Rheumatology Home Internal Medicine 0% 14 votes, 0 avg 48 Rheumatology Welcome to Rheumatology Quiz. There are 50 shot-stemmed, single-best type Rheumatology questions. To get a complete quiz link for free, contact us. 1 / 50 1. Lupus nephritis is treated by all except: A. Interferon B. Azathioprine C. Glucocorticoids D. Cyclophosphamide 2 / 50 2. Still’s disease is classically associated with all except: A. Negative Rose-Waaler test B. Maculopapular rash C. Involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints D. Sacroiliitis 3 / 50 3. TNF-antagonist used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Salphasalazine B. Leflunomide C. Etanercept D. Azathioprine 4 / 50 4. Rheumatoid factor in SLE is positive in: A. 50% cases B. 20% cases C. 35% cases D. 70% cases 5 / 50 5. Paget’s disease is not manifested by: A. Angioid streaks in retina B. Spontaneous fracture C. High-output cardiac failure D. Coldness of the extremities 6 / 50 6. Kawasaki disease is associated with: A. Pleural effusion B. Hemiplegia C. Renal failure D. Coronary artery aneurysm 7 / 50 7. Clutton’s joint is characteristic of: A. Congenital syphilis B. Tabes dorsalis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Chondrocalcinosis 8 / 50 8. Hyperostosis is seen in all except: A. Paget's disease B. Hyperthyroidism C. Primary hyperparathyroidism D. Acromegaly 9 / 50 9. All are characteristic features of DLE except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Heals with scarring C. Photosensitivity D. Telangiectasia 10 / 50 10. Felty’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Lymphadenopathy B. Age of onset 20-25 yrs C. Vasculitis D. Thrombocytopenia 11 / 50 11. Osteosclerosis of the spine may be seen in all except: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Osteopetrosis C. Osteomalacia D. Fluorosis 12 / 50 12. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra B. Benzbromarone C. Pegloticase D. Olmesartan 13 / 50 13. Which of the following is recognised extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis? A. Mitral stenosis B. Pericarditis C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Acute pulmonary fibrosis 14 / 50 14. Which bacterium is not associated with reactive arthritis? A. Staphylococcus B. Campylobacter C. Shigella D. Chlamydia 15 / 50 15. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Mixed connective tissue disease D. Scleroderma 16 / 50 16. Mask-like face is seen in all except: A. Parkinsonism B. Myotonic dystrophy C. Depression D. Scleroderma 17 / 50 17. Hydroxychloroquine toxicity does not produce: A. Corneal deposits B. Maculopathy C. Cataract D. Optic atrophy 18 / 50 18. Which of the following is commonly involved in Paget’s disease? A. Pelvis B. Phalanges C. Skull D. Long bones of extremities 19 / 50 19. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a combination of SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis and __? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Sjogren's syndrome C. Polymyositis D. Osteoarthritis 20 / 50 20. HLA-B27 tissue typing is not associated with: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Psoriatic arthropathy C. Behcet's syndrome D. Ankylosing spondylitis 21 / 50 21. Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly associated with histocompatibility antigen? A. DR4 B. B 27 C. B8 D. DR3 22 / 50 22. ANF is not found in SLE when there is: A. Overlap syndrome B. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody C. Presence of lupus anticoagulant D. Chronic renal failure 23 / 50 23. Which is not used to treat acute gouty arthritis? A. Allopurinol B. Celecoxib C. Prednisolone D. Colchicine 24 / 50 24. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is beneficial in the treatment of: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Vasculitis C. Hepatorenal syndrome D. Bronchial asthma 25 / 50 25. Behcet’s syndrome is not associated with: A. Urethritis B. Thrombophlebitis C. Genital ulceration D. Meningoencephalitis 26 / 50 26. Which is a recognised pulmonary complication of SLE? A. Pneumoconiosis B. Caplan's syndrome C. Shrinking lung syndrome D. Hidebound chest syndrome 27 / 50 27. Nodal osteoarthritis is common in: A. Hypertension B. Gout C. Diabetes mellitus D. Middle-aged females 28 / 50 28. All are true regarding causes of Dupuytren’s contracture except: A. Alcoholic cirrhosis B. Progressive systemic sclerosis C. Working with vibrating tools D. Phenytoin therapy in epileptics 29 / 50 29. Extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis are commonly associated with: A. Delayed age of onset B. Females C. Low C3 D. High-titre rheumatoid factor 30 / 50 30. Sjogren’s syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Bronchial asthma B. SLE C. Myasthenia gravis D. Primary biliary cirrhosis 31 / 50 31. Polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid in gout shows: A. Negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals B. Positively birefringent calcium urate crystals C. Positively birefringent monosodium urate crystals D. Negatively birefringent calcium urate crystals 32 / 50 32. All are extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis except: A. Fibrosing alveolitis B. Pericarditis C. ulcerative colitis D. Mononeuritis multiplex 33 / 50 33. Polyarthritis is the affection of more than: A. 4 joints B. 2 joints C. 3 joints D. 1 joint 34 / 50 34. The commonest organism involved in osteomyelitis is: A. Salmonella B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Group A beta-haemolytic streptococci D. Staphylococcus aureus 35 / 50 35. Raynaud’s phenomenon is not a feature of: A. Hyperviscosity syndrome B. Coarctation of aorta C. Ergot ingestion D. Dermatomyositis 36 / 50 36. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti-histone antibody B. Anti-Jo1 antibody C. Anti-centromere antibody D. Anti-RNP antibody 37 / 50 37. Jaccoud’s arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Reiter's syndrome B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Sarcoidosis D. Rheumatic fever 38 / 50 38. Colchicine may be used in all except: A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. Myelofibrosis C. Scleroderma D. Polymyositis 39 / 50 39. Anti-RNP antibody is diagnostic of: A. Polymyositis B. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome C. Drug-induced SLE D. MCTD (Sharp's syndrome) 40 / 50 40. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Bromocriptine B. Amantadine C. Amiodarone D. Finasteride 41 / 50 41. Raynaud’s phenomenon may be treated by: A. Methysergide B. Dimethyl sulfoxide C. Propranolol D. Naftidrofuryl 42 / 50 42. Pseudogout (chondrocalcinosis) is associated with the deposition of crystals of: A. Calcium phosphate B. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate C. Monosodium urate D. Calcium oxalate 43 / 50 43. The most effective prophylaxis adopted in gout by: A. Probenecid B. Allopurinol C. Cochicine D. Benzbromarone 44 / 50 44. Myopathy may develop from all except: A. Corticosteroid B. Amphotericin B C. Statins D. Glutethimide 45 / 50 45. Osteomalacia may be produced by therapy with all except: A. Glucocorticoids B. Ketoconazole C. Isoniazid D. Phenytoin 46 / 50 46. A 20-year woman has repeated attacks of myalgia, non-deforming arthralgia, pericarditis and pleural effusion for two years. The laboratory screening test should be: A. Antinuclear antibodies B. Rheumatoid factor C. CD4 lymphocyte count D. ASO titre 47 / 50 47. Which of the following is not associated with active SLE? A. High serum level of ANA B. High serum level of anti-dsDNA C. High serum level of C-reactive protein D. Low serum level of complement 48 / 50 48. Drug-induced SLE is not commonly associated with: A. Polyserositis B. Polyarthritis C. Pulmonary infiltrates D. Renal involvement 49 / 50 49. Hyperostosis may be a complication of systemic therapy with: A. Sodium fluoride B. Alendronate C. Calcipotriol D. Retinoids 50 / 50 50. Which of the following is not a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A. Hydroxychloroquine B. Leflunomide C. Sulphasalazine D. Naproxen LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Visit our FB page Restart Quiz Send Feedback Previous Post Gastroenterology Next Post ECG Quiz