Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. The commonest presentation of renal cell carcinoma is: A. Distant metastasis B. Palpable abdominal mass C. Haematuria D. Flank pain 2 / 50 2. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal dominant 3 / 50 3. Hyperuricaemia is not a feature of: A. Fanconi's syndrome B. Active psoriasis C. Nicotinic acid therapy D. Lactic acidosis 4 / 50 4. Bartter’s syndrome should not have: A. Acidosis B. Elevated plasma renin activity C. Hypokalemia D. Normotension 5 / 50 5. Normal urinary osmolality in mOsm/kg of water is approximately: A. 400-700 B. 150-200 C. 200-350 D. 200-350 6 / 50 6. After how many years of onset of type 1 or 2 diabetes, microalbuminuria appears? A. 5-10 years B. 1-5 years C. 10-15 years D. 15-20 years 7 / 50 7. All are true in acute renal failure (ARF) except: A. Raised [H+] B. Raised Calcium C. Raised Creatinine D. Raised K+ 8 / 50 8. The most beneficial drug in enuresis is: A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Fluoxetine D. Trimipramine 9 / 50 9. Chronic interstitial nephritis may lead to all of the following except: A. Acidosis B. Small kidneys C. Hypertension D. Hypokalemia 10 / 50 10. The commonest cause of renal vein thrombosis in a child is: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Dehydration C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 11 / 50 11. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Severe dehydration C. Massive proteinuria D. Psychogenic polydipsia 12 / 50 12. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Chronic nephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome 13 / 50 13. In microalbuminuria, the range of albuminuria is: A. 30-300 mg/ day B. 20-200 mg/day C. 10-100 mg/day D. 40-400 mg/ day 14 / 50 14. Bosentan is recognised as a: A. Calcium sensitiser B. Serotonin uptake inhibitor C. TNF-antagonist D. Endothelin antagonist 15 / 50 15. Broad casts are found in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Analgesic nephropathy C. Urinary tract infection D. Chronic renal failure (CRF) 16 / 50 16. Which of the renal stones is radiolucent? A. Calcium oxalate B. Cystine stone C. Uric acid D. Triple phosphate 17 / 50 17. All of the following are complications of chronic pyelonephritis except: A. Renal calculi B. Septicaemia C. Hypertension D. Chronic renal failure 18 / 50 18. Which is false regarding the adult polycystic disease of kidney? A. 10% die from subarachnoid haemorrhage B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. 30% have hepatic cysts D. 75% have hypertension 19 / 50 19. Nocturia is not found in: A. Vesicoureteral reflux B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) C. Prostatism D. Salt-losing nephropathy 20 / 50 20. All of the following can present as nephritic-nephrotic syndrome except: A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura B. Diabetes mellitus C. SLE D. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis 21 / 50 21. Each kidney contains approximately: A. 10 million nephrons B. 1 million nephrons C. 10 thousand nephrons D. Hundred thousand nephrons 22 / 50 22. All are true in urethral syndrome except: A. No bacteria are cultured from urine B. Predominantly affects females C. Post-coital urethral congestion may be an etiology D. Antibiotics are always indicated 23 / 50 23. Which of the following can decrease the antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors? A. Thiazides B. NSAIDs C. Digoxin D. Furosemide 24 / 50 24. Subendothelial dense deposits are found by electron microscopy in: A. SLE B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. Membranous glomerulopathy D. Fabry's disease 25 / 50 25. The medullary cystic disease is not associated with: A. Stunted growth B. Hypochloraemia C. Hyponatraemia D. Polyuria 26 / 50 26. Which is false regarding Goodpasture’s disease? A. Pulmonary haemorrhage B. Antibody to glomerular basement membrane antigen C. Low serum complement level D. Glomerulonephritis 27 / 50 27. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Bumetanide B. Ethacrynic acid C. Hydrochlorthiazide D. Spironolactone 28 / 50 28. All of the following may develop nephrolithiasis except: A. Proximal renal tubular acidosis B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Intestinal hyperoxaluria D. Hypervitaminosis D 29 / 50 29. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Pregnancy B. UTI by Proteus C. Cyclophosphamide administration D. Renal transplant rejection 30 / 50 30. A child with rickets, nephrocalcinosis, hyperchloraemic acidosis and alkaline urine is suffering from: A. Proximal renal tubular acidosis B. Vitamin D sensitive rickets C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Distal renal tubular acidosis 31 / 50 31. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Dilute and alkaline B. Concentrated C. Low in sodium D. Highly acidic 32 / 50 32. Recurrent haematuria is not classically seen in: A. Haemophilia B. Sickle cell disease C. Diabetes mellitus D. Berger's disease 33 / 50 33. Heavy proteinuria associated with haematuria is suggestive of: A. Renal artery thrombosis B. Renal vein thrombosis C. Papillary necrosis D. Interstitial nephritis 34 / 50 34. Struvite stone is usually a result of urinary infection by: A. Proteus B. Pseudomonas C. Staphylococcus D. Klebsiella 35 / 50 35. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Renal tuberculosis B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Sickle cell nephropathy D. Papillary necrosis 36 / 50 36. Hypernephroma is associated with all except: A. Haematuria B. High incidence of hypertension C. Polycythaemia D. Renal vein thrombosis 37 / 50 37. Which of the following is usually unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy? A. Membranoproliferative nephropathy B. Membranous nephropathy C. Focal glomerulosclerosis D. Minimal lesion nephropathy 38 / 50 38. Alimentary glycosuria may be associated with all except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Renal failure C. Partial gastrectomy D. Normal individuals 39 / 50 39. AGN is not characterised by: A. Macroscopic haematuria B. Massive proteinuria C. Oliguria D. Systemic hypertension 40 / 50 40. Dehydration should be strictly avoided before performing IVP in: A. Acute myeloid leukemia B. Lymphoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Renal cell carcinoma 41 / 50 41. Fatty cast is often diagnostic of: A. End-stage renal disease B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Papillary necrosis D. Acute glomerulonephritis 42 / 50 42. WBC casts in urine are suggestive of all except: A. Transplant rejection B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Pyelonephritis D. Interstitial nephritis 43 / 50 43. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. High protein feeding B. Radiocontrast media C. Administration of mannitol D. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus 44 / 50 44. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is not produced as a result of: A. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis D. Dexamethasone 45 / 50 45. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility B. Increased degradation of erythropoietin C. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia D. Reduced red cell survival 46 / 50 46. Which is true in prerenal azotaemia? A. Urine specific gravity >1018 B. Urine creatinine to plasma creatinine ratio < 20 C. Plasma BUN to creatinine ratio < 10 D. Urine Na+ concentration >20 mmol/L 47 / 50 47. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Kala-azar B. Pneumococcus C. Hepatitis B D. Malaria 48 / 50 48. Complement C3 is characteristically low in all except: A. SLE B. Focal glomerulosclerosis C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 49 / 50 49. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all except: A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Aortic stenosis D. Pregnancy 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not a guanidino compound? A. Creatinine B. Creatine C. Carnitine D. Guanidino-succinic acid LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology