GastroenterologyHome Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Congestive gastropathy in portal hypertension is best treated by: A. Somatostatin B. Propranolol C. Nitroglycerines D. Terlipressin 2 / 50 2. Acute pancreatitis may eventually lead to all of the following except: A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation B. Renal failure C. Fulminant hepatocellular failure D. Acute lung injury 3 / 50 3. Which segment of the colon is commonly affected by vascular insufficiency? A. Hepatic flexure B. Transverse colon C. Ascending colon D. Splenic flexure 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not included in the classical triad of chronic pancreatitis? A. Steatorrhoea B. Diabetes mellitus C. Abdominal pain D. Pancreatic calcification 5 / 50 5. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. Salmonella B. Streptococcus faecalis C. E. coli D. Klebsiella pneumoniae 6 / 50 6. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgM B. IgD C. IgA D. IgG 7 / 50 7. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. Ketoconazole B. Atorvastatin C. INH D. Zidovudine 8 / 50 8. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient B. Gram-negative bacillus C. Multiflagellated D. It penetrates within the epithelial cells of the stomach 9 / 50 9. A ‘white patch’ in the throat may be due to all except: A. Diphtheria B. Ludwig's angina C. Streptococcal infection D. Infectious mononucleosis 10 / 50 10. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Jejuno-colic fistula B. Rectovesical fistula C. Vesicovaginal fistula D. Perianal fistula 11 / 50 11. The commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Trauma B. Alcohol abuse C. Infection D. Gallstones 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is the most sensitive and test of choice in diagnosing cystic dud obstruction, i.e. acute cholecystitis? A. Ultrasonography B. CT scan C. HIDA scan D. ERCP 13 / 50 13. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. Pernicious anaemia B. H. pylori infection C. Alcohol D. Herpes virus infection 14 / 50 14. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett’s syndrome) may lead to all except: A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen B. Increased bicarbonate level in serum C. Hypercalcaemia D. Hypophosphataemia 15 / 50 15. Anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) is classically present in: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Crescentic glomerulonephritis C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis D. Ulcerative colitis 16 / 50 16. The commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Folic acid deficiency B. Iron deficiency C. Vitamin B12 deficiency D. Hemolysis 17 / 50 17. Which is true with respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Easily treatable B. Commonly affects middle-aged males C. Most common GI disorder in practice D. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common 18 / 50 18. Malignant potential is least in: A. Villous adenoma of colon B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome C. Ulcerative colitis D. Familial colonic polyposis 19 / 50 19. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Clostridium difficile B. Campylobacter C. Clostridium perfringens D. Shigella 20 / 50 20. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. MRI of brain B. EEG C. Evoked potential study D. Psychometric study 21 / 50 21. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Beta-adrenergic agonist B. Metoclopramide C. Protein meal D. Gastrin 22 / 50 22. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient with malabsorption is: A. Coarsening of mucosal folds B. Segmentation and clumping C. Dilatation D. Loss of mucosal pattern 23 / 50 23. Which is the most sensitive test to diagnose hepatopulmonary syndrome? A. CT scan of liver B. Pulmonary angiography C. Contrast-enhanced echocardiography D. MRI scan of liver 24 / 50 24. Regarding solitary rectal ulcer syndrome (SRUS), which of the following is false? A. Surgery by resection rectopexy may be done B. Rectal bleeding and tenesmus are common C. Commonly in the posterior wall of rectum D. Rectal prolapse and straining by patient are common associations 25 / 50 25. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Monoglycerides B. Fatty acids C. Triglycerides D. Diglycerides 26 / 50 26. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Pyoderma gangrenosum B. Aphthous stomatitis C. Erythema marginatum D. Gallstone formation 27 / 50 27. The commonest hepatic lesion in haemochromatosis is: A. Fatty liver B. Macronodular cirrhosis C. Micronodular cirrhosis D. Haemosiderosis 28 / 50 28. Regarding haematochezia, which one is false? A. Passage of bright red blood per rectum B. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz C. Maybe due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon D. The blood may not be mixed with stool 29 / 50 29. Indicators of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis include all except: A. Paralytic ileus B. Worsening ascites C. Worsening jaundice D. Ascitic pH < blood pH 30 / 50 30. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Erythromycin B. Vancomycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin 31 / 50 31. All of the following are true regarding diverticulitis except: A. Perforation is a serious complication B. Right side of colon is less affected than the left C. Males are affected more than females D. Massive rectal bleeding is very common 32 / 50 32. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Trauma B. Haemophilia C. Anticoagulant therapy D. Acute leukaemia 33 / 50 33. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Severe combined immunodeficiency B. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia C. Multiple myeloma D. AIDS 34 / 50 34. The most helpful differentiating histological feature between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease by rectal biopsy is: A. Fibrosis B. Transmural involvement C. Granuloma D. Crypt abscess 35 / 50 35. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. Cushingoid face B. High risk of developing hepatoma C. Associated with other autoimmune diseases D. ANA is positive in majority 36 / 50 36. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Solitary primary tumours are very common B. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas C. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant D. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas 37 / 50 37. All are characteristic features of Wilson’s disease except: A. Grimacing B. Chorea C. Sensory loss D. Slurred speech 38 / 50 38. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Carbohydrate metabolism B. Vitamins and minerals absorption C. Protein metabolism D. Fat metabolism 39 / 50 39. Regarding melena, which statement is false? A. Blood should remain at least 4 hours within the gut B. At least 60 ml of blood is required C. Black tarry semisolid stool D. Offensive in odour 40 / 50 40. Commonest cause of hepatoma is: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Alcohol C. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency D. Haemochromatosis 41 / 50 41. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 42 / 50 42. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings B. Sinus tachycardia C. Fever D. Bloody diarrhoea 43 / 50 43. Portal hypertension associated with soft liver suggests: A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Extrahepatic obstruction 44 / 50 44. The lower oesophageal mucosa ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A cause of dysphagia B. A cause of haematemesis and/ or melaena C. A late complication of vagotomy D. A normal oesophageal anatomy 45 / 50 45. Sialorrhoea is associated with all of the following except: A. Wilson's disease B. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism C. Achalasia cardia D. Carcinoma of the tongue 46 / 50 46. Carbenoxolone sodium may be associated with all of the following features except: A. Development of potassium depletion B. May be associated with milk-alkali syndrome C. Development of systemic hypertension D. Complicated by oedema 47 / 50 47. Jejunal diverticula may be associated with: A. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion B. Chronic pancreatitis C. Hypochlorhydria D. Cirrhosis of liver 48 / 50 48. All of the following can be associated with obstructive jaundice except: A. Crigler-Najjar type II B. Secondary carcinoma of liver C. Oral contraceptives D. Pregnancy 49 / 50 49. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Carbamazepine therapy B. Acute monocytic leukaemia C. Amlodipine therapy D. Scurvy 50 / 50 50. Weil’s disease is associated with: A. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis B. Absence of renal involvement C. Severe muscle pain D. Jaundice in all LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology