Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 36 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 2 / 50 2. Green urine is seen in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Black water fever C. Oxalate poisoning D. Pseudomonas infection 3 / 50 3. All of the following are associated with hypercalciuria except: A. Milk-alkali syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Progressive systemic sclerosis 4 / 50 4. All of the following are complications of chronic pyelonephritis except: A. Septicaemia B. Hypertension C. Chronic renal failure D. Renal calculi 5 / 50 5. Which of the following is false regarding Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein? A. An abnormal urinary protein B. Glycoprotein in nature C. Secreted by renal tubules D. Does not arise from plasma 6 / 50 6. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Abruptio placentae B. Weil's disease C. Cisplatin-induced D. Rhabdomyolysis 7 / 50 7. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Chronic renal failure C. Hypercalcaemia D. Diabetes insipidus 8 / 50 8. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Chronic renal failure B. Sickle cell anemia C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Ochronosis 9 / 50 9. Which is not true in orthostatic proteinuria? A. Indicates a serious underlying disease B. Maybe related to increased lumbar lordosis C. Seen in tall persons D. Primarily occurs in upright posture 10 / 50 10. All of the following may give rise to RPGN except: A. SLE B. Goodpasture's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Wilson's disease 11 / 50 11. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Gouty nephropathy B. Medullary cystic kidney C. Hypercalcemic nephropathy D. Papillary necrosis 12 / 50 12. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Low in sodium B. Dilute and alkaline C. Concentrated D. Highly acidic 13 / 50 13. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase B. Corneal dystrophy C. Premature coronary artery disease D. Accumulation of tryptophan 14 / 50 14. Haemoptysis associated with renal failure is found in all except: A. Goodpasture's disease B. Wegener's granulomatosis C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Henoch Schonlein purpura 15 / 50 15. In a patient with diabetes mellitus having hypertension, serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dl and a plasma potassium of 5.8 mEq/L are best treated with which antihypertensive agent? A. Amiloride B. ACE inhibitor C. Angiotensin II receptor blocker D. Furosemide 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not a criterion for diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome? A. Hypertension B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Massive proteinuria D. Hypoalbuminemia 17 / 50 17. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Medullary sponge kidney B. Alport's syndrome C. Fabry's disease D. Nail-patella syndrome 18 / 50 18. Which of the following commonly affects kidneys? A. Takayasu's arteritis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Temporal arteritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 19 / 50 19. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Proteinuria B. Anasarca C. Hypertension D. Hyperkalaemia 20 / 50 20. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is not produced as a result of: A. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis B. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Dexamethasone 21 / 50 21. In stage S chronic kidney disease (CKD), the GFR falls below: A. < 10 B. <15 C. <20 D. <5 22 / 50 22. Absolute contraindications of renal transplantation are all except: A. Previous sensitisation to donor tissue B. HIV infection C. Hepatitis C infection with chronic hepatitis D. Active malignancy 23 / 50 23. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Acute renal failure B. Hepatorenal syndrome C. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome D. Hydronephrosis 24 / 50 24. Which of the following is not a recognised cause of microalbuminuria? A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus with early renal involvement D. Strenuous physical exercise 25 / 50 25. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia B. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl C. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly D. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well 26 / 50 26. After how many years of onset of type 1 or 2 diabetes, microalbuminuria appears? A. 5-10 years B. 10-15 years C. 1-5 years D. 15-20 years 27 / 50 27. Anti-tubule basement membrane antibodies may be found in treatment with: A. Streptomycin B. Metoprolol C. Methicillin D. Spironolactone 28 / 50 28. AGN is not characterised by: A. Macroscopic haematuria B. Systemic hypertension C. Oliguria D. Massive proteinuria 29 / 50 29. Which of the following is not a cause of ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Renal tuberculosis B. Cystitis C. Papillary necrosis D. Interstitial nephritis 30 / 50 30. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Severe dehydration C. Psychogenic polydipsia D. Massive proteinuria 31 / 50 31. Normal urinary osmolality in mOsm/kg of water is approximately: A. 150-200 B. 200-350 C. 200-350 D. 400-700 32 / 50 32. The most beneficial drug in enuresis is: A. Trimipramine B. Haloperidol C. Fluoxetine D. Chlorpromazine 33 / 50 33. All are true regarding renal ischaemia except: A. Most marked in proximal tubules B. Disruption of tubular basement membrane C. Vasculitis is an etiology D. Patchy necrosis on biopsy 34 / 50 34. All are true in ‘dialysis dementia’ except: A. Myoclonus B. Related to aluminium toxicity C. Seizures D. Raised intracranial tension 35 / 50 35. The commonest cause of renal vein thrombosis in a child is: A. Dehydration B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome 36 / 50 36. Complement C3 is characteristically low in all except: A. SLE B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis C. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis D. Focal glomerulosclerosis 37 / 50 37. Recurrent haematuria is not classically seen in: A. Berger's disease B. Haemophilia C. Sickle cell disease D. Diabetes mellitus 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not added to urine by tubular secretion? A. Creatinine B. K+ C. Urea D. H+ 39 / 50 39. Oliguria is: A. < 400 mL urine/24 h B. < 200 ml urine/24 h C. < 50 ml urine/24 h D. < 100 ml urine/24 h 40 / 50 40. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Pneumococcus B. Kala-azar C. Hepatitis B D. Malaria 41 / 50 41. For a definitive diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux, the investigation of choice is: A. Radionuclide studies B. IVP C. Ultrasonography D. Micturating cystourethrography 42 / 50 42. In microalbuminuria, the range of albuminuria is: A. 20-200 mg/day B. 40-400 mg/ day C. 30-300 mg/ day D. 10-100 mg/day 43 / 50 43. Renal tubular acidosis may be due to: A. Streptozotocin B. Methoxyflurane C. Probenecid D. Captopril 44 / 50 44. Isosthenuria is found in: A. Chronic renal failure B. Nail-patella syndrome C. Nephrolithiasis D. Acute glomerulonephritis 45 / 50 45. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Chronic nephritis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Interstitial nephritis D. Acute glomerulonephritis 46 / 50 46. All of the following may be complicated by papillary necrosis except: A. Leprosy B. Macroglobulinaemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Diabetes mellitus 47 / 50 47. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Aortic stenosis C. Bilateral renal artery stenosis D. Diabetes mellitus 48 / 50 48. The most important diagnostic point in favour of CRF by USG is: A. Increase in size of kidney B. Renal pelvis full of urine C. Loss of corticomedullary differentiation D. Diminished ultrasonic density of cortex 49 / 50 49. Fatty cast is often diagnostic of: A. End-stage renal disease B. Papillary necrosis C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome 50 / 50 50. All are recognised causes of chronic renal failure (CRF) except: A. Snakebite B. Hypertension C. Obstructive uropathy D. Diabetes mellitus LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology
