Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Proteinuria B. Hypertension C. Hyperkalaemia D. Anasarca 2 / 50 2. Hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism is seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Sickle cell anemia C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Conn's syndrome 3 / 50 3. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Mild fever B. Pyaemia C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) 4 / 50 4. All of the following produce enuresis except: A. Bladder neck contracture B. Multiple sclerosis C. Type I diabetes mellitus D. Spina bifida 5 / 50 5. All of the following are associated with hypercalciuria except: A. Progressive systemic sclerosis B. Milk-alkali syndrome C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Sarcoidosis 6 / 50 6. Normal urinary osmolality in mOsm/kg of water is approximately: A. 200-350 B. 200-350 C. 400-700 D. 150-200 7 / 50 7. Minimal change nephropathy is better known as: A. All of the options B. Foot process disease C. Lipoid nephrosis D. Nil lesion 8 / 50 8. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Systemic hypertension B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Acute pancreatitis 9 / 50 9. All are true regarding renal ischaemia except: A. Vasculitis is an etiology B. Disruption of tubular basement membrane C. Patchy necrosis on biopsy D. Most marked in proximal tubules 10 / 50 10. In stage S chronic kidney disease (CKD), the GFR falls below: A. <20 B. <15 C. < 10 D. <5 11 / 50 11. In microalbuminuria, the range of albuminuria is: A. 30-300 mg/ day B. 40-400 mg/ day C. 10-100 mg/day D. 20-200 mg/day 12 / 50 12. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Gouty nephropathy B. Medullary cystic kidney C. Papillary necrosis D. Hypercalcemic nephropathy 13 / 50 13. Hypernephroma is associated with all except: A. Polycythaemia B. Haematuria C. High incidence of hypertension D. Renal vein thrombosis 14 / 50 14. The most beneficial drug in enuresis is: A. Fluoxetine B. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine D. Trimipramine 15 / 50 15. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Interstitial nephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Chronic nephritis 16 / 50 16. Fatty cast is often diagnostic of: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. End-stage renal disease C. Papillary necrosis D. Nephrotic syndrome 17 / 50 17. All of the following can present as nephritic-nephrotic syndrome except: A. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. SLE D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura 18 / 50 18. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Hypoproteinaemia B. Atelectasis C. Peritonitis D. Hypoglycaemia 19 / 50 19. Heavy proteinuria associated with haematuria is suggestive of: A. Interstitial nephritis B. Papillary necrosis C. Renal artery thrombosis D. Renal vein thrombosis 20 / 50 20. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hematuria B. Absence of oedema C. Response to corticosteroid D. Hypertension 21 / 50 21. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) C. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) D. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) 22 / 50 22. Which of the following certainly diagnoses a renal lump? A. Ballottement B. Bimanual palpability C. Slight movement with respiration D. Band of colonic resonance 23 / 50 23. Which of the following metal is not responsible for the development of nephrotic syndrome? A. Mercury B. Lead C. Gold D. Iron 24 / 50 24. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility B. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia C. Increased degradation of erythropoietin D. Reduced red cell survival 25 / 50 25. Wilms’ tumour is characterised by all except: A. Commonest renal malignancy B. Pain abdomen C. Haematuria D. Renal lump with smooth surface 26 / 50 26. The commonest presentation of renal cell carcinoma is: A. Haematuria B. Distant metastasis C. Palpable abdominal mass D. Flank pain 27 / 50 27. Alimentary glycosuria may be associated with all except: A. Normal individuals B. Partial gastrectomy C. Renal failure D. Hyperthyroidism 28 / 50 28. The medullary cystic disease is not associated with: A. Hypochloraemia B. Polyuria C. Stunted growth D. Hyponatraemia 29 / 50 29. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Sickle cell nephropathy B. Papillary necrosis C. Renal tuberculosis D. Acute glomerulonephritis 30 / 50 30. Renal vein thrombosis in adults is seen in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Amyloidosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Horseshoe kidney 31 / 50 31. Serum add phosphatase level is increased in all except: A. Gaucher's disease B. Hairy cell leukaemia C. Prostatic carcinoma D. Amyloidosis 32 / 50 32. Oliguria is: A. < 200 ml urine/24 h B. < 100 ml urine/24 h C. < 50 ml urine/24 h D. < 400 mL urine/24 h 33 / 50 33. Each kidney contains approximately: A. 10 million nephrons B. Hundred thousand nephrons C. 1 million nephrons D. 10 thousand nephrons 34 / 50 34. Acidic urine is produced in: A. High vegetarian diet B. Chronic renal failure C. UTI by Proteus D. Renal tubular acidosis 35 / 50 35. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Fulminant hepatocellular failure B. Heart failure C. Ureterocolic anastomosis D. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage 36 / 50 36. The commonest renal lesion in diabetic nephropathy is: A. Arterionephrosclerosis B. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis C. Nodular glomerulosclerosis D. Chronic interstitial nephritis 37 / 50 37. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Hypercalcaemia C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Diabetes insipidus 38 / 50 38. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. Administration of mannitol B. High protein feeding C. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus D. Radiocontrast media 39 / 50 39. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Massive proteinuria C. Severe dehydration D. Psychogenic polydipsia 40 / 50 40. In a patient with diabetes mellitus having hypertension, serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dl and a plasma potassium of 5.8 mEq/L are best treated with which antihypertensive agent? A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Angiotensin II receptor blocker D. ACE inhibitor 41 / 50 41. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Weil's disease B. Cisplatin-induced C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Abruptio placentae 42 / 50 42. In pregnancy-induced hypertension, which of the following suggests pre-eclampsia? A. Urea >45 mg/ dl B. Uric acid >5.5 mg/ dl C. Diastolic BP >95 mm Hg D. Creatinine > 1.6 mg/ dl 43 / 50 43. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. K+ B. Na+ C. Uric acid D. Creatinine 44 / 50 44. ‘Fruity odour’ in urine is found in: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Urinary tract infection (UTI) C. Chyluria D. Alkaptonuria 45 / 50 45. Renal tubular acidosis is not seen in: A. Sickle cell disease B. Leprosy C. Medullary sponge kidney D. Galactosemia 46 / 50 46. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. Premature coronary artery disease B. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase C. Corneal dystrophy D. Accumulation of tryptophan 47 / 50 47. Microscopic haematuria is characteristic of: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Thin basement membrane disease of kidney C. Focal glomerulasclerosis D. Membranous nephropathy 48 / 50 48. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all except: A. Pregnancy B. Diabetes mellitus C. Bilateral renal artery stenosis D. Aortic stenosis 49 / 50 49. Tubular proteinuria is assessed by measuring: A. Transferrin B. Albumin C. Beta-2 microglobulin D. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein 50 / 50 50. Bartter syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Potassium sparing diuretics B. Acetazolamide C. Loop Diuretics D. 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