Sclerosing cholangitis C. Uveitis D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 27 / 50 27. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Coeliac sprue B. Pancreatic insufficiency C. Whipple's disease D. Gastric retention 28 / 50 28. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 50% B. 10% C. 30% D. 80% 29 / 50 29. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Alcoholism B. Oesophageal carcinoma C. Hiatal hernia D. Reflux oesophagitis 30 / 50 30. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Misoprostol B. Sucralfate C. Carbenoxolone D. Omeprazole 31 / 50 31. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Meningitis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Aplastic anaemia D. Myocarditis 32 / 50 32. The causative agent of tropical sprue is: A. Shigella B. Unknown C. Yersinia D. Campylobacter 33 / 50 33. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Terlipressin B. Propranolol C. Nitroglycerines D. Somatostatin 34 / 50 34. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Acute gastritis C. Duodenal ulcer D. Ruptured oesophageal varices 35 / 50 35. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Biliary dyspepsia B. Peptic ulcer disease C. Tropical sprue D. Irritable bowel syndrome 36 / 50 36. Carcinoid syndrome: A. Increases BP B. Is multiple in 1/5th cases C. Produces jaundice D. More common in women 37 / 50 37. Which of the following surgeries is related to severe hepatocellular dysfunction? A. Gastric bypass B. Jejunoileal bypass C. Vagotomy D. Pyloroplasty 38 / 50 38. Which is not true so far as definition of cirrhosis of liver is concerned? A. Fatty infiltration B. Fibrosis C. Regeneration D. Necrosis 39 / 50 39. The commonest type of pancreatic carcinoma is: A. Ductal adenocarcinoma B. Islet cell carcinoma C. Cystadenocarcinoma D. Mucinous carcinoma 40 / 50 40. Pyrosis is better known as: A. Retching B. Singultus C. Heartburn D. Water brash 41 / 50 41. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 70-80% B. 90-100% C. 50-60% D. 30-40% 42 / 50 42. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Hepatic neoplasm B. Pyogenic liver abscess C. Hemangioma of liver D. Acute viral hepatitis 43 / 50 43. All of the following produce “sub-total villous atrophy’ except: A. Hypogammaglobulinaemia B. Coeliac disease C. Radiation D. Abetalipoproteinaemia 44 / 50 44. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Leptospira B. Brucella abortus C. Pneumococcus D. LD body 45 / 50 45. Which of the following clotting factors is not produced in the liver? A. IV B. II C. VII D. V 46 / 50 46. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphangiectasia B. Cardnoid syndrome C. Intestinal lymphoma D. Whipple's disease 47 / 50 47. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. H. pylori infection B. Pernicious anaemia C. Alcohol D. Herpes virus infection 48 / 50 48. Regarding cimetidine, all of the following are true except: A. Related structurally to histamine B. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels C. May produce benign intracranial hypertension D. Tender gynecomastia may be a complication after prolonged use 49 / 50 49. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Chronic achalasia cardia B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome C. Hypervitaminosis A D. Lye ingestion 50 / 50 50. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Stomatostatinoma B. Duodenal diverticula C. Ca stomach D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology