Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Papillary necrosis B. Medullary cystic kidney C. Gouty nephropathy D. Hypercalcemic nephropathy 2 / 50 2. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Nail-patella syndrome B. Alport's syndrome C. Fabry's disease D. Medullary sponge kidney 3 / 50 3. Which of the following is false regarding Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein? A. Secreted by renal tubules B. Glycoprotein in nature C. Does not arise from plasma D. An abnormal urinary protein 4 / 50 4. All of the following produce enuresis except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Spina bifida C. Type I diabetes mellitus D. Bladder neck contracture 5 / 50 5. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia B. Increased degradation of erythropoietin C. Reduced red cell survival D. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility 6 / 50 6. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Hepatorenal syndrome B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Acute pancreatitis D. Systemic hypertension 7 / 50 7. All of the following are associated with hypercalciuria except: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Milk-alkali syndrome C. Sarcoidosis D. Hyperparathyroidism 8 / 50 8. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Concentrated B. Dilute and alkaline C. Low in sodium D. Highly acidic 9 / 50 9. Cure of chronic prostatitis is done by: A. 3rd generation cephalosporins B. Total prostatectomy C. Quinolones D. Macrolides 10 / 50 10. Bartter’s syndrome should not have: A. Hypokalemia B. Acidosis C. Normotension D. Elevated plasma renin activity 11 / 50 11. The most important diagnostic point in favour of CRF by USG is: A. Increase in size of kidney B. Diminished ultrasonic density of cortex C. Loss of corticomedullary differentiation D. Renal pelvis full of urine 12 / 50 12. Which of the following is not a criterion for diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome? A. Hyperlipidaemia B. Hypertension C. Hypoalbuminemia D. Massive proteinuria 13 / 50 13. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Proteinuria B. Anasarca C. Hyperkalaemia D. Hypertension 14 / 50 14. ‘Fruity odour’ in urine is found in: A. Chyluria B. Urinary tract infection (UTI) C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Alkaptonuria 15 / 50 15. Isosthenuria is found in: A. Chronic renal failure B. Nephrolithiasis C. Nail-patella syndrome D. Acute glomerulonephritis 16 / 50 16. Which of the following is not a guanidino compound? A. Guanidino-succinic acid B. Creatinine C. Carnitine D. Creatine 17 / 50 17. The commonest organism producing acute pyelonephritis is: A. Klebsiella B. Streptococcus C. E. coli D. Staphylococcus 18 / 50 18. All of the following may give rise to RPGN except: A. SLE B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Goodpasture's disease D. Wilson's disease 19 / 50 19. Complications of AGN include all except: A. Hypertensive encephalopathy B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Acute renal failure D. Respiratory tract infections 20 / 50 20. For a definitive diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux, the investigation of choice is: A. Micturating cystourethrography B. Radionuclide studies C. IVP D. Ultrasonography 21 / 50 21. Subendothelial dense deposits are found by electron microscopy in: A. SLE B. Fabry's disease C. Membranous glomerulopathy D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 22 / 50 22. Dehydration should be strictly avoided before performing IVP in: A. Multiple myeloma B. Lymphoma C. Acute myeloid leukemia D. Renal cell carcinoma 23 / 50 23. Waxy casts are: A. Specific for acute glomerulonephritis B. Usually not found in nephritic syndrome C. Virtually not found in normal urine D. Frequently seen in UTI 24 / 50 24. Nocturia is not found in: A. Salt-losing nephropathy B. Prostatism C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) D. Vesicoureteral reflux 25 / 50 25. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Thrombocytosis B. Band keratopathy C. Hyperammonaemia D. Lenticonus 26 / 50 26. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly B. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl C. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia D. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well 27 / 50 27. Which of the following is not a recognised cause of microalbuminuria? A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Diabetes mellitus with early renal involvement D. Strenuous physical exercise 28 / 50 28. All are recognised causes of chronic renal failure (CRF) except: A. Snakebite B. Hypertension C. Obstructive uropathy D. Diabetes mellitus 29 / 50 29. Commonest histological variety of nephrotic syndrome in adult is: A. Mesangial proliferative B. Minimal change lesion C. Membranous nephropathy D. Focal glomerulosclerosis 30 / 50 30. In a severely uraemic patient, which of the following would indicate chronic renal failure? A. Hyperkaliemia B. Uremic neuropathy C. Hypertension D. Hyponatremia 31 / 50 31. Wilms’ tumour is characterised by all except: A. Renal lump with smooth surface B. Pain abdomen C. Haematuria D. Commonest renal malignancy 32 / 50 32. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. Na+ B. K+ C. Uric acid D. Creatinine 33 / 50 33. All of the following drugs may produce nephrotic syndrome except: A. Troxidone B. alpha-interferon C. Colchicine D. Penicillamine 34 / 50 34. In pregnancy-induced hypertension, which of the following suggests pre-eclampsia? A. Uric acid >5.5 mg/ dl B. Creatinine > 1.6 mg/ dl C. Diastolic BP >95 mm Hg D. Urea >45 mg/ dl 35 / 50 35. Which of the following does not produce red urine? A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Haemoglobinuria C. Microscopic haematuria D. Myoglobinuria 36 / 50 36. In IgA nephropathy, IgA is deposited in: A. Renal papilla B. Glomerular basement membrane C. Glomerular capillaries D. Glomerular mesangium 37 / 50 37. Tubular proteinuria is assessed by measuring: A. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein B. Albumin C. Transferrin D. Beta-2 microglobulin 38 / 50 38. Green urine is seen in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Pseudomonas infection C. Oxalate poisoning D. Black water fever 39 / 50 39. Chronic interstitial nephritis may lead to all of the following except: A. Hypertension B. Acidosis C. Hypokalemia D. Small kidneys 40 / 50 40. The most beneficial drug in enuresis is: A. Haloperidol B. Trimipramine C. Fluoxetine D. Chlorpromazine 41 / 50 41. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Heart failure B. Fulminant hepatocellular failure C. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage D. Ureterocolic anastomosis 42 / 50 42. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Papillary necrosis C. Renal tuberculosis D. Sickle cell nephropathy 43 / 50 43. All are true in acute renal failure (ARF) except: A. Raised Calcium B. Raised K+ C. Raised [H+] D. Raised Creatinine 44 / 50 44. The commonest renal lesion in diabetic nephropathy is: A. Chronic interstitial nephritis B. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis C. Nodular glomerulosclerosis D. Arterionephrosclerosis 45 / 50 45. Which is not true in orthostatic proteinuria? A. Primarily occurs in upright posture B. Indicates a serious underlying disease C. Seen in tall persons D. Maybe related to increased lumbar lordosis 46 / 50 46. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Peritonitis B. Atelectasis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Hypoproteinaemia 47 / 50 47. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hematuria B. Response to corticosteroid C. Hypertension D. Absence of oedema 48 / 50 48. Chronic phenacetin intake may lead to: A. Cortical necrosis B. Papillary necrosis C. Glomerulosclerosis D. Tubular necrosi 49 / 50 49. Renal vein thrombosis in adults is seen in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Amyloidosis C. Horseshoe kidney D. Interstitial nephritis 50 / 50 50. Hyperuricaemia is not a feature of: A. Fanconi's syndrome B. Nicotinic acid therapy C. Active psoriasis D. Lactic acidosis LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology