Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Dehydration should be strictly avoided before performing IVP in: A. Acute myeloid leukemia B. Multiple myeloma C. Lymphoma D. Renal cell carcinoma 2 / 50 2. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hypertension B. Hematuria C. Absence of oedema D. Response to corticosteroid 3 / 50 3. All are true in acute renal failure (ARF) except: A. Raised [H+] B. Raised K+ C. Raised Calcium D. Raised Creatinine 4 / 50 4. Nocturia is not found in: A. Vesicoureteral reflux B. Salt-losing nephropathy C. Prostatism D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) 5 / 50 5. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Chronic renal failure C. Ochronosis D. Hypoparathyroidism 6 / 50 6. After how many years of onset of type 1 or 2 diabetes, microalbuminuria appears? A. 5-10 years B. 1-5 years C. 10-15 years D. 15-20 years 7 / 50 7. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. UTI by Proteus B. Renal transplant rejection C. Pregnancy D. Cyclophosphamide administration 8 / 50 8. The commonest presentation of renal cell carcinoma is: A. Haematuria B. Distant metastasis C. Flank pain D. Palpable abdominal mass 9 / 50 9. Which of the following certainly diagnoses a renal lump? A. Band of colonic resonance B. Bimanual palpability C. Ballottement D. Slight movement with respiration 10 / 50 10. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Malaria B. Kala-azar C. Pneumococcus D. Hepatitis B 11 / 50 11. Subendothelial dense deposits are found by electron microscopy in: A. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis B. SLE C. Membranous glomerulopathy D. Fabry's disease 12 / 50 12. Which is false regarding Berger’s disease? A. Raised Serum IgA B. It may represent a form of Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Reduced Complement level D. Recurrent haematuria 13 / 50 13. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. X-linked recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant 14 / 50 14. Which of the following is not a criterion for diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome? A. Hypertension B. Hyperlipidaemia C. Hypoalbuminemia D. Massive proteinuria 15 / 50 15. All of the following may be complicated by papillary necrosis except: A. Macroglobulinaemia B. Leprosy C. Sickle cell anemia D. Diabetes mellitus 16 / 50 16. The most beneficial drug in enuresis is: A. Trimipramine B. Chlorpromazine C. Fluoxetine D. Haloperidol 17 / 50 17. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Sickle cell nephropathy C. Renal tuberculosis D. Papillary necrosis 18 / 50 18. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. Premature coronary artery disease B. Accumulation of tryptophan C. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase D. Corneal dystrophy 19 / 50 19. All of the following produce enuresis except: A. Type I diabetes mellitus B. Bladder neck contracture C. Spina bifida D. Multiple sclerosis 20 / 50 20. Positive Rothera’s test in urine is found in all except: A. Ketone bodies in urine B. Treatment with captopril C. Homocystinuria D. Tyrosinosis 21 / 50 21. Bartter’s syndrome should not have: A. Normotension B. Elevated plasma renin activity C. Acidosis D. Hypokalemia 22 / 50 22. Which of the following is usually unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy? A. Membranoproliferative nephropathy B. Membranous nephropathy C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 23 / 50 23. Complications of AGN include all except: A. Respiratory tract infections B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Hypertensive encephalopathy D. Acute renal failure 24 / 50 24. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) C. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) D. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) 25 / 50 25. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly B. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia C. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well D. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl 26 / 50 26. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Hydronephrosis B. Hepatorenal syndrome C. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome D. Acute renal failure 27 / 50 27. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus B. Administration of mannitol C. High protein feeding D. Radiocontrast media 28 / 50 28. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Cisplatin-induced C. Weil's disease D. Abruptio placentae 29 / 50 29. Hypernephroma is associated with all except: A. Polycythaemia B. Renal vein thrombosis C. Haematuria D. High incidence of hypertension 30 / 50 30. Nephrotic syndrome may be associated with hypertension in all except: A. SLE B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 31 / 50 31. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Severe dehydration B. Massive proteinuria C. Psychogenic polydipsia D. Diabetes mellitus 32 / 50 32. Which of the following is not a typical association in adult polycystic kidney disease? A. Berry aneurysms B. Nephrolithiasis C. VSD D. Polycythaemia 33 / 50 33. Green urine is seen in: A. Oxalate poisoning B. Alkaptonuria C. Pseudomonas infection D. Black water fever 34 / 50 34. Tubular proteinuria is assessed by measuring: A. Transferrin B. Beta-2 microglobulin C. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein D. Albumin 35 / 50 35. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Lenticonus B. Hyperammonaemia C. Band keratopathy D. Thrombocytosis 36 / 50 36. Radiolucent nephrolithiasis is found in stones composed of: A. Uric acid B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate C. Calcium oxalate D. Cystine 37 / 50 37. Which of the following commonly affects kidneys? A. Takayasu's arteritis B. Temporal arteritis C. Microscopic polyarteritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 38 / 50 38. WBC casts in urine are suggestive of all except: A. Pyelonephritis B. Transplant rejection C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis D. Interstitial nephritis 39 / 50 39. AGN is not characterised by: A. Macroscopic haematuria B. Massive proteinuria C. Oliguria D. Systemic hypertension 40 / 50 40. Minimal change nephropathy is better known as: A. All of the options B. Lipoid nephrosis C. Foot process disease D. Nil lesion 41 / 50 41. For a definitive diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux, the investigation of choice is: A. Ultrasonography B. Radionuclide studies C. IVP D. Micturating cystourethrography 42 / 50 42. Renal biopsy is contraindicated in all except: A. Severe uncontrolled hypertension B. Big renal cyst C. Membranous nephropathy D. Serum creatinine >0 mg/dL 43 / 50 43. Hyperuricaemia is not a feature of: A. Fanconi's syndrome B. Nicotinic acid therapy C. Active psoriasis D. Lactic acidosis 44 / 50 44. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Papillary necrosis B. Gouty nephropathy C. Hypercalcemic nephropathy D. Medullary cystic kidney 45 / 50 45. All are true in bladder carcinoma except: A. Predominantly affects males B. Haematuria is the commonest presentation C. Cigarette smoking is a predisposing factor D. Schistosoma haematobium produces transitional cell carcinoma 46 / 50 46. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. Uric acid B. K+ C. Creatinine D. Na+ 47 / 50 47. In pregnancy-induced hypertension, which of the following suggests pre-eclampsia? A. Diastolic BP >95 mm Hg B. Uric acid >5.5 mg/ dl C. Urea >45 mg/ dl D. Creatinine > 1.6 mg/ dl 48 / 50 48. All of the following are associated with hypercalciuria except: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Milk-alkali syndrome C. Progressive systemic sclerosis D. Sarcoidosis 49 / 50 49. Absolute contraindications of renal transplantation are all except: A. Hepatitis C infection with chronic hepatitis B. Previous sensitisation to donor tissue C. Active malignancy D. HIV infection 50 / 50 50. Each kidney contains approximately: A. 10 million nephrons B. Hundred thousand nephrons C. 10 thousand nephrons D. 1 million nephrons LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology
