Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Serum add phosphatase level is increased in all except: A. Amyloidosis B. Prostatic carcinoma C. Gaucher's disease D. Hairy cell leukaemia 2 / 50 2. In pregnancy-induced hypertension, which of the following suggests pre-eclampsia? A. Urea >45 mg/ dl B. Creatinine > 1.6 mg/ dl C. Diastolic BP >95 mm Hg D. Uric acid >5.5 mg/ dl 3 / 50 3. ‘Fruity odour’ in urine is found in: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Alkaptonuria C. Chyluria D. Urinary tract infection (UTI) 4 / 50 4. The most beneficial drug in enuresis is: A. Chlorpromazine B. Trimipramine C. Haloperidol D. Fluoxetine 5 / 50 5. In IgA nephropathy, IgA is deposited in: A. Glomerular capillaries B. Renal papilla C. Glomerular mesangium D. Glomerular basement membrane 6 / 50 6. Alimentary glycosuria may be associated with all except: A. Partial gastrectomy B. Renal failure C. Normal individuals D. Hyperthyroidism 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is false regarding Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein? A. Glycoprotein in nature B. Secreted by renal tubules C. An abnormal urinary protein D. Does not arise from plasma 8 / 50 8. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Pneumococcus B. Hepatitis B C. Kala-azar D. Malaria 9 / 50 9. Acidic urine is produced in: A. UTI by Proteus B. Chronic renal failure C. High vegetarian diet D. Renal tubular acidosis 10 / 50 10. Which is not true in orthostatic proteinuria? A. Indicates a serious underlying disease B. Maybe related to increased lumbar lordosis C. Seen in tall persons D. Primarily occurs in upright posture 11 / 50 11. IgA nephropathy commonly presents with: A. Systemic hypertension B. Acute renal failure C. Hematuria D. Nephrotic syndrome 12 / 50 12. Urinary clearance of IgG compared with transferrin is found to be <10 in: A. Focal glomerulosclerosis B. Mesangial proliferative nephropathy C. Membranous nephropathy D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 13 / 50 13. All of the following are associated with hypercalciuria except: A. Milk-alkali syndrome B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Sarcoidosis 14 / 50 14. Which of the following does not produce red urine? A. Myoglobinuria B. Haemoglobinuria C. Microscopic haematuria D. Acute intermittent porphyria 15 / 50 15. WBC casts in urine are suggestive of all except: A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis B. Pyelonephritis C. Transplant rejection D. Interstitial nephritis 16 / 50 16. Absolute indication for dialysis: A. Serum urea level >200 mg/dl B. Serum creatinine level >4 mg/ dl C. Serum K+ level >6 mEq/l D. Clinical evidence of pericarditis 17 / 50 17. Complement C3 is characteristically low in all except: A. SLE B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 18 / 50 18. Heavy proteinuria associated with haematuria is suggestive of: A. Interstitial nephritis B. Papillary necrosis C. Renal artery thrombosis D. Renal vein thrombosis 19 / 50 19. Subendothelial dense deposits are found by electron microscopy in: A. Membranous glomerulopathy B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. SLE D. Fabry's disease 20 / 50 20. In a severely uraemic patient, which of the following would indicate chronic renal failure? A. Hyperkaliemia B. Hyponatremia C. Uremic neuropathy D. Hypertension 21 / 50 21. Tubular proteinuria is assessed by measuring: A. Transferrin B. Albumin C. Beta-2 microglobulin D. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is not a typical association in adult polycystic kidney disease? A. Polycythaemia B. Berry aneurysms C. Nephrolithiasis D. VSD 23 / 50 23. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Medullary sponge kidney B. Fabry's disease C. Nail-patella syndrome D. Alport's syndrome 24 / 50 24. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Cyclophosphamide administration B. Renal transplant rejection C. Pregnancy D. UTI by Proteus 25 / 50 25. Hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism is seen in: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Conn's syndrome C. Sickle cell anemia D. Diabetes mellitus 26 / 50 26. Green urine is seen in: A. Oxalate poisoning B. Alkaptonuria C. Black water fever D. Pseudomonas infection 27 / 50 27. Minimal change nephropathy is better known as: A. Lipoid nephrosis B. Nil lesion C. All of the options D. Foot process disease 28 / 50 28. Renal biopsy is contraindicated in all except: A. Big renal cyst B. Membranous nephropathy C. Severe uncontrolled hypertension D. Serum creatinine >0 mg/dL 29 / 50 29. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Interstitial nephritis C. Chronic nephritis D. Acute glomerulonephritis 30 / 50 30. Renal tubular acidosis may be due to: A. Probenecid B. Methoxyflurane C. Captopril D. Streptozotocin 31 / 50 31. Absolute contraindications of renal transplantation are all except: A. Hepatitis C infection with chronic hepatitis B. Active malignancy C. Previous sensitisation to donor tissue D. HIV infection 32 / 50 32. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) B. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) C. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) 33 / 50 33. Anti-tubule basement membrane antibodies may be found in treatment with: A. Spironolactone B. Metoprolol C. Streptomycin D. Methicillin 34 / 50 34. Gitelman syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Acetazolamide B. Thiazide diuretics C. Potassium sparing diuretics D. Loop Diuretics 35 / 50 35. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Acute pancreatitis C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Congestive cardiac failure 36 / 50 36. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Concentrated B. Dilute and alkaline C. Low in sodium D. Highly acidic 37 / 50 37. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Acute renal failure B. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome C. Hydronephrosis D. Hepatorenal syndrome 38 / 50 38. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Weil's disease B. Abruptio placentae C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Cisplatin-induced 39 / 50 39. All of the following may be complicated by papillary necrosis except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Macroglobulinaemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Leprosy 40 / 50 40. In microalbuminuria, the range of albuminuria is: A. 40-400 mg/ day B. 10-100 mg/day C. 20-200 mg/day D. 30-300 mg/ day 41 / 50 41. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Ureterocolic anastomosis B. Heart failure C. Fulminant hepatocellular failure D. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage 42 / 50 42. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Proteinuria B. Hypertension C. Anasarca D. Hyperkalaemia 43 / 50 43. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase B. Accumulation of tryptophan C. Premature coronary artery disease D. Corneal dystrophy 44 / 50 44. All of the following produce enuresis except: A. Bladder neck contracture B. Spina bifida C. Multiple sclerosis D. Type I diabetes mellitus 45 / 50 45. Isosthenuria is found in: A. Nail-patella syndrome B. Nephrolithiasis C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute glomerulonephritis 46 / 50 46. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Renal tuberculosis C. Papillary necrosis D. Sickle cell nephropathy 47 / 50 47. Which of the following commonly affects kidneys? A. Microscopic polyarteritis B. Takayasu's arteritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Temporal arteritis 48 / 50 48. Which is true in prerenal azotaemia? A. Urine specific gravity >1018 B. Urine Na+ concentration >20 mmol/L C. Urine creatinine to plasma creatinine ratio < 20 D. Plasma BUN to creatinine ratio < 10 49 / 50 49. Dehydration should be strictly avoided before performing IVP in: A. Lymphoma B. Multiple myeloma C. Acute myeloid leukemia D. Renal cell carcinoma 50 / 50 50. Nephrotic syndrome may be associated with hypertension in all except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. SLE D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology