Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. The commonest presentation of renal cell carcinoma is: A. Palpable abdominal mass B. Haematuria C. Flank pain D. Distant metastasis 2 / 50 2. IgA nephropathy commonly presents with: A. Hematuria B. Acute renal failure C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Systemic hypertension 3 / 50 3. In microalbuminuria, the range of albuminuria is: A. 10-100 mg/day B. 30-300 mg/ day C. 40-400 mg/ day D. 20-200 mg/day 4 / 50 4. Regarding erythropoietin therapy in CRF, which is not correct? A. Average dosage is 50 U/kg, IV, thrice weekly B. Subcutaneous administration may give rise to pure red cell aplasia C. Patients with ferritin level 50-100 μg/l respond well D. During treatment, haemoglobin should not cross 12 g/ dl 5 / 50 5. Serum add phosphatase level is increased in all except: A. Amyloidosis B. Hairy cell leukaemia C. Prostatic carcinoma D. Gaucher's disease 6 / 50 6. Renal tubular acidosis may be due to: A. Captopril B. Methoxyflurane C. Streptozotocin D. Probenecid 7 / 50 7. Inheritance of renal glycosuria is: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. X-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 8 / 50 8. Which is true in prerenal azotaemia? A. Plasma BUN to creatinine ratio < 10 B. Urine creatinine to plasma creatinine ratio < 20 C. Urine specific gravity >1018 D. Urine Na+ concentration >20 mmol/L 9 / 50 9. In a severely uraemic patient, which of the following would indicate chronic renal failure? A. Uremic neuropathy B. Hypertension C. Hyperkaliemia D. Hyponatremia 10 / 50 10. Bilaterally palpable kidneys are found in alt except: A. Acromegaly B. Wilms' tumor C. Amyloidosis D. Polycystic kidney 11 / 50 11. Nocturia is not found in: A. Prostatism B. Salt-losing nephropathy C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) D. Vesicoureteral reflux 12 / 50 12. Positive Rothera’s test in urine is found in all except: A. Ketone bodies in urine B. Homocystinuria C. Treatment with captopril D. Tyrosinosis 13 / 50 13. Chronic interstitial nephritis may lead to all of the following except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypertension C. Small kidneys D. Acidosis 14 / 50 14. All of the following may give rise to RPGN except: A. SLE B. Wilson's disease C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Goodpasture's disease 15 / 50 15. ‘Ring shadow’ on IV Pyelography diagnoses: A. Medullary cystic kidney B. Hypercalcemic nephropathy C. Gouty nephropathy D. Papillary necrosis 16 / 50 16. Which of the following metal is not responsible for the development of nephrotic syndrome? A. Iron B. Gold C. Lead D. Mercury 17 / 50 17. Isolated haematuria is not found in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Renal tuberculosis C. Sickle cell nephropathy D. Papillary necrosis 18 / 50 18. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Massive proteinuria B. Severe dehydration C. Psychogenic polydipsia D. Diabetes mellitus 19 / 50 19. Each kidney contains approximately: A. 10 thousand nephrons B. 1 million nephrons C. 10 million nephrons D. Hundred thousand nephrons 20 / 50 20. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Interstitial nephritis B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Chronic nephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome 21 / 50 21. Dehydration should be strictly avoided before performing IVP in: A. Acute myeloid leukemia B. Lymphoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Renal cell carcinoma 22 / 50 22. Which does not produce ‘sterile pyuria’? A. UTI by Proteus B. Renal transplant rejection C. Pregnancy D. Cyclophosphamide administration 23 / 50 23. Hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism is seen in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Conn's syndrome D. Sickle cell anemia 24 / 50 24. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Medullary sponge kidney B. Fabry's disease C. Alport's syndrome D. Nail-patella syndrome 25 / 50 25. Acute tubular necrosis is found in all except: A. Cisplatin-induced B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Abruptio placentae D. Weil's disease 26 / 50 26. In IgA nephropathy, IgA is deposited in: A. Glomerular mesangium B. Glomerular capillaries C. Renal papilla D. Glomerular basement membrane 27 / 50 27. All are true in acute renal failure (ARF) except: A. Raised [H+] B. Raised Creatinine C. Raised Calcium D. Raised K+ 28 / 50 28. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Increased degradation of erythropoietin B. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility C. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia D. Reduced red cell survival 29 / 50 29. ‘Saturnine gout’ develops as a result of: A. Chronic pyelonephritis B. Analgesic nephropathy C. Lead nephropathy D. Mercury nephropathy 30 / 50 30. All of the following are complications of chronic pyelonephritis except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Septicaemia C. Renal calculi D. Hypertension 31 / 50 31. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Acute renal failure B. Hydronephrosis C. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome D. Hepatorenal syndrome 32 / 50 32. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. Na+ B. Uric acid C. Creatinine D. K+ 33 / 50 33. The urine in obligatory diuresis following relief of urinary obstruction is: A. Dilute and alkaline B. Concentrated C. Low in sodium D. Highly acidic 34 / 50 34. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Pyaemia B. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Mild fever 35 / 50 35. The most beneficial drug in enuresis is: A. Fluoxetine B. Trimipramine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol 36 / 50 36. Alimentary glycosuria may be associated with all except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Renal failure C. Normal individuals D. Partial gastrectomy 37 / 50 37. Absolute indication for dialysis: A. Serum urea level >200 mg/dl B. Serum K+ level >6 mEq/l C. Clinical evidence of pericarditis D. Serum creatinine level >4 mg/ dl 38 / 50 38. Metastatic calcification is seen in all of the following organs except: A. Myocardium B. Brain C. Cornea D. Medium-sized blood vessels 39 / 50 39. For a definitive diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux, the investigation of choice is: A. Micturating cystourethrography B. Radionuclide studies C. Ultrasonography D. IVP 40 / 50 40. All are true regarding renal ischaemia except: A. Most marked in proximal tubules B. Vasculitis is an etiology C. Patchy necrosis on biopsy D. Disruption of tubular basement membrane 41 / 50 41. Which of the following can decrease the antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors? A. Thiazides B. NSAIDs C. Furosemide D. Digoxin 42 / 50 42. Wilms’ tumour is characterised by all except: A. Pain abdomen B. Haematuria C. Renal lump with smooth surface D. Commonest renal malignancy 43 / 50 43. Which of the following is usually unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy? A. Membranoproliferative nephropathy B. Membranous nephropathy C. Minimal lesion nephropathy D. Focal glomerulosclerosis 44 / 50 44. Peritoneal dialysis may be complicated by all except: A. Peritonitis B. Atelectasis C. Hypoproteinaemia D. Hypoglycaemia 45 / 50 45. The medullary cystic disease is not associated with: A. Polyuria B. Hyponatraemia C. Stunted growth D. Hypochloraemia 46 / 50 46. Bartter syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Thiazide Diuretics B. Acetazolamide C. Loop Diuretics D. Potassium sparing diuretics 47 / 50 47. Acidic urine is produced in: A. Chronic renal failure B. High vegetarian diet C. UTI by Proteus D. Renal tubular acidosis 48 / 50 48. Cure of chronic prostatitis is done by: A. Quinolones B. 3rd generation cephalosporins C. Macrolides D. Total prostatectomy 49 / 50 49. Which of the following is not a guanidino compound? A. Creatinine B. Carnitine C. Guanidino-succinic acid D. Creatine 50 / 50 50. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. Administration of mannitol B. Radiocontrast media C. High protein feeding D. 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