Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Normal urinary osmolality in mOsm/kg of water is approximately: A. 400-700 B. 150-200 C. 200-350 D. 200-350 2 / 50 2. Struvite stone is usually a result of urinary infection by: A. Klebsiella B. Pseudomonas C. Staphylococcus D. Proteus 3 / 50 3. All are true in acute renal failure (ARF) except: A. Raised Creatinine B. Raised Calcium C. Raised [H+] D. Raised K+ 4 / 50 4. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive 5 / 50 5. Isosthenuria is found in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Nail-patella syndrome C. Chronic renal failure D. Nephrolithiasis 6 / 50 6. Nocturia is not found in: A. Prostatism B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) C. Salt-losing nephropathy D. Vesicoureteral reflux 7 / 50 7. Renal tubular acidosis is not seen in: A. Galactosemia B. Leprosy C. Medullary sponge kidney D. Sickle cell disease 8 / 50 8. ‘Fruity odour’ in urine is found in: A. Urinary tract infection (UTI) B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Alkaptonuria D. Chyluria 9 / 50 9. Each kidney contains approximately: A. 10 million nephrons B. Hundred thousand nephrons C. 1 million nephrons D. 10 thousand nephrons 10 / 50 10. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is not produced as a result of: A. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis B. Dexamethasone C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis 11 / 50 11. Broad casts are found in: A. Urinary tract infection B. Chronic renal failure (CRF) C. Analgesic nephropathy D. Acute glomerulonephritis 12 / 50 12. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Increased degradation of erythropoietin B. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility C. Reduced red cell survival D. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia 13 / 50 13. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Acute renal failure B. Hepatorenal syndrome C. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome D. Hydronephrosis 14 / 50 14. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Malaria B. Pneumococcus C. Hepatitis B D. Kala-azar 15 / 50 15. Commonest histological variety of nephrotic syndrome in adult is: A. Minimal change lesion B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Membranous nephropathy D. Mesangial proliferative 16 / 50 16. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Chronic nephritis B. Interstitial nephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Acute glomerulonephritis 17 / 50 17. Hypernephroma is associated with all except: A. Renal vein thrombosis B. Polycythaemia C. Haematuria D. High incidence of hypertension 18 / 50 18. IgA nephropathy commonly presents with: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Systemic hypertension C. Hematuria D. Acute renal failure 19 / 50 19. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well B. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly C. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia D. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl 20 / 50 20. Which of the following commonly affects kidneys? A. Temporal arteritis B. Takayasu's arteritis C. Microscopic polyarteritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 21 / 50 21. Which of the following can decrease the antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors? A. Digoxin B. Furosemide C. NSAIDs D. Thiazides 22 / 50 22. All of the following drugs may produce nephrotic syndrome except: A. Troxidone B. alpha-interferon C. Colchicine D. Penicillamine 23 / 50 23. Complement C3 is characteristically low in all except: A. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis D. SLE 24 / 50 24. In stage S chronic kidney disease (CKD), the GFR falls below: A. <20 B. <5 C. <15 D. < 10 25 / 50 25. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. Accumulation of tryptophan B. Corneal dystrophy C. Premature coronary artery disease D. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase 26 / 50 26. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. Uric acid B. K+ C. Creatinine D. Na+ 27 / 50 27. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Alport's syndrome B. Medullary sponge kidney C. Nail-patella syndrome D. Fabry's disease 28 / 50 28. Oliguria is: A. < 200 ml urine/24 h B. < 50 ml urine/24 h C. < 400 mL urine/24 h D. < 100 ml urine/24 h 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not a recognised cause of microalbuminuria? A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Diabetes mellitus with early renal involvement C. Strenuous physical exercise D. Nephrotic syndrome 30 / 50 30. Bilaterally palpable kidneys are found in alt except: A. Acromegaly B. Polycystic kidney C. Wilms' tumor D. Amyloidosis 31 / 50 31. The commonest renal lesion in diabetic nephropathy is: A. Nodular glomerulosclerosis B. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis C. Arterionephrosclerosis D. Chronic interstitial nephritis 32 / 50 32. Which of the following certainly diagnoses a renal lump? A. Ballottement B. Band of colonic resonance C. Slight movement with respiration D. Bimanual palpability 33 / 50 33. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Pyaemia D. Mild fever 34 / 50 34. Wilms’ tumour is characterised by all except: A. Haematuria B. Commonest renal malignancy C. Pain abdomen D. Renal lump with smooth surface 35 / 50 35. Which is false regarding Berger’s disease? A. Raised Serum IgA B. Recurrent haematuria C. Reduced Complement level D. It may represent a form of Henoch-Schonlein purpura 36 / 50 36. Minimal change nephropathy is better known as: A. All of the options B. Lipoid nephrosis C. Foot process disease D. Nil lesion 37 / 50 37. Dehydration should be strictly avoided before performing IVP in: A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Multiple myeloma C. Acute myeloid leukemia D. Lymphoma 38 / 50 38. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Renal transplant rejection B. UTI by Proteus C. Cyclophosphamide administration D. Pregnancy 39 / 50 39. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Anasarca B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hypertension D. Proteinuria 40 / 50 40. All are true in urethral syndrome except: A. Antibiotics are always indicated B. Predominantly affects females C. Post-coital urethral congestion may be an etiology D. No bacteria are cultured from urine 41 / 50 41. Which of the following is usually unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy? A. Membranous nephropathy B. Membranoproliferative nephropathy C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 42 / 50 42. Serum add phosphatase level is increased in all except: A. Gaucher's disease B. Hairy cell leukaemia C. Prostatic carcinoma D. Amyloidosis 43 / 50 43. Diabetes mellitus complicated by nephrotic syndrome has all the following features except: A. Hypertension B. Initially GFR may be increased C. Retinopathy D. Increased palsma renin activity 44 / 50 44. All of the following produce enuresis except: A. Bladder neck contracture B. Spina bifida C. Multiple sclerosis D. Type I diabetes mellitus 45 / 50 45. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Bumetanide B. Ethacrynic acid C. Spironolactone D. Hydrochlorthiazide 46 / 50 46. Which of the renal stones is radiolucent? A. Uric acid B. Calcium oxalate C. Cystine stone D. Triple phosphate 47 / 50 47. After how many years of onset of type 1 or 2 diabetes, microalbuminuria appears? A. 15-20 years B. 1-5 years C. 10-15 years D. 5-10 years 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not added to urine by tubular secretion? A. Urea B. Creatinine C. K+ D. H+ 49 / 50 49. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Ureterocolic anastomosis B. Fulminant hepatocellular failure C. Heart failure D. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage 50 / 50 50. Balanoposthitis is not associated with: A. Trichomoniasis B. Peyronie's disease C. Phimosis D. 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