Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Which of the following is false regarding Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein? A. Does not arise from plasma B. An abnormal urinary protein C. Secreted by renal tubules D. Glycoprotein in nature 2 / 50 2. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all except: A. Aortic stenosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pregnancy D. Bilateral renal artery stenosis 3 / 50 3. Renal vein thrombosis in adults is seen in: A. Horseshoe kidney B. Amyloidosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Acute glomerulonephritis 4 / 50 4. Which of the following is not a criterion for diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome? A. Hypoalbuminemia B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Massive proteinuria D. Hypertension 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is not a neuromuscular complication of uraemia? A. Myelopathy B. Myopathy C. Encephalopathy D. Neuropathy 6 / 50 6. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypertension C. Anasarca D. Proteinuria 7 / 50 7. Which of the following is not a guanidino compound? A. Carnitine B. Creatinine C. Creatine D. Guanidino-succinic acid 8 / 50 8. Bosentan is recognised as a: A. Calcium sensitiser B. TNF-antagonist C. Serotonin uptake inhibitor D. Endothelin antagonist 9 / 50 9. In stage S chronic kidney disease (CKD), the GFR falls below: A. <15 B. <5 C. <20 D. < 10 10 / 50 10. All of the following may develop nephrolithiasis except: A. Proximal renal tubular acidosis B. Intestinal hyperoxaluria C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Primary hyperparathyroidism 11 / 50 11. ‘Complete’ anuria is found in: A. Diffuse cortical necrosis B. Acute renal failure C. Acute gastroenteritis D. Chronic Kidney disease 12 / 50 12. All are true in bladder carcinoma except: A. Predominantly affects males B. Cigarette smoking is a predisposing factor C. Haematuria is the commonest presentation D. Schistosoma haematobium produces transitional cell carcinoma 13 / 50 13. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Ethacrynic acid B. Spironolactone C. Bumetanide D. Hydrochlorthiazide 14 / 50 14. Acidic urine is produced in: A. UTI by Proteus B. Renal tubular acidosis C. Chronic renal failure D. High vegetarian diet 15 / 50 15. Minimal change nephropathy is better known as: A. All of the options B. Foot process disease C. Nil lesion D. Lipoid nephrosis 16 / 50 16. All of the following may be complicated by papillary necrosis except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Macroglobulinaemia D. Leprosy 17 / 50 17. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Interstitial nephritis C. Chronic nephritis D. Acute glomerulonephritis 18 / 50 18. Which is false regarding Goodpasture’s disease? A. Pulmonary haemorrhage B. Glomerulonephritis C. Low serum complement level D. Antibody to glomerular basement membrane antigen 19 / 50 19. Renal tubular acidosis may be due to: A. Streptozotocin B. Probenecid C. Methoxyflurane D. Captopril 20 / 50 20. Which is false regarding the adult polycystic disease of kidney? A. 30% have hepatic cysts B. 10% die from subarachnoid haemorrhage C. Autosomal recessive inheritance D. 75% have hypertension 21 / 50 21. All of the following may give rise to RPGN except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Goodpasture's disease C. SLE D. Wilson's disease 22 / 50 22. Urinary clearance of IgG compared with transferrin is found to be <10 in: A. Mesangial proliferative nephropathy B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Membranous nephropathy 23 / 50 23. Green urine is seen in: A. Pseudomonas infection B. Oxalate poisoning C. Alkaptonuria D. Black water fever 24 / 50 24. In a patient with diabetes mellitus having hypertension, serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dl and a plasma potassium of 5.8 mEq/L are best treated with which antihypertensive agent? A. Angiotensin II receptor blocker B. Amiloride C. Furosemide D. ACE inhibitor 25 / 50 25. WBC casts in urine are suggestive of all except: A. Interstitial nephritis B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Transplant rejection D. Pyelonephritis 26 / 50 26. All of the following are complications of chronic pyelonephritis except: A. Renal calculi B. Septicaemia C. Chronic renal failure D. Hypertension 27 / 50 27. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Chronic renal failure B. Sickle cell anemia C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Ochronosis 28 / 50 28. Nocturia is not found in: A. Salt-losing nephropathy B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) C. Vesicoureteral reflux D. Prostatism 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is usually unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy? A. Focal glomerulosclerosis B. Minimal lesion nephropathy C. Membranoproliferative nephropathy D. Membranous nephropathy 30 / 50 30. All are true regarding renal ischaemia except: A. Most marked in proximal tubules B. Patchy necrosis on biopsy C. Disruption of tubular basement membrane D. Vasculitis is an etiology 31 / 50 31. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Severe dehydration B. Massive proteinuria C. Diabetes mellitus D. Psychogenic polydipsia 32 / 50 32. Waxy casts are: A. Specific for acute glomerulonephritis B. Usually not found in nephritic syndrome C. Frequently seen in UTI D. Virtually not found in normal urine 33 / 50 33. Hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism is seen in: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Conn's syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus D. Congestive cardiac failure 34 / 50 34. Bartter syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Acetazolamide B. Loop Diuretics C. Thiazide Diuretics D. Potassium sparing diuretics 35 / 50 35. Normal urinary osmolality in mOsm/kg of water is approximately: A. 400-700 B. 200-350 C. 150-200 D. 200-350 36 / 50 36. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Weil's disease B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Cisplatin-induced D. Abruptio placentae 37 / 50 37. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Hypercalcemic nephropathy B. Gouty nephropathy C. Medullary cystic kidney D. Papillary necrosis 38 / 50 38. Chronic phenacetin intake may lead to: A. Cortical necrosis B. Papillary necrosis C. Tubular necrosi D. Glomerulosclerosis 39 / 50 39. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Concentrated B. Highly acidic C. Low in sodium D. Dilute and alkaline 40 / 50 40. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Ureterocolic anastomosis B. Fulminant hepatocellular failure C. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage D. Heart failure 41 / 50 41. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Malaria B. Pneumococcus C. Kala-azar D. Hepatitis B 42 / 50 42. Which is true in prerenal azotaemia? A. Urine Na+ concentration >20 mmol/L B. Urine creatinine to plasma creatinine ratio < 20 C. Urine specific gravity >1018 D. Plasma BUN to creatinine ratio < 10 43 / 50 43. Recurrent haematuria is not classically seen in: A. Sickle cell disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Haemophilia D. Berger's disease 44 / 50 44. Commonest histological variety of nephrotic syndrome in adult is: A. Membranous nephropathy B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Minimal change lesion D. Mesangial proliferative 45 / 50 45. Heavy proteinuria associated with haematuria is suggestive of: A. Renal artery thrombosis B. Interstitial nephritis C. Renal vein thrombosis D. Papillary necrosis 46 / 50 46. In IgA nephropathy, IgA is deposited in: A. Glomerular basement membrane B. Glomerular capillaries C. Renal papilla D. Glomerular mesangium 47 / 50 47. All of the following may give rise to Fanconi’s syndrome except: A. Cystinosis B. Galactosaemia C. Wilson's disease D. Haemochromatosis 48 / 50 48. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Response to corticosteroid B. Absence of oedema C. Hypertension D. Hematuria 49 / 50 49. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. Uric acid B. Na+ C. K+ D. Creatinine 50 / 50 50. ‘Saturnine gout’ develops as a result of: A. Mercury nephropathy B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Lead nephropathy D. Analgesic nephropathy LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology