Neurology Home Internal Medicine 0% 24 votes, 0 avg 50 Neurology Welcome to Neurology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Neurology questions. We have a collection of over 100 questions. Contact us and get a free link in case you are interested. 1 / 266 1. Brain biopsy in rabies demonstrates? A. Schaumann bodies B. Asteroid bodies C. Negri bodies D. Lewy bodies 2 / 266 2. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) stamps the process as: A. Demyelinating B. Inflammatory C. Embolic D. Hemorrhagic 3 / 266 3. The commonest cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: A. Emotional excitement B. Berry aneurysm rupture C. AV malformations D. Systemic hypertension 4 / 266 4. Peripheral neuropathy associated with hypertension is found in: A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. TOCP poisoning C. Amyloidosis D. Pyridoxine deficiency 5 / 266 5. The most common lacunar syndrome in clinical practice is: A. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome B. Pure sensory stroke C. Ataxic-hemiparesis D. Pure motor hemiparesis 6 / 266 6. All are the complications of oral contraceptive pills except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Cerebral hemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Venous thrombosis 7 / 266 7. Chronic fatigue syndrome is fundamentally a: A. Neuroendocrine disorder B. Metabolic disorder C. Psychiatric disorder D. Immune disorder 8 / 266 8. Which is false regarding peripheral vertigo? A. Accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss B. Associated with diplopia and limb ataxia C. May be precipitated by drug toxicity D. Pendular nystagmus is present in majority 9 / 266 9. Among the following, which is the most common adult muscular dystrophy? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy C. Myotonic dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy 10 / 266 10. Which does not produce hypoglycorrhachia (low CSF sugar)? A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Hypoglycaemia D. Tuberculous meningitis 11 / 266 11. Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is not found in: A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Viral meningitis 12 / 266 12. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome has all the following features except: A. Haloperidol is the mainstay of treatment B. Hyperpyrexia C. Pseudoparkinsonism D. Autonomic dysfunction 13 / 266 13. The most consistent early physical sign evoked in a cerebellopontine angle tumour is: A. Loss of corneal reflex B. Cerebellar signs C. Pyramidal signs D. Facial nerve palsy 14 / 266 14. Intermittent bulbar palsy is seen in: A. Snakebite B. Poliomyelitis C. Rabies D. Myasthenia gravis 15 / 266 15. Which of the following is not a feature of syringobulbia? A. Nasal regurgitation B. Dysarthria C. Spastic tongue D. Dysphagia 16 / 266 16. Tropical spastic paraplegia is caused by: A. Toxin B. Virus C. Autoimmunity D. Bacteria 17 / 266 17. The commonest type of neurofibroma is associated with: A. Optic glioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Meningioma D. Scoliosis 18 / 266 18. Which of the following is a homologue of Hoffman’s sign of upper extremity? A. Rossolimo's sign B. Chaddock's sign C. Gonda sign D. Babinski's sign 19 / 266 19. Which of the following is false in subacute combined degeneration? A. Ankle clonus B. Anemia C. Babinski's sign D. Glossitis 20 / 266 20. CNS involvement of SLE includes all except: A. Chorea B. Psychosis C. Myodonus D. Migraine 21 / 266 21. Ataxia-telangiectasia is not associated with: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Choreoathetosis C. Recurrent sinus and pulmonary infection D. Mental retardation 22 / 266 22. Which of the following is not a human ‘Prion’ disease? A. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D. Fatal familial insomnia 23 / 266 23. Which of the following does not produce pseudobulbar palsy? A. Lacunar infarction B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Neurosyphilis D. Cerebral atrophy 24 / 266 24. ‘Paraplegia in flexion’ may have all of the following except: A. Flexor spasm B. Increased tone in flexor groups C. Flexor plantar response D. Mass reflex 25 / 266 25. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome encompasses all except: A. Dementia B. Relief by haloperidol C. Multiple tics D. Coprolalia 26 / 266 26. In health, intracranial calcification may be seen in all except: A. Dura matter B. Basal ganglia C. Pineal body D. Choroid plexus 27 / 266 27. Down-beating nystagmus is seen in: A. Vestibular lesion B. Posterior fossa lesion C. Labyrinthine lesion D. Midbrain lesion 28 / 266 28. alpha-bungarotoxin is associated with neuroparalysis in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Botulinus poisoning C. Lathyrism D. Elapidae group snake bite 29 / 266 29. Café au lait spots are found in all except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Albright's disease D. Ataxia-telangiectasia 30 / 266 30. Management of choice in Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Immunoglobulin B. Cyclophosphamide C. Corticosteroid D. Interferon 31 / 266 31. Commonest visual difficulty in multiple sclerosis: A. Homonymous hemianopia B. Central scotoma C. Tunnel vision D. Bitemporal hemianopi 32 / 266 32. Vibration sensation is lost early in: A. Leprosy B. Alcoholic polyneuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Diabetes mellitus 33 / 266 33. Lesion in athetosis lies in: A. Red nucleus B. Putamen C. Caudate nucleus D. Substantia nigra 34 / 266 34. Complication of phenytoin does not include? A. Hyperglycaemia B. Ataxia C. Osteomalacia D. Megaloblastic anaemia 35 / 266 35. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from damage of: A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Ciliary ganglion D. Oculomotor nerve 36 / 266 36. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myxoedema C. Tabes dorsalis D. Gross pedal oedema 37 / 266 37. Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with: A. Tremor B. Confabulation C. Perspiration D. Visual hallucinations 38 / 266 38. All are seen in Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Acalculia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Aphasia 39 / 266 39. Which is a cause of reversible dementia? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Pick's disease D. Alzheimer's disease 40 / 266 40. MRI is preferred over CT scan of brain in all except: A. Calcification within a lesion B. Multiple sclerosis C. Posterior fossa tumors D. Pituitary tumors 41 / 266 41. Tabes dorsalis presents with all except: A. Argyll Robertson pupil B. Waddling gait C. Sensory dysfunction D. Loss of ankle jerk 42 / 266 42. In schizophrenia, a better prognosis is indicated by: A. Early onset B. Passivity feelings C. Visual hallucinations D. Depression 43 / 266 43. Lasegue’s sign is present in: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Prolapsed intervertebral disc C. Duchenne myopathy D. Cervical spondylosis 44 / 266 44. The most common site of hypertensive intracranial bleeding is: A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Putamen D. Midbrain 45 / 266 45. Romberg’s sign is present in: A. Cerebellar ataxia B. Labyrinthine ataxia C. Apraxia D. Sensory ataxia 46 / 266 46. Pyramidal signs may be associated with: A. Punch-drunk syndrome B. Atherosclerotic parkinsonism C. Idiopathic parkinsonism D. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism 47 / 266 47. Myopathy is best diagnosed by: A. Nerve conduction study B. Muscle biopsy C. Muscle enzyme study D. Electromyography 48 / 266 48. Increased jaw jerk is seen in: A. Chronic motor neuron disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Syringomyelia B. Bulbar palsy C. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome D. Diabetes mellitus D. Chronic motor neuron disease D. Bulbar palsy 49 / 266 49. The use of which can lead to the development of paranoid psychosis? A. Carbamazepine B. Amphetamines C. Cocaine D. Flumazenil 50 / 266 50. Berry aneurysm may be associated with all except: A. Takayasu's disease B. Polycystic kidney C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Coarctation of aorta 51 / 266 51. Which of the following is not associated with pes cavus? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Poliomyelitis C. Syringomyelia D. Friedreich's ataxia 52 / 266 52. Which of the following is not an antiplatelet drug? A. Pentoxifylline B. Aspirin C. Ticlopidine D. Clopidogrel 53 / 266 53. Neurofibromatosis leads to an increased risk of having all of the following except: A. Meningioma B. Acoustic neuroma C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Ependymoma 54 / 266 54. Jaw claudication is not characteristic of: A. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction D. Giant cell arteritis 55 / 266 55. Neurological feature of myxoedema may be: A. Hung-up knee jerk B. Restlessness C. Transverse myelitis D. Poliomyelitis 56 / 266 56. Optic neuritis may be produced by all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Leprosy C. Syphilis D. Ethambutol 57 / 266 57. Cerebral oedema induced by CVA should not be treated by: A. IV mannitol B. Dexamethasone C. IV frusemide D. Oral glycerol 58 / 266 58. Albumino-cytological dissociation is not a feature of: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Meningism D. Acoustic neurofibroma 59 / 266 59. 3-Hz spike-and-wave discharge in EEG during the seizure is diagnostic of: A. Infantile spasm B. Petit mal C. Complex partial D. Generalized tonic clonic 60 / 266 60. Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false? A. Bladder involvement is very late B. Absence of root pain C. Viral or post-vaccinal D. Definite upper level of sensory loss 61 / 266 61. The commonest cause of anisocoria is: A. Application of mydriatic to one eye B. Oculomotor palsy C. Horner's syndrome D. Hutchinson's pupil 62 / 266 62. Which is not true in Korsakoff’s syndrome? A. Presence of nystagmus B. Loss of recent memory C. Confabulation D. Associated with lacunar infarction 63 / 266 63. Astasia·abasia is known as: A. Muscle contraction in myotonia B. Dementia in AIDS C. Hysterical gait disorder D. Asthenia in motor neuron disease 64 / 266 64. Which is not a symptom of raised intracranial tension? A. Non-projectile vomiting B. Altered consciousness C. Headache D. Convulsions 65 / 266 65. Myotonia dystrophica has all of the following morphological features except: A. Frontal baldness B. Brachycephaly C. Testicular atrophy D. Ptosis 66 / 266 66. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Thoracic inlet syndrome 67 / 266 67. Right middle cerebral artery territory infarction usually does not feature: A. Facial weakness B. Coma C. Hemiparesis D. Aphasia 68 / 266 68. Bromocriptine is used in all of the following except: A. Galactorrhoea B. Acromegaly C. Parkinsonism D. Gynaecomastia 69 / 266 69. Anterior horn cell disease is: A. Progressive muscular atrophy B. Tabes dorsalis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Botulism 70 / 266 70. Eaton-Lambert syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. Weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of muscular contractions B. Proximal muscle weakness C. Wasting of muscles D. Absent tendon reflexes 71 / 266 71. Ptosis with a dilated pupil is observed in: A. Horner's syndrome B. Botulism C. Oculomotor palsy D. Myasthenia gravis 72 / 266 72. All of the following are sources of cerebral embolism except: A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis B. Tricuspid incompetence with occasional ectopic C. Left ventricular aneurysm D. Left atrial myxoma 73 / 266 73. Crossed hemiplegia indicates that the site of lesion is in: A. Cervical spine B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Brainstem 74 / 266 74. Regarding dermatomyositis, which one is false? A. Lilac colored knee and elbow is known as Gottron's sign B. Childhood disease is associated with vascular damage C. May be associated with malignancy D. Heliotrope rash over face is characteristic 75 / 266 75. Cerebral infarction can be detected earliest by: A. CT scan B. Diffusion-weighted MRI C. PET scan D. MRI scan 76 / 266 76. All of the following may produce papilloedema except: A. Malignant hypertension B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Hypoxia 77 / 266 77. The common sites of meningioma are alt except: A. Olfactory groove B. Over visual cortex C. Sylvian fissure D. Cerebello-pontine angle 78 / 266 78. ‘Organic brain syndrome’ may be produced by: A. Cephalosporins B. Quinolones C. Macrolides D. Aminoglycosides 79 / 266 79. Which of the following is not a feature of parkinsonism? A. Normal reflexes B. Rigidity C. Tremor D. Hyperkinesia 80 / 266 80. Slow virus CNS infections are all except: A. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy B. Leukodystrophy C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE) D. Tropical spastic paraplegia 81 / 266 81. Muscle sense is increased in all except: A. Polyneuropathy B. Myositis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Subacute combined degeneration 82 / 266 82. All are recognised side effects of lithium except: A. Onycholysis B. Ataxia C. Hypothyroidism D. Diarrhoea 83 / 266 83. Xanthopsia is found in: A. Digitalis toxicity B. Lesion in visual cortex C. Aura phase of migraine D. Cerebellar infarction 84 / 266 84. “‘Bull’s eye maculopathy’ is characteristic toxicity of: A. Ethambutol B. Probenecid C. Amiodarone D. Chloroquine 85 / 266 85. ‘Railroad track’ calcification in X-ray skull is found in: A. Ataxia-telangiectasia B. von Recklinghausen's disease C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge-Weber disease 86 / 266 86. Ptosis is absent in: A. Periodic paralysis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Myopathy of Duchenne type D. Botulism 87 / 266 87. In monoplegia, usually, the site of lesion lies in: A. Internal capsule B. Cortex C. Midbrain D. Pons 88 / 266 88. Perforating ulcer in the sole of foot is found in all except: A. Raynaud's disease B. Leprosy C. Tabes dorsalis D. Diabetic neuropathy 89 / 266 89. All of the following may cause peripheral neuropathy except: A. Vincristine B. INH C. Methotrexate D. Nitrofurantoin 90 / 266 90. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN palsy? A. Fasciculations B. Babinski's sign C. Clonus D. Spasticity 91 / 266 91. All of the following produces ‘cord compression’ except: A. Patchy arachnoiditis B. Spinal epidural abscess C. Neurofibroma D. Subacute combined degeneration 92 / 266 92. Neurological features of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Pseudoclonus B. Exaggerated deep reflex C. Distal muscle weakness D. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis 93 / 266 93. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is: A. Dysarthria B. Dysphonia C. Monotonous speech D. Aphasia 94 / 266 94. Tensilon test improves the muscle weakness in: A. Polymyositis B. Myopathy C. Motor neuron disease D. Myasthenia gravis 95 / 266 95. Waddling gait is seen in alt except: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Huge ascites C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Advanced pregnancy 96 / 266 96. Charcot (neuropathic) joint is a recognised complication of all except: A. Tabes dorsalis B. Friedreich's ataxia C. Syringomyelia D. Diabetes mellitus 97 / 266 97. Which of the following is false in cluster headache? A. Male dominance B. Periorbital pain C. Absence of hereditary predisposition D. Propranolol is effective in prophylaxis 98 / 266 98. Which of the following is not a test for cortical sensory function? A. Vibration sensation B. Perceptual rivalry C. Two-point localisation D. Graphesthesia 99 / 266 99. The drug most beneficial in enuresis of a 10-year-old boy is: A. Trimipramine B. Haloperidol C. Chlorpromazine D. Benzodiazepine 100 / 266 100. Argyll Robertson pupil is found in all except: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Pinealomas C. Cerebral haemorrhage D. Wernicke's encephalopathy 101 / 266 101. Todd’s palsy is characteristic of: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Head injury C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Epilepsy 102 / 266 102. A cataract is not characteristic of: A. Wilson's disease B. Haemochromatosis C. Galactosaemia D. Myotonic dystrophy 103 / 266 103. Which is not a recognized feature of cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysrhythmokinesis B. Hypertonia C. Hypermetria D. Titubation 104 / 266 104. Which is not parkinsonian plus syndrome? A. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus B. Huntington's chorea C. Punch-drunk syndrome D. Shy-Drager syndrome 105 / 266 105. Fear of relapse in cancer survivors is known as: A. Da Costa's syndrome B. Gillespie's syndrome C. Damocles syndrome D. Dandy-Walker syndrome 106 / 266 106. All are ‘Calpain’ -associated. diseases except: A. Cataract B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Alzheimer's disease 107 / 266 107. The commonest cause of unilateral foot drop is: A. Common peroneal nerve palsy B. Peroneal muscular atrophy C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Motor neuron disease 108 / 266 108. All of the following produce cerebellar degeneration except: A. Valproic acid B. Myxoedema C. Alcohol D. Bronchogenic carcinoma 109 / 266 109. Significant loss of vision in a hypertensive patient may be due to all except: A. Infarction of occipital lobe B. Papilledema C. Retinal hemorrhage D. Ischemic optic neuropathy 110 / 266 110. Abdominal reflex is usually retained in: A. Hysteria B. Lax abdominal wall C. Obesity D. Multiparous woman 111 / 266 111. Dementia pugilistica develops as a result of: A. 'Normal-pressure' hydrocephalus B. Huntington's disease C. Head trauma in professional boxers D. Alzheimer's disease 112 / 266 112. In lathyrism.. the toxin responsible for the development of neuroparalysis is: A. Thiocyanates B. Beta oxalyl amino alanine C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids D. Aflatoxin 113 / 266 113. Oculomotor nerve palsy with a spared pupil is classically seen in: A. Brain tumor B. Diabetes mellitus C. Multiple sclerosis D. Tuberculous meningitis 114 / 266 114. Neck rigidity may be absent in the presence of: A. Hyperpyrexia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Deep coma 115 / 266 115. Characteristics of “rigidity’ are all except: A. Increased deep reflexes B. Uniform affection of flexors and extensors C. Flexor plantar response D. Indicates disorder of extrapyramidal tract 116 / 266 116. Which of the following is not included within ‘motor functions’? A. Involuntary movements B. Stereognosis C. Tone and power D. Nutrition of muscles 117 / 266 117. Trismus is seen in all of the following except: A. Quinsy B. Tetanus C. Hydrophidae group of snake bite D. Diphtheria 118 / 266 118. Which of the following is false in polymyositis? A. Wasting of small muscles of the hand is characteristic B. Myoglobinuria may be associated with C. Has a good prognosis in children D. A component of mixed connective tissue disease 119 / 266 119. Pseudobulbar palsy is not associated with: A. Extensor plantar response B. Emotional incontinence C. Flaccid dysarthria D. Masked facies 120 / 266 120. Amantadine does not produce: A. Seizures B. Fatty liver C. Ankle oedema D. Livedo reticularis 121 / 266 121. The root value of ‘Plantar response’ is: A. L5,S1 B. S1,S2 C. S1 D. L5 122 / 266 122. Chorea may develop from the consumption of: A. Pindolol B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Ursodeoxycholic acid D. Reserpine 123 / 266 123. In cerebral malaria, which of the following should not be given? A. IV mannitol B. 5% dextrose C. Glucocorticoids D. IV quinine 124 / 266 124. Which is not included under ‘craniovertebral anomaly’? A. Dolichocephaly B. Klippel-Feil anomaly C. Atlantoaxial dislocation D. Platybasia 125 / 266 125. Sarcoidosis commonly involves the cranial nerve: A. Vllth B. Vth C. Xth D. IIIrd 126 / 266 126. Which of the following does not produce thickened peripheral nerves? A. Alcoholic polyneuropathy B. Leprosy C. Chronic Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Refsum's disease 127 / 266 127. Maligant hyperthermia may be produced by all except: A. Dantrolene B. Halothane C. Succinylcholine D. Methoxyflurane 128 / 266 128. Inversion of supinator jerk indicates the lesion at: A. C3, 4 B. C5, 6 C. C6, 7 D. C4, 5 129 / 266 129. Oppenheim’s gait is characteristic of: A. Duchenne myopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Hysteria 130 / 266 130. Prophylaxis of migraine may be done by: A. Sumatriptan B. Verapamil C. Atenolol D. Phenytoin 131 / 266 131. Limb-girdle type myopathy inherits the disease as: A. Autosomal recessive B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal dominant D. X-linked dominant 132 / 266 132. Xenophobia is the fear of: A. Strangers B. Pain C. High places D. Animals 133 / 266 133. Drug-induced myopathy may result from all except: A. Zidovudine B. Emetine C. Febuxostat D. Lovastatin 134 / 266 134. Which of the following does not produce pure motor paraplegia? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Lathyrism C. Acute transverse myelitis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 135 / 266 135. The lobe of the brain primarily affected in herpes simplex encephalitis is: A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Temporal 136 / 266 136. Atrophy in Duchenne myopathy is classically seen in: A. Pectoralis major B. Calf muscles C. Deltoid D. Infraspinatus 137 / 266 137. EEG findings showing slow waves, spikes and ‘burst suppression’ are characteristic of: A. Myoclonic seizures B. Tonic seizures C. Absence seizures D. Infantile spasm 138 / 266 138. Titubation is classically seen in: A. Aortic incompetence B. Cerebellar disorder C. Drug-induced dyskinesia D. Parkinsonism 139 / 266 139. Which of the following is not included in the triad of tuberous sclerosis? A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Mental retardation C. Phakomatosis D. Seizures 140 / 266 140. Which of the following occurs earliest in diphtheritic neuropathy? A. Paralysis of soft palate B. Loss of accommodation C. Abducens palsy D. Polyneuropathy 141 / 266 141. Which of the following is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome? A. Repeated efforts increase muscle strength B. Ocular muscles are commonly involved C. Deep reflexes are depressed D. Guanidine hydrochloride is the treatment of choice 142 / 266 142. Phenytoin toxicity may result in all except: A. Pendular nystagmus B. Pseudolymphoma C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Cerebellar syndrome 143 / 266 143. Xanthochromia is not a feature of: A. Recent intracerebral hemorrhage B. Froin's loculation syndrome C. Deep Jaundice D. Old subarachnoid haemorrhage 144 / 266 144. The commonest intracranial tumour is: A. Astrocytoma B. Glioblastoma C. Metastatic D. Meningioma 145 / 266 145. Which of the following produces wrist drop? A. Radial nerve palsy B. Syringomyelia C. Poliomyelitis D. Carpal tunnel syndrome 146 / 266 146. Thrombosis of left middle cerebral artery may give rise to: A. Diplopia B. Right homonymous hemianopia C. Paralysis of conjugate gaze towards left D. Hemiplegia of the right side where affection of leg is more than arm 147 / 266 147. The earliest skin lesion in tuberous sclerosis is: A. Adenoma sebaceum B. Shagreen patch C. White spots over trunk and limbs D. Pompholyx 148 / 266 148. Myxoedema coma is not associated with: A. Hypocapnia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypoxia D. Hypotension 149 / 266 149. Hiccough occurs in all of the following except: A. Diaphragmatic pleurisy B. Oesophagitis C. Acute renal failure D. Wallenberg's syndrome 150 / 266 150. In the setting of puerperium, which of the following is most common in producing neuro deficit? A. Venous sinus thrombosis B. Cerebral embolism C. Puerperal sepsis D. Accelerated atherosclerosis 151 / 266 151. Which is abnormal regarding normal CSF findings? A. Protein content 20-40 mg% B. Chloride content 720-750 mg% C. Sugar content 40-80 mg% D. Pressure 60-150 mm of CSF in sitting position 152 / 266 152. Regarding subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), all are true except: A. MRI shows multifocal white matter lesion B. CSF anti-mumps antibody level is high C. Isoprinosine is the drug of choice D. Affects at 5-15 yrs age 153 / 266 153. Horner’s syndrome manifests as: A. Anhidrosis + mydriasis B. Partial ptosis + miosis C. Complete ptosis + miosis D. Hydrosis + miosis 154 / 266 154. All of the following may develop into endocrine myopathy except: A. Hyperthyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hypothyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus 155 / 266 155. Weber’s syndrome is crossed hemiplegia with the involvement of: A. Oculomotor nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Facial nerve 156 / 266 156. The drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive psychosis is: A. Lithium B. Clomipramine C. Haloperidol D. Carbamazepine 157 / 266 157. The presence of acanthocytosis of RBC, retinitis pigmentosa and ataxia is suggestive of: A. Abetalipoproteinaemia B. Gaucher's disease C. Mucopolysaccharidoses D. Swiss type agammaglobulinaemia 158 / 266 158. Abdominal reflex is lost early in: A. Parkinsonism B. Multiple sclerosis C. Motor neuron disease D. Cerebral diplegia 159 / 266 159. Carotid artery stenosis gives rise to: A. lpsilateral hemiplegia B. Transient ipsilateral monocular blindness C. Diplopia D. Drop attacks 160 / 266 160. Babinski’s sign is not found in: A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Marathon runner C. Hypoglycaemic coma D. Peripheral neuropathy 161 / 266 161. Fine tremor is found in: A. Cerebellar disorder B. Wilson's disease C. Alcoholism D. Parkinsonism 162 / 266 162. The oculogyric crisis is found in all except: A. Metoclopramide-induced B. Millard-Gubler syndrome C. Post-encephalitic parkinsonism D. Petit mal epilepsy 163 / 266 163. Narcolepsy is not associated with: A. Cataplexy B. Sleep paralysis C. Hypnagogic hallucination D. Epilepsy 164 / 266 164. All of the following may develop into chorea except: A. Wilson's disease B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Rheumatic fever D. Hyponatraemia 165 / 266 165. Which organism commonly produces meningitis in an adolescent? A. Pneumococcus B. H. influenzae C. E. coli D. Meningococcous 166 / 266 166. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is commonly due to: A. Myasthenia Gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Ocular myopathy D. Diabetes mellitus 167 / 266 167. Which of the following is false regarding etiology of benign intracranial hypertension? A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Hypervitaminosis D C. Corticosteroid withdrawal D. Addison's disease 168 / 266 168. Proximal muscle weakness is not produced by: A. Diabetic amyotrophy B. Polymyositis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Leprosy 169 / 266 169. Pendular nystagmus is found in: A. Phenytoin toxicity B. Pontine glioma C. Amblyopia D. Cerebellar disorder 170 / 266 170. All of the following are antiepileptic drugs except: A. Felbamate B. Lubeluzole C. Vigabatrin D. Lamotrigine 171 / 266 171. The commonest cause of aphasia is: A. Hysteria B. Cerebral haemorrhage C. Cerebral infarction D. Brain tumor 172 / 266 172. Therapeutic range of phenytoin is: A. 5-10 μg/ml B. 30-40 μg/ml C. 10-20 μg/ml D. 20-30 μg/ml 173 / 266 173. CSF is absorbed by arachnoid villi which are mainly present in: A. Transverse sinus B. Fourth ventricle C. Inferior sagittal sinus D. Superior sagittal sinus 174 / 266 174. Brushfield’s spots in iris are seen in: A. Down's syndrome B. Noonan's syndrome C. Klinefelter's syndrome D. Turner's syndrome 175 / 266 175. Which of the following is not a feature of ‘stage of neural shock’ in hemiplegia? A. Retention of urine B. Absent deep reflexes C. Hypertonia D. Coma 176 / 266 176. Korsakoff’s psychosis does not have the feature like: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Confabulation C. Defect in learning D. Loss of immediate recall 177 / 266 177. Neck rigidity is not found in: A. After epileptic seizure B. Meningism C. Tetanus D. Hysteria 178 / 266 178. Pronator sign, lizard tongue and hung-up deep reflex are found in: A. Hemiballismus B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Myoclonus 179 / 266 179. Serum creatine kinase (CK) level is not raised in: A. Hypothyroid myopathy B. Hyperthyroid myopathy C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Dermatomyositis 180 / 266 180. Which is not characteristic of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)? A. Hiccups B. Horner's syndrome C. Ataxia D. Pyramidal lesion 181 / 266 181. The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is: A. Mamillary bodies B. Corpus striatum C. Temporal lobe D. Frontal lobe 182 / 266 182. Sensory involvement is not found in: A. Encephalitis B. Myopathy C. Myelopathy D. Neuropathy 183 / 266 183. The best drug for photosensitive epilepsy is: A. Ethosuximide B. Diazepam C. Topiramate D. Valproate 184 / 266 184. Refsum’s disease is associated with all except: A. Deafness B. Acanthocytosis of RBC C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Tissue accumulation of phytanic acid 185 / 266 185. Dilator pupillae is supplied by: A. Optic nerve B. Cholinergic fibres of oculomotor nerve C. Trochlear nerve D. Adrenergic fibres of oculomotor nerve 186 / 266 186. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results from: A. Malignant exophthalmos B. III, IV, Vlth nerve palsy C. Ocular myopathy D. Lesion in medial longitudinal bundle 187 / 266 187. In trochlear nerve palsy, the patient complains of diplopia while: A. Looking in front B. Reading a book C. Looking to the roof D. Looking sideways by the affected eye 188 / 266 188. Which one is not a primitive reflex? A. Anal reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Grasp reflex D. Snout reflex 189 / 266 189. Cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy does not include: A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Myopathy D. Leprosy 190 / 266 190. All are features of pontine haemorrhage except: A. Hypothermia B. Paralysis C. Pin-point pupil D. Disconjugate gaze 191 / 266 191. Pseudobulbar palsy will have all except: A. Small, spastic tongue B. Brisk jaw jerk C. Babinski's sign D. Sudden onset 192 / 266 192. Monoplegia is due to lesions in: A. Thalamus B. Brainstem C. Cerebral cortex D. Internal capsule 193 / 266 193. Which of the following does not fit in ‘Ramsay Hunt’ syndrome? A. LMN type of Vllth nerve palsy B. Diminished auditory acuity C. Herpetic rash on tympanic membrane D. Loss of taste sensation of anterior tw0-thirds of tongue 194 / 266 194. Which of the following does not produce fasciculation? A. Hereditary spastic paraplegia B. Chronic motor neuron disease C. Recovery phase of poliomyelitis D. Organophosphorus poisoning 195 / 266 195. Which of the following is false regarding migraine? A. Hemicranial headache B. Common in women C. Hereditary predisposition D. Common migraine has aura 196 / 266 196. “Locked-in syndrome’ occurs in lesions of: A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Cortex D. Ventral pons 197 / 266 197. Which of the following is false in Gerstmann’s syndrome? A. Aphasia B. Lesion in dominant parietal lobe C. Acalculia D. Agraphia 198 / 266 198. Dermatoglyphics with obtuse ATD angle is characteristic of: A. Turner's syndrome B. Klinefelter's syndrome C. Down's syndrome D. Noonan's syndrome 199 / 266 199. Collet-Siccard syndrome affects the following cranial nerves: A. 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th B. 7th, 8th, 10th, 11th C. 7th, 8th, 9th, 10th D. 7th, 10th, 11th, 12th 200 / 266 200. Which is not a PRION disease? A. Gerstmann-straussler-Scheinker syndrome B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C. Kuru D. Rubella panencephalitis 201 / 266 201. Atypical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: A. Convulsions B. SIADH C. Optic neuritis D. Pseudobulbar palsy 202 / 266 202. The most common psychological disorder in myxoedema is: A. Phobia B. Paranoia C. Depression D. Mania 203 / 266 203. ‘Candle gutterings’ on the walls of the ventricles are seen in CT scan in: A. Alzheimer's disease B. Cerebral palsy C. Tuberous sclerosis D. Leucodystrophy 204 / 266 204. Posterior column lesion will have: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Increased tone C. Sensory ataxia D. Intact proprioception 205 / 266 205. Bromocriptine is not useful in the treatment of: A. Infertility B. Parkinsonism C. Alzheimer's disease D. Acromegaly 206 / 266 206. Uncinate fits are characteristically seen in tumours of: A. Occipital lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe 207 / 266 207. All of the following may produce syncope except: A. Tight aortic stenosis B. Stokes-Adams syndrome C. Arrhythmia D. Cardiac tamponade 208 / 266 208. Migraine is not associated with: A. Dysphasia B. Paraesthesia C. Diplopia D. Seizures 209 / 266 209. The commonest cause of convulsion in a child (2-12 yrs) is: A. Encephalitis B. Febrile C. Trauma D. Epilepsy 210 / 266 210. Meralgia paraesthetica is characterised by all except: A. Seen in tall, thin people B. May occur spontaneously C. A peculiar numb, tingling sensation in upper lateral thigh D. Quite often remits spontaneously 211 / 266 211. The commonest intracranial tumour in children is: A. Meningioma B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Metastatic carcinoma D. Medulloblastoma 212 / 266 212. Horner’s syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Enophthalmos B. Anhidrosis C. Complete ptosis D. Constricted pupil 213 / 266 213. Ocular bobbing is often diagnostic of bilateral damage of: A. Internal capsule B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Cerebral cortex 214 / 266 214. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all except: A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Autonomic response D. Eye opening 215 / 266 215. Spastic paraplegia is not produced by: A. Cord compression B. Acute transverse myelitis C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Lathyrism 216 / 266 216. All of the following are recognised lithium toxicity except: A. Ataxia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Hypothyroidism D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 217 / 266 217. Main d’ accoucheur is seen in: A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkaliemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypocalcemia 218 / 266 218. Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Trisomy-13 B. Trisomy-18 C. Turner's syndrome D. Trisomy-21 219 / 266 219. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) are all except: A. Fluoxetine B. Fluvoxamine C. Sertraline D. Paroxetine 220 / 266 220. ‘India ink preparation’ in CSF helps in the diagnosis of: A. Herpes simplex virus meningitis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis D. Coxsackie virus meningitis 221 / 266 221. Which group of muscles are almost never affected in polymyositis? A. Pharyngeal muscles B. Ocular muscles C. Anterior neck muscles D. Proximal limb muscles 222 / 266 222. Patient with Down’s syndrome may be complicated by all except: A. Polymyositis B. Duodenal stenosis C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Early Alzheimer's disease 223 / 266 223. All are true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except: A. Biochemically cortical' choline acetyltransferase is increased B. Aluminium silicate is found in neuritic plaques C. Donazepril is used in treatment D. Microscopically 'neurofibrillary tangles' are found 224 / 266 224. Acoustic neuroma most likely leads to paralysis of: A. VIIth cranial nerve B. VIth cranial nerve C. IVth cranial nerve D. Xth cranial nerve 225 / 266 225. All of the following produce mono neuritis multiplex except: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Sarcoidosis 226 / 266 226. Heerfordt’s syndrome is uveo-parotid fever with cranial nerve palsy, and is seen in: A. Leprosy B. Sarcoidosis C. Mikulicz's syndrome D. Tuberculosis 227 / 266 227. Miosis is found in all except: A. Myotonic pupil B. Application of pilocarpine drops C. Organophosphorus poisoning D. Old age 228 / 266 228. Lhermitte’s sign is not found in: A. Syringomyelia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Cervical spondylosis D. Motor neuron disease 229 / 266 229. The presence of Babinski’s sign with loss of ankle jerk is found in all except: A. Friedreich' s ataxia B. Subacute combined degeneration C. Taboparesis D. Hepatic precoma 230 / 266 230. Carbamazepine is used in all of the following except: A. Mania B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Schizophrenia D. Alcohol withdrawal 231 / 266 231. Ptosis associated with diplopia and diminished movement of eyeball is due to: A. Elapidae snake bite B. Oculomotor palsy C. Myasthenia gravis D. Periodic paralysis 232 / 266 232. Brain tumour disseminating through CSF is: A. Glioma B. Cerebral lymphoma C. Ependymoma D. Pinealomas 233 / 266 233. ‘On-off phenomenon’ is precipitated by: A. Selegiline B. Levodopa C. Amantadine D. Trihexyphenidyl 234 / 266 234. Lithium is not used in: A. Mania B. SIADH C. Cluster headache D. Polycythaemia vera 235 / 266 235. Hypersomnolence is found in all except: A. Subdural hematoma B. Pickwickian syndrome C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Trypanosomiasis 236 / 266 236. Wrist drop is commonly seen in neuropathy induced by: A. Vincristine B. Arsenic C. Lead D. Alcohol 237 / 266 237. Which is not a manifestation of normal pressure hydrocephalus? A. Ataxia B. Urinary incontinence C. Normal intellectual activity D. Dementia 238 / 266 238. True hypertrophy of muscles is found in all except: A. Myotonia B. Athletes C. Duchenne type muscular dystrophy D. Manual labourers 239 / 266 239. The dermatome at the nipple is: A. C8 B. T1 C. T4 D. T2 240 / 266 240. Commonest cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is: A. Cerebral hemorrhage B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Cerebral embolism D. Cerebral thrombosis 241 / 266 241. Nimodipine used in subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Hastens absorption of blood from CSF B. Prevents rebleeding C. Prevents vasospasm D. Prevents excruciating nuchal headache 242 / 266 242. Which of the following remains normal in leprosy? A. Proprioception B. Sensory functions C. EMG D. Cerebellar functions 243 / 266 243. Hypertonia is a feature of all except: A. Tetany B. Chorea C. Myotonia D. Athetosis 244 / 266 244. Multiple sclerosis is not associated with: A. Papilloedema B. Aphasia C. Nystagmus D. Temporal pallor of optic disc 245 / 266 245. Unilateral ptosis is characteristic of all except: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Cluster headache C. Syringobulbia D. Bell's palsy 246 / 266 246. A patient with a history of diplopia, dysarthria, dizziness and ataxia suddenly becomes unconscious. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Basilar artery thrombosis B. Carotid artery occlusion C. Basal ganglia infarction D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 247 / 266 247. All of the following produce meningism except: A. Cerebral malaria B. Enteric fever C. Atypical pneumonia D. Weil's disease 248 / 266 248. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: A. Cerebellar infarction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Eaton-Lambert syndrome D. Epilepsy 249 / 266 249. Muscle pain is not characteristic of: A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Steroid myopathy D. McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency) 250 / 266 250. Which drug is not used in parkinsonism? A. Pramipexole B. Tiagabine C. Rasagiline D. Ropinirole 251 / 266 251. Which of the following does not produce phakomatosis? A. Weber-Christian disease B. Tuberous sclerosis C. van Hippel-Lindau syndrome D. Sturge-Weber disease 252 / 266 252. The reversible cause of dementia is: A. Multi-infarct dementia B. Alzheimer's disease C. Post-encephalitic D. Huntington's chorea 253 / 266 253. Which of the following is not a part of Miller-Fisher syndrome? A. Apraxia B. Ataxia C. External ophthalmoplegia D. Areflexia 254 / 266 254. Familial periodic paralysis may be seen in all except: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Normokalaemia D. Hypercalcemia 255 / 266 255. Corneal reflex tests the integrity of: A. Trochlear nerve B. Optic nerv C. Facial nerve D. Trigeminal nerve 256 / 266 256. Congenital abnormality produced by lithium therapy is: A. Anencephaly B. Heart valve abnormalities C. Mental retardation D. Limb shortening 257 / 266 257. The commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: A. Blindness B. Focal neuro deficit C. Radioculomyelopathy D. Convulsions 258 / 266 258. Apneustic breathing is seen in lesion of: A. Lower pons B. Upper pons C. Midbrain D. Medulla 259 / 266 259. Reversible ischaemic neurological deficit (RIND) usually recovers within: A. 3 weeks B. 96 hours C. 2 weeks D. 24 hours 260 / 266 260. Flapping tremor is not found in: A. Severe heart failure B. Hepatocellular failure C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Hypnotic poisoning 261 / 266 261. The commonest cause of abducent nerve palsy is: A. Brain tumour B. Diabetes mellitus C. Raised intracranial pressure D. Gradenigo's syndrome 262 / 266 262. Froin’s loculation syndrome does not have: A. Increased CSF pressure B. Positive Queckenstedt's test C. High protein content D. Xanthochromia 263 / 266 263. Characteristic of LMN lesion is: A. Brisk deep reflexes B. Equivocal plantar response C. Absent superficial reflex D. Weakness and spasticity 264 / 266 264. Which of the following does not produce wasting of small muscles of hands? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Cervical rib D. Myopathy 265 / 266 265. ‘Hippus’ is: A. Spontaneous phasic constriction and dilatation of pupil B. Unequal pupil C. Abnormal neurological movement disorder D. Synonymous with pin-point pupil 266 / 266 266. Cherry red spot in fundoscopy is characteristic of all except: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Central retinal artery occlusion C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Tay-Sachs disease LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Hematology Next Post Gastroenterology