Nephrology Home Internal Medicine 0% 15 votes, 0 avg 35 Nephrology 1 / 50 1. Acidic urine is produced in: A. Chronic renal failure B. UTI by Proteus C. High vegetarian diet D. Renal tubular acidosis 2 / 50 2. Bartter syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Acetazolamide B. Thiazide Diuretics C. Loop Diuretics D. Potassium sparing diuretics 3 / 50 3. All are true in urethral syndrome except: A. No bacteria are cultured from urine B. Antibiotics are always indicated C. Predominantly affects females D. Post-coital urethral congestion may be an etiology 4 / 50 4. Hyperuricaemia is not a feature of: A. Active psoriasis B. Lactic acidosis C. Nicotinic acid therapy D. Fanconi's syndrome 5 / 50 5. Balanoposthitis is not associated with: A. Trichomoniasis B. Peyronie's disease C. Phimosis D. Diabetes mellitus 6 / 50 6. Absolute contraindications of renal transplantation are all except: A. Active malignancy B. HIV infection C. Hepatitis C infection with chronic hepatitis D. Previous sensitisation to donor tissue 7 / 50 7. All of the following may develop nephrolithiasis except: A. Intestinal hyperoxaluria B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Proximal renal tubular acidosis D. Hypervitaminosis D 8 / 50 8. Alport’s syndrome is associated with all except: A. Autosomal recessive inheritance B. Recurrent haematuria C. Sensorineural deafness D. Interstitial foam cells 9 / 50 9. Gitelman syndrome is the syndrome which has effects on nephron just like the use of: A. Thiazide diuretics B. Loop Diuretics C. Acetazolamide D. Potassium sparing diuretics 10 / 50 10. Transient deafness is most commonly associated with: A. Spironolactone B. Bumetanide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Hydrochlorthiazide 11 / 50 11. Renal tubular acidosis may be due to: A. Methoxyflurane B. Captopril C. Probenecid D. Streptozotocin 12 / 50 12. Prognosis of which of the following is excellent? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Chronic nephritis D. Interstitial nephritis 13 / 50 13. The blood level of all rises in ARF except: A. K+ B. Na+ C. Uric acid D. Creatinine 14 / 50 14. IgA nephropathy commonly presents with: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Acute renal failure C. Systemic hypertension D. Hematuria 15 / 50 15. In a patient with diabetes mellitus having hypertension, serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dl and a plasma potassium of 5.8 mEq/L are best treated with which antihypertensive agent? A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. ACE inhibitor D. Angiotensin II receptor blocker 16 / 50 16. Oliguria is: A. < 50 ml urine/24 h B. < 100 ml urine/24 h C. < 200 ml urine/24 h D. < 400 mL urine/24 h 17 / 50 17. Green urine is seen in: A. Black water fever B. Oxalate poisoning C. Pseudomonas infection D. Alkaptonuria 18 / 50 18. The most important diagnostic point in favour of CRF by USG is: A. Diminished ultrasonic density of cortex B. Increase in size of kidney C. Loss of corticomedullary differentiation D. Renal pelvis full of urine 19 / 50 19. In stage S chronic kidney disease (CKD), the GFR falls below: A. <20 B. < 10 C. <15 D. <5 20 / 50 20. ANCA-positive pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is seen in: A. Churg-Strauss syndrome (CSS) B. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura (HSP) C. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) 21 / 50 21. X-ray pelvis shows iliac horns in: A. Medullary sponge kidney B. Fabry's disease C. Nail-patella syndrome D. Alport's syndrome 22 / 50 22. Cure of chronic prostatitis is done by: A. Quinolones B. Macrolides C. 3rd generation cephalosporins D. Total prostatectomy 23 / 50 23. Bartter’s syndrome should not have: A. Elevated plasma renin activity B. Hypokalemia C. Normotension D. Acidosis 24 / 50 24. Which of the following is not a typical association in adult polycystic kidney disease? A. Nephrolithiasis B. VSD C. Polycythaemia D. Berry aneurysms 25 / 50 25. Serum add phosphatase level is increased in all except: A. Prostatic carcinoma B. Hairy cell leukaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Amyloidosis 26 / 50 26. ‘Fruity odour’ in urine is found in: A. Alkaptonuria B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Urinary tract infection (UTI) D. Chyluria 27 / 50 27. Serum urea and creatinine remain normal in: A. Acute renal failure B. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome C. Hydronephrosis D. Hepatorenal syndrome 28 / 50 28. Heavy proteinuria associated with haematuria is suggestive of: A. Renal vein thrombosis B. Renal artery thrombosis C. Interstitial nephritis D. Papillary necrosis 29 / 50 29. The commonest cause of solute diuresis is: A. Radiocontrast media B. Administration of mannitol C. High protein feeding D. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus 30 / 50 30. ‘Complete’ anuria is found in: A. Diffuse cortical necrosis B. Acute gastroenteritis C. Chronic Kidney disease D. Acute renal failure 31 / 50 31. Which of the following is not added to urine by tubular secretion? A. K+ B. Creatinine C. Urea D. H+ 32 / 50 32. Which is false in CRF-related anaemia? A. Reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uremia B. Increased blood loss due to capillary fragility C. Reduced red cell survival D. Increased degradation of erythropoietin 33 / 50 33. Streptococcal pyoderma may be associated with all except: A. Mild fever B. Acute rheumatic fever C. Pyaemia D. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) 34 / 50 34. Renal vein thrombosis in adults is seen in: A. Amyloidosis B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Horseshoe kidney D. Interstitial nephritis 35 / 50 35. Acute tubular necrosis may be caused by all of the following except: A. Hepatorenal syndrome B. Systemic hypertension C. Acute pancreatitis D. Congestive cardiac failure 36 / 50 36. Hypernephroma is associated with all except: A. High incidence of hypertension B. Renal vein thrombosis C. Polycythaemia D. Haematuria 37 / 50 37. All are recognised causes of chronic renal failure (CRF) except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Obstructive uropathy C. Snakebite D. Hypertension 38 / 50 38. AGN may be produced by alt except: A. Malaria B. Kala-azar C. Pneumococcus D. Hepatitis B 39 / 50 39. ‘Rugger jersey spine’ is seen in: A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Chronic renal failure C. Ochronosis D. Sickle cell anemia 40 / 50 40. Haemoptysis associated with renal failure is found in all except: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Goodpasture's disease C. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D. Henoch Schonlein purpura 41 / 50 41. AGN is not characterised by: A. Oliguria B. Macroscopic haematuria C. Massive proteinuria D. Systemic hypertension 42 / 50 42. All of the following are complications of chronic pyelonephritis except: A. Chronic renal failure B. Septicaemia C. Hypertension D. Renal calculi 43 / 50 43. Renal biopsy is contraindicated in all except: A. Severe uncontrolled hypertension B. Serum creatinine >0 mg/dL C. Membranous nephropathy D. Big renal cyst 44 / 50 44. Tubular proteinuria is assessed by measuring: A. Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein B. Beta-2 microglobulin C. Albumin D. Transferrin 45 / 50 45. Recognised feature of minimal change glomerular disease is: A. Hypertension B. Response to corticosteroid C. Hematuria D. Absence of oedema 46 / 50 46. Urine of low specific gravity is obtained in: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Severe dehydration C. Psychogenic polydipsia D. Massive proteinuria 47 / 50 47. Positive Rothera’s test in urine is found in all except: A. Homocystinuria B. Ketone bodies in urine C. Treatment with captopril D. Tyrosinosis 48 / 50 48. Which is not true in orthostatic proteinuria? A. Primarily occurs in upright posture B. Seen in tall persons C. Maybe related to increased lumbar lordosis D. Indicates a serious underlying disease 49 / 50 49. Each kidney contains approximately: A. Hundred thousand nephrons B. 10 thousand nephrons C. 1 million nephrons D. 10 million nephrons 50 / 50 50. Renal tubular acidosis is not seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sickle cell disease C. Galactosemia D. 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