Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. ‘Fruity odour’ in urine is found in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Urinary tract infection (UTI) C. Chyluria D. Diabetic ketoacidosis 2 / 50 2. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Malaria B. Hepatitis B C. Pneumococcus D. Kala-azar 3 / 50 3. Isosthenuria is found in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Nephrolithiasis C. Nail-patella syndrome D. Chronic renal failure 4 / 50 4. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Hydronephrosis B. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Acute renal failure 5 / 50 5. Which of the following certainly diagnoses a renal lump? A. Ballottement B. Bimanual palpability C. Slight movement with respiration D. Band of colonic resonance 6 / 50 6. The commonest renal lesion in diabetic nephropathy is: A. Arterionephrosclerosis B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis C. Chronic interstitial nephritis D. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis 7 / 50 7. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Hypercalcaemia B. Diabetes insipidus C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Chronic renal failure 8 / 50 8. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Renal transplant rejection B. Pregnancy C. UTI by Proteus D. Cyclophosphamide administration 9 / 50 9. Which is true in prerenal azotaemia? A. Plasma BUN to creatinine ratio < 10 B. Urine Na+ concentration >20 mmol/L C. Urine creatinine to plasma creatinine ratio < 20 D. Urine specific gravity >1018 10 / 50 10. All of the following are complications of chronic pyelonephritis except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Renal calculi C. Septicaemia D. Hypertension 11 / 50 11. Alimentary glycosuria may be associated with all except: A. Renal failure B. Normal individuals C. Partial gastrectomy D. Hyperthyroidism 12 / 50 12. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) D. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) 13 / 50 13. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Fulminant hepatocellular failure B. Heart failure C. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage D. Ureterocolic anastomosis 14 / 50 14. All are true in bladder carcinoma except: A. Cigarette smoking is a predisposing factor B. Haematuria is the commonest presentation C. Predominantly affects males D. Schistosoma haematobium produces transitional cell carcinoma 15 / 50 15. Metastatic calcification is seen in all of the following organs except: A. Medium-sized blood vessels B. Cornea C. Myocardium D. Brain 16 / 50 16. In stage S chronic kidney disease (CKD), the GFR falls below: A. <5 B. <15 C. <20 D. < 10 17 / 50 17. Cure of chronic prostatitis is done by: A. 3rd generation cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Total prostatectomy D. Macrolides 18 / 50 18. In pregnancy-induced hypertension, which of the following suggests pre-eclampsia? A. Uric acid >5.5 mg/ dl B. Diastolic BP >95 mm Hg C. Urea >45 mg/ dl D. Creatinine > 1.6 mg/ dl 19 / 50 19. Dehydration should be strictly avoided before performing IVP in: A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. Multiple myeloma D. Lymphoma 20 / 50 20. For a definitive diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux, the investigation of choice is: A. Radionuclide studies B. Ultrasonography C. Micturating cystourethrography D. IVP 21 / 50 21. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. X-linked recessive B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant 22 / 50 22. Which of the following commonly affects kidneys? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Microscopic polyarteritis C. Takayasu's arteritis D. Temporal arteritis 23 / 50 23. Hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism is seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Conn's syndrome C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Sickle cell anemia 24 / 50 24. Chronic interstitial nephritis may lead to all of the following except: A. Hypertension B. Acidosis C. Hypokalemia D. Small kidneys 25 / 50 25. Anti-tubule basement membrane antibodies may be found in treatment with: A. Streptomycin B. Spironolactone C. Metoprolol D. Methicillin 26 / 50 26. Which is false regarding Berger’s disease? A. Recurrent haematuria B. Raised Serum IgA C. Reduced Complement level D. It may represent a form of Henoch-Schonlein purpura 27 / 50 27. Complement C3 is characteristically low in all except: A. SLE B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is not a cause of ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Papillary necrosis C. Renal tuberculosis D. Cystitis 29 / 50 29. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Chronic renal failure B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Ochronosis D. Sickle cell anemia 30 / 50 30. Which of the following is not a guanidino compound? A. Creatine B. Guanidino-succinic acid C. Carnitine D. Creatinine 31 / 50 31. Hyperuricaemia is not a feature of: A. Fanconi's syndrome B. Active psoriasis C. Nicotinic acid therapy D. Lactic acidosis 32 / 50 32. Bilaterally palpable kidneys are found in alt except: A. Polycystic kidney B. Acromegaly C. Amyloidosis D. Wilms' tumor 33 / 50 33. Absolute indication for dialysis: A. Serum K+ level >6 mEq/l B. Serum creatinine level >4 mg/ dl C. Clinical evidence of pericarditis D. Serum urea level >200 mg/dl 34 / 50 34. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Hypoproteinaemia B. Atelectasis C. Peritonitis D. Hypoglycaemia 35 / 50 35. Nephrotic syndrome may be associated with hypertension in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Diabetes mellitus D. SLE 36 / 50 36. Hypernephroma is associated with all except: A. Renal vein thrombosis B. Polycythaemia C. High incidence of hypertension D. Haematuria 37 / 50 37. After how many years of onset of type 1 or 2 diabetes, microalbuminuria appears? A. 5-10 years B. 15-20 years C. 10-15 years D. 1-5 years 38 / 50 38. AGN is not characterised by: A. Massive proteinuria B. Systemic hypertension C. Oliguria D. Macroscopic haematuria 39 / 50 39. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Acute pancreatitis C. Systemic hypertension D. Hepatorenal syndrome 40 / 50 40. Bosentan is recognised as a: A. Endothelin antagonist B. Calcium sensitiser C. Serotonin uptake inhibitor D. TNF-antagonist 41 / 50 41. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Hypercalcemic nephropathy B. Gouty nephropathy C. Medullary cystic kidney D. Papillary necrosis 42 / 50 42. ‘Saturnine gout’ develops as a result of: A. Chronic pyelonephritis B. Mercury nephropathy C. Analgesic nephropathy D. Lead nephropathy 43 / 50 43. Renal biopsy is contraindicated in all except: A. Big renal cyst B. Serum creatinine >0 mg/dL C. Severe uncontrolled hypertension D. Membranous nephropathy 44 / 50 44. Which of the following is not a criterion for diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome? A. Hypoalbuminemia B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Massive proteinuria D. Hypertension 45 / 50 45. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Spironolactone B. Ethacrynic acid C. Bumetanide D. Hydrochlorthiazide 46 / 50 46. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Mild fever B. Pyaemia C. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) D. Acute rheumatic fever 47 / 50 47. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Lenticonus B. Thrombocytosis C. Hyperammonaemia D. Band keratopathy 48 / 50 48. Which of the following is not added to urine by tubular secretion? A. Urea B. K+ C. H+ D. Creatinine 49 / 50 49. Which is false regarding the adult polycystic disease of kidney? A. 75% have hypertension B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. 10% die from subarachnoid haemorrhage D. 30% have hepatic cysts 50 / 50 50. Fanconi syndrome may arise from all except: A. Galactosemia B. Haemochromatosis C. Cystinosis D. 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