Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. All of the following can present as nephritic-nephrotic syndrome except: A. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. SLE D. Diabetes mellitus 2 / 50 2. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hematuria B. Absence of oedema C. Hypertension D. Response to corticosteroid 3 / 50 3. Heavy proteinuria associated with haematuria is suggestive of: A. Renal artery thrombosis B. Papillary necrosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Renal vein thrombosis 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not a recognised cause of microalbuminuria? A. Diabetes mellitus with early renal involvement B. Strenuous physical exercise C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Congestive cardiac failure 5 / 50 5. Radiolucent nephrolithiasis is found in stones composed of: A. Uric acid B. Calcium oxalate C. Cystine D. Magnesium ammonium phosphate 6 / 50 6. Bartter syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Thiazide Diuretics B. Acetazolamide C. Potassium sparing diuretics D. Loop Diuretics 7 / 50 7. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. Accumulation of tryptophan B. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase C. Corneal dystrophy D. Premature coronary artery disease 8 / 50 8. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Chronic renal failure C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Ochronosis 9 / 50 9. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Pyaemia C. Mild fever D. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) 10 / 50 10. Which of the renal stones is radiolucent? A. Calcium oxalate B. Cystine stone C. Uric acid D. Triple phosphate 11 / 50 11. ‘Saturnine gout’ develops as a result of: A. Chronic pyelonephritis B. Mercury nephropathy C. Lead nephropathy D. Analgesic nephropathy 12 / 50 12. Fanconi syndrome may arise from all except: A. Cystinosis B. Wilson's disease C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosemia 13 / 50 13. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Renal transplant rejection B. Pregnancy C. Cyclophosphamide administration D. UTI by Proteus 14 / 50 14. Subendothelial dense deposits are found by electron microscopy in: A. Fabry's disease B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. Membranous glomerulopathy D. SLE 15 / 50 15. Which of the following can decrease the antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors? A. NSAIDs B. Thiazides C. Digoxin D. Furosemide 16 / 50 16. Which of the following certainly diagnoses a renal lump? A. Bimanual palpability B. Ballottement C. Band of colonic resonance D. Slight movement with respiration 17 / 50 17. All of the following are associated with hypercalciuria except: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Sarcoidosis D. Milk-alkali syndrome 18 / 50 18. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Cisplatin-induced C. Abruptio placentae D. Weil's disease 19 / 50 19. Green urine is seen in: A. Black water fever B. Alkaptonuria C. Oxalate poisoning D. Pseudomonas infection 20 / 50 20. All of the following may give rise to RPGN except: A. Goodpasture's disease B. SLE C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Wilson's disease 21 / 50 21. All are true in ‘dialysis dementia’ except: A. Seizures B. Myoclonus C. Related to aluminium toxicity D. Raised intracranial tension 22 / 50 22. Renal tubular acidosis is not seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sickle cell disease C. Medullary sponge kidney D. Galactosemia 23 / 50 23. Which is false regarding Goodpasture’s disease? A. Low serum complement level B. Antibody to glomerular basement membrane antigen C. Glomerulonephritis D. Pulmonary haemorrhage 24 / 50 24. Which of the following does not produce red urine? A. Myoglobinuria B. Microscopic haematuria C. Haemoglobinuria D. Acute intermittent porphyria 25 / 50 25. All are recognised causes of chronic renal failure (CRF) except: A. Hypertension B. Obstructive uropathy C. Snakebite D. Diabetes mellitus 26 / 50 26. In a severely uraemic patient, which of the following would indicate chronic renal failure? A. Hypertension B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkaliemia D. Uremic neuropathy 27 / 50 27. Oliguria is: A. < 400 mL urine/24 h B. < 50 ml urine/24 h C. < 100 ml urine/24 h D. < 200 ml urine/24 h 28 / 50 28. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) D. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) 29 / 50 29. Haemoptysis associated with renal failure is found in all except: A. Goodpasture's disease B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Henoch Schonlein purpura 30 / 50 30. Each kidney contains approximately: A. Hundred thousand nephrons B. 1 million nephrons C. 10 million nephrons D. 10 thousand nephrons 31 / 50 31. All of the following may develop nephrolithiasis except: A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Proximal renal tubular acidosis D. Intestinal hyperoxaluria 32 / 50 32. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Massive proteinuria B. Severe dehydration C. Psychogenic polydipsia D. Diabetes mellitus 33 / 50 33. Which of the following is not a neuromuscular complication of uraemia? A. Myelopathy B. Encephalopathy C. Myopathy D. Neuropathy 34 / 50 34. Chronic phenacetin intake may lead to: A. Papillary necrosis B. Tubular necrosi C. Cortical necrosis D. Glomerulosclerosis 35 / 50 35. Fatty cast is often diagnostic of: A. Papillary necrosis B. End-stage renal disease C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome 36 / 50 36. Wilms’ tumour is characterised by all except: A. Commonest renal malignancy B. Pain abdomen C. Renal lump with smooth surface D. Haematuria 37 / 50 37. Waxy casts are: A. Usually not found in nephritic syndrome B. Specific for acute glomerulonephritis C. Frequently seen in UTI D. Virtually not found in normal urine 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a cause of ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Cystitis B. Renal tuberculosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Papillary necrosis 39 / 50 39. Renal biopsy is contraindicated in all except: A. Big renal cyst B. Membranous nephropathy C. Serum creatinine >0 mg/dL D. Severe uncontrolled hypertension 40 / 50 40. Which is true in prerenal azotaemia? A. Urine specific gravity >1018 B. Urine creatinine to plasma creatinine ratio < 20 C. Urine Na+ concentration >20 mmol/L D. Plasma BUN to creatinine ratio < 10 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is false regarding Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein? A. Glycoprotein in nature B. Secreted by renal tubules C. Does not arise from plasma D. An abnormal urinary protein 42 / 50 42. The commonest organism producing acute pyelonephritis is: A. Streptococcus B. E. coli C. Staphylococcus D. Klebsiella 43 / 50 43. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Spironolactone B. Ethacrynic acid C. Hydrochlorthiazide D. Bumetanide 44 / 50 44. All are true in acute renal failure (ARF) except: A. Raised Creatinine B. Raised K+ C. Raised [H+] D. Raised Calcium 45 / 50 45. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Papillary necrosis B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Renal tuberculosis D. Sickle cell nephropathy 46 / 50 46. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Aortic stenosis C. Pregnancy D. Bilateral renal artery stenosis 47 / 50 47. Nephrotic syndrome may be associated with hypertension in all except: A. SLE B. Diabetes mellitus C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) D. Focal glomerulosclerosis 48 / 50 48. In a patient with diabetes mellitus having hypertension, serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dl and a plasma potassium of 5.8 mEq/L are best treated with which antihypertensive agent? A. Amiloride B. Furosemide C. ACE inhibitor D. Angiotensin II receptor blocker 49 / 50 49. Gitelman syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Thiazide diuretics B. Potassium sparing diuretics C. Acetazolamide D. Loop Diuretics 50 / 50 50. Renal tubular acidosis may be due to: A. Captopril B. Streptozotocin C. Probenecid D. Methoxyflurane LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology