Gastroenterology Home Gastroenterology 0% 16 votes, 0 avg 38 Gastroenterology 1 / 50 1. Commonest cause of hepatoma is: A. Alcohol B. Haemochromatosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency 2 / 50 2. All of the following are true with respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas B. Solitary primary tumours are very common C. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas D. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant 3 / 50 3. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Loss of libido B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Cheilosis D. Achlorhydria 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not a disorder of intestinal motility? A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction C. Diverticulosis D. Ulcerative colitis 5 / 50 5. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Regurgitation B. Heartburn C. Chest pain D. Dysphagia 6 / 50 6. Constipation may develop from all except: A. Colchicine B. Clonidine C. Cholestyramine D. Calcium-channel blocker 7 / 50 7. Pneumaturia is an established feature of: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Coeliac disease C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Crohn's disease 8 / 50 8. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcers most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy B. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty C. Three-quarter gastric resection D. Gastroenterostomy 9 / 50 9. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity B. Bilious vomiting C. Distension of upper abdomen with succussion splash D. Visible peristalsis 10 / 50 10. Serum alkaline phosphatase level may be increased in all except: A. Cholestasis B. Paget's disease C. Metastasis in liver D. Hypervitaminosis D 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not true in lupoid hepatitis? A. Associated with other autoimmune diseases B. High risk of developing hepatoma C. ANA is positive in majority D. Cushingoid face 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Whipple's disease B. Laxative abuse C. Lactase deficiency D. Coeliac disease 13 / 50 13. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. H. pylori infection B. Alcohol C. Herpes virus infection D. Pernicious anaemia 14 / 50 14. A patient with severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphangiectasia B. Intestinal lymphoma C. Whipple's disease D. Cardnoid syndrome 15 / 50 15. ‘Puddle sign’ detects a small amount of free fluid in peritoneal cavity which may be as low as: A. 120ml B. 200ml C. 270ml D. 70ml 16 / 50 16. Which one of the following is true regarding pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension: A. Commonest cause of portal hypertension B. Congenital hepatic fibrosis is an example C. Raised wedged hepatic venous pressure D. Blocked hepatic vein 17 / 50 17. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobulinaemia except: A. Severe combined immunodeficiency B. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia C. AIDS D. Multiple myeloma 18 / 50 18. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. Antral mucosa B. Fundus of the stomach C. Jejunum D. 2nd part of the duodenum 19 / 50 19. Normally in health, the venous flow in abdominal superficial veins is: A. From above downwards B. Away from the umbilicus C. From below upwards D. Towards the umbilicus 20 / 50 20. The commonest cause of upper GI bleeding in an alcoholic is: A. Duodenal ulcer B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. Ruptured oesophageal varices D. Acute gastritis 21 / 50 21. Raspberry tongue is found in: A. Rheumatic fever B. Yellow fever C. Scarlet fever D. Glandular fever 22 / 50 22. Which of the following does not produce secretory diarrhoea? A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Carcinoid syndrome C. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 23 / 50 23. Passage of a bolus of food through the oesophagus is the function of: A. Secondary peristaltic wave B. Tertiary peristaltic wave C. Primary peristaltic wave D. Voluntary phase of deglutition 24 / 50 24. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. Increased frequency of blood group O and of the non-secretor status B. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen C. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients D. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level 25 / 50 25. All of the following produce hypergastrinemia except: A. Duodenal ulcer B. Lansoprazole therapy C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Atrophic fundal gastritis 26 / 50 26. All are characteristic features of Wilson’s disease except: A. Grimacing B. Slurred speech C. Sensory loss D. Chorea 27 / 50 27. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt except: A. Osteoporosis B. Sclerosing cholangitis C. Osteomalacia D. Paget's disease of bone 28 / 50 28. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. During the first 10 days of life B. Within the first 24 hours of birth C. At birth D. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is false according to Ranson/Imrie criteria in acute pancreatitis for adversely affecting survival on admission? A. Serum AST> 400 ID /L B. Hyperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl C. Leucocytosis > 16000/mm3 D. Serum LDH > 400 ID /L 30 / 50 30. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers B. Diagnosis with certainty by BAO /MAO ratio C. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea D. Vitamin B12 malabsorption 31 / 50 31. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all except: A. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction B. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously C. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching D. May produce melaena 32 / 50 32. Commonest organism causing pyogenic liver abscess is: A. Anaerobes B. Staphylococci C. Streptococcus faecalis D. E. coli 33 / 50 33. Hepatitis-like features may be seen in therapy with all except: A. Ketoconazole B. Zidovudine C. Atorvastatin D. INH 34 / 50 34. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Change of posture B. Consumption of food C. Attacks of emotional stress D. Induction of vomiting 35 / 50 35. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all except: A. Crohn's s disease B. Cystic fibrosis C. Giardiasis D. Amoebiasis 36 / 50 36. Minimal fluid required to have classical shifting dullness in ascites is: A. 100-250 ml B. More than 1 litre C. 250-500 ml D. 500-1000 ml 37 / 50 37. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen that can be picked up by ultrasonography is: A. 100 ml B. 30 ml C. 15 ml D. 75 ml 38 / 50 38. Which indicates chronicity in hepatitis B virus infection? A. HBeAg B. IgG anti-HBc C. DNA polymerase D. Anti-HBs 39 / 50 39. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Urine to plasma osmolality ratio >1.0 B. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease C. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl D. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 40 / 50 40. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes mellitus may be due to all except: A. Coexistent coeliac sprue B. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine C. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency D. Associated vasculitis 41 / 50 41. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint B. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour C. Temporary relief of pain by the passage of flatus or stool D. Periodicity is common 42 / 50 42. Hour-glass stomach is usually produced by: A. Gastric ulcer B. Developmental anomaly C. Syphilis D. Lymphoma 43 / 50 43. The best single diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is: A. Quantitative faecal fat estimation B. Serum amylase C. Serum lipase D. Quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test 44 / 50 44. ‘String sign’ in Crohn’s disease is due to: A. Fistula B. Spasm C. Small ulceration D. Pseudopolyps 45 / 50 45. Which one of the following is false regarding type B hepatitis serology? A. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection B. Anti-HBs appear to reflect immunity C. HBeAg implies high infectivity D. Persistence of HBsAg>6 months implies carrier state 46 / 50 46. Malignant potential is least in: A. Familial colonic polyposis B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome C. Villous adenoma of colon D. Ulcerative colitis 47 / 50 47. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis except: A. Aplastic anaemia B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Meningitis D. Myocarditis 48 / 50 48. Which ion is necessary for the active transport of sugars? A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Calcium 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not included in the list of high-folate diet? A. Liver B. Milk C. Fruits D. Vegetables 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not associated with leucocytosis? A. Amoebic liver abscess B. Toxic hepatitis C. Acute viral hepatitis D. Weil's disease LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Neurology Next Post Rheumatology