Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. IgA nephropathy commonly presents with: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Systemic hypertension C. Hematuria D. Acute renal failure 2 / 50 2. Which of the following is usually unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy? A. Focal glomerulosclerosis B. Membranous nephropathy C. Membranoproliferative nephropathy D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 3 / 50 3. Green urine is seen in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Black water fever C. Pseudomonas infection D. Oxalate poisoning 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not a neuromuscular complication of uraemia? A. Myelopathy B. Neuropathy C. Encephalopathy D. Myopathy 5 / 50 5. ‘Saturnine gout’ develops as a result of: A. Lead nephropathy B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Analgesic nephropathy D. Mercury nephropathy 6 / 50 6. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Hypercalcemic nephropathy B. Medullary cystic kidney C. Papillary necrosis D. Gouty nephropathy 7 / 50 7. All are recognised causes of chronic renal failure (CRF) except: A. Obstructive uropathy B. Snakebite C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus 8 / 50 8. Which of the following is not a guanidino compound? A. Guanidino-succinic acid B. Carnitine C. Creatine D. Creatinine 9 / 50 9. Which of the following can decrease the antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors? A. Digoxin B. Furosemide C. Thiazides D. NSAIDs 10 / 50 10. Dehydration should be strictly avoided before performing IVP in: A. Multiple myeloma B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. Renal cell carcinoma D. Lymphoma 11 / 50 11. Alport’s syndrome is associated with all except: A. Recurrent haematuria B. Sensorineural deafness C. Interstitial foam cells D. Autosomal recessive inheritance 12 / 50 12. Struvite stone is usually a result of urinary infection by: A. Pseudomonas B. Proteus C. Klebsiella D. Staphylococcus 13 / 50 13. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Acute renal failure B. Hydronephrosis C. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome D. Hepatorenal syndrome 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a criterion for diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome? A. Hypoalbuminemia B. Hypertension C. Hyperlipidaemia D. Massive proteinuria 15 / 50 15. Chronic phenacetin intake may lead to: A. Cortical necrosis B. Tubular necrosi C. Papillary necrosis D. Glomerulosclerosis 16 / 50 16. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Hyperammonaemia B. Lenticonus C. Band keratopathy D. Thrombocytosis 17 / 50 17. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage B. Fulminant hepatocellular failure C. Heart failure D. Ureterocolic anastomosis 18 / 50 18. Renal biopsy is contraindicated in all except: A. Membranous nephropathy B. Severe uncontrolled hypertension C. Serum creatinine >0 mg/dL D. Big renal cyst 19 / 50 19. Hyperuricaemia is not a feature of: A. Active psoriasis B. Nicotinic acid therapy C. Fanconi's syndrome D. Lactic acidosis 20 / 50 20. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly B. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl C. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well D. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia 21 / 50 21. Which of the following is not added to urine by tubular secretion? A. Creatinine B. H+ C. K+ D. Urea 22 / 50 22. Subendothelial dense deposits are found by electron microscopy in: A. SLE B. Membranous glomerulopathy C. Fabry's disease D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 23 / 50 23. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Chronic renal failure C. Hypercalcaemia D. Diabetes insipidus 24 / 50 24. Acidic urine is produced in: A. UTI by Proteus B. High vegetarian diet C. Chronic renal failure D. Renal tubular acidosis 25 / 50 25. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is not produced as a result of: A. Dexamethasone B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura 26 / 50 26. Hypernephroma is associated with all except: A. Haematuria B. Renal vein thrombosis C. Polycythaemia D. High incidence of hypertension 27 / 50 27. Minimal change nephropathy is better known as: A. Lipoid nephrosis B. Foot process disease C. All of the options D. Nil lesion 28 / 50 28. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Hypoproteinaemia B. Atelectasis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Peritonitis 29 / 50 29. Balanoposthitis is not associated with: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Phimosis C. Peyronie's disease D. Trichomoniasis 30 / 50 30. Broad casts are found in: A. Chronic renal failure (CRF) B. Urinary tract infection C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Analgesic nephropathy 31 / 50 31. All are true regarding renal ischaemia except: A. Patchy necrosis on biopsy B. Most marked in proximal tubules C. Disruption of tubular basement membrane D. Vasculitis is an etiology 32 / 50 32. Nephrotic syndrome may be associated with hypertension in all except: A. SLE B. Diabetes mellitus C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) 33 / 50 33. Microscopic haematuria is characteristic of: A. Thin basement membrane disease of kidney B. Focal glomerulasclerosis C. Membranous nephropathy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 34 / 50 34. Recurrent haematuria is not classically seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Sickle cell disease C. Berger's disease D. Haemophilia 35 / 50 35. Metastatic calcification is seen in all of the following organs except: A. Brain B. Medium-sized blood vessels C. Myocardium D. Cornea 36 / 50 36. All of the following can present as nephritic-nephrotic syndrome except: A. SLE B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Diabetes mellitus D. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis 37 / 50 37. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Highly acidic B. Low in sodium C. Dilute and alkaline D. Concentrated 38 / 50 38. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. High protein feeding B. Radiocontrast media C. Administration of mannitol D. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus 39 / 50 39. Which of the following is false in nephritic-nephrotic syndrome? A. Systemic hypertension is rare B. SLE is a common aetiology C. Majority of patients terminate into end-stage renal disease D. Moderate haematuria and moderate proteinuria are common 40 / 50 40. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Weil's disease B. Abruptio placentae C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Cisplatin-induced 41 / 50 41. All are true in urethral syndrome except: A. No bacteria are cultured from urine B. Predominantly affects females C. Post-coital urethral congestion may be an etiology D. Antibiotics are always indicated 42 / 50 42. Fanconi syndrome may arise from all except: A. Haemochromatosis B. Galactosemia C. Wilson's disease D. Cystinosis 43 / 50 43. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pregnancy D. Bilateral renal artery stenosis 44 / 50 44. Tubular proteinuria is assessed by measuring: A. Transferrin B. Beta-2 microglobulin C. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein D. Albumin 45 / 50 45. The commonest renal lesion in diabetic nephropathy is: A. Chronic interstitial nephritis B. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis C. Arterionephrosclerosis D. Nodular glomerulosclerosis 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is not a cause of ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Papillary necrosis B. Renal tuberculosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Cystitis 47 / 50 47. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Increased degradation of erythropoietin B. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia C. Reduced red cell survival D. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility 48 / 50 48. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Hydrochlorthiazide B. Bumetanide C. Spironolactone D. Ethacrynic acid 49 / 50 49. Bosentan is recognised as a: A. Endothelin antagonist B. Serotonin uptake inhibitor C. Calcium sensitiser D. TNF-antagonist 50 / 50 50. All of the following may give rise to Fanconi’s syndrome except: A. Wilson's disease B. Cystinosis C. Haemochromatosis D. Galactosaemia LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology
