NephrologyHome Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 36 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Spironolactone B. Ethacrynic acid C. Hydrochlorthiazide D. Bumetanide 2 / 50 2. ‘Saturnine gout’ develops as a result of: A. Mercury nephropathy B. Lead nephropathy C. Analgesic nephropathy D. Chronic pyelonephritis 3 / 50 3. Recurrent haematuria is not classically seen in: A. Haemophilia B. Sickle cell disease C. Berger's disease D. Diabetes mellitus 4 / 50 4. All of the following produce enuresis except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Spina bifida C. Bladder neck contracture D. Type I diabetes mellitus 5 / 50 5. Which of the renal stones is radiolucent? A. Triple phosphate B. Uric acid C. Cystine stone D. Calcium oxalate 6 / 50 6. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Highly acidic B. Dilute and alkaline C. Low in sodium D. Concentrated 7 / 50 7. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Thrombocytosis B. Hyperammonaemia C. Lenticonus D. Band keratopathy 8 / 50 8. Which is true in prerenal azotaemia? A. Urine specific gravity >1018 B. Urine Na+ concentration >20 mmol/L C. Urine creatinine to plasma creatinine ratio < 20 D. Plasma BUN to creatinine ratio < 10 9 / 50 9. Gitelman syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Thiazide diuretics B. Loop Diuretics C. Potassium sparing diuretics D. Acetazolamide 10 / 50 10. Metastatic calcification is seen in all of the following organs except: A. Brain B. Cornea C. Medium-sized blood vessels D. Myocardium 11 / 50 11. Which of the following is not added to urine by tubular secretion? A. H+ B. K+ C. Urea D. Creatinine 12 / 50 12. Renal tubular acidosis is not seen in: A. Sickle cell disease B. Galactosemia C. Leprosy D. Medullary sponge kidney 13 / 50 13. Complement C3 is characteristically low in all except: A. Focal glomerulosclerosis B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis C. SLE D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 14 / 50 14. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) B. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) D. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) 15 / 50 15. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Atelectasis B. Hypoglycaemia C. Peritonitis D. Hypoproteinaemia 16 / 50 16. Nephrotic syndrome may be associated with hypertension in all except: A. Focal glomerulosclerosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) D. SLE 17 / 50 17. Bartter syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Acetazolamide B. Loop Diuretics C. Potassium sparing diuretics D. Thiazide Diuretics 18 / 50 18. Hypernephroma is associated with all except: A. Polycythaemia B. Renal vein thrombosis C. Haematuria D. High incidence of hypertension 19 / 50 19. Which of the following is not a criterion for diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome? A. Hypertension B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Hypoalbuminemia D. Massive proteinuria 20 / 50 20. In microalbuminuria, the range of albuminuria is: A. 40-400 mg/ day B. 30-300 mg/ day C. 20-200 mg/day D. 10-100 mg/day 21 / 50 21. Chronic phenacetin intake may lead to: A. Glomerulosclerosis B. Tubular necrosi C. Papillary necrosis D. Cortical necrosis 22 / 50 22. Bosentan is recognised as a: A. Calcium sensitiser B. TNF-antagonist C. Endothelin antagonist D. Serotonin uptake inhibitor 23 / 50 23. Chronic interstitial nephritis may lead to all of the following except: A. Acidosis B. Hypertension C. Small kidneys D. Hypokalemia 24 / 50 24. Complications of AGN include all except: A. Respiratory tract infections B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Acute renal failure D. Hypertensive encephalopathy 25 / 50 25. Absolute indication for dialysis: A. Serum creatinine level >4 mg/ dl B. Serum urea level >200 mg/dl C. Serum K+ level >6 mEq/l D. Clinical evidence of pericarditis 26 / 50 26. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Hepatorenal syndrome C. Acute pancreatitis D. Systemic hypertension 27 / 50 27. Which of the following certainly diagnoses a renal lump? A. Bimanual palpability B. Ballottement C. Band of colonic resonance D. Slight movement with respiration 28 / 50 28. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Diabetes insipidus C. Hypercalcaemia D. Chronic renal failure 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not a neuromuscular complication of uraemia? A. Myelopathy B. Myopathy C. Encephalopathy D. Neuropathy 30 / 50 30. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hypertension B. Response to corticosteroid C. Hematuria D. Absence of oedema 31 / 50 31. IgA nephropathy commonly presents with: A. Acute renal failure B. Systemic hypertension C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Hematuria 32 / 50 32. Tubular proteinuria is assessed by measuring: A. Beta-2 microglobulin B. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein C. Albumin D. Transferrin 33 / 50 33. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Ureterocolic anastomosis B. Fulminant hepatocellular failure C. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage D. Heart failure 34 / 50 34. Balanoposthitis is not associated with: A. Phimosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Peyronie's disease D. Trichomoniasis 35 / 50 35. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Nail-patella syndrome B. Alport's syndrome C. Medullary sponge kidney D. Fabry's disease 36 / 50 36. In IgA nephropathy, IgA is deposited in: A. Glomerular capillaries B. Glomerular basement membrane C. Glomerular mesangium D. Renal papilla 37 / 50 37. Oliguria is: A. < 400 mL urine/24 h B. < 50 ml urine/24 h C. < 100 ml urine/24 h D. < 200 ml urine/24 h 38 / 50 38. Which is false regarding Goodpasture’s disease? A. Pulmonary haemorrhage B. Low serum complement level C. Glomerulonephritis D. Antibody to glomerular basement membrane antigen 39 / 50 39. All of the following may give rise to RPGN except: A. SLE B. Goodpasture's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Wilson's disease 40 / 50 40. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Pyaemia D. Mild fever 41 / 50 41. All are true in urethral syndrome except: A. Predominantly affects females B. Post-coital urethral congestion may be an etiology C. No bacteria are cultured from urine D. Antibiotics are always indicated 42 / 50 42. Fatty cast is often diagnostic of: A. Papillary necrosis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. End-stage renal disease 43 / 50 43. Each kidney contains approximately: A. Hundred thousand nephrons B. 1 million nephrons C. 10 million nephrons D. 10 thousand nephrons 44 / 50 44. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is not produced as a result of: A. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis B. Dexamethasone C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis 45 / 50 45. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly B. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl C. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well D. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia 46 / 50 46. All of the following may give rise to Fanconi’s syndrome except: A. Haemochromatosis B. Galactosaemia C. Cystinosis D. Wilson's disease 47 / 50 47. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. Uric acid B. Na+ C. K+ D. Creatinine 48 / 50 48. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Renal tuberculosis B. Sickle cell nephropathy C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Papillary necrosis 49 / 50 49. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Hyperkalaemia B. Anasarca C. Hypertension D. Proteinuria 50 / 50 50. Struvite stone is usually a result of urinary infection by: A. Proteus B. Pseudomonas C. Klebsiella D. 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