Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Severe dehydration B. Massive proteinuria C. Psychogenic polydipsia D. Diabetes mellitus 2 / 50 2. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Fabry's disease B. Medullary sponge kidney C. Alport's syndrome D. Nail-patella syndrome 3 / 50 3. Which is false regarding the adult polycystic disease of kidney? A. 30% have hepatic cysts B. 75% have hypertension C. Autosomal recessive inheritance D. 10% die from subarachnoid haemorrhage 4 / 50 4. Renal tubular acidosis is not seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sickle cell disease C. Galactosemia D. Medullary sponge kidney 5 / 50 5. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Ochronosis C. Chronic renal failure D. Hypoparathyroidism 6 / 50 6. Bartter’s syndrome should not have: A. Acidosis B. Normotension C. Elevated plasma renin activity D. Hypokalemia 7 / 50 7. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. Cyclophosphamide administration B. Pregnancy C. Renal transplant rejection D. UTI by Proteus 8 / 50 8. IgA nephropathy commonly presents with: A. Hematuria B. Systemic hypertension C. Acute renal failure D. Nephrotic syndrome 9 / 50 9. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl B. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well C. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia D. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly 10 / 50 10. The earliest manifestation of minimal lesion nephropathy is: A. Hypertension B. Proteinuria C. Anasarca D. Hyperkalaemia 11 / 50 11. Haemoptysis associated with renal failure is found in all except: A. Henoch Schonlein purpura B. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Goodpasture's disease 12 / 50 12. Chronic phenacetin intake may lead to: A. Papillary necrosis B. Glomerulosclerosis C. Tubular necrosi D. Cortical necrosis 13 / 50 13. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Interstitial nephritis D. Chronic nephritis 14 / 50 14. All of the following drugs may produce nephrotic syndrome except: A. Troxidone B. alpha-interferon C. Penicillamine D. Colchicine 15 / 50 15. In a patient with diabetes mellitus having hypertension, serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dl and a plasma potassium of 5.8 mEq/L are best treated with which antihypertensive agent? A. Furosemide B. ACE inhibitor C. Amiloride D. Angiotensin II receptor blocker 16 / 50 16. Which of the following can decrease the antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors? A. Thiazides B. Furosemide C. Digoxin D. NSAIDs 17 / 50 17. Which of the following is not a neuromuscular complication of uraemia? A. Myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Encephalopathy D. Neuropathy 18 / 50 18. ‘Saturnine gout’ develops as a result of: A. Mercury nephropathy B. Analgesic nephropathy C. Chronic pyelonephritis D. Lead nephropathy 19 / 50 19. The commonest renal lesion in diabetic nephropathy is: A. Arterionephrosclerosis B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis C. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis D. Chronic interstitial nephritis 20 / 50 20. All of the following can present as nephritic-nephrotic syndrome except: A. SLE B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura C. Diabetes mellitus D. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis 21 / 50 21. Alport’s syndrome may have: A. Hyperammonaemia B. Band keratopathy C. Lenticonus D. Thrombocytosis 22 / 50 22. Radiolucent nephrolithiasis is found in stones composed of: A. Cystine B. Uric acid C. Magnesium ammonium phosphate D. Calcium oxalate 23 / 50 23. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hematuria B. Hypertension C. Absence of oedema D. Response to corticosteroid 24 / 50 24. Broad casts are found in: A. Chronic renal failure (CRF) B. Urinary tract infection C. Analgesic nephropathy D. Acute glomerulonephritis 25 / 50 25. Diabetes mellitus complicated by nephrotic syndrome has all the following features except: A. Retinopathy B. Initially GFR may be increased C. Hypertension D. Increased palsma renin activity 26 / 50 26. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Atelectasis C. Hypoproteinaemia D. Peritonitis 27 / 50 27. Hypernephroma is associated with all except: A. Renal vein thrombosis B. Polycythaemia C. High incidence of hypertension D. Haematuria 28 / 50 28. All are true in bladder carcinoma except: A. Schistosoma haematobium produces transitional cell carcinoma B. Haematuria is the commonest presentation C. Cigarette smoking is a predisposing factor D. Predominantly affects males 29 / 50 29. The medullary cystic disease is not associated with: A. Hypochloraemia B. Stunted growth C. Hyponatraemia D. Polyuria 30 / 50 30. Serum add phosphatase level is increased in all except: A. Prostatic carcinoma B. Hairy cell leukaemia C. Amyloidosis D. Gaucher's disease 31 / 50 31. All are true in ‘dialysis dementia’ except: A. Seizures B. Related to aluminium toxicity C. Raised intracranial tension D. Myoclonus 32 / 50 32. Polyuria is produced by all of the following except: A. Diabetes insipidus B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Hypercalcaemia D. Chronic renal failure 33 / 50 33. Which is false regarding Berger’s disease? A. Reduced Complement level B. Raised Serum IgA C. Recurrent haematuria D. It may represent a form of Henoch-Schonlein purpura 34 / 50 34. Heavy proteinuria associated with haematuria is suggestive of: A. Renal vein thrombosis B. Renal artery thrombosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Papillary necrosis 35 / 50 35. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Medullary cystic kidney B. Gouty nephropathy C. Papillary necrosis D. Hypercalcemic nephropathy 36 / 50 36. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Kala-azar B. Malaria C. Pneumococcus D. Hepatitis B 37 / 50 37. Oliguria is: A. < 50 ml urine/24 h B. < 100 ml urine/24 h C. < 200 ml urine/24 h D. < 400 mL urine/24 h 38 / 50 38. Green urine is seen in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Black water fever C. Pseudomonas infection D. Oxalate poisoning 39 / 50 39. In pregnancy-induced hypertension, which of the following suggests pre-eclampsia? A. Creatinine > 1.6 mg/ dl B. Uric acid >5.5 mg/ dl C. Diastolic BP >95 mm Hg D. Urea >45 mg/ dl 40 / 50 40. All of the following may give rise to RPGN except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Goodpasture's disease C. SLE D. Wilson's disease 41 / 50 41. Fabry’s disease is not related to: A. Corneal dystrophy B. Premature coronary artery disease C. As a result of deficiency of a-galactosidase D. Accumulation of tryptophan 42 / 50 42. All are true in acute renal failure (ARF) except: A. Raised Creatinine B. Raised [H+] C. Raised K+ D. Raised Calcium 43 / 50 43. Increased plasma urea/creatinine is found in alt except: A. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage B. Fulminant hepatocellular failure C. Heart failure D. Ureterocolic anastomosis 44 / 50 44. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. X-linked dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. Autosomal recessive 45 / 50 45. The commonest presentation of renal cell carcinoma is: A. Distant metastasis B. Palpable abdominal mass C. Haematuria D. Flank pain 46 / 50 46. Which of the following is false in nephritic-nephrotic syndrome? A. Moderate haematuria and moderate proteinuria are common B. Systemic hypertension is rare C. Majority of patients terminate into end-stage renal disease D. SLE is a common aetiology 47 / 50 47. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus B. Radiocontrast media C. High protein feeding D. Administration of mannitol 48 / 50 48. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Sickle cell nephropathy B. Papillary necrosis C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Renal tuberculosis 49 / 50 49. Hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism is seen in: A. Conn's syndrome B. Sickle cell anemia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Congestive cardiac failure 50 / 50 50. In IgA nephropathy, IgA is deposited in: A. Renal papilla B. Glomerular basement membrane C. Glomerular mesangium D. Glomerular capillaries LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Next Post Cardiology