Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Urinary clearance of IgG compared with transferrin is found to be <10 in: A. Mesangial proliferative nephropathy B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Membranous nephropathy 2 / 50 2. Which of the renal stones is radiolucent? A. Triple phosphate B. Uric acid C. Cystine stone D. Calcium oxalate 3 / 50 3. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Hypertension B. Hyperkalaemia C. Anasarca D. Proteinuria 4 / 50 4. Oliguria is: A. < 100 ml urine/24 h B. < 400 mL urine/24 h C. < 200 ml urine/24 h D. < 50 ml urine/24 h 5 / 50 5. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive 6 / 50 6. Which is false regarding Berger’s disease? A. Recurrent haematuria B. Reduced Complement level C. Raised Serum IgA D. It may represent a form of Henoch-Schonlein purpura 7 / 50 7. Which of the following commonly affects kidneys? A. Temporal arteritis B. Takayasu's arteritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Microscopic polyarteritis 8 / 50 8. Complement C3 is characteristically low in all except: A. SLE B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 9 / 50 9. Which is true in prerenal azotaemia? A. Plasma BUN to creatinine ratio < 10 B. Urine specific gravity >1018 C. Urine Na+ concentration >20 mmol/L D. Urine creatinine to plasma creatinine ratio < 20 10 / 50 10. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase B. Accumulation of tryptophan C. Corneal dystrophy D. Premature coronary artery disease 11 / 50 11. Minimal change nephropathy is better known as: A. Lipoid nephrosis B. Foot process disease C. All of the options D. Nil lesion 12 / 50 12. Which is false regarding Goodpasture’s disease? A. Antibody to glomerular basement membrane antigen B. Low serum complement level C. Pulmonary haemorrhage D. Glomerulonephritis 13 / 50 13. Fatty cast is often diagnostic of: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Papillary necrosis D. End-stage renal disease 14 / 50 14. Bartter’s syndrome should not have: A. Hypokalemia B. Elevated plasma renin activity C. Acidosis D. Normotension 15 / 50 15. Which of the following is not a recognised cause of microalbuminuria? A. Strenuous physical exercise B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus with early renal involvement D. Congestive cardiac failure 16 / 50 16. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Hyperammonaemia B. Band keratopathy C. Lenticonus D. Thrombocytosis 17 / 50 17. Heavy proteinuria associated with haematuria is suggestive of: A. Interstitial nephritis B. Papillary necrosis C. Renal vein thrombosis D. Renal artery thrombosis 18 / 50 18. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Malaria B. Pneumococcus C. Hepatitis B D. Kala-azar 19 / 50 19. Metastatic calcification is seen in all of the following organs except: A. Brain B. Medium-sized blood vessels C. Cornea D. Myocardium 20 / 50 20. Waxy casts are: A. Frequently seen in UTI B. Usually not found in nephritic syndrome C. Specific for acute glomerulonephritis D. Virtually not found in normal urine 21 / 50 21. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility B. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia C. Reduced red cell survival D. Increased degradation of erythropoietin 22 / 50 22. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Papillary necrosis B. Hypercalcemic nephropathy C. Medullary cystic kidney D. Gouty nephropathy 23 / 50 23. Green urine is seen in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Oxalate poisoning C. Pseudomonas infection D. Black water fever 24 / 50 24. Renal tubular acidosis is not seen in: A. Sickle cell disease B. Medullary sponge kidney C. Galactosemia D. Leprosy 25 / 50 25. All are true in ‘dialysis dementia’ except: A. Related to aluminium toxicity B. Seizures C. Raised intracranial tension D. Myoclonus 26 / 50 26. Which of the following metal is not responsible for the development of nephrotic syndrome? A. Lead B. Mercury C. Gold D. Iron 27 / 50 27. ‘Fruity odour’ in urine is found in: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Urinary tract infection (UTI) C. Chyluria D. Alkaptonuria 28 / 50 28. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Chronic renal failure C. Diabetes insipidus D. Hypercalcaemia 29 / 50 29. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome B. Hepatorenal syndrome C. Acute renal failure D. Hydronephrosis 30 / 50 30. All of the following may develop nephrolithiasis except: A. Intestinal hyperoxaluria B. Proximal renal tubular acidosis C. Hypervitaminosis D D. Primary hyperparathyroidism 31 / 50 31. The medullary cystic disease is not associated with: A. Hyponatraemia B. Stunted growth C. Polyuria D. Hypochloraemia 32 / 50 32. ‘Complete’ anuria is found in: A. Diffuse cortical necrosis B. Acute renal failure C. Acute gastroenteritis D. Chronic Kidney disease 33 / 50 33. In microalbuminuria, the range of albuminuria is: A. 20-200 mg/day B. 40-400 mg/ day C. 10-100 mg/day D. 30-300 mg/ day 34 / 50 34. Nocturia is not found in: A. Salt-losing nephropathy B. Prostatism C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) D. Vesicoureteral reflux 35 / 50 35. ‘Saturnine gout’ develops as a result of: A. Analgesic nephropathy B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Mercury nephropathy D. Lead nephropathy 36 / 50 36. Which of the following does not produce red urine? A. Microscopic haematuria B. Acute intermittent porphyria C. Myoglobinuria D. Haemoglobinuria 37 / 50 37. Wilms’ tumour is characterised by all except: A. Pain abdomen B. Haematuria C. Renal lump with smooth surface D. Commonest renal malignancy 38 / 50 38. Balanoposthitis is not associated with: A. Trichomoniasis B. Peyronie's disease C. Diabetes mellitus D. Phimosis 39 / 50 39. The commonest organism producing acute pyelonephritis is: A. Staphylococcus B. Streptococcus C. E. coli D. Klebsiella 40 / 50 40. After how many years of onset of type 1 or 2 diabetes, microalbuminuria appears? A. 1-5 years B. 10-15 years C. 15-20 years D. 5-10 years 41 / 50 41. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Chronic renal failure B. Ochronosis C. Sickle cell anemia D. Hypoparathyroidism 42 / 50 42. For a definitive diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux, the investigation of choice is: A. Radionuclide studies B. Ultrasonography C. Micturating cystourethrography D. IVP 43 / 50 43. In pregnancy-induced hypertension, which of the following suggests pre-eclampsia? A. Uric acid >5.5 mg/ dl B. Diastolic BP >95 mm Hg C. Urea >45 mg/ dl D. Creatinine > 1.6 mg/ dl 44 / 50 44. Cure of chronic prostatitis is done by: A. 3rd generation cephalosporins B. Macrolides C. Quinolones D. Total prostatectomy 45 / 50 45. Which of the following is false in nephritic-nephrotic syndrome? A. SLE is a common aetiology B. Systemic hypertension is rare C. Majority of patients terminate into end-stage renal disease D. Moderate haematuria and moderate proteinuria are common 46 / 50 46. All of the following may give rise to Fanconi’s syndrome except: A. Galactosaemia B. Cystinosis C. Wilson's disease D. Haemochromatosis 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not a typical association in adult polycystic kidney disease? A. Berry aneurysms B. VSD C. Nephrolithiasis D. Polycythaemia 48 / 50 48. Serum add phosphatase level is increased in all except: A. Prostatic carcinoma B. Hairy cell leukaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Amyloidosis 49 / 50 49. Absolute indication for dialysis: A. Serum urea level >200 mg/dl B. Serum creatinine level >4 mg/ dl C. Clinical evidence of pericarditis D. Serum K+ level >6 mEq/l 50 / 50 50. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) B. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) C. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology
