Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Alport’s syndrome is associated with all except: A. Recurrent haematuria B. Interstitial foam cells C. Autosomal recessive inheritance D. Sensorineural deafness 2 / 50 2. Anti-tubule basement membrane antibodies may be found in treatment with: A. Metoprolol B. Streptomycin C. Methicillin D. Spironolactone 3 / 50 3. All of the following may be complicated by papillary necrosis except: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Macroglobulinaemia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Leprosy 4 / 50 4. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Systemic hypertension C. Acute pancreatitis D. Hepatorenal syndrome 5 / 50 5. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. UTI by Proteus B. Renal transplant rejection C. Pregnancy D. Cyclophosphamide administration 6 / 50 6. Which is true in prerenal azotaemia? A. Urine specific gravity >1018 B. Urine creatinine to plasma creatinine ratio < 20 C. Urine Na+ concentration >20 mmol/L D. Plasma BUN to creatinine ratio < 10 7 / 50 7. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Hypercalcaemia C. Diabetes insipidus D. Chronic renal failure 8 / 50 8. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Nail-patella syndrome B. Medullary sponge kidney C. Fabry's disease D. Alport's syndrome 9 / 50 9. All of the following are associated with hypercalciuria except: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Milk-alkali syndrome D. Hyperparathyroidism 10 / 50 10. The commonest presentation of renal cell carcinoma is: A. Distant metastasis B. Haematuria C. Palpable abdominal mass D. Flank pain 11 / 50 11. Absolute indication for dialysis: A. Serum urea level >200 mg/dl B. Serum creatinine level >4 mg/ dl C. Clinical evidence of pericarditis D. Serum K+ level >6 mEq/l 12 / 50 12. Broad casts are found in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Analgesic nephropathy C. Chronic renal failure (CRF) D. Urinary tract infection 13 / 50 13. Fatty cast is often diagnostic of: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. End-stage renal disease D. Papillary necrosis 14 / 50 14. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) B. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) D. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not added to urine by tubular secretion? A. H+ B. Urea C. K+ D. Creatinine 16 / 50 16. Hyperuricaemia is not a feature of: A. Lactic acidosis B. Nicotinic acid therapy C. Fanconi's syndrome D. Active psoriasis 17 / 50 17. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Pyaemia B. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) C. Mild fever D. Acute rheumatic fever 18 / 50 18. In stage S chronic kidney disease (CKD), the GFR falls below: A. <15 B. <20 C. <5 D. < 10 19 / 50 19. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Ochronosis B. Chronic renal failure C. Sickle cell anemia D. Hypoparathyroidism 20 / 50 20. Commonest histological variety of nephrotic syndrome in adult is: A. Minimal change lesion B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Membranous nephropathy D. Mesangial proliferative 21 / 50 21. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well B. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl C. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia D. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly 22 / 50 22. Which of the following certainly diagnoses a renal lump? A. Ballottement B. Bimanual palpability C. Slight movement with respiration D. Band of colonic resonance 23 / 50 23. Which is not true in orthostatic proteinuria? A. Primarily occurs in upright posture B. Seen in tall persons C. Maybe related to increased lumbar lordosis D. Indicates a serious underlying disease 24 / 50 24. The commonest renal lesion in diabetic nephropathy is: A. Arterionephrosclerosis B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis C. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis D. Chronic interstitial nephritis 25 / 50 25. Each kidney contains approximately: A. 1 million nephrons B. 10 thousand nephrons C. Hundred thousand nephrons D. 10 million nephrons 26 / 50 26. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hematuria B. Hypertension C. Response to corticosteroid D. Absence of oedema 27 / 50 27. All are recognised causes of chronic renal failure (CRF) except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Snakebite C. Obstructive uropathy D. Hypertension 28 / 50 28. Which of the following is usually unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy? A. Minimal lesion nephropathy B. Membranoproliferative nephropathy C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Membranous nephropathy 29 / 50 29. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Hypertension B. Anasarca C. Proteinuria D. Hyperkalaemia 30 / 50 30. Radiolucent nephrolithiasis is found in stones composed of: A. Uric acid B. Cystine C. Magnesium ammonium phosphate D. Calcium oxalate 31 / 50 31. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Interstitial nephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Chronic nephritis 32 / 50 32. Waxy casts are: A. Frequently seen in UTI B. Virtually not found in normal urine C. Usually not found in nephritic syndrome D. Specific for acute glomerulonephritis 33 / 50 33. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Band keratopathy B. Thrombocytosis C. Lenticonus D. Hyperammonaemia 34 / 50 34. Metastatic calcification is seen in all of the following organs except: A. Cornea B. Myocardium C. Medium-sized blood vessels D. Brain 35 / 50 35. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility B. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia C. Reduced red cell survival D. Increased degradation of erythropoietin 36 / 50 36. Tubular proteinuria is assessed by measuring: A. Transferrin B. Beta-2 microglobulin C. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein D. Albumin 37 / 50 37. All of the following produce enuresis except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Bladder neck contracture C. Spina bifida D. Type I diabetes mellitus 38 / 50 38. Which of the following is not a recognised cause of microalbuminuria? A. Strenuous physical exercise B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Diabetes mellitus with early renal involvement D. Nephrotic syndrome 39 / 50 39. Bosentan is recognised as a: A. Serotonin uptake inhibitor B. Calcium sensitiser C. Endothelin antagonist D. TNF-antagonist 40 / 50 40. WBC casts in urine are suggestive of all except: A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis B. Interstitial nephritis C. Pyelonephritis D. Transplant rejection 41 / 50 41. All are true regarding renal ischaemia except: A. Vasculitis is an etiology B. Patchy necrosis on biopsy C. Most marked in proximal tubules D. Disruption of tubular basement membrane 42 / 50 42. ‘Saturnine gout’ develops as a result of: A. Mercury nephropathy B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Analgesic nephropathy D. Lead nephropathy 43 / 50 43. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Atelectasis B. Hypoproteinaemia C. Peritonitis D. Hypoglycaemia 44 / 50 44. Balanoposthitis is not associated with: A. Peyronie's disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Phimosis D. Trichomoniasis 45 / 50 45. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Pneumococcus B. Hepatitis B C. Malaria D. Kala-azar 46 / 50 46. The most beneficial drug in enuresis is: A. Fluoxetine B. Chlorpromazine C. Trimipramine D. Haloperidol 47 / 50 47. Wilms’ tumour is characterised by all except: A. Pain abdomen B. Commonest renal malignancy C. Haematuria D. Renal lump with smooth surface 48 / 50 48. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Concentrated B. Highly acidic C. Dilute and alkaline D. Low in sodium 49 / 50 49. Renal biopsy is contraindicated in all except: A. Big renal cyst B. Severe uncontrolled hypertension C. Membranous nephropathy D. Serum creatinine >0 mg/dL 50 / 50 50. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Ethacrynic acid B. Bumetanide C. Spironolactone D. Hydrochlorthiazide LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology
