Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis E D. Hepatitis C 2 / 50 2. A desire for defaecation is initiated by: A. Distention of the rectum B. Distention of the sigmoid colon C. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter D. Contraction of the rectum 3 / 50 3. Which of the following infections may produce features like cardiospasm? A. Trichinosis B. Schistosomiasis C. Leishmaniasis D. Trypanosomiasis 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is false regarding pernicious anaemia? A. 90% have anti-parietal cell antibody B. Gastric polyp is common C. 60% have anti-intrinsic factor antibody D. It is a common cause of haemolytic anaemia in the West 5 / 50 5. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour B. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint C. Periodicity is common D. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool 6 / 50 6. Crohn’s disease is caused by: A. Not known B. Nutritional deficiency C. Toxin elaborated by infectious microorganisms D. Autoimmunity 7 / 50 7. Spider naevi: A. Often seen in the first trimester of pregnancy B. Are pathognomonic of portal hypertension C. May be seen in some healthy people D. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion 8 / 50 8. A child having diarrhoea later complicated by the appearance of rash and petechiae. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Rota virus B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Yersinia 9 / 50 9. The commonest hepatic lesion in haemochromatosis is: A. Haemosiderosis B. Micronodular cirrhosis C. Macronodular cirrhosis D. Fatty liver 10 / 50 10. Characteristics of anorexia nervosa include all except: A. Loss of axillary and pubic hair B. Amenorrhoea C. Carotenaemia D. Hypothermia 11 / 50 11. The valvular heart disease common in carcinoid syndrome is: A. Mitral stenosis B. Pulmonary incompetence C. Aortic incompetence D. Tricuspid incompetence 12 / 50 12. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Gallstone formation B. Aphthous stomatitis C. Erythema marginatum D. Pyoderma gangrenosum 13 / 50 13. Absolute contraindication for liver biopsy is: A. Haemangioma of liver B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Cholestasis D. Cirrhosis of liver 14 / 50 14. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Below upwards B. Towards umbilicus C. Away from the umbilicus D. Above downwards 15 / 50 15. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient B. Multiflagellated C. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach D. Gram-negative bacillus 16 / 50 16. Regarding ischaemic colitis, which one is true? A. Rectal bleeding is a rare complication B. Affects young population C. Almost always an occlusive disease of mesenteric vessels D. Angiography is not helpful 17 / 50 17. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Transverse colon B. Splenic flexure C. Hepatic flexure D. Caecum 18 / 50 18. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Loss of libido C. Achlorhydria D. Cheilosis 19 / 50 19. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon B. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz C. Passage of bright red blood per rectum D. The blood may not be mixed with stool 20 / 50 20. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Increased salivation B. Diplopia C. Descending paralysis D. Constipation 21 / 50 21. Which of the following may develop into intestinal lymphoma? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Coeliac disease C. Intestinal lymphangiectasia D. Eosinophilic enteritis 22 / 50 22. The definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. TIBC < 200 μg/dl B. Plasma iron >300 μg/ dl C. Liver biopsy D. Hepatic iron index >1.5 23 / 50 23. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt except: A. Lye ingestion B. Hypervitaminosis A C. Chronic achalasia cardia D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome 24 / 50 24. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test B. Quantitative faecal fat estimation C. Serum amylase D. Serum lipase 25 / 50 25. All of the following are methods for detection of H. pylori except: A. Rapid urease test B. Histology C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Endoscopic view 26 / 50 26. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be the safest in pregnancy? A. Misoprostol B. Omeprazole C. Carbenoxolone D. Sucralfate 27 / 50 27. Symptoms of carcinoma of the left colon include all except: A. Altered bowel habits B. Low back pain C. Melena D. Cramps in the abdomen 28 / 50 28. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Pruritus ani B. Mucous discharge C. Diarrhoea D. Bleeding per rectum 29 / 50 29. The ideal time to give antacids in peptic ulcer disease is: A. One hour after meals and at bedtime B. Immediately after meals C. With the meals D. Just before meals 30 / 50 30. Which is true regarding Vincent’s angina? A. Gum is the principal site of affection B. May be complicated by angina pectoris C. Hiatus hernia may be associated with D. Superficial ulcers in mouth 31 / 50 31. All of the following enzymes may be normally found in stool except: A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Trypsin D. Pepsin 32 / 50 32. Continued infectivity in HBV infection is diagnosed by: A. HBsAg B. Anti-HBs C. IgM anti-HBc D. HBV DNA 33 / 50 33. All of the following may be associated with hyposplenism except: A. Dermatitis herpetiformi B. Coeliac disease C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Sickle cell disease 34 / 50 34. Which of the following is false regarding autoimmune hepatitis? A. AST and ALT levels fluctuate within 100-1000 units B. Very high bilirubin level C. Hypoalbuminaemia is very active disease D. Hyperglobulinaemia is common 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Laxative abuse B. Coeliac disease C. Whipple's disease D. Lactase deficiency 36 / 50 36. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia B. Multiple myeloma C. Severe combined immunodeficiency D. AIDS 37 / 50 37. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 100 ml B. 75 ml C. 15 ml D. 30 ml 38 / 50 38. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Rota and Norwalk viruses C. Clostridium difficile D. Enterotoxigenic E. coli 39 / 50 39. Acute pancreatitis may be caused by: A. Legionella pneumoniae B. Propranolol C. Measles D. Thiazides 40 / 50 40. All are major components of intestinal gas except: A. N2 B. Methane C. H2S D. CO2 41 / 50 41. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 70ml B. 270ml C. 120ml D. 200ml 42 / 50 42. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Abdominal pain C. Pancreatic calcification D. Steatorrhoea 43 / 50 43. All of the following are true regarding right-sided colonic carcinoma except: A. Pain abdomen B. Cachexia C. Alteration of bowel habit D. Anaemia 44 / 50 44. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Antibodies to parietal cells B. Intestinal metaplasia C. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease D. Gastric atrophy 45 / 50 45. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. MRI scan of liver B. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography C. Pulmonary angiography D. CT scan of liver 46 / 50 46. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Atrophic rhinitis B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Hepatic failure D. Gastrocolic fistula 47 / 50 47. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Scurvy B. Carbamazepine therapy C. Acute monocytic leukaemia D. Amlodipine therapy 48 / 50 48. The commonest type of oral malignancy is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Melanoma D. Basal cell carcinoma 49 / 50 49. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Pancreas B. Transverse colon C. Kidney D. Stomach 50 / 50 50. The weight of normal daily stool of a healthy adult is: A. 100-200 g B. 300-400 g C. 700-800 g D. 500-600 g LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology
