GastroenterologyHome Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Crohn’s disease may produce all of the following except: A. Vesicovaginal fistula B. Perianal fistula C. Jejuno-colic fistula D. Rectovesical fistula 2 / 50 2. Which of the following reflects the best prognostic marker of hepatocellular function? A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Serum bilirubin C. Prothrombin time D. SGPT 3 / 50 3. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Peripheral eosinophilia B. Males are commonly susceptible C. Splenomegaly D. Marked cholestasis 4 / 50 4. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: A. After a cold bath B. In males C. At daytime D. On the palms and soles 5 / 50 5. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Kidney B. Transverse colon C. Stomach D. Pancreas 6 / 50 6. Commonest cause of duodenal haematoma is: A. Acute leukaemia B. Anticoagulant therapy C. Haemophilia D. Trauma 7 / 50 7. The maximum absorption of fluid in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in: A. Colon B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Stomach 8 / 50 8. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Fatty acids B. Diglycerides C. Monoglycerides D. Triglycerides 9 / 50 9. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in Crohn’s disease? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B12 D. Folic acid 10 / 50 10. Acute viral hepatitis may develop from all of the following except: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Herpes zoster virus D. Yellow fever 11 / 50 11. All of the following produce invasive diarrhoea except: A. Shigella B. Clostridium difficile C. Clostridium perfringens D. Campylobacter 12 / 50 12. The commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Salmonella C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. E. coli 13 / 50 13. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. H. pylori infection B. Pernicious anaemia C. Alcohol D. Herpes virus infection 14 / 50 14. The commonest complaint by a patient with Ca rectum is: A. Haematochezia B. Rectal pain C. Constipation D. Pain abdomen 15 / 50 15. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. VIII B. VII C. IX D. II 16 / 50 16. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. Within the first 24 hours of birth B. At birth C. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life D. During the first 10 days of life 17 / 50 17. Halitosis is present in all except: A. Gastrocolic fistula B. Atrophic rhinitis C. Hepatic failure D. Amoebic liver abscess 18 / 50 18. Anti-LKM1 antibodies (liver-kidney microsomes) are seen in infection with: A. Hepatitis C B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis B 19 / 50 19. Which of the following primaries is uncommonly associated with bony metastasis? A. Prostate B. Breast C. Colon D. Thyroid 20 / 50 20. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 500-1000 ml B. 100-250 ml C. 250-500 ml D. More than 1 litre 21 / 50 21. Burst abdomen commonly occurs on which post-op day of abdominal surgery? A. 1st day B. 2nd day C. 3rd day D. 7th day A. 3rd day B. 7th day C. 1st day D. 2nd day 22 / 50 22. All of the following may cause traveller’s diarrhoea except: A. Rota and Norwalk viruses B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Clostridium difficile 23 / 50 23. Bentiromide test diagnoses? A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Endocrine pancreatic function C. Exocrine pancreatic function D. Pancreatic ductal obstruction 24 / 50 24. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Sclerosing cholangitis B. Osteoporosis C. Paget's disease of bone D. Osteomalacia 25 / 50 25. All the drugs are given at some time in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome except: A. Serotonin antagonist B. Methylxanthine bronchodilator C. H1 + H2 receptor antagonist D. beta-adrenergic agonist 26 / 50 26. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Mesenteric vascular insufficiency C. Left atrial myxoma D. Congestive cardiac failure 27 / 50 27. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Metoclopramide B. Gastrin C. Protein meal D. Beta-adrenergic agonist 28 / 50 28. Botulism may be associated with all of the following except: A. Increased salivation B. Constipation C. Diplopia D. Descending paralysis 29 / 50 29. The major immunoglobulin in primary biliary cirrhosis is: A. IgG B. IgA C. IgD D. IgM 30 / 50 30. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Attacks of emotional stress B. Induction of vomiting C. Consumption of food D. Change of posture 31 / 50 31. Oral contraceptive pills may have a hepatic lesion in the form of all except: A. Benign adenomas in liver B. Peliosis hepatis C. Budd-chiari syndrome D. Hepatic granulomas 32 / 50 32. The commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Protein-energy malnutrition B. Alcohol abuse C. Hyperthyroidism D. Pancreatic carcinoma 33 / 50 33. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Liver biopsy is diagnostic B. Jaundice C. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology D. Mild, firm hepatomegaly 34 / 50 34. Hirschsprung’s disease is not manifested by: A. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal B. Distended abdomen C. Obstipation D. Vomiting 35 / 50 35. The commonest site of carcinoma of the stomach is: A. Lesser curvature B. Greater curvature C. Body of the stomach D. Prepyloric 36 / 50 36. Which of the following pancreatic islet cells synthesizes glucagon? A. Delta B. Non-beta C. Alpha D. Beta 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Toxic hepatitis B. Weil's disease C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Amoebic liver abscess 38 / 50 38. The commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis E B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D 39 / 50 39. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is classically diagnosed by: A. Psychometric study B. Evoked potential study C. EEG D. MRI of brain 40 / 50 40. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hyperchloraemia C. Acidosis D. Hypochloraemic alkalosis 41 / 50 41. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IV GTT except: A. Pancreatic insufficiency B. Coeliac sprue C. Whipple's disease D. Gastric retention 42 / 50 42. Among all of the following, which is the most characteristic feature regarding intestinal ischaemia? A. Fever B. Discordance between subjective symptoms and objective findings C. Bloody diarrhoea D. Sinus tachycardia 43 / 50 43. Severe mucoid diarrhoea which is rich in electrolytes should arouse suspicion of: A. Carcinoid syndrome B. Villous adenoma of the colon C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 44 / 50 44. Normally in health, the venous flow in abdominal superficial veins is: A. From below upwards B. Away from the umbilicus C. Towards the umbilicus D. From above downwards 45 / 50 45. Pregnancy predisposes to all except: A. Acute hepatic failure B. Steatosis C. Cholestasis D. Chronic hepatitis 46 / 50 46. Menetrier’s disease may have all of the following except: A. Hypoproteinaemia B. Large tortuous gastric mucosal folds C. Hypochlorhydria D. Gastritis 47 / 50 47. Gum hypertrophy is not a feature of: A. Acute monocytic leukaemia B. Carbamazepine therapy C. Amlodipine therapy D. Scurvy 48 / 50 48. Auto-vagotomy may be observed in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Amyloidosis C. Parkinsonism D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 49 / 50 49. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Sigmoidoscopy shows multiple small discrete ulcers often covered with slough B. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities C. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both D. Rectal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces 50 / 50 50. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Reflux oesophagitis B. Alcoholism C. Oesophageal carcinoma D. Hiatal hernia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology